Author name: Prasanna

Detailed, Step-by-Step NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 2 The Origin and Evolution of the Earth Questions and Answers were solved by Expert Teachers as per NCERT (CBSE) Book guidelines covering each topic in chapter to ensure complete preparation.

The Origin and Evolution of the Earth NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 2

The Origin and Evolution of the Earth Questions and Answers Class 11 Geography Chapter 2

Multiple Choice Questions
Question 1.
(i) Which one of the following figures represents the age of the earth?
(a) 4.6 million years
(b) 13.7 billion years
(c) 4.6 billion years
(d) 13.7 trillion years
Answer:
(c) 4.6 billion years.

(ii) Which one of the following has longest duration?
(a) Eons
(b) Period
(c) Era
(d) Epoch
Answer:
(b) Period.

(iii) Which one of the following is not related to the formation or modification of the present atmosphere?
(a) Solar winds
(b) Differentiation
(c) Degassing
(d) Photosynthesis
Answer:
(a) Solar winds.

(iv) Which one of the following represents the inner planets?
(a) Planets between the sun and the earth
(b) Planets between the sun and the belt of asteroids
(c) Planets in gaseous state
(d) Planets without satellite(s)
Answer:
(b) Planets between the sun and the belt of asteroids

(v) Life on earth appeared around how many years before the present?
(a) 13.7. billion
(b) 4.6 billion
(c) 3.8 ihillion
(d) 3.8 billion
Answer:
(d) 3.8 billion.

Question 2.
Answer the following questions in about 30 words each :
(i) Why are the terrestrial planets rocky?
Answer:
Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars are known as terrestrial planets,They are rocky because they are made up of rocks and metals and have relatively high densities.

(ii) What is the basic difference in the arguments related to the origin of the earth given by
(a) Kant and Laplace, and
(b) Chamberlain and Moulton?
Answer:
(a) Kant and Laplace gave Nebular Hypothesis. The planets were formed out of a cloud of material associated with a youthful sun, which was slowly rotating.

(b) Chamberlain and Moulton – A wandering star approached the sun. As a result, a cigar shaped tongue of material was separated from the solar surface. As the passing star moved away, the material separated from the solar surface continued to revolve around the sun and it slowly condensed into planets.

(iii) What is meant by the process of differentiation?
Answer:
After the formation of earth, due to immense heat the earth became partially molten. The lighter and denser materials on melting mixed and got separated depending on their densities. This allowed the separation of heavier and lighter materials called differentiation. During the formation of moon, due to the giant impact, the earth was further heated up leading to the next phase of differentiation. .Through the process of differentiation, earth got separated into different layers.

(iv) What was the nature of the earth’s surface initially?
Answer:
The earth has a layered structure. From the outermost end of the atmosphere to the centre of the earth, the material that exists is not uniform. The atmospheric matter has the least density. From the surface to deeper depths, the earth’s interior has different zones and each of these contains materials with different characteristics.

(v) What were the gases which initially formed the earth’s atmosphere?
Answer:
The planet earth initially was a barren, rocky and hot object with a thin atmosphere of hydrogen and helium. This is far from the present day picture of the earth.

Question 3.
Answer the following questions in about 150 words.
(i) Write an explanatory note on the ‘Big Bang Theory’.
Answer:
In the present world, the most popular argument regarding the origin of the universe is the ‘Big Bang Theory’. This is also called “expanding universe”. The Big Bang theory considers the following stages in the development of the universe :

(ii) In the beginning all matter forming the universe existed in one place in the form of a ‘tiny ball’ with a small volume, infinite temperature and infinite density.

(ii) At the Big Bang the ‘tiny ball’ exploded violently. This led to a huge expansion. The expansion continues even to present day. As it grew, some energy was converted into matter. There was particularly very rapid expansion within fractions of a second after the bang. Thereafter, expansion has slowed down. Within first three minutes from the Big Bang event, first 1 atom began to form.

(iii) Within 300,000 years from the Big Bang, temperature dropped to 4500°K and gave rise to atomic matter. The universe becametransparent.The expansion of universe means increase in space between the galaxies.

(ii) List the stages in the evolution of the earth and explain each ‘ stage in brief,
Answer:
Evolution of the Earth (Development of layered structure):
Initially earth was a barren, rocky and hot object with a thin atmosphere of hydrogen and helium. There must have been some events processes, which may have changed the earth from a rocky, barren and hot place to a beautiful planet. The earth has a layered structure. The material existing on the earth, from centre to the end of atmosphere, is not uniform. Earth’s interior has different zones and each of them contains materials with different characteristics.

Development of layered structure :

• Many planetesimals moved together to form planets.
• The mass forming the earth, collect through gravitation, and had impact on the existing materials. The impact generated lots of heat which caused melting of the materials. This occurred after the formation of the earth.
• Due to this heat, the earth became partially molten and the heavier and denser materials got separated. This allowed heavier materials to sink towards the centre and lighter towards the surface. This process is called differentiation.
• During the formation of Moon, due to the giant impact, the earth was further heated up and got separated into different layers. Starting from the surface to the eentral parts, we have layers like crust, mantle, outer core and inner core.

Detailed, Step-by-Step NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 1 Geography as a Discipline Questions and Answers were solved by Expert Teachers as per NCERT (CBSE) Book guidelines covering each topic in chapter to ensure complete preparation.

Geography as a Discipline NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 1

Geography as a Discipline Questions and Answers Class 11 Geography Chapter 1

Question 1.
Multiple choice questions :
(i) Which one of the following scholars coined the term Geography?
(a) Herodotus
(b) Erathosthenese
(c) Galiileo
(d) Aristotle
Answer:
(b) Erathosthenese.

(ii) Which one of the following features can be termed as ‘physical feature’?
(a) Port
(b) Road
(c) Plain
(d) Water park
Answer:
(c) Plain.

(iii) Make correct pairs from the following two columns and mark the correct option.

Mark the correct matching :
(a) IB, 2C, 3A, 4D
(b) ID, 2B, 3C, 4A
(c) I A, 2D, 3B, 4G
(d) IC, 2 A, 3D, 4B
Answer:
(d) IC, 2A, 3D, 4B.

(iv) Which one of the following questions is related to cause- effect relationship?
(a) Why
(b) Where
(c) What
(d) When
Answer:
(a) Why

(v) Which one of the following disciplines attempts temporal synthesis?
(a) Sociology
(b) Geography
(c) Anthropology
(d) History
Answer:
(d) History.

Question 2.
Answer the following questions in about 30 words each :

(i) What important cultural features do you observe while going to school? Are they similar or dissimilar? Should they be included in the study of geography or not? If yes, why?
Answer:
My school is situated in the market. That is a very thickly populated area. On the way, there is a railway crossing. The distance of school from my house is only half kilometre but it takes 30 minutes. The cultural features are dissimilar. This area is highly polluted by smoke and sound, but the road is smooth. Physical atmosphere is unfavourable but cultural features are in favour.

(ii) You have seen a tennis ball, cricket ball, an orange and a pumpkin. Which one amongst these resembles the shape of the earth? Why have you chosen this particular item to describe the shape of the earth?
Answer:
The shape of the earth resembles with a pumpkin. Because the shape of the earth is geoid, which is flattened at two of its poles.

(iii) Do you celebrate Van Mahotsava in your school? Why do we plant so many trees? How do the trees maintain ecological balance?
Answer:
Yes, we celebrate Van Mahotsava in our school. Trees maintain ecological balance in nature. They receive energy from the sun to produce their own food. This energy is further transferred to herbivores and then from herbivores to the carnivores. Further, the dead remains of the producers and consumers, both herbivores and carnivores, provide energy to the decomposers. A part of the food energy is consumed or assimilated by organisms and the rest is dissipated as heat by respiration. In this way, the trees or green plants maintain ecological balance.

(iv) You have seen elephants, deer, earthworms, trees and grasses. Where do they live or grow? What is the name given to this sphere? Can you describe some of the important features of this sphere?
Answer:
Elephants, deer, earthworms, trees and grasses, all live or grow on the surface of the earth. This zone at the earth’s surface both on land and water, is known as Biosphere.

Biosphere is the most active sphere of the earth in comparison to lithosphere, atmosphere and hydrosphere. The living organisms, together with the environment with which they interact, form the biosphere. Life of any kind is possible in biosphere.

(v) How much time do you take to reach your school from your house? Had the school been located across the road from your house, how much time would you have taken to reach the school? What is the effect of the distance between your residence and the school on the time taken in commuting? Can you convert time into space and vice versa?
Answer:
I take 1 hour to reach the school. My school is not located across the road. The distance of the school from my residence is 4 km. This distance can be covered in 30 minutes, if I go by bicycle, or in 10 minutes, if I go by bus. There is no obstacle or barrier on the way. No, the time can not be converted into space or vice versa.

Question 3.
Answer the following questions in about 150 words each :
(i) You observe every day in your surroundings that there is variation in natural as well as cultural phenomena. All the trees are not of the same variety. All the birds and animals you see, are different. All these different elements are found on the earth,Can you now argue that geography is the study of “areal differentiation”?
Answer:
There exist variations over the surface of the earth in its physical as well as cultural environment. A number of phenomena are similar and many are dissimilar. Therefore, it was logical to perceive geography as the study of‘areal differentiation.’ Thus geography was perceived to study all those phenomena which vary over space.

The geographers do not study only the variations in the phenomena over the earth’s surface, but also study the associations with the other factors which cause these variations. For example, the cropping patterns differ from, region to region, but this phenomenon is related to variations in soils, climates, demands in the market, capacity of the fanner to invest and technological inputs available to him. The geography is to find out the causal relationship between any two phenomena.

(ii) YOU have already studied geography, history, civics and economics as parts of social studies. Attempt an integration of these disciplines highlighting their interface.
Answer:
Each social science has interface with one branch of geography. Every discipline has a philosphy which is the reason d’etere for that discipline. Philosphy provides roots to a discipline and in the process of its evolution. The branches of geography, viz, social, political economic dnd population and settlements are closely linked with these disciplines as each of them has spatial attributes.

The political geography is interested in the study of the state as a spatial unit as well as people and their political behaviour. Economics deals with basic attributes of the economy such as production, distribution, exchange and consumption. Like population, geography is closely linked with the discipline of demography. Historical Geography studies the historical

Detailed, Step-by-Step NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 16 Comparative Development Experiences of India and its Neighbours Questions and Answers were solved by Expert Teachers as per NCERT (CBSE) Book guidelines covering each topic in chapter to ensure complete preparation.

Comparative Development Experiences of India and its Neighbours NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 16

Comparative Development Experiences of India and its Neighbours Questions and Answers Class 12 Economics Chapter 16

Question 1.
Why are regional and economic groupings formed?
Answer:
Regional and economic groups are formed in a geographic region to reduce or remove tariff and non – tariff barriers to allow free flow of goods, services, and inputs between each other. Some examples of regional and economic groupings include:

• SAARC
• European Union
• ASEAN
• G-8
• G-20
• BRIC

Question 2.
What are the various means by which countries are trying to strengthen their own domestic economies?
Answer:
Countries are trying to strengthen their own domestic economies by adopting the following means:

• They form regional and global economic groupings such as the SAARC, European Union, ASEAN, G – 8, G – 20, BRIC, etc.
• They follow the developmental processes adopted by their neighbouring nations. It helps them identifying their own strengths and weaknesses compared to their neighbours.
• They try to understand the economies of neighbouring nations to promote shared environment for overall human development.

Question 3.
What similar development strategies have India and Pakistan followed for their respective developmental paths?
Answer:
India and Pakistan adopted the following similar development strategies for their respective developmental paths:

• Followed mixed economy with co-existence of public and private sectors
• Introduced various regulated policies
• Adopted green revolution to increase agricultural production

Question 4.
Explain the Great Leap Forward campaign of China as initiated in 1958.
Answer:
The Great Leap Forward campaign was initiated in China in 1958 with the aim of industrialising the country on an extensive scale. During the campaign, people were encouraged to set up industries in their backyards. In rural areas, commune system was started under which people collectively cultivated 26,000 communes.

However, GLF campaign faced many problems. A severe drought caused havoc in China, which killed around 30 million people. Moreover, Russia had conflicts with China. As a result, Russia withdrew its professionals who were sent to China to help in the industrialisation process.

Question 5.
China’s rapid industrial growth can be traced back to its reforms in 1978, Do you agree? Elucidate.
Answer:
The present day fast industrial growth in China can be traced back to the reform in 1978, China introduced reforms in phases, In the initial phase, reforms were initiated in agriculture, foreign trade and investment sectors of China. In the later phase, reforms were initiated in the industrial sector. The reform process involved dual pricing, i.e. fixing the price in two ways.

Farmer and industrial units were required to exchange fixed quantities of input and output on the basis of prices fixed by the government. The remaining quantities were exchanged at the market prices. With the increase in production, the amount of goods or inputs transacted in the market also increased over the years,

Question 6.
Describe the path of developmental initiatives taken by Pakistan for its economic development.
Answer:
Developmental initiatives taken by Pakistan for its economic development are as below:

• Pakistan follows mixed economy model with co-existence of public and private sectors.
• Pakistan introduced various regulated policy framework in the late 1950s and 1960s.
• It introduced green revolution, which led to mechanisation and rise in public investment. This resulted in a rise in the production of foodgrains.
• Nationalisation of capital goods industries took place in the 1970s.
• Pakistan received financial support from western.

Question 7.
What is the important implication of the ‘one child norm’ in China?
Answer:
China introduced the ‘one-child norm’ in the late 1970s as the measure to control its rapidly increasing population growth. An important implication of the ‘one child norm’ in China was that after a few decades, there will be more elderly people in proportion to young people in China. Consequently, China will be forced to take steps to provide social security measures while having fewer workers.

Question 8.
Mention the salient demographic indicators of China, Pakistan and India.
Answer:
The table below shows selected demographic indicators of China, Pakistan and India, as in 2015:

Question 9.
Compare and contrast India and China’s sectoral contribution to GDP in 2003. What does it indicate?
Answer:
India’s agricultural, industrial and service sectors contributed 17, 30 and 53 per cent respectively in 2015-17. On the other hand, in the same year, China’s agricultural, industrial and service sectors contributed 9, 43 and 48 per cent respectively,

This shows that service sector contributes significantly towards India’s GDP. followed by industrial sector. On the contrary, the industrial sector contributes a major share in China’s GDP, followed by service sector. The process of economic growth has led to a tremendous shift in the sectoral share of output and employment. Both India and China have undergone structural transformation from primary to industrial and service sectors.

Question 10.
Mention the various indicators of human development.
Answer:
The various indicators of human development are:

• Human Development Index (HDI)
• HDI rank
• Life expectancy at birth
• Average years of schooling (% aged 15 years and above)
• GDP per capita (US$)
• Poverty Ratio
• Infant Mortality Rate (per 1,000 births)
• Maternal Mortality Rate (per I lakh births)
• Population with sustainable access to improved sanitation (%)
• Population with sustainable access to improved water source (%)
• Percent of children malnourished (< 5 years)

Question 11.
Define the liberty indicator. Give some examples of liberty indicators.
Answer:
Liberty indicators measure the extent of democratic participation in social and political decision making.
Some liberty indicators are:

• Constitutionally protected rights of citizen
• Constitutionally protected independence of the judiciary
• Rule of law

Question 12.
Evaluate the various factors that led to the rapid growth in economic development in China.
Answer:
The various factors that led to the rapid growth in economic development in China are:

• Establishment of infrastructure in the areas of education and health
• Effective implementation of land reforms
• Decentralised planning
• Existence of small enterprises
• More equitable distribution of food grains through commune system

Each reform measure in China was first implemented at a smaller level and later extended on a massive scale.

Question 13.
Group the following features pertaining to the economies of India, China and Pakistan under three heads.

• One-child norm
• Low fertility rate
• High degree of urbanisation
• Mixed economy
• Very high fertility rate
• Large population .
• High density of population
• Growth due to manufacturing sector
• Growth due to service sector

Answer:
The table below distributes the given features pertaining to the economies of India, China and Pakistan

Question 14.
Give reasons for the slow growth and re-emergence of poverty in Pakistan.
Answer:
In Pakistan, the proportion of poor in 1960s was more than 40 per cent, which declined to 25 percent in 1980s. However, it again started rising in 1990s. The reasons for the slow growth and re-emergence of poverty in Pakistan are as below:

• The economic indicators showed stagnation or negative trends when there was bad harvest.
• Massive floods had severely affected agriculture and infrastructure
• There were delays in the implementation of economic reforms.
• The foreign direct investment inflows in the country declined significantly.
• The country faced high rates of inflation.

Question 15.
Compare and contrast the development of India, China and Pakistan with respect to some salient human development indicators.
Answer:
The table below shows various human development indicators in India, China and Pakistan during 2016-17

It is clear from the table that China’s position is much better than India and Pakistan in terms of HDI rank and GDP. China leads in almost all human development indicators.

Question 16.
Comment on the growth rate trends witnessed in China and India in the last two decades.
Answer:
The growth rate trends witnessed in China and India in the last two decades are summarised below:
(i) China has the second largest GDP (PPP) of $ 19.8 trillion whereas Indian GDP (PPP) is $8.07 trillion. When many developed countries were finding it difficult to maintain a growth rate of even 5 per cent, China was able to maintain near double digit growth for more than two decades.

(ii) During 1980 and 2015 China’s GDP growth rate had been is 10.3 and 6.8 percent respectively. On the other hand, India’s GDP growth rate was 5.7 per cent in 1980, which increased to almost 7.3 percent in 2015-17.

(iii) In the 1980s, China and India employed 12 and 17 per cent of its workforce in the service sector respectively. In 2014, it has reached 29 and 43 percent, respectively.

Question 17.
Fill in the blanks.
(a) First Five Year Plan of ……………………….  commenced in the year 1956. (Pakistari/China)
(b) Maternal mortality rate is high in ………………………. (China/ Pakistan)
(c) Proportion of people below poverty line is more in ………………………. (India/Pakistan)
(d) Reforms in ……………………….  were introduced in 1978. (China/ Pakistan)
Answer:
(a) Pakistan
(b) Pakistan
(c) India
(b) China

Detailed, Step-by-Step NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 15 Environment and Sustainable Development Questions and Answers were solved by Expert Teachers as per NCERT (CBSE) Book guidelines covering each topic in chapter to ensure complete preparation.

Environment and Sustainable Development NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 15

Environment and Sustainable Development Questions and Answers Class 12 Economics Chapter 15

Question 1.
What is meant by environment?
Answer:
Environment is the sum total of all surroundings of a living organism, including the biotic and abiotic j factors that influence each other.

Question 2.
What happens when the rate of resource extraction exceeds that of their regeneration?
Answer:
When the rate of resource extraction exceeds that of their regeneration, it results in an environmental crisis, which is the situation today all over the world. As the demand for resources goes beyond the rate of regeneration of the resources, the pressure on the absorptive capacity of the environment increases tremendously. The supply is unable to meet this excess demand, thereby resulting in environmental crisis.

Question 3.
Classify the following into renewable and non-renewable resources.
(i) trees
(ii) fish
(iii) petroleum
(iv) coal
(v) iron-ore
(vi) water
Answer:
The table below classifies the given resources into renewable and non-renewable:

Question 4.
Two major environmental issues facing the world today are ………………. and …………………..
Answer:
Two major environmental issues facing the world today are global warming and ozone depletion.

Question 5.
How do the following factors contribute to the environmental crisis in India? What problems do they
(i) Rising population
(ii) Air pollution
(iii) Water contamination
(iv) Affluent consumption standards
(v) Illiteracy
(vi) Industrialisation
(vii) Urbanisation
(viii) Reduction of forest coverage
(ix) Poaching
(x) Global warming
Answer:
(i) Rising population: The population in India has been rapidly increasing since 1921. Population explosion has created tremendous environmental and ecological imbalances. Limited availability of resources makes the government face the problem related to their allocation.

(ii) Air pollution: Industries and vehicles are the primary source of air pollution in India. It contributes towards global warming. Government needs to take corrective measures to reduce air pollution.

(iii) Water Contamination: Industrial wastes are often channelised into rivers and canals of the adjoining areas, thereby causing water pollution. The consequence is the spread of water-borne diseases, implying damage to human as well as animal life, particularly the fish. This requires government to keep a regular check on and penalize the industries which are situated near a water body and dispose waste in the water.

(iv) Affluent Consumption Standards: Affluent consumption standards of the have placed a huge stress on the environment. Consequently, many resources have become extinct. Limited availability of resources makes the government face the problem related to their allocation.

(v) Illiteracy: Illiterate people do not understand the importance of environment. They use the natural resources inefficiently or even misuse them. The government must take steps to educate people and make them aware of the need to protect the environment.

(vi) Industrialisation: A tremendous pressure has been created on environment with the advent of industrial revolution. It has resulted in large scale industrial wastages, causing environmental pollution. This requires government to keep a regular check on and penalize the industries which pollute the environment.

(vii) Urbanisation: Migration of people from rural to urban areas increases the pressure on existing infrastructural facilities in the cities. Improper arrangement for delivery of waste water and sewage has polluted the atmosphere. The government should be capable of meeting the increasing demand for such sendees in urban areas.

(viii) Reduction of Forest Coverage: Felling of forests beyond the permissible limits has been a threat towards India’s vegetation and wildlife. The government should keep a check on the amount of trees being cut.

(ix) Poaching: Poaching is dangerous to our environment. It leads to endangerment of different species, thereby disturbing the ecological balance.

(x) Global Warming: Global warming is a gradual increase in the average temperature of the earth’s lower atmosphere as a result of the increase in greenhouse gases. It results in:

• Melting of polar ice
• Rise in sea level
• Frequent coastal flooding and tropical storms
• Extinction of species

Question 6.
What are the functions of the environment?
Answer:
The environment performs the following four vital functions:

• It supplies renewable and non-renewable resources.
• It assimilates waste.
• It sustains life by providing genetic and bio-diversity.
• It provides aesthetic services.

Question 7.
Identify six factors contributing to land degradation in India.
Answer:
The following factors contribute to land degradation in India:

• High density of population
• Competing usage of land for agriculture and forestry
• Deforestation
• Forest fires and overgrazing
• Soil erosion
• Large scale human settlements and set up of industries

Question 8.
Explain how the opportunity costs of negative environmental impact are high.
Answer:
The opportunity costs of negatiy© environmental impact are high. It can be explained as below:
(i) The past development has polluted and dried up rivers. Degraded environmental quality due to decline in the quality of air and water has resulted in increased incidence of respiratory and j water-borne diseases. Bence, health expenditure is rising,

(ii) Due to the intensive and extensive extraction of renewable and non-renewable resources, many vital resources have become extinct As a result, huge amounts are spent on technology, and research to explore new resources.

(iii) Global environmental issues such as global warming and ozone depletion also contribute to increase financial commitments for the government.

Question 9.
Outline the steps involved in attaining sustainable development in India.
Answer:
The following steps are involved in attaining sustainable development in India:

• Use of non-conventional sources of energy such as wind power and solar rays, which are cleaner and greener energy sources
• Replace gobar gas, etc. used in rural areas with subsidised LPG, which is a cleaner fuel and reduces household pollution
• Wind and solar power sources provide electricity without any adverse impact on the environment
• Mini-hydel plants use the energy of streams in mountainous regions to move small turbines and generate electricity
• Use of CNG as fuel in public transport system of urban areas significantly lowers air pollution

Question 10.
India has abundant natural resources – substantiate the statement.
Answer:
India has rich quality of soil, large number of rivers and tributaries, lush green forests, plenty of mineral deposits beneath the land surface, vast stretch of the Indian Ocean and mountains ranges. Some of the important resources are listed below:

• Deccan Plateau in India is rich in black soil, which is particularly suitable for cultivation of cotton.
• The Indo-Gangetic plains are one of the most fertile, intensively cultivated and densely populated regions in the world.
• India’s forests provide green cover for a majority of its population and natural cover for its wildlife.
• India has large deposits of iron-ore, coal and natural gas. India alone accounts for nearly 20 percent of the world’s total iron-ore reserves.
• Bauxite, copper, chromate, diamonds, gold, lead, lignite, manganese, zinc, uranium, etc. are also available in different parts of the country.

Question 11.
Is environmental crisis a recent phenomenon? If so, why?
Answer:
In the early days, when civilisation just began, the demand for environment resources and services was much less than their supply. That is, the population was within the absorptive capacity of the environment and the rate of resources extraction was less than the rate of regeneration of these resources.

Thus, there was no environment crisis at that time. However, with the population explosion and advent of industrialisation, human needs are also growing. As the demand for resources went beyond the rate of regeneration of the resources, the pressure on the absorptive capacity of the environment increased tremendously. The supply is unable to meet this excess demand, thereby resulting in environmental crisis.

Question 12.
Give two instances of:
(a) Overuse of environmental resources
(b) Misuse of environmental resources
Answer:
(a) Overuse of environmental resources

• Affluent consumption and production standards
• Reduction in the level of ground water
• Land degradation

(b) Misuse of environmental resources

• Deforestation
• Loss of biodiversity
• Air and water pollution

Question 13.
State any four pressing environmental concerns of India. Correction for environmental damages involves opportunity costs – explain.
Answer:
Four pressing environmental concerns of India are:

• Air pollution
• Water contamination
• Soil erosion
• Deforestation and wildlife extinction

Degraded environmental quality due to decline in the quality of air and water has resulted in increased incidence of respiratory and water-borne diseases. Hence, health expenditure is rising. Correction for environmental damages such as air pollution, water pollution, soil erosion, etc. require investment of huge financial resources, which could have been used for other developmental purposes. Thus, correction for environmental damages involves opportunity costs. Environment and Sustainable Development)

Question 14.
Explain the supply-demand reversal of environmental resources.
Answer:
In the early days, when civilisation just began, the demand for environment resources and services was much less than their supply. That is, the population was within the absorptive capacity ofthe environment and the rate of resources extraction was less than the rate of regeneration of these resources. Thus, there was no environment crisis at that time.

However, with the population explosion and advent of industrialisation, human needs are also growing. The demand for environment resources and services has increased but their supply is limited due to the overuse and misuse of these resources. The supply is unable to meet this excess demand, thereby resulting in environmental crisis. Consequently, the supply-demand relationship has reversed.

Question 15.
Account for the current environmental crisis.
Answer:
The following factors have resulted in environmental crisis

• Rapidly rising population
• Waste generation
• Increasing urbanisation
• Industrial concentration
• Deforestation and over-utilisation of land resources

With the phenomenal increase in population and advent of industrialisation, human needs also growing. Huge stress on the environment has resulted in the extinction of various resources. As the demand for resources went beyond the .“ate of regeneration of the resources, the pressure on the absorptive capacity of the environment increased tremendously.

The demand for environment resources and services has increased but their supply is limited due to the overuse and misuse of these resources. The supply is unable to meet this excess demand, thereby resulting in environmental crisis.

Question 16.
Highlight any two serious adverse environmental consequences of development in India. India’s environmental problems pose a dichotomy – they are poverty induced and at the same time, due to affluence in living standards – is this true?
Answer:
Adverse environment consequences of development in India include global warming and ozone depletion.
(i) Global Warming: Global warming is a gradual increase in the average temperature of the earth’s lower atmosphere as a result of the increase in greenhouse gases since the advent of industrial revolution. Factors responsible for global warming are:

• Burning of coal and petroleum products
• Deforestation

(ii) Ozone Depletion: Ozone depletion refers to the phenomenon of reduction in the amount of ozone in the stratosphere. It is caused due to high levels of chlorine and bromine compounds in the stratosphere. The origins of these compounds are chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs). Depletion of ozone layer allows more ultraviolet (UV) radiation to come to earth and cause damage to living organisms.

The environmental problems in India point towards a paradoxical situation. Population explosion and widespread poverty have been the major factors responsible for deforestation in India. The poor people in the rural areas cut trees to earn their livelihood. The growing demand for land to build houses for rapidly increasing population in the urban areas is also responsible for the present environmental degradation, Further, industrialisation has resulted in air and water pollution.

While one opinion supports industrial production for India’s prosperity, the other opinion highlights the threat of pollution due to rapidly expanding industrial sector.

Question 17.
What is sustainable development?
Answer:
Sustainable development is the development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.

Question 18.
Keeping in view your locality, describe any four strategies of sustainable development.
Answer:
Sustainable development can be promoted by adopting non-conventional sources of energy such as:

• LPG and gobar gas in rural areas
• CNG in urban areas
• Wind, solar and hydel power
• Bio-composting
• Biopest control

Suggestion: Students should describe the strategies that they find in their respective localities.

Question  19.
Explain the relevance of intergenerational equity in the definition of sustainable development.
Answer:
Sustainable development aims to minimise environmental problems and meet the needs of the present generation without compromising the ability of the future generation to meet their own needs. Intergenerational equity implies that present generation should handover the earth at least in the same health as it has inherited, if not with improved condition. Present generation must pass the non- polluted resources to the next generation. Thus, the definition of sustainable development implicitly encompasses the concept of intergenerational equity and the care for the poorest of the poor.

Detailed, Step-by-Step NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 14 Infrastructure Questions and Answers were solved by Expert Teachers as per NCERT (CBSE) Book guidelines covering each topic in chapter to ensure complete preparation.

Infrastructure NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 14

Infrastructure Questions and Answers Class 12 Economics Chapter 14

Question 1.
Explain the term ‘Infrastructure’.
Answer:
Infrastructure refers to basic organisational facilities and systems required for the functioning of an economy. It is a network of public services, physical and social facilities. Infrastructure provides supporting services in the areas of agricultural and industrial production, domestic and foreign trade and commerce.

Question 2.
Explain the two categories into which infrastructure is divided. How are both interdependent?
Answer:
Infrastructure is divided into:

• Economic infrastructure includes energy, transportation and communication
• Social infrastructure – includes education, health and housing.
• Both economic and social infrastructures contribute to the prosperity of the economy.

Economic infrastructure fosters economic growth enhances the quality of living. which leads to overall welfare of the country’s people. The economic growth attained with the help of economic infrastructure is incomplete without human development, which can be attained through social infrastructure. Thus, economic and social infrastructures are interdependent on each other.

Question 3.
How do infrastructural facilities boost production?
Answer:
Infrastructural facilities boost production in all the sectors of the economy, Infrastructure is the support system that facilitates efficient working of a modern industrial economy, agriculture, transportation, communication as well as social sector. The development of infrastructural facilities lowers down the cost of production and increases the profits of the producers, which ultimately boost the production.

Question 4.
Infrastructure contributes to the economic development of a country. Do you agree? Explain.
Answer:
Infrastructure contributes to the economic development of a country by increasing the efficiency of factors of production and improving the quality of people’s life. Infrastructure is a network of public services, physical and social facilities. It provides supporting services in the areas of agricultural and industrial production, domestic and foreign trade and commerce. Rapid economic development is attained with the development of different sectors through economic and social infrastructure. Thus, infrastructure plays a vital role in the economic development of a country.

Question 5.
What is the state of rural infrastructure in India?
Answer:
According to 2001 census, important statistics related to rural infrastructure in India are as below:

• Only 56 percent of the households had electricity connection for lighting.
• 43 percent still used kerosene.
• 90 percent of the rural households used bio-fuels for cooking.
• Only 24 percent of the rural households have tap water availability.
• About 76 percent of the population used to drink water from open sources.
• Only 6 percent of the rural population had access to improved sanitation.

Despite of tremendous technical progress in the world, Indian rural women still use bio-fuels such as crop residues, dung and fuel wood to meet their energy requirements.

Question 6.
What is the significance of ‘energy’? Differentiate between commercial and non-commercial sources of energy.
Answer:
The energy is crucial for the development process of a nation. It is essential for:

• Industries
• Agriculture and its related areas such as production and transportation
• Cooking lighting and beating focuses

The following are the points of difference between commercial sources non-commercial sources of energy:

Question 9.
What are the three basic sources of generating power?
Answer:
The following are the three basic sources of generating power:

• Thermal Power
• Hydro Power
• Nuclear Power

Question 8.
What do you mean by transmission and distribution losses? How can they be reduced?
Answer:
Transmission and distribution losses mean loss of a portion of power while transmitting and distributing it to the consumers. Transmission loss can be reduced by:

• Use of better equipment
• Regular maintenance of transmission lines
• Prevention of power theft

Question 9.
What are the various non-commercial sources of energy?
Answer:
Non-commercial sources of energy are those sources which are found in nature or in forest. The various sources of non-commercial energy are:

• Firewood
• Agricultural waste
• Dried dung

Question 10.
Justify that energy crisis can be overcome with the use of renewable source of energy.
Answer:
The use of renewable energy sources can ensure additional supply of power. India’s energy policy encourages hydel and wind energy as India has great potential in the use of renewable source of energy. Moreover, these sources do not rely on fossil fuel and hence, avoid carbon emissions. Greater reliance on renewable energy resources offers enormous economic, social and environmental benefits. Thus, it is possible to overcome energy crisis with the use of renewable source of energy.

Question 11.
How has the consumption pattern of energy changed over the years?
Answer:
The consumption pattern of energy has changed over the years from non-commercial energy to commercial energy due to the change in the living standards.

• The share of commercial energy consumption in the total energy consumed in India is about 74 percent while that of non-commercial energy consumption is 26 percent W .
• In the India’s energy sector, the import dependence on crude and petroleum products is likely to grow rapidly.
• The share of transport sector has declined from 44 per cent in 1953-54 to mere 2 percent in
• The shares of the household, agriculture and industrial sector have been increasing. At present, the share of oil and gas is the highest among all commercial energy consumption.

Question 12.
How are the rates of consumption of energy and economic growth connected?
Answer:
Electricity is one of the most critical components of infrastructure as it determines the level of economic development in a country. According to a study, the growth rate of demand for power is generally higher than the GDP growth rate. In order to have an 8 percent annual growth of GDP, the power supply needs to grow around 12 percent per annum.

Question 13.
What problems are being faced by the power sector in India?
Answer:
The power sector in India faces the following problems:

• India’s installed capacity to generate electricity is insufficient to meet an annual growth of 7 percent.
• State Electricity Boards, which distribute the electricity, incur transmission and distribution losses accounting to ₹ 500 billion.
• Private sector power generators play limited role in production.
• General public suffers due to high power tariffs and prolonged power cuts.
• Thermal power plants are facing shortage of raw material and coal supplies.

Question 14.
Discuss the reforms which have been initiated recently to meet the energy crisis in India.
Answer:
Following reforms have been initiated to meet energy crisis in India:

• Promoting Non-conventional Sources of Energy: The government is channelising resources to develop non-conventional sources of energy such as wind power, solar and tidal energy.
• Privatisation of Power Distribution: In some cities, power distribution has been handed over to private companies in order to minimise transmission and distribution losses.
• Increasing Electricity Generation: New nuclear plants have been set up to expand the generation of electricity.
• ‘Save Energy’ Campaign: The government has initiated a campaign to promote the use of compact fluorescent lamps (CFL). According to Bureau of Energy Efficiency, CFLs consume 80 percent less power compared to ordinary bulbs. Government has also started supplying CFLs to the household at minimal cost.

Question 15.
What are the main characteristics of health of the people of our country?
Answer:
The main characteristics of health of the people of the country are stated below:

• Health means state of complete physical, mental and social soundness.
• Infant mortality rate in India is still high at 32 per thousand live births.
• Mortality rate among children below 5 years is at 39.4 per thousand live births.
• Around 85.7 percent of births are attended by skilled personnel.
• The government spends only 3.9 percent of GDP on health.
• Around 5 lakh children die of water-borne diseases every year.
• About 2.2 million children die every year due to malnutrition and inadequate supply of vaccines, (viii) India, with about 17 percent of the world’s population, bears 20 percent of the global burden of diseases (GBD). Note: Data corresponds to year 2012.

Question 16.
What is a ‘Global Burden of Disease’?
Answer:
Global Burden of Disease (GBD) is a measure of collective disease burden produced by all diseases around the world. It determines mortality and disability from major diseases. Communicable diseases, such as diarrhoea, malaria and tuberculosis account for more than half of GBD in India.

Question 17.
Discuss the main drawbacks of our health care system.
Answer:
The main drawbacks of our health care system are:
(i) Inefficient Management: The health care centres in rural areas lack trained and skilled personnel. According to a study, only 30 per cent of the PHCs have sufficient stock of medicines.

(ii) Lack of Modern Techniques and Equipment: The government health centres lack modern facilities such as blood testing, X-rays, CT-scan, sonography, etc. People depend on the private hospitals to avail these services, which charge unreasonable fees.

(iii) Widely Spread Communicable Diseases: Communicable diseases, such as diarrhoea, malaria, tuberculosis and AIDS are widely spread in India. These deadly diseases pose serious threat to human capital reserve and hence, hampering economic growth.

(iv) Unequal Distribution of Health Care Services: The health care services are unequally distributed across rural and urban areas. People in the rural areas have insufficient medical infrastructure compared to urban areas.

Question 18.
How has the women’s health become a matter of great concern?
Answer:
The women’s health has become a matter of great concern due to the following reasons:

• The child sex ratio in the country has declined from 927 in 2001 to 914 in 2011, reflecting increasing incidence of foeticide.
• Around 3,00,000 girls, aged below 15, are not only married but have already given birth to at least one child.
• More than 50 percent of married women, between the age group of 15 to 49 are anaemic due to iron deficiency. This contributes to 19 percent of maternal deaths.
• Abortions are also major cause for maternal morbidity in India,

Question 19.
Describe the meaning of public health. Discuss the major public health measures undertaken by the state in recent years to control diseases.
Answer:
Public health includes all the public or private measures to prevent disease, promote health and prolong life among the people as a whole. It can be assessed considering the indicators such as infant mortality and maternal mortality rates, life expectancy and nutrition levels, along with incidence of communicable and non-communicable diseases. The major public health measures undertaken by the state in recent years to control diseases are the following:

• Over the years, India’s health infrastructure and manpower has built up significantly at different levels over the years.
• In rural India, a large number of Primary Health Centres (PHCs) have been set up by the government.
• Various voluntary agencies and the private sector run a large number of hospitals.
• The number of hospitals and dispensaries has increased from 9,300 in 1951 to 5 1,300 in 2016-17.
• During 1951 -2017, nursing personnel have also increased from 0.18 in 195 I to 28.8 lakh in 2017.
• Expansion of health infrastructure has resulted in the eradication of diseases such as smallpox and guinea worms.
• The government organise regular camps for immunisation of children against diphtheria, tetanus, polio, etc. India has been officially declared polio-free by the WHO.
• National AIDS Control organisation takes care of, prevents, and provides treatment to HIV positive and AIDS infected patients.

Question 20.
Differentiate the six systems of Indian medicine.
Answer:
Indian system of medicine includes six systems – Ayurveda, Yoga, Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha, and Homeopathy – together called AYUSH.
1. Ayurveda: Ayurveda is called the science of life. It is one of the most ancient systems of preventive, promotive and curative healthcare having equal scientific relevance in the modern world. According to Ayurveda, health is the pre-requisite for achieving the goals of life. Ayurveda’s curative treatment consists of medicines (Aushadhi), diet (Ahara) and lifestyle (Vihara).

Medicinal plants are largely used as raw materials for the manufacture of drugs in Ayurveda. These medicines are generally safe and have little or no known side-effects, if consumed judiciously following the necessary do’s and don’ts.

2. Yoga and Naturopathy: Yoga has the potential for improvement of social and personal behavior, and physical health. It encourages better circulation of oxygenated blood in the body, and restrains the five sense organs, thereby inducing peace and calmness in mind.
Naturopathy is a drugless treatment of diseases based on the ancient practice of application of simple laws of nature.

Naturopathy focuses on eating and living habits and adoption of purification measures, thereby healing illness without medicines. Naturopathy is believed to be effective in healing chronic, allergic autoimmune and stress related disorders by stimulating the body’s inherent power with the help of five elements of nature.

3. Unani: Unani system of medicine is a comprehensive medical system that gives great importance to temperament of a patient in diagnosis and treatment of diseases. It follows the methods of understanding and maintaining health in a positive and individualised manner. Unani system of medicine uses drugs obtained only from herbal, animal and mineral sources.

4. Siddha: Siddha is one of the ancient systems of medicine in India originated mainly from Dravidian culture. The Siddha system strongly emphasises on the environment, physical condition, age, sex, race, habits, mental state, diet and physiological constitution of the diseases of the patient. In this system, metals and minerals such as mercury, silver, arsenic, lead and sulphur are uniquely converted into drugs to treat many infective diseases. These drugs do not have any side effects.

5. Homeopathy: Homeopathy is a system of medicine specialised in treatment of curing diseases by administration of potency drugs, which have been experimentally proved to possess the power of producing similar artificial systems on human beings. The homeopathic remedies use plant, animal, synthetic materials, and mineral for preparing medicines that are further diluted in alcohol or distilled water before giving to the patient.

Question 21.
How can we increase the effectiveness of health care programmes?
Answer:
The effectiveness of health care programmes can be increased by adopting the following measures:

• Expanding regulated private sector health services
• Encouraging NGOs and community participation in providing health care facilities and spreading health awareness .
• Reducing the gap of urban-rural and rich-poor in utilising health care facilities
• Integrating accessibility and affordability in the basic health infrastructure
• Decentralising public health services

Detailed, Step-by-Step NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 13 Employment: Growth, Informalisation and Other Issues Questions and Answers were solved by Expert Teachers as per NCERT (CBSE) Book guidelines covering each topic in chapter to ensure complete preparation.

Employment: Growth, Informalisation and Other Issues NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 13

Employment: Growth, Informalisation and Other Issues Questions and Answers Class 12 Economics Chapter 13

Question 1.
Who is a worker?
Answer:
A person who is engaged in economic activity and hence, contributes to country’s GDP is a worker.

Question 2.
Define worker-population ratio.
Answer:
Work-population ratio is that ratio which is obtained by dividing the total number of workers in country by total population of the country and multiplying the result by 100.
\(\frac{\text { Total Number of Workers }}{\text { Total Population }} \times 100\)

Question 3.
Are the following people can be assumed as workers—a beggar, a thief, a smuggler, a gambler? Why?
Answer:
A beggar, a thief, a smuggler, or a gambler cannot be assumed as workers as they are not engaged in any productive economic activity, which may contribute to country’s GDP. These individuals are rather liability to the country.

Question 4.
Find the odd man out
(i) owner of a saloon
(ii) a cobbler
(iii) a cashier in Mother Dairy
(iv) a tuition master
(v) transport operator
(vi) construction worker.
Answer:
The cashier in Mother Dairy is the odd man as he is the only regular-salaried worker among the given workers.

Question 5.
The newly emerging jobs are found mostly in the ………………………..  sector (service/manufacturing).
Answer:
The newly emerging jobs are found mostly in the service sector.

Question 6.
An establishment with four hired workers is known as ……………….. (formal/informal) sector establishment.
Answer:
An establishment with four hired workers is known as informal sector establishment.

Question 7.
Raj is going to school. When he is not in school, you will find him working in his farm. Can you consider him as a worker? Why?
Answer:
Raj can be considered as a worker because he is engaged in a productive activity.

Question 8.
Compared to urban women, more rural women are found working. Why?
Answer:
Urban women are more secure than rural women. Due to insecurity of women in rural areas, they have to work harder. Large family size and less sources of income in rural areas make rural women work more than urban women. In India, out of 100 rural women, 30 are found working while out of 120 urban women, only 14 are found working.

Question 9.
Meena is a housewife. Besides taking care of household chores, she works in the cloth shop which is owned and operated by her husband. Can she be considered as worker? Why?
Answer:
Meena can be considered as a worker because she is engaged in a productive activity.

Question 10.
Find the odd man out
(i) rickshaw puller who works under a rickshaw owner
(ii) mason
(iii) mechanic shop worker
(iv) shoeshine boy.
Answer:
Of the given workers, rickshaw puller, mason and mechanic shop worker are employed by others and get rewarded for their work from others. Thus, the shoeshine boy is the odd man out as he is a self-employed worker.

Question 11.
The following table shows distribution of the workforce in India for the year 1972-73. Analyse it and give reasons for the nature of workforce distribution. You will notice that the data is pertaining to the situation in India 30 years ago!
Answer:

In the year 1972-73, the total workforce in India was 234 million. Out of these, 195 million workers were in rural areas and 39 million workers were in urban areas. This indicates a greater proportion of rural population in total workforce as they were engaged in agricultural and allied sectors.

The rural workforce comprised of 125 million male workers and 69 million female workers. The urban workforce, on the other hand, comprised of 32 million male workers and only 7 million female workers. The participation of males was higher than the females in both rural and in the urban areas. Women usually lacked opportunities for acquiring education.

Also, families often discouraged female members to take up job and confined them to household works. Also, the females in the rural areas formed 36% of the workforce while those in the urban areas formed only 18% of the workforce. Agricultural sector in India suffered from low productivity and hence, rural people had low earnings. This resulted in widespread poverty in the rural areas.

Question 12.
The following table shows the population and worker population ratio for India in 1999-2000. Can you estimate workforce (urban and total) for India?

Answer:
The table below calculates the urban and total workforce for India:

Question 13.
Why are regular salaried employees more in urban areas than in rural areas?
Answer:
Regular salaried employees are more in urban areas than in rural areas due to the following reasons:

• Regular salaried jobs require educated and skilled employees. The process of training and education for attaining such skills cannot be accessed by the people in rural areas due to the lack of infrastructure, funds and awareness among rural people.
• Big companies are located only in the urban areas due to the presence of modern infrastructure.

Question 14.
Why are less women found in regular salaried employment?
Answer:
Less women are found in regular salaried employment due to the following reasons:

• Women education is not encouraged in India and hence, most women do not acquire professional skills required for regular salaried employment.
• Indian families discourage female to go out of the house to work and confine them to household work.
• In rural areas, women are illiterate and hence, they are not in a position to find regular salaried employment.

Question 15.
Analyse the recent trends in sectoral distribution of workforce in India.
Answer:
The table below shows the distribution of the workforce (in percentage) in different sectors:

(i) Primary sector is the main source of employment for majority of workers (49 percent) in India. Secondary and tertiary sectors provide employment to about 24 and 27 percent of the total workers respectively.

(ii) According to rural sector trends, 64 percent of the workforce depends on agriculture and allied activities for employment. Secondary and tertiary sectors employ 20 and 16 percent of rural workers respectively.

(iii) In urban areas, tertiary sector is the major source of employment. About 58 percent of urban workers are employed in the service sector. Secondary sector employs about 35 percent of urban workforce.

(iv) On the basis of gender, more women workers are concentrated in the primary sector. Men get opportunities in secondary and tertiary sectors as well.

Question 16.
Compared to the 1970s, there has hardly been any change in the distribution of the workforce across various industries. Comment.
Answer:
There has been substantial shift from agriculture to industries and service sector. Although primary sector continues to remain the main source of employment of workers over the last six decades, its share has decreased from 74 percent in 1951 to 50 percent in 201 1-12. With the process of development in the country, the share of employment is increasing in secondary and tertiary sectors. The share of industries has increased from I I to 24 percent and that of service sector has increased from 15 to 27 percent during 1950-2012.

Question 17.
Do you think that in the last 50 years, employment generated in the country is commensurate with the growth of GDP in India? How?
Answer:
Duringthe period 1950-2010, Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of India grew positively. Throughout the period, the country’s GDP was higher than the employment growth. During this period, employment grew at the rate of not more than 2 per cent. In the late 1990s, employment growth even started declining. Over the last 50 years, the gap between the growth of GDP and employment has actually widened. Thus, employment generated in the country does not commensurate with the growth of GDP in India.

Question 18.
Is it necessary to generate employment in the formal sector rather than in the informal sector? / Why?
Answer:
It is necessary to generate employment in the formal sector rather than in the informal sector because the formal sector has the following advantages:

• Job Security: Workers in the formal sector enjoy job security. They cannot be laid off as and when the employer wants. There are certain rules and regulations.
• Social Security Benefits: Formal sector employment provides various social security benefits such as pension, gratuity, provident fund, maturity benefits and group insurance, etc.
• Payment: Workers in the formal sector get monthly salary on regular basis.
• Working Hours: The number of working hours is fixed in formal sector.

Question 19.
Victor is able to get work only for two hours in a day. Rest of the day, he is looking for work. Is he unemployed? Why? What kind of jobs could persons like Victor be doing?
Answer:
Victor is under-employed as he is not working in his full capacity. He is not unemployed as he is working two hours in a day on casual basis. Persons like Victor usually work as delivery man, tutor, car washing, security guard, etc.

Question 20.
You are residing in a village. If you are asked to advice the village panchayat, what kinds of activities would you suggest for the improvement of your village which would also generate employment.
Answer:
The following are certain suggestions for the improvement in the village to generate employment:

• Promoting self-employment activities in the village
• Setting up of institutes to impart skills and technical knowledge
• Encouraging the formation of self-help groups

Question 21.
Who is a casual wage labourer?
Answer:
A casual wage labourer is the one who is casually engaged in the other’s firm and gets payment in return of the work done. Examples of casual wage labourers: construction worker, fruit pickers, carpenters, etc.

Question 22.
How will you know whether a worker is working in the informal sector?
Answer:
A worker is working in the informal sector if:

• he or she is paid very low wage;
• he or she is not provided with overtime, paid leave, holidays, leave due to sickness and other such benefits;
• his or her job is not secure; and
• the employer does not follow any rules and regulations.