Author name: Prasanna

Detailed, Step-by-Step NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Human Settlements Questions and Answers were solved by Expert Teachers as per NCERT (CBSE) Book guidelines covering each topic in chapter to ensure complete preparation. https://mcq-questions.com/ncert-solutions-for-class-12-geography-chapter-4-part-b/

Human Settlements NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 4

Human Settlements Questions and Answers Class 12 Geography Chapter 4

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Choose the right answers of the following from the given options :
(i) Which one of the following towns is not situated along the bank of a river ?
(A) Agra
(B) Bhopal
(C) Patna
(D) Kolkata.
Answer:
(B) Bhopal.

(ii) Which one of the following is NOT the part of the definition of a town as per the census of India ?
(A) Population density of 400 persons per sq km.
(B) Presence of municipality, corporation, etc.
(C) More than 75% of the population engaged in primary sector.
(D) Population size of more than 5,000 persons.
Answer:
(C) More than 75% of the population engaged in primary sector.

(iii) In which one of the following environ¬ments does one expect the presence of dispersed rural settlements ?
(A) Alluvial plains of Ganga.
(B) Arid and semi-arid regions of Rajasthan.
(C) Lower valleys of Himalays.
(D) Forests and hills in north-east.
Answer:
(A) Alluvial plains of Ganga.

(iv) Which one of the following group of cities have been arranged in the sequence of their ranks i.e. 1, 2, 3 and 4 in size ?
(A) Greater Mumbai, Bengaluru, Kolkata, Chennai
(B) Delhi, Greater Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata.
(C) Kolkata, Greater Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata.
(D) Greater Mumbai, Kolkata, Delhi, Chennai.
Answer:
(D) Greater Mumbai, Kolkata, Delhi, Chennai.

Question 2.
Answer the following questions in about 30 words :

Name any two garrison (cantonment) towns of India, (C.B.S.E. 2017 Outside Delhi Set-I)
Or
(i) What are Garrison towns ? What is their function ?
Answer:
Garrison (Cantonment) towns. These towns are engaged as Garrison towns such as Ambala, Jalandhar, Mhow, Babina, Udhampur, etc. The soldiers are trained in these towns. Barracks are built for the soldiers to reside.

(ii) How can one identify an Urban Agglomeration ?
Answer:
An Urban Agglomeration may consist of the town and its adjoining urban growth. It shows the contiguous growth of a town due to one or two adjoining towns.

(iii) What are the main factors for the location of villages in deserts ?
Answer:
In deserts, there is shortage of water. So villages are settled near water bodies. From social point of view, the land-owners occupy the central part of the village while lower sections of the society live on the outer flank of villages.

(iv) What are metropolitan cities ? How are they different from Urban Agglomeration ?
Answer:
A town with a population between one to five millions is called a metropolitan city. An agglo-meration has many metropolitan cities and it has a population of more than five millions.

Question 3.
Answer the following questions in about 150 words:

(i) Discuss the features of different types of rural settlements. What are the factors responsible for the settlement patterns in different physical environments ? (C.B.S.E. 2011,2013)
Or
Distinguish between clustered and semiclustered rural settlements of India, stating three points of distinction. (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2017 Set-11)
Answer:
Rural settlements in India can be classified into four types.

• Clustered
• Semi-clustered
• Hamleted
• Dispersed.

The different types have the following features :—
(i) Clustered settlements. This is a cluster of compact houses. The general living area is separated from farming area. These settlements are rectangular, radial and linear in shape.

(ii) Semi-clustered settlements. These are found in restricted areas. These result from fragmentation of a large compact village. Generally, land-owners occupy the central part of the village and people of lower section live at the outer flanks of village.

(iii) Hamleted settlements. When a village is fragmented on social and ethnic factors, the settlement is divided into many units called Panna, Para, Palli, Nagla and Dhani.

(iv) Dispersed settlements. Isolated settlements are called dispersed settlements. These are found in forests on hill slopes and fragmented fields.

Factors affecting patterns of rural settlements

• Nature of terrain
• Altitude
• Climate
• Availability of water.

(ii) Can we imagine the presence of only one function town ? Why do the cities become multi-functional ?
Answer:
Towns are centres or nodes of economic development. Here site for residence is available. Towns provide specialized services. But the town is known for a specialised function such as education, mining, etc. But towns perform many functions at a same time. Therefore, we cannot imagine the presence of only one functional town.

Each town has to perform many functions. People are provided different types of services. So each town has different functions. Different functions are performed in different sectors of the town. The central part is a commercial or business centre. So the towns become multi-functional.

Detailed, Step-by-Step NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 9 International Trade Questions and Answers were solved by Expert Teachers as per NCERT (CBSE) Book guidelines covering each topic in chapter to ensure complete preparation. https://mcq-questions.com/ncert-solutions-for-class-12-geography-chapter-9-part-a/

 International Trade NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 9

 International Trade Questions and Answers Class 12 Geography Chapter 9

Multiple Choice Questions
Question 1.
Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below.
(i) Most of the world’s great ports are classified as :
(A) Naval Ports
(B) Oil Ports
(C) Comprehensive Ports
(D) Industrial Ports.
Answer:
(C) Comprehensive Ports.

(ii) Which one of the following continents has the maximum flow of global trade ?
(A) Asia
(B) North America
(C) Europe
(D) Africa.
Answer:
(B) North America.

(iii) Which one of the following South American nation is a part of OPEC ?
(A) Brazil
(B) Chile
(C) Venezuela
(D) Peru.
Answer:
(C) Venezuela.

(iv) In which of the following trade blocks, is India an associate member ?
(A) SAFTA
(B) QECD
(C) ASEAN
(D) OPEC.
Answer:
(A) ASEAN.

Question 2.
Answer the following questions in about 30 words :
(i) What is the basic function of the World Trade Organisation ? (C.B.S.E. 2013)
Or
Examine the functions of the World Trade Organisation (WTO). (C.B.S.E. 2016)
Answer:
GATT was transformed into the World Trade Organisation from 1st January 1995.
Its basic functions are :

• To deal with the global rules of trade between nations.
• It resolves the disputes between its member nations.
• Its function is to liberalise the world from high custom tariffs and various other types of restrictions.

(ii) Why is it detrimental for a nation to have a negative balance of payments ?
Answer:
A negative balance of payments means that the country spends more on buying goods than it can earn by selling its goods. This would ultimately lead to exhaustion of its financial reserves.

(iii) What benefits do nations get by forming trading blocks ?
Answer:Regional trade blocks encourage trade between countries with geographical proximity, similarity and complementarities in trading items. It curbs restrictions on trade of the developing world. It encourages inter-regional trade.

Question 3.
Answer the following questions in not more than 150 words :
(i) How are ports helpful for trade ?
Give a classification of ports on the basis of their location. (Sample Paper 2017-18)
Answer:
Benefits of Ports
(a) The chief doorways of the world of international trade are its harbours and ports. Cargoes and travellers pass from one part of the world to the another through these ports.

(b) The ports provide facilities of docking, loading, unloading and the storage facilities for cargo. In order to provide these facilities, the port authorities make arrangements for maintaining the navigable channels, arranging tugs and barges, and providing labour and managerial services.

(c) The importance of a port is judged by the size of cargo and the number of ships handled.

(d) The quantity of cargo handled by a port is an indicator of the level of development of its hinterland.

Types of Ports. Generally, ports are classified according to the types of location and traffic which they handle.

(a) Inland ports. These ports are located away from the sea coast. They are linked to the sea through a river or a canal. Such ports are accessible to flat bottom ships or barges. For example, Manchester is linked with a canal; Memphis is located on river Mississippi; Rhine has several ports like Mannheim and Duisburg; and Kolkata is located on River Hoogli, a branch of river Ganga.

(b) Out ports. These are deep water ports built away from the actual ports. These serve the parent ports by receiving those ships which are unable to approach them due to their large size. Classic combination, for example, is Athens and its out port Piraeus in Greece.

(ii) How do nations gain from international trade ?
Or
“International trade is mutually beneficial to nations.” Analyse the statement. (Outside Delhi 2019)
Answer:
International trade is the result of specialization in production. Its benefits are :
(a) It benefits the world economy if different countries practise specialization and division of labour in the production of commodities or provision of services.

(b) Each kind of specialization can give rise to trade.

(c) Thus international trade is based on the principle of comparative advantage, compli- mentaretries and, in principle, should be mutually beneficial to the trading partners.

(d) In modern times, trade is the basis of the world’s economic organization and is related to the foreign policy of nations.

(e) With well-developed transportation and communication systems, no country is willing to forego the benefits derived from participation in international trade.

Detailed, Step-by-Step NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 5 Land Resources and Agriculture Questions and Answers were solved by Expert Teachers as per NCERT (CBSE) Book guidelines covering each topic in chapter to ensure complete preparation. https://mcq-questions.com/ncert-solutions-for-class-12-geography-chapter-5-part-b/

Land Resources and Agriculture NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 5

Land Resources and Agriculture Questions and Answers Class 12 Geography Chapter 5

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Choose the right answers of the following from the given options :
(i) Which one of the following is NOT a land-use category ?
(A) Fallow land
(B) Marginal land
(C) Net Area Sown
(D) Culturable Wasteland.
Answer:
(B) Marginal land

(ii) Which one of the following is the main reason due to which share of forest has shown an increase in the last forty years?
(A) Extensive and efficient efforts of afforestation
(B) Increase in community forest land
(C) Increase in notified area allocated for forest growth
(D) Better peoples’ participation in managing forest area.
Answer:
(C) Increase in notified area allocated for forest growth.

(iii) Which one of the following is the main form of degradation in irrigated areas ?
(A) Gully erosion
(B) Wind erosion
(C) Salinisation of soils
(D) Siltation of land.
Answer:
(C) Salinisation of soils

(iv) Which one of the following crops is not cultivated under dryland farming ?
(A) Ragi
(B) Jowar
(C) Groundnut
(D) Sugarcane
Answer:
(D) Sugarcane.

(v) In which of the following group of countries of the world, HYVs of wheat and rice were developed ?
(A) Japan and Australia
(B) U.S.A. and Japan
(C) Mexico and Philippines
(D) Mexico and Singapore.
Answer:
(C) Mexico and Philippines.

Question 2.
Answer the following questions in about 30 words :
(i) Differentiate between Barren land, Waste land and Culturable Waste land. (Outside Delhi 2019)
Answer:

• Barren land. Arid. Sandy and Rocky land which cannot be cultivated is called Barren land.
• Waste land. The land which has been degraded due to soil erosion and is not cultivated is called Waste land.
• Culturable Waste land. A land which is left fallow (uncultivated) for more than five years is called Culturable Waste land.

(ii) How would you distinguish between Net sown area and Gross cropped area ?
Answer:

• Net sown area. The extent of land on which crops are sown and harvested is known as net sown area.
• Gross cropped area. The total area (including the area grown more than once in a year) under cultivation is called gross cropped area.

(iii) Why is the strategy of increasing cropping intensity important in country like India ?
Classify rainfed farming on the basis of adequacy of soil moisture during cropping season. (C.B.S.E Delhi 2017)
Or
Distinguished between ‘Dryland farming and Wet land farming.’ (Outside Delhi 2019)
Or
What is the difference between Dryland and Wetland farming.
Answer:

Effects :
Technology helps to raise the yield per hectare and total output per unit area. It is done by increasing land use intensity.

• It increases the demand for labour.
• In India, a high cropping intensity is necessary for fuller utilisation of land resources.
• It also reduces unemployment in the rural economy.

(iv) How do you measure total cultivable land ?
Answer:
The total cultivable land can be measured by adding up net sown area, all fallow lands and culturable waste land.

Question 3.
Answer the following Questions in about 150 words:
(i) What are the different types of environmental problems of land resources in India ?
Answer:
Many serious problems of land resources arise due to degradation of land. It leads to depletion of soil fertility. A large area of agricultural land has lost its fertility due to alkalisation and salinisation of soils and water logging.

It has affected about 15 lakh ha. of land. Excessive use of chemicals such as insecticides and pesticides has led to their concentration in toxic amount in the soil profile. Fallow land has declined. Rainfed areas experience degradation by soil erosion by water and wind.

(ii) What are the important strategies for Agricultural development followed in the post independence period in India ?
Or
“After independence various important strategies were adopted for agricultural development in India.” Substantiate the statement. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
After Independence, the immediate goal of the Government was to increase foodgrains production by
(i) switching over from cash crops to food crops

(ii) intensification of cropping over already cultivated land ; and

(iii) increasing cultivated area by bringing cultivable and fallow land under plough. Initially, this strategy helped in increasing foodgrains production. But agricultural production stagnated during late 1950s. To overcome this problem, Intensive Agricultural District Programme (IADP) and Intensive Agricultural Area Programme (IAAP) were launched. But two consecutive droughts during mid-1960s resulted in food crisis in the country. Consequently, the foodgrains were imported from other countries.

Detailed, Step-by-Step NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 8 Transport and Communication Questions and Answers were solved by Expert Teachers as per NCERT (CBSE) Book guidelines covering each topic in chapter to ensure complete preparation. https://mcq-questions.com/ncert-solutions-for-class-12-geography-chapter-8-part-a/

Transport and Communication NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 8

Transport and Communication Questions and Answers Class 12 Geography Chapter 8

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below :
(i) The Trans-Continental Stuart Highway runs between :
(A) Darwin and Melbourne
(B) Edmonton and Anchorage
(C) Vancouver and St. John’s City
(D) Chengdu and Lhasa.
Answer:
(A) Darwin and Melbourne.

(ii) Which country has the highest density of railway network ?
(A) Brazil
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Canada
(D) Russia
Answer:
(B) U.S.A.

(iii) The Big Trunk Route runs through :
(A) The Mediterranean-Indian ocean
(B) The North Atlantic Ocean
(C) The South Atlantic Ocean
(D) The North Pacific Ocean
Answer:
(B) The North Atlantic Ocean.

(iv) The Big Inch pipeline transports :
(A) Milk
(B) Liquid petroleum gas (LPG)
(C) Water
(D) Petroleum
Answer:
(D) Petroleum.

(v) Which one pair of the following places is linked by Channel Tunnel ?
(A) London-Berlin
(B) Paris-London
(C) Berlin-Paris
(D) Barcelona-Berlin
Answer:
(B) Paris-London.

Question 2.
Answer the following Questions in about 30 words :
(i) What are the problems of road transport in mountainous, desert and flood prone regions ?
Answer:
Problems :

• In mountainous areas, it is difficult to construct roads because a number of bridges are to be constructed.
• In desert, roads cannot be constructed on sandy land.
• In flooded areas, the bridges are washed away. Most of roads are unmotorable.

(ii) Which are the major regions of the world having a dense network of airways ?
Answer:
U.S.A. alone accounts for 60 per cent airways of the world. Dense network of airways exists in the following regions:

• Eastern U.S.A.
• Western Europe.
• South-East Asia.

(iii) What is a trans-continental railway ?
Answer:
The trans-continental railway runs across the continent and links its two ends. These railways join the places on the opposite coasts of a continent.

(iv) What are the advantages of water transport ?
Answer:

• Water transport does not require route construction.
• The oceans are linked with each other.
• Oceans are negotiable with ships of various sizes.
• Water transport is the cheapest means of transport.
• The energy cost of water transport is low.

Question 3.
Answer the following questions is not more than 150 words :
(i) Elucidate the statement “In a well managed transport system, various modes complement each other.”
Answer:
Different modes of transport are used for inter-regional and Intra-regional transport. These carry both passengers and freight. Different modes function as under :

• International transport of goods is handled by ocean freighters.
• Road transport is cheaper and faster over short distances providing door to door service.
• Railways are more suited for large volumes of bulky materials over long distances within a country.
• Airways carry high-value light and perishable goods.
  Thus various modes complement each other in a well managed transport system.

(ii) What are the modes by which Cyber Space will expand the contemporary economic social space of humans ? What is Cyber space? Describe any two advantages of the internet. (C.B.S.E. 2013, 2014)
Answer:
Cyber Space (Internet) (C.B.S.E. 2014) Cyberspace is the world of electronic computerised space. It is encompassed by the Internet such as the World Wide Web (www). In simple words, it is the electronic digital world for communicating or accessing information over computer networks Internet. Cyberspace exists everywhere. It may be in an office, sailing boat, flying plane and virtually anywhere.

Progress in Cyber Space :

• Today Internet is the largest electronic network on the planet connecting about 1000 million people in more than 100 countries.
• There were less than 50 million Internet users in 1995, about 400 million in 2000 C.E. and over one billion in 2005.
• The next billion users are to be added by 2010.
• In the last five years there has been a shift among global users from U.S.A. to the developing countries. The percentage share of U.S.A. has dropped from 66 in 1995 to only 25 in 2005.
• Now the majority of the world’s users are in U.S.A., U.K., Germany, Japan, China and India.

Future. As billions use the Internet each year, cyberspace will expand the contemporary economic and social space of humans through the following in order :

• e-mail
• e-commerce
• e-learning and
• e-governance
• Internet
• fax
• television and
• radio.

These will be accessible to more and more people cutting across place and time. It is these modern communication systems, more than transportation, that has made the global village a reality.

Detailed, Step-by-Step NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 1 Population: Distribution, Density, Growth and Composition Questions and Answers were solved by Expert Teachers as per NCERT (CBSE) Book guidelines covering each topic in chapter to ensure complete preparation. https://mcq-questions.com/ncert-solutions-for-class-12-geography-chapter-1-part-b/

Population: Distribution, Density, Growth and Composition NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 1

Population: Distribution, Density, Growth and Composition Questions and Answers Class 12 Geography Chapter 1

Multiple Choice Questions
Question 1.
Choose the right answers of the followings from the given options.
(i) India’s population as per 2011 census is :
(A) 1028 million
(B) 3287 million
(C) 3182 million
(D) 1210 million.
Answer:
(D) 1210 million

(ii) Which one of the following states has the highest density of population in India ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Kerala
(D) Bihar.
Answer:
(D) Bihar

(iii) Which one of the following states has the highest proportion of urban population in India according to 2001 Census ?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Kerala
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Goa.
Answer:
(D) Goa.

(iv) Which one of the following is the largest group of India ?
(A) Sino-Tibetan
(B) Austric
(C) Indo-Aryan
(D) Dravidian.
Answer:
(B) Indo-Aryan

Question 2.
Answer the following questions in about 30 words.
(i) Very hot and dry and very cold and wet regions of India have low density of population. In this light, explain the role of climate on the distribution of population.
Answer:
It is clear that climate determines the pattern of distribution of population,

• Very hot and dry areas have low density of population such as Rajasthan desert has a density of 201 persons per sq km.
• Dry areas like the states of Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka have density of population below the national average
• Similarly, very cold and wet regions have low density of population such as Kashmir, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh. These have a density of population below 200 persons per sq. km.

(ii) Which states have large rural population in India? Give one reason for such large rural population.
Answer:
India is a land of villages with 6,38,588 villages. Average rural population is 68%. In India, Himachal Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Odisha, Bihar and Uttar Pradesh have more than 80% rural population. Reason : This large rural population is due to the fact that the main occupation of the people is agriculture.

(iii) Why do some states of India have higher rates of work participation than others?
Answer:
Some states like Himachal Pradesh and Nagaland have a high percentage of workers engaged in agriculture. Therefore, work participation is more in the secondary and tertiary sectors. Farmers depend on Agro-based occupations, but now the dependence on an agricultural activities is increasing.

(iv) The Agricultural sector has the ‘ largest share of Indian workers.’ Explain.
Answer:
The occupational structure of India shows that the Agriculture (Primary sector) has the highest number of workers. 58.2% of the working population are farmers. Agriculture is the basis of livelihood for most of the people in India. Therefore, working population in non-agricultural activities is less.

Question 3.
Answer the following questions in about 150 words.

(i) Discuss the spatial pattern of density of population in India.
Answer:
The spatial pattern of population distribution is uneven in India
(i) High Population : Uttar Pradesh has the highest population (20 crore). Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, West Bengal and Andhra Pradesh have almost 50% population of the country. Delhi has more population than the population of all the Union Territories combined population

(ii) Low Population:

• Madhya Pradesh has 14% area of the country, but only 7.6% population of India.
• Himalayan region with 17% area covers only 2% population of India. Arunachal Pradesh has the lowest density of population (17 persons per sq. km.).
• Central India, vast areas of Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka has moderate density of population. Therefore, the spatial distribution of population depends on physical, economic, social and historical factors.

(ii) Give an account of the occupational structure of India. ?
Answer:
The occupational structure means the engagement of an individual in farming, manufacturing, trade, services, etc. 58.2% of working population of India are cultivators. Only 4.2% are engaged in household industries and 37.6% are workers of non-household industries, trade, commerce, construction and services. So the number of workers in primary sector is more than secondary and tertiary sectors.

Detailed, Step-by-Step NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 2 Migration: Types, Causes and Consequences Questions and Answers were solved by Expert Teachers as per NCERT (CBSE) Book guidelines covering each topic in chapter to ensure complete preparation. https://mcq-questions.com/ncert-solutions-for-class-12-geography-chapter-2-part-b/

Migration: Types, Causes and Consequences NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 2

Migration: Types, Causes and Consequences Questions and Answers Class 12 Geography Chapter 2

Multiple Choice Questions
Question 1.
Choose the right answers of the following from the given options.
(i) Which one of the following is the main reason for male migration in India ?
(A) Education
(B) Business
(C) Work and Employment
(D) Marriage.
Answer:
(C) Work and Employment.

(ii) Which one of the following states receives maximum number of immigrants ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Delhi
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Bihar.
Answer:
(A) Uttar Pradesh.

(iii) Which one of the following streams is dominated by male migrants in India ?
(A) Rural-rural
(B) Urban-rural
(C) Rural-urban
(D) Urban-urban.
Answer:
(C) Rural-urban.

(iv) Which one of the following urban agglomeration has the highest share in migrant population ? (C.B.S.E. 2014)
(A) Mumbai UA
(B) Delhi UA
(C) Bengaluru UA
(D) Chennai UA.
Answer:
(A) Mumbai UA.

Question 2.
Answer the following questions in about 30 words :
(i) Differentiate between the life time migrants and migrants by last residence.
Answer:
The life time migrant and migrant by last residence are differentiated on the basis of birth place and place of residence :

• If the place of birth is different from the place of enumeration it is called the life time migrant.
•  If the place of last residence is different from the place of enumeration it is known as migrant by place of last residence.

(ii) Identify the main reason for male / ! female selective migration. (Imp)
Answer:
Selective female migration is due to marriage. After marriage the girl is to live at another place away from her parents house. The selective male migration is due to economic factors. Males migrate to towns in search of work and employment.

(iii) What is the impact of rural / urban migration on the age and sex structure of the place of origin and destination.
Answer:
Rural-urban migration causes imbalance in age-sex structure. At place of origin, sex ratio increases while the ratio of young age workers decreases. At place of destination, the sex ratio decreases and the ratio of young workers increases.

Question 3.
Answer the following questions in about 150 words.

(i) Discuss the consequences of International Migration in India.
Answer:
A large number of people from India have been migrating to places of better opportunities to the countries of Middle East, Western Europe, America, Australia and East and South East Asia.

Consequnces of international migration.
(a) During the colonial period, the British sent people to Mauritius, West Indies, Fiji, South Africa, while French and Dutch and Portuguese sent people from Goa, Daman and Diu to Angola, etc., to work as labourers on estates of plantation farming.

(b) After this the professional, artisans traders migrated to Thailand, Malaysia, Singapore, Brunei in search of economic opportunities.

(c) After 1960, software engineers, management consultants, financial experts and mediapersons migrated to U.S.A., Canada, U.K., Australia and Germany.

(ii) What are the socio demographic con-sequences of migration ?
Answer:
(a) Demographic Consequences. Migration causes imbalance in age sex structure :

• In urban towns, the sex ratio decreases and percentage of young workers increases.
• In rural areas, the sex ratio increases while ratio of skilled workers decreases.

(b) Social Consequences.

• The new ideas relating to new technology, family planning, girls’ education have spread to rural area from urban areas.
• Migration leads to intermixing of diverse cultures.
• Migration may motivate people to fall in the trap of anti-social activities like crime and drug abuse.