CBSE Class 8

Make your learning experience enjoyable by preparing from the Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources available on this page. All the Solutions are covered as per the latest syllabus guidelines. Knowing the Answers to the Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 2 Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources helps students to attempt the exam with confidence.

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources

Extra Questions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources

NCERT Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions Very Short Answers Type

Question 1.
Give the reason for uneven distribution of population in different parts of the world?
Answer:
Varied characteristics of land and climate.

Question 2.
Mention the physical factors which determine the land use pattern.
Answer:

1. Topography
2. soil
3. climate
4. minerals
5. availability of water.

Question 3.
Which are the major threats to our environment?
Answer:

1. Land degradation,
2. soil erosion,
3. desertification.

Question 4.
What is soil?
Answer:
The thin layer of grainy substance covering the surface of the earth is called soil.

Question 5.
Give two reasons of water shortage or water scarcity.
Answer:
(i) Variation in annual or seasonal precipitation.
(ii) Over-exploitation of water.
(iii) Contamination of water.

Question 6.
Mention two major contaminants of water bodies.
Answer:
(i) Discharge of untreated or partially treated sewage.
(ii) Agricultural chemicals.
(iii) Industrial effluents.

Question 7.
On which two factors does the growth of vegetation depend?
Answer:
(i) Temperature and
(ii) moisture.

Question 8.
How are the major vegetation types of the world grouped?
Answer:
(i) Forests,
(ii) grasslands,
(iii) scrubs,
(iv) tundra.

Question 9.
Give one main reason for the clearance of forest?
Answer:
To feed the growing population or to increase agricultural land.

Question 10.
What is the total account of freshwater over the earth?
Answer:
1%.

Question 11.
Where does the government get money for public facilities?
Answer:
The government gets money from taxes collected from people for public facilities.

Question 12.
Ocean water is and is not fit for human use.
Answer:
salty.

Question 13.
State true or false:
Water is a non-renewable natural resource.
Answer:
False.

NCERT Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions Short Answers Type

Question 14.
What do you understand by land use?
Answer:
Using of land for different purposes like agriculture, forestry, mining, building houses, roads and setting up of industries is commonly termed as land use.

Question 15.
Distinguish between private land and community land.
Answer:

Question 16.
Mention the common methods used to conserve land.
Answer:
(i) Afforestation,
(ii) land reclamation,
(iii) regulated use of chemical pesticides and fertilisers,
(iv) checks on overgrazing.

Question 17.
Mention the factors of soil formation.
Answer:
(i) Parent rock,
(ii) climate,
(iii) topography,
(iv) organic matter,
(v) time.

Question 18.
Mention the factors which lead to soil degradation.
Answer:
(i) Deforestation,
(ii) overgrazing,
(iii) overuse of chemical fertilisers or pesticides,
(iv) rain wash,
(v) landslides,
(vi) floods.

Question 19.
What is terrace cultivation?
Answer:
On steep slopes, terraces are made so that flat surfaces are available to grow crops. It reduces surface run-off and soil erosion.

Question 20.
Define contour ploughing.
Answer:
Ploughing is done parallel to the contours of a hill slope to form a natural barrier for water to flow down the slope.

Question 21.
Which method of soil conservation is practiced in the coastal and dry regions?
Answer:
In coastal and dry regions, rows of trees are planted to check the wind movement to protect soil cover.

Question 22.
What do you understand by water cycle?
Answer:
Movement of water through the oceans, the air, the land and back again, through the process of evaporation and precipitation is called water cycle.

Question 23.
What are the major factors leading to shortage in supply of fresh water?
Answer:
(i) Increasing population,
(ii) rising demands for food and cash crops,
(iii) increasing urbanisation,
(iv) rising standards of living.

Question 24.
Which regions of the world face scarcity of water?
Answer:
(i) Africa,
(ii) West Asia,
(iii) South Africa,
(iv) parts of Western USA,
(v) North-West Mexico,
(vi) parts of South America,
(vii) Australia.

Question 25.
Define biosphere and ecosystem.
or
Write the difference between biosphere and ecosystem.
Answer:
(i) Biosphere – It is the narrow zone of contact between the lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere.
(ii) Ecosystem – In the biosphere, living beings are interrelated and interdependent on each other for survival. This life supporting system is called ecosystem.

Question 26.
Various species of natural vegetation and wildlife have become vulnerable or endangered and some are at the verge of extinction. Why? Give reasons.
Answer:
Deforestation, soil erosion, construc-tional activities, forest fires and landslides are some of the human made and natural factors which together accelerate the process of extinction of natural vegetation and wildlife.

Question 27.
Why are animals poached?
Answer:
Animals are poached for collection and illegal trade of hides, skins, nails, teeth, horns as well as feathers.

Question 28.
What are landslides?
Answer:
Landslides are mass movement of rock, debris or earth down a slope. They include a broad range of motions whereby falling, sliding and flowing under the influence of gravity dislodges earth material.

Question 29.
Give two main reasons of forest fire.
Answer:
(i) Natural fire due to lightening.
(ii) Fire purposely caused by local inhabitants.

NCERT Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions Long Answers Type

Question 30.
Varied characteristics of land and climate affect the distribution of population. Explain how.
Answer:
Varied characteristics of land and climate affect the distribution of population in the following ways –
(i) The rugged topography, steep slopes of mountains, low-lying areas susceptible to water logging, desert areas, thick forested areas are sparsely populated or uninhabited.
(ii) Fertile plains and river valleys offer suitable land for agriculture. Therefore, these are densely populated.

Question 31.
Explain how various factors affect soil formation.
Answer:
(i) Parent Rock – It determines colour, texture, chemical properties, mineral content and permeability of the soil.
(ii) Relief – Altitude and slope determine the accumulation of soiL
(iii) Climate – Temperature and rainfall influence rate of weathering and humus formation.
(iv) Time – It determines the thickness of soil.
(v) Flora, Fauna and micro-organisms – These affect the rate of humus formation.

Question 32.
Describe five methods of soil conservation.
Answer:

1. Mulching – The bare ground between plants is covered with a layer of organic matter like straw. It helps to retain soil moisture.
2. Contour barriers – Stones, grass, soil are used to build barriers along contours. Trenches are made in front of the barriers to collect water.
3. Agroforestry – Crops are grown along with trees on the boundaries of the fields to check soil erosion.
4. Rock dam – Rocks are piled up to slow down the flow of water. This prevents gully erosion.
5. Intercropping – Different crops are grown in alternate rows and are sown at different times to protect the soil from rain wash.

Question 33.
Describe the distribution of water on the earth’s surface.
Answer:
(i) Oceans cover two-thirds of the earth’s surface.
(ii) The fresh water accounts for only about 2.7 percent of the total. Nearly 70 per cent of this occurs as ice sheets and glaciers in Antarctica, Greenland and mountain regions. Only one per cent of fresh water is available as ground water, surface water in rivers and lakes and as water vapour in the atmosphere.

Question 34.
Mention the various ways of water conservation.
Answer:

1. The rainwater can be collected from the rooftop with the help of pipes in tanks, sumps, ponds or lakes. It also helps in recharging of groundwater.
2. The canals must be properly lined to minimise losses by water seepage.
3. Sprinklers effectively irrigate the area by checking water losses through seepage and evaporation.
4. In dry regions with high rates of evaporation, drip irrigation is very useful.

Question 35.
Write four advantages of rainwater harvesting.
Answer:

1. It makes ecological and financial sense not to waste pure natural resources available in large quantity on rooftop.
2. It encourages water conservation and self-dependence.
3. If water does not contain any organic material and is stored in a clean container, it remains pure for long time.
4. It prevents groundwater depletion and is a good supplement to piped water.

Question 36.
How are plants useful to us?
0r
Write the various uses of plants.
Answer:

1. Plants provide us timber.
2. Give shelter to animals.
3. Produce oxygen we breathe.
4. Protect soil which is essential for growing crops.
5. Act as shelterbelts.
6. Help in storage of underground water.

Give us fruits, nuts, latex, turpentine oil, gum, medicinal plants, paper, etc.

Question 37.
Explain how animals are useful to us.
Answer:

1. Animals provide us with milk, meat, hides and wool.
2. Insects like bees provide us with honey, help in pollination of flowers and have an important role to play as decomposers in the ecosystem.
3. The birds feed on insects and act as decomposers as well. Vulture, due to its ability to feed on dead livestock, is a scavenger and considered a vital cleanser of the environment.

Question 38.
Describe how the growth of forests depends on rainfall.
Answer:

1. Huge trees and dense forests are found in the areas of heavy rainfall.
2. Short stunted trees grow in the regions of moderate rainfall.
3. Thorny shrubs and scrubs grow in dry areas of low rainfall.
4. Tundra vegetation of cold Polar Regions comprise of mosses in lichens.

Question 39.
Write the major causes of landslides.
Answer:
Major causes of landslides are as follows:

1. Topographic variables – Relief, slope.
2. Geological – Lithology, fault/thrust/ lineaments.
3. Morphological causes – Drainage density, dissected surface, stream action.
4. Triggering factors – Rainfall, earthquake.
5. Anthropogenic – Land use, excavation on slope.

Question 40.
Mention some mitigation techniques of landslides.
Answer:

1. Hazard mapping, locate areas prone to landslides. Hence, such areas can be avoided for building settlements.
2. Construction of retention wall to stop land from slipping.
3. Increase in the vegetation cover.
4. The surface drainage control works are implemented to control the movement of landslide along with rainwater and spring flows.

Question 41.
Mention the steps that can be taken to protect plants and animals.
Answer:

1. National parks, wildlife sanctuaries and biosphere reserves are made.
2. Awareness programmes like social forestry and van Mahotsav should be encouraged at the regional and community level.
3. School children should be encouraged for bird watching and visiting nature camps so that they appreciate the habitat of varied species.
4. Laws must be passed declaring the trade and killing of birds and animals is illegal.

Hope the data shared above regarding the NCERT Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources PDF has aided in your exam preparation. If you ever need any assistance you can always reach us and our team will guide you at the soonest possibility.

Make your learning experience enjoyable by preparing from the Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Resources available on this page. All the Solutions are covered as per the latest syllabus guidelines. Knowing the Answers to the Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 1 Resources helps students to attempt the exam with confidence.

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions Resources

Extra Questions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Resources

NCERT Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions Very Short Answers Type

Question 1.
What is resource?
Answer:
Anything that can be used to satisfy a need is a resource.

Question 2.
Which two factors can change substances into resources?
Answer:
(i) Time and
(ii) Technology.

Question 3.
Why do people are important resource?
Answer:
People are important resource because their ideas, knowledge, inventions and discoveries lead to the creation of more resources.

Question 4.
How resources are classified?
Answer:

1. Natural,
2. human-made and
3. human.

Question 5.
How natural resources are classified?
Answer:
Natural resources are classified on the basis of their

1. level of development,
2. use,
3. origin,
4. stock,
5. distribution.

Question 6.
In India, where is energy generated by using windmills?
Answer:

1. Nagercoil in Tamil Nadu
2. Gujarat coast.

Question 7.
What is human resource development?
Answer:
Improving the quality of people’s skills so that they are able to create more resources is known as human resource development.

Question 8.
Mention few ways of conserving resources.
Answer:

1. Reducing consumption,
2. Recycling,
3. Reusing.

Question 9.
Name a renewable resourced
Answer:
Solar and wind energy.

Question 10.
Give two examples of renewable resources.
Answer:
Solar and wind energy

NCERT Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions Short Answers Type

Question 11.
What are natural resources? Give few examples.
Answer:
Resources that are drawn front nature and used without much modification are called natural resources. For example, air, water, minerals.

Question 12.
How our resources be classified on the basis of the level of their development? Writepbne point of difference between them.
Answer:
On the Basis ofthe level of development, resources can be classified into two groups – actual resources and potential resources. Actual resources are those whose quantity is known whereas the entire quantity of potential resources may not bp known.

Question 13.
Distinguish between abiotic and biotic resources.
Answer:
Abiotic resources are non-living. For example, soils, rocks and minerals. Biotic resources are living. For example, plants and animals.

Question 14.
What are human-made resources?
Answer:
People use natural resources to make buildings, bridges, roads, machinery and vehicles. These are known as human-made resources.

Question 15.
What is the difference between resource conservation and sustainable development?
Answer:
Using resources carefully and giving them time to get renewed is called resource conservation. Balancing the need to use resources and also conserve them for the future is called sustainable development.

Question 16.
How can we contribute to maintain and preserve the life support system?
Answer:

1. The diversity of life on the earth must be conserved.
2. The damage to natural environment system should be minimized.

Question 17.
‘Bulb should be switched off when not need’. Do you agree with this statement? If yes, give reasons.
Answer:
We should conserve energy for the future. We should using resources carefully because it is very limited.

Question 18.
What is a resource? Is human also a resource? How?
Answer:
Anything that can be used to satisfy a need is resource. YES, human is also a resource they make best use of nature to create more resource with the help of their knowledge, skill and technology.

NCERT Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions Long Answers Type

Question 19.
Distinguish between the renewable and non-renewable resources.
Answer:

Question 20.
When was the Ministry of Human Resource Development created? What was its main aim? Which are the two important departments within this Ministry?
Answer:
The Ministry of Human Resource Development was created in 1985. Its main aim is to improve people’s skill.
Two important departments within the Ministry of Human Resource Development are :

1. The Department of School Education and Literacy
2. The Department of Higher Education

Hope the data shared above regarding the NCERT Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Resources PDF has aided in your exam preparation. If you ever need any assistance you can always reach us and our team will guide you at the soonest possibility.

Make your learning experience enjoyable by preparing from the Class 8 History Chapter 10 Extra Questions and Answers The Changing World of Visual Arts available on this page. All the Solutions are covered as per the latest syllabus guidelines. Knowing the Answers to the Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 10 The Changing World of Visual Arts helps students to attempt the exam with confidence.

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 History Chapter 10 Extra Questions The Changing World of Visual Arts

Extra Questions for Class 8 History Chapter 10 The Changing World of Visual Arts

NCERT Class 8 History Chapter 10 Extra Questions Very Short Answers Type

Question 1.
What was the population of India in 1947?
Answer:
Almost 345 million.

Question 2.
Who said, “India could not and must not become a Hindu Pakistan?”
Answer:
Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru.

Question 3.
Had the franchise in U.K. or U.S.A. been granted all their citizens at the same time like India?
Answer:
No, this right had heen granted in stages there,

Question 4.
Explain the term, Union List.
Answer:
A Union List with subjects such as taxes, defence and foreign affairs is the exclusive responsibility of the centre.

Question 5.
What is meant by a State List?
Answer:
A State List of subjects such as education and health which would be taken care of principally by the states.

Question 6.
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee?
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Amhedkar.

Question 7.
Why was Nehru met with black flags and slogans during the election campaign in Telugu-speaking districts in 1952?
Answer:
Telugu-speakers were demanding a separate Andhra Pradesh while the government was reluctant on this issue.

Question 8.
Who was Potti Sriramulu?
Answer:
He was the Gandhian leader who died fasting for a separate state for Telugu- speakers.

Question 9.
When was Andhra Pradesh come into existence?
Answer:
1 October 1953.

Question 10.
When was Bombay divided into Maharashtra and Gujarat?
Answer:
1 May 1960.

Question 11.
When was Punjab divided into Punjab and Haryana?
Answer:
1 November 1966.

Question 12.
When was a Planning Commission set up in India?
Answer:
In 1950.

Question 13.
What was the focus of the Second Five Year Plan?
Answer:
The plan focused strongly on the development of heavy industries such as steel, and on the building of large dams.

Question 14.
When was the Bhilai Steel Plant set up? Which country helped in setting up the Bhilai Steel Plant?
Answer:
(1) In 1959.
(2) The former Soviet Union.

Question 15.
Which international body was formed in 1945?
Answer:
The United Nations.

NCERT Class 8 History Chapter 10 Extra Questions Short Answers Type

Question 16.
What is a Concurrent List?
Answer:
A Concurrent List, under which would come subjects such as forests and agriculture, in which the centre and the states would have joint responsibility.

Question 17.
State about the compromise in the Constituent Assembly regarding Hindi and English as an official language of India?
Answer:
A compromise was finally arrived at – while Hindi would be the “official language” of India, English would be used in the courts, the services and communications between one state and another.

Question 18.
What do you mean by the Cold War?
Answer:
The Cold War referred to the power rivalries and ideological conflicts between the U.S.A. and the U.S.S.R. during 1950s to 1980s. Both countries were creating military alliances.

Question 19.
What was the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM)?
Answer:
Led by statesmen from Egypt, Yugoslavia, Indonesia, Ghana and India, NAM was the movement which urged countries not to join either of the two major alliances.

Question 20.
Who was H. J. Khandekar? What he said about Harijan candidates to get into the prestigious Indian Administrative Service?
Answer:
(1) He was a member of the Constituent Assembly.
(2) He argued, it was the upper castes who were responsible for the Harijans “being unfit today”.

Question 21.
What role did India play during the Cold War?
Answer:
(1) Being a leader of NAM, India played an active role in mediating between the American and Soviet alliances.
(2) It tried to prevent war by taking often a humanitarian and moral stand against war.

Question 22.
When was Sinhala recognised as the sole official language of Sri Lanka (then Ceylon)? Why has a civil war raged in the country?
Answer:
(1) In 1956.
(2) A civil war raged in Sri Lanka due to the imposition of the Sinhala language on the Tamil-speaking minority.

Question 23.
Why was a States Reorganisation Commission set up? What did it recommend?
Answer:
(1) After the creation of Andhra Pradesh in 1 October 1953, other linguistic communities also demanded their own separate states. That was why, a States Reorganisation Commission was set up.
(2) It submitted its report in 1956, recommending the redrawing of district and provincial boundaries to form compact provinces of Assamese, Bengali, Oriya, Tamil, Malayalam, Kannada and Telugu speakers respectively.

Question 24.
State any three problems that the newly independent Indian faced.
Answer:
(1) As a result of partition, 8 million refugees had come into the country from what was now Pakistan. These people had to be found homes and jobs.
(2) There was the problem of the princely states almost 500 of them, each ruled by a maharaja or a nawab. Each of whom had to be persuaded to join the new Nation.
(3) The new nation had also to adopt a political system that would best serve the hope and expectations of its population.

NCERT Class 8 History Chapter 10 Extra Questions Long Answers Type

Question 25.
Name the various divisions in which the population of India was divided in 1947.
Answer:
There were divisions between:

1. high castes and low castes.
2. Hindu community and other religious communities.
3. the citizens spoke different languages.
4. the people eating different kinds of food.
5. the people having different professions.

Question 26.
Discuss the problems related to development in India at Independence?
Answer:

1. At Independence, the vast majority of Indians lived in the villages. While farmers and peasants depended on the monsoon for their survival.
2. In the case of non-farm sector, if the crops failed, barbers, carpenters, weaves and other service groups would not get paid for their services either.
3. Factory workers lived in crowded slams with little access to education or health care.
4. There was urgent need to reduce poverty by increasing the productivity of agriculture and by promoting new jobs creating industries.

Question 27.
State the main features of the Constitution of India?
Answer:

1. It adopted universal adult franchise. All Indians above the age of 21 (presently 18) would be allowed to vote in state and national elections.
2. It guaranteed equality before the law to all citizens regardless of their caste or religious affiliation.
3. It offered special privileges for the poorest and most disadvantaged Indians.
4. The Constitution sought to balance between the powers of the central government and those of the state governments. This was done by providing three lists of subjects:
   1. • a Union List
      • a State List and
      • a Concurrent List.

Question 28.
What measures or privileges had our Constitution prescribed for the poorest and the most disadvantaged Indians?
Answer:

1. The practice of untouchability was abolished.
2. Hindu temples, previously open to only the higher castes, were thrown open to all, including the former untouchables.
3. A certain percentage of seats in legislatures, as well as jobs in government, were reserved for the members of the lowest castes.
4. The Adivasis or Scheduled Tribes were also granted reservation in seats and jobs.

Question 29.
On which grounds was the economic policy of India, during the early few decades criticised?
or
Why was the focus on heavy industry and State regulation of the economy criticised?
Answer:
The critics had the following points:
(1) This approach had put inadequate emphasis on agriculture.
(2) It had neglected primary education.
(3) It had not taken account of the environmental implications of economic policies.

Question 30.
To what extent has India fulfilled the ideals set out in its Constitution?
or
Critically examine how well has the country done in more than sixty years of Independence?
or
Examine successes and failures of India during more than sixty years of Independence?
Answer:
Successes:
(1) Despite many bad assumptions, India is still united. People speak different languages or practise different faiths but they have not come in the way of national unity.
(2) Many foreign observers had felt that India would soon come under military rule. But India is still democratic. There is free press and an independent judiciary. There have been thirteen successful general elections.

Failures:
(1) Even today, the untouchables or the Dalits face violence and discrimination. In many parts of rural India, they are not allowed access to water sources, temples, parks and other public places.
(2) Despite the secular ideals in the Constitution, there have been clashes between different religious groups in many states.
(3) The gap between the rich and the poor has grown over the years.
(4) The Constitution recognises equality before the law, but in real life some Indians are more equal than others. Thus, India has achieved a mix response.

Question 31.
How did the partition affect life in Delhi?
Answer:
(1) The population of Delhi Swelled.
(2) The kinds of jobs people did changed.
(3) The culture of city become different.
(4) As streams of muslims left Delhi for Pakistan. Their place was taken by equally large members of Sikh and Hindu refugee from Pakistan.
(5) Nearly 5,00,000 people were added to Delhi’s population, which had a little over 8,00,000 people in 1951.

Hope the data shared above regarding the NCERT Class 8 History Chapter 10 Extra Questions and Answers The Changing World of Visual Arts PDF has aided in your exam preparation. If you ever need any assistance you can always reach us and our team will guide you at the soonest possibility.

Make your learning experience enjoyable by preparing from the Class 8 History Chapter 9 Extra Questions and Answers Women, Caste and Reform available on this page. All the Solutions are covered as per the latest syllabus guidelines. Knowing the Answers to the Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 9 Women, Caste and Reform helps students to attempt the exam with confidence.

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 History Chapter 9 Extra Questions Women, Caste and Reform

Extra Questions for Class 8 History Chapter 9 Women, Caste and Reform

NCERT Class 8 History Chapter 9 Extra Questions Very Short Answers Type

Question 1.
Till when is Indian National Congress said to be moderate in its objectives and methods?
Answer:
The Congress in the first twenty years was moderate in its objectives and methods.

Question 2.
What was the main objective of moderate leaders?
Answer:
The main objective of moderate leaders was to express their demands and make the government aware of the feelings of Indians.

Question 3.
Who were the main leaders of radicals?
Answer:

1. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
2. Lala Lajpat Rai
3. Bipin Chandra Pal.

Question 4.
What was the famous slogan of Bal Gangadhar Tilak?
Answer:
Tilak raised the slogan, “Freedom is my birthright and I shall have it!”

Question 5.
When was Bengal partitioned?
Answer:
Bengal was partitioned in 1905.

Question 6.
Who was the Viceroy of India when Bengal was partitioned?
Answer:
Viceroy Curzon.

Question 7.
What do you mean by Swadeshi Movement?
Answer:
The struggle that unfolded after the partition of Bengal, came to be known as the Swadeshi movement.

Question 8.
What is Vandemataram Movement?
Answer:
The struggle that unfolded in deltaic Andhra after the partition of Bengal was known as the Vandemataram Movement.

Question 9.
When was the All India Muslim League established?
Answer:
The All India Muslim League was established at Dacca in 1906.

Question 10.
While the Congress opposed the partition of Bengal, which national organization supported it?
Answer:
The All India Muslim League.

Question 11.
When did the Congress split?
Answer:
The Congress split in 1907.

Question 12.
When did the two groups of the Congress reunite?
Answer:
The two groups of the Congress reunited in December 1915.

Question 13.
Since when did the struggle against British rule become a mass movement?
Answer:
After 1919, the struggle against British rule gradually became a mass movement.

Question 14.
When did Gandhiji come in India from South Africa?
Answer:
Gandhiji arrived in India in 1915 from South Africa.

Question 15.
State the earliest interventions in the British rule by Mahatma Gandhi.
Answer:
His earliest interventions were in local movements in Champaran, Kheda and Ahmedabad.

Question 16.
What was the role of Gandhiji in Ahmedabad movement of 1918?
Answer:
In Ahmedabad, Gandhiji led a successful millworkers’ strike in 1918.

Question 17.
What is Rowlatt Satyagraha?
Answer:
In 1919, Gandhiji gave a call for a Satyagraha against the Rowlatt Act that is called the Rowlatt Satyagraha.

Question 18.
Which struggle is considered to be the first all-India struggle against the British government?
Answer:
The Rowlatt Satyagraha.

Question 19.
Why did Rabindranath Tagore renounce his Knighthood?
Answer:
On learning about the Jallianwala Bagh massacre, Rabindranath Tagore expressed the pain and anger of the country by renouncing his knighthood.

Question 20.
Who were the leaders of the Khilafat agitation?
Answer:

• Mohammad Ali,
• Shaukat Ali.

Question 21.
Which movement was fought for Hindu-Muslim unity?
Answer:
Khilafat-Non-Cooperation Movement.

Question 22.
What do you mean by Akali agitation?
Answer:
This was the agitation of Sikhs in Punjab which sought to remove corrupt rnahants from their gurudwaras.

Question 23.
When did the Civil Disobedience Movement launch?
Answer:
In 1930.

Question 24.
Name the national organisations which came into existence in mid-1920s.
Answer:
(1) The Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS)
(2) The Communist Party of India

Question 25.
When did the Congress resolve to fight for Purna Swaraj? Who was the president of the Congress at the time?
Answer:
(1) In 1929
(2) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 26.
What is the importance of 26 January 1930 in Indian freedom struggle?
Answer:
As the Congress resolved to fight for Purtia Swaraj in 1929, “Independence Day” was observed on 26 January 1930 all over the country.

Question 27.
Who led a march to break the salt law?
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi in 1930.

Question 28.
What was salt law?
Answer:
According to the law, the state had a monopoly on the manufacture and sale of salt.

Question 29.
Why did Gandhiji oppose the salt law?
Answer:
Gandhiji along with other nationalists reasoned that it was sinful to tax salt since it is such an essential item of our food.

Question 30.
Who was Ambabai?
Answer:
Ambabai was an active woman participant in the national movement.

Question 31.
Who persuaded Gandhiji to allow women to join the national movement?
Answer:
Sarojini Naidu.

Question 32.
Who was the first Indian woman to become president of the Indian National Congress?
Answer:
Smt. Sarojini Naidu in 1925.

Question 33.
What did the Congress do when the British refused to concede its demand of independence after the Second World War?
Answer:
The Congress ministries resigned in protest.

Question 34.
Who was Veer Lakhan Nayak?
Answer:
He was a legendary tribal leader who defied the British and later was hanged.

Question 35.
What was Quit India Movement?
Answer:
It was the movement initiated by Mahatma Gandhi in 1942 in which he told that the British must quit India immediately.

Question 36.
Who gave the famous slogan “do or die” during Quit India Movement?
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi.

Question 37.
Who founded the Azad Hind Fauj or the Indian National Army (INA)?
Answer:
Subhas Chandra Bose in 1941

Question 38.
Who is called the father of Indian Constitution?
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar is called the father of Indian Constitution.

NCERT Class 8 History Chapter 9 Extra Questions Short Answers Type

Question 39.
What awareness came in the mind of Indians with the idea that India was the people of India?
Answer:
With this idea came the awareness that the British were exercising control over the resources of Indian and the lives of its people and until this control was ended India could not be for Indians.

Question 40.
What were the main motives of the British with regard to partition of Bengal?
Answer:
Though British argued for dividing Bengal for reasons of administrative conveni-ence, but the main British motives were, perhaps, to curtail the influence of Bengali politicians and to split the Bengali people.

Question 41.
What were the objectives of the Swadeshi Movement?
Answer:
The main objectives of the Swadeshi Movement were to oppose British rule and encourage the ideas of self-help, Swadeshi enterprise, national education and use of Indian languages.

Question 42.
What is meant by Lucknow Pact?
Answer:
In 1916, the Congress and the Muslim League signed the historic Lucknow Pact and decided to work together for representative government in the country.

Question 43.
How did Gandhiji spend his first year in India?
Answer:
He spent his first year in India travelling throughout the country, under-standing the people, their needs and the overall situation.

Question 44.
What was the Rowlatt Act?
Answer:
The Rowlatt Act was the Act passed by the British government in 1919 which curbed fundamental rights such as the freedom of expression and strengthened police powers.

Question 45.
Why did Gandhiji ask the Indian people to observe 6 April 1919 as a day of “humiliation and prayer”?
Answer:
Gandhiji asked the Indian people to observe 6 April 1919 as a day of “humiliation md prayer” and strike in order to do non-violent opposition to this Act.

Question 46.
Explain the term “Khilafat Agitation”
Answer:
Khilafat Agitation was the agitation against a harsh peace treaty to be imposed in 1920 on the Ottoman emperor who was the spiritual head of the Islamic world, i.e., the Khalifa.

Question 47.
When and why did Gandhiji call off the Non-Cooperation Movement?
Answer:
Gandhiji called off the NonCooperation Movement in February 1922 when a crowd of peasants set fire to a police station in Chauri Chaura.

Question 48.
What was Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA)?
Answer:
Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) was an association of ‘ workers and peasants founded by Bhagat Singh and his comrades in 1928 to fight colonial rule and the rich exploiting classes.

Question 49.
What do you mean by Dandi March?
Answer:
Gandhiji and his followers marched for over 240 miles from Sabarmati to the coastal town of Dandi where they broke the salt law by picking up a lump of natural salt on 6 April 1930.

Question 50.
Name any five political associations that came into being in the 1870s and 1880s.
Answer:

1. Poona Sarvajanik Sabha
2. The Indian Association
3. The Madras Mahajan Sabha
4. The Bombay Presidency Association
5. The Indian National Congress

Question 51.
Were the goals of political associations of 1870s and 1880s region-based? What was their belief?
Answer:
(1) Though many of these associations functioned in specific parts of the country, their goals were stated as the goals of all the people of India.
(2) They believed that the people should be sovereign, i.e., Indian people should be empowered to take decisions regarding their affairs.

Question 52.
Name any five early leaders of the Indian National Congress. :
Answer:

1. Dadabhai Naoroji
2. Pherozeshah Mehta
3. Badruddin Tyabji
4. W.C. Bonneiji
5. Surendranath Banerji
6. Romesh Chandra Dutt
7. S. Subramania Iyer (Any five)

Question 53.
Why is Indian National Congress said to be moderate in its first twenty years?
Answer:

1. The Congress Si the first twenty years was moderate in its objectives and methods.
2. During this period, it was doing “politics of prayers”.
3. It demanded a greater voice for Indians in the government and in administration.
4. It demanded that Indians be placed in high positions in the government.

Question 54.
What were the economic demands of the Congress in its early years?
Answer:
The following were the economic demands of early leadership of the Congress:

1. The Congress believed that the increase in the land revenue by the British government had impoverished peasants and zamindars. So, it demanded reduction of revenue.
2. It demanded to cut in military expenditure.
3. It also demanded more funds for irrigation.
4. Moreover, it passed many resolutions on the salt tax, treatment of Indian labourers abroad and the sufferings of forest dwellers.

Question 55.
What was Swadeshi Movement? What were its objectives?
Answer:
(1) The struggle that unfolded after the partition of Bengal, came to be known as the Swadeshi Movement.
(2) The main objectives of the Movement were to oppose British rule and encourage the ideas of self-help, swadeshi enterprise, national education and use of Indian languages. To fight for Swaraj, the radicals advocated mass mobilisation and boycott of British institutions and goods.

Question 56.
How did Khilafat-Non- Cooperation alliance work?
Answer:
(1) The Muslim leaders and brothers Mohammad Ali and Saukat Ali discussed the Khilafat issue with Gandhi and wished to initiate a full-fledged Non-Cooperation Movement.
(2) Gandhiji supported their call and urged the Congress to campaign against’ Punjab wrongs, the Khilafat wrong and demand swaraj.

Question 57.
What was Chauri Chaura incidence? Why did it happen?
Answer:
(1) In February 1922, a crowd of peasants set fire to a police station in which twenty-two policemen were killed.
(2) The peasants were provoked because the police had fired on their peaceful demonstration.

Question 58.
Explain the term “The Simon Commission”.
Answer:
In 1927, the British government in England decided to send a Commission headed by Lord Simon to decide India’s political future. The Commission had no Ifidian representative. The decision created an outrage in India.

Question 59.
Who threw a bomb in the Central Legislative Assembly on 8 April 1929? What was the aim behind this act?
Answer:
(1) (i) Bhagat Singh, (ii) B.K. Dutt.
(2) The aim of this act was not tc kill but, “to make the deaf hear”, to remind the foreign government of its callous exploitation.

Question 60.
Where and how did Gandhiji break the salt law?
Answer:
(1) Gandhiji and his followers marched for over 240 miles from Sabarmati to the coastal town of Dandi where they broke the salt law on 6 April 1930.
(2) They broke the law by gathering natural salt found on the seashore, and boiling seawater to produce salt.

Question 61.
What were the result of the combined struggles of salt satyagrahis?
Answer:

1. The Government of India Act of 1935 came into existence.
2. The Act prescribed provincial autonomy.
3. The government announced elections to the provincial legislatures in 1937.
4. The Congress formed governments in 7 out of 11 provinces.

Question 62.
Why did the Congress support the British in the Second World War? What did it demand in return?
Answer:
(1) Congress leaders were critical of Hitler, so they became ready to support the British war effort.
(2) In return, they wanted that India be granted independence after the war.

Question 63.
Explain the British repression during Quit India Movement.
Answer:

1. The first response of the British was severe repression.
2. Over 90,000 people were arrested by the end of 1943.
3. Around 1,000 were killed in police firing.
4. In many areas, orders were given to machine-gun crowds from airplanes.

NCERT Class 8 History Chapter 9 Extra Questions Long Answers Type

Question 64.
What were the main demands of the Congress in its first twenty years?
Answer:

1. The Congress demanded that Indians be placed in high positions in the government since most important jobs at that time were monopolized by British officials. It called for civil service examinations to be held in India as well as in London.
2. It also demanded the separation of the judiciary from the executive.
3. There should be repeal of the Arms Act.
4. It demanded the freedom of speech and expression.
5. Since, the increase in the land revenue had impoverished peasants and zamindars, the Congress demanded reduction of revenue.
6. Moreover, it demanded to cut in military expenditure and more funds for irrigation.

Question 65.
What political impact did the First World War have on India?
Answer:
The First World War had the following political impact on India:

1. The First World War led to a huge rise in the defence expenditure which, in turn, increased taxes on individual incomes and business profits. This agitated the people.
2. Increased military expenditure and the demands of war supplies led to a sharp rise in prices which created great difficulties for the common people.
3. The war created a demand for industrial goods such as jute bags, cloth, rails, etc. So, Indian industries expanded during the war and Indian business groups began to demand greater opportunities for development.
4. A large number of Indian soldiers were sent to serve abroad. Many returned after the war with an understanding that the British were exploiting the peoples of Asia and Africa and with a desire to oppose colonial rule in India.
5. As a result of Russian Revolution in 1917, the ideas of socialism circulated widely and inspired Indian nationalists.

Question 66.
Why did the League ask for an autonomous arrangement for the Muslims of the subcontinent?
Answer:
This had the following reasons :

1. From the late 1930s, the League began viewing the Muslims as a separate nation from the Hindus.
2. It may have been influenced by the history of tension between some Hindu and Muslim groups in the 1920s and 1930s.
3. The provincial elections of 1937 convinced the League that Muslims were a minority and they would always have to play second fiddle in any democratic structure.
4. It feared that Muslims may even go unrepresented.
5. The Congress’ rejection of the League’s desire to form a joint Congress-League government in the United Provinces in 1937 also annoyed the League.

Question 67.
In which circumstances did the Indian National Congress establish?
Answer:
People were dissatisfied with British rule in the 1870s and 1880s :

1. The Arms Act, 1878 disallowed Indians from possessing arms.
2. The Vernacular Press Act, 1878 was also enacted in an effort to silence the critics.
3. The government withdrew Ilbert Bill as a result of white opposition.
4. The need for an all-India organization of educated Indians had been felt since 1880, but the Ilbert Bill controversy deepened this desire.

The Indian National Congress was established when 72 delegates from all over the country met at Bombay in December 1885. A retired British official, A.O. Hume became its first president.

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Make your learning experience enjoyable by preparing from the Class 8 History Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers Civilising the Native, Educating the Nation available on this page. All the Solutions are covered as per the latest syllabus guidelines. Knowing the Answers to the Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 8 Civilising the Native, Educating the Nation helps students to attempt the exam with confidence.

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 History Chapter 8 Extra Questions Civilising the Native, Educating the Nation

Extra Questions for Class 8 History Chapter 8 Civilising the Native, Educating the Nation

NCERT Class 8 History Chapter 8 Extra Questions Very Short Answers Type

Question 1.
Who reinterpreted verses from the Koran to argue for women’s education?
Answer:
Mumtaz Ali.

Question 2.
What is meant by the Paramhans Mandali?
Answer:
The Paramhans Mandali was founded in 1840 in Bombay. Its aim was to work for the abolition of caste.

Question 3.
When did the people from within the ‘lower’ castes begin organising movements against caste discrimination?
Answer:
Gradually, by the second half of the nineteenth century, people from within the lower castes began organising movements against caste discrimination and demanded social equality and justice.

Question 4.
What was Phule’s suggestion to abolish caste discrimination?
Answer:
Jyotirao Phule proposed that Shudras, i.e., labouring castes and Ati shudras, i.e., untouchables should unite to challenge caste discrimination.

Question 5.
What did Periyar suggest to achieve social equality?
Answer:
He said that all religious authorities saw social divisions and inequality as God- given. So, untouchables had to free themselves from all religions in order to achieve social equality.

Question 6.
What was Periyar’s view about the codes of Manu, the Gita and the Ramayana?
Answer:
Periyar was an outspoken critic of these Hindu scriptures. He said that these texts had been used to establish the authority of Brahmans over lower castes and the domination of men over women.

NCERT Class 8 History Chapter 8 Extra Questions Short Answers Type

Question 7.
What is meant by the loss of caste status?
Answer:
Those people who laboured to keep cities and villages clean, or worked at jobs that upper castes considered “polluting”, they were considered to have a loss of caste status.

Question 8.
What do you mean by untouchability?
Answer:
The people at the lowest level in the caste system laboured to keep cities and villages clean or worked at jobs that upper castes considered polluting. The upper castes treated these people as untouchables. They were not allowed to enter temples, draw water from the wells used by the upper castes or bathe in ponds where upper castes bathed. They were seen as inferior human beings.

Question 9.
Name any five social reformers in India.
Answer:

1. Raja Rammohun Roy (1772-1833)
2. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
3. Swami Dayanand Saraswati
4. Jyotirao Phule
5. E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker (Periyar)

Question 10.
Name any five women social reformers of eighteenth and nineteenth centuries in India.
Answer:

1. Begum Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain
2. Tarabai Shinde
3. Pahdita Ramabai
4. Rashsundari Debi
5. Begums of Bhopal

Question 11.
When was the law regarding widow remarriage passed? Who suggested this view initially?
Answer:
(1) This law was passed in 1856 that permits widow remarriage.
(2) The famous social reformer Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar used the ancient texts to suggest that widows could remarry. His suggestion was adopted by British officials and they made a law in this regard.

Question 12.
Why was the curriculum not the same for both boys and girls? Which school provided first the same hind of learning for the two?
Answer:
(1) Initially, the people believed that the curriculum for girls should be easier than that for boys.
(2) The Hindu Mahila Vidyalaya was one of the first institutions to provide girls with the kind of learning that was usual for boys at that time.

Question 13.
Name any three Muslim social reformers who emphasized on women’s education.
Answer:

1. Mumtaz Ali
2. Begum Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain
3. Begums of Bhopal

Question 14.
When was the Child Marriage Restraint Act passed? What were its provisions?
Answer:

1. The Child Marriage Restraint Act was passed in 1929.
2. According to the Act, no man below the age of 18 and woman below the age of 16 could marry.

Caste and Social Reform

Question 15.
What do you mean by the Prarthna Samaj?
Answer:
The Prarthana Samaj was established in 1867 at Bombay. It followed the tradition of Bhakti that believed in spiritual equality of all castes. It tried to remove caste restrictions, abolish child marriage, encourage the education of women and end the ban on widow remarriage.

Question 16.
Name any five low-caste leaders who worked for caste discrimination and social equality.
Answer:

1. Ghasidas
2. Haridas
3. Jyotirao Phule
4. B.R. Ambedkar
5. E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker (Periyar)
6. Shri Narayan Guru

Question 17.
Who was Shri Narayan Guru? What were his ideals?
Answer:
(1) Shri Narayan Guru was a low- i- caste leader from present-day Kerala.
(2) (i) He proclaimed the ideals of unity of all people within one sect, i.e., a single caste and one guru.
(ii) He, along with other low-caste leaders, tried to change those habits and practices among low castes which provoked upper castes’ contempt.

Question 18.
How did Jyotirao Phule extend his criticism of the caste system?
Answer:
(1) Phule extended his criticism of the caste system to argue against all forms of inequality.
(2) He was also worried about the pitiable condition of upper-caste women, the miseries of the labourers and the humiliation of the low castes.

Question 19.
Write a short note on Dr. B.R. Ambedkar and his experience about caste prejudice.
Answer:
(1) Ambedkar was born into a Mahar family. Mahar people were regarded as untouchables. The father of B.R. Ambedkar was also the leader of the Dalit movement. After finishing school, he went to the US for higher studies on a fellowship. In 1927, he *’ started a Temple Entry Movement.
(2) As a child, Ambedkar experienced caste prejudice in everyday life. In school he was forced to sit outside the classroom on the ground. He was not allowed to drink water from taps that upper caste children used.

Question 20.
Who initiated the Non-Brahman Movement? ‘What was the argument of the movement?
Answer:
(1) In the early twentieth century, the Non-Brahman Movement started. The initiative came from those Non-Brahman castes that had acquired access to education, wealth and influence.
(2) They argued that Brahmans were heirs of Aryan invaders from the north who had conquered and subjugated, the original inhabitants of the region, i.e., the indigenous Dravidian races. The movement challenged Brahmanical claims to power.

Question 21.
Name the associations which came in existence as a result of the Non-Brahman Movement. What was their objective?
Answer:
(1) (i) Sanatan Dharma Sabhas
(ii) Bharat Dharma Mahamandal
(iii) Brahman Sabha in Bengal
(2) The object of these associations was to uphold caste distinctions as a cornerstone of Hinduism and show how this was sanctified by scriptures.

Question 22.
What was the contribution of Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar in empower¬ing the women in India? Write any two.
Answer:
Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar supported widow remarriage, education for girls and set up schools for girls.

NCERT Class 8 History Chapter 8 Extra Questions Long Answers Type

Question 23.
What were the conditions of women and children in Indian society around two hundred years ago?
Answer:

1. There was a system of child marriage. Most children were married off at an early age.
2. Both Hindu and Muslim men could marry more than one wife.
3. Widows were praised if they chose death by burning themselves on the funeral pyre of their husbands.
4. Women’s rights to property were also restricted.
5. Most women had virtually no access to education. People generally believed that if a woman was educated, she would become a widow.

Question 24.
How were people divided along lines of caste?
Answer:

1. They were divided into Brahmans, Kshatriyas, Vaishyas and Shudras.
2. Brahmans and Kshatriyas considered themselves as upper castes.
3. Traders and moneylenders were referred to as Vaishyas.
4. At the lowest level, there were Shudras. Working Towards Change

Question 25.
What factor prompted social customs and practices to change from the early nineteenth century?
Answer:

1. One important reason for this change*was the development of new forms of communication.
2. For the first time, books, newspapers, magazines, leaflets and pamphlets were printed.
3. These were far cheaper and far more accessible than the manuscripts. So, ordinary people could read, write and express their ideas in their own languages.
4. The discussions on all kinds of issues could reach out to a wider public and could become linked to movements for social change.

Question 26.
Match the following Indian reformers with their respective organisations:

Answer:
(i) (d)
(ii) (e)
(iii) (a)
(iv) (b)
(v) (c)
(vi) (f)
(vii) (g)
(viii) (h)

Question 27.
Write a note on Raja Rammohun Roy.
or
What were the social ideas of Rammohun Roy? What strategy did he adopt to fulfil his social objectives?
Answer:
Raja Rammohun Roy (1772-1833) was a social reformer. He founded a reform association known as the Brahmo Sabha (Brahmo Samaj) in Calcutta. He was well- versed in Sanskrit, Persian and several other Indian and European languages.

Social objectives: He wanted to spread the knowledge of Western education in the country and bring about greater freedom and equality for women. He was worried particularly by the problems widows faced in their lives.

He began a campaign against the practice of Sati and in 1829, Sati was banned.
Strategy: Whenever he wished to challenge a practice that seemed harmful, he tried to find a verse or sentence in the ancient sacred texts that supported his point of view. He then suggested that the existing practice was against early tradition.

Question 28.
How did the movement in favour of widow remarriage spread to all over the country?
Answer:

1. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar used the ancient texts to suggest that widows could remarry.
2. In the Telugu-speaking areas of the Madras Presidency, Veerasalingam Pantulu formed an association for widow remarriage.
3. In the north, Swami Dayanand Saraswati founded the Arya Samaj and supported widow remarriage.
4. Young intellectuals and reformers in Bombay began to work for the same cause, i.e., widow remarriage.

Question 29.
To what extent did the widow remarriage movement remain successful?
Answer:
This movement was successful to a limited extent.

1. The number of widows who actually remarried remained low.
2. Those women who married were not easily accepted in society.
3. The conservative groups continued to oppose the law permitting widow remarriage.

Question 30.
What were the factors that contributed in bringing equality of castes?
Answer:

1. Many reformers and reform associations held secret meetings and violated caste taboos on food and touch in order to get rid of the hold of caste prejudice in their lives.
2. Christian missionaries set up schools for tribal groups and lower caste children.
3. The poor began leaving their villages to look for jobs that were opening up in the cities.
4. Some low caste people went to other countries such as Mauritius, Trinidad and Indonesia for work. All the above factors filled up the social gap to some extent.

Question 31.
Describe the contribution of Raja Ram Mohun Roy in social reforms.
Answer:
Raja Ram Mohun Roy (1772-1833) was the founder of Brahmo Sabha (Brahmo Samaj) in Calcutta. He supported the ideas to spread the knowledge of western education in the country and bring about greater freedom and equality for women. As a result of his efforts, the practice of Sati was banned in 1829.

Hope the data shared above regarding the NCERT Class 8 History Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers Civilising the Native, Educating the Nation PDF has aided in your exam preparation. If you ever need any assistance you can always reach us and our team will guide you at the soonest possibility.

Make your learning experience enjoyable by preparing from the Class 8 History Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Weavers, Iron Smelters and Factory Owners available on this page. All the Solutions are covered as per the latest syllabus guidelines. Knowing the Answers to the Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 7 Weavers, Iron Smelters and Factory Owners helps students to attempt the exam with confidence.

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 History Chapter 7 Extra Questions Weavers, Iron Smelters and Factory Owners

Extra Questions for Class 8 History Chapter 7 Weavers, Iron Smelters and Factory Owners

NCERT Class 8 History Chapter 7 Extra Questions Very Short Answers Type

Question 1.
What was the cultural mission of the British in India?
Answer:
They wanted to civilize the natives by changing their customs and values.

Question 2.
Who set up Asiatic Society of Bengal?
or
Who started a journal called Asiatic Researchers?
Answer:

1. William Jones;
2. Henry Thomas Colebrooke; and
3. Nathaniel Halhed

Question 3.
When was English Education Act introduced?
Answer:
In 1835.

Question 4.
What were seen as “temples of darkness” after the English Education Act of 1835?
Answer:
Oriental institutions like the Calcutta Madrasa and Benaras Sanskrit College.

Question 5.
Where was the missionaries set up a mission?
Answer:
The missionaries set up a mission at Serampore in an area under the control of the Danish East India Company.

Question 6.
Who reported the East India Company on the progress of education in Vernacular schools in 1830s?
Answer:
William Adam, a Scottish missionary.

NCERT Class 8 History Chapter 7 Extra Questions Short Answers Type

Question 7.
Who was William Jones?
Answer:
William Jones was a junior judge at the Supreme Court that the company had set up. In addition to being an expert in law, he was a linguist.

Question 8.
What do you mean by “Wood’s Despatch”?
Answer:
In 1854, the Court of Directors of the East India Company in London sent an educational despatch to the Governor-General in India. Since the Despatch was issued by Charles Wood, it was called Wood’s Despatch.

Question 9.
Why was the argument for practical education criticised by the Christian missionaries in India in the nineteenth century?
Answer:
The missionaries felt that education should attempt to improve the moral character of the people and morality could be improved only through Christian education.

Question 10.
Why was the East India Company opposed to missionary activities in India until 1813?
Answer:
It feared that missionary activities would provoke reaction amongst the local population and make them suspicious of British presence in India.

Question 11.
Why was the British government reluctant to directly support missionary education after 1857?
Answer:
There was a feeling that any strong attack on local customs, practices, beliefs and religious ideas might enrage native opinion.

Question 12.
What were the motives of the British in India?
Answer:

1. The British wanted to control over revenues.
2. They wanted territorial conquest.
3. As a cultural mission, they wanted to civilise the natives.
4. They wanted to change natives’ customs and values.

Question 13.
How, according to the company officials, could the British win a place in the hearts of the natives?
Answer:
(1) Many company officials argued that the British ought to promote Indian rather than Western Learning Institutions should be set up to encourage the study of ancient Indian texts and teach Sanskrit and Persian.
(2) Hindus and Muslims ought to be taught what they were already familiar with and what they valued and treasured.

Question 14.
When and why did the British set up a madrasa in Calcutta and Hindu college in Benaras ?
Answer:
(1) A madrasa was set up in Calcutta in 1781 to promote the study of Arabia, Persian and Islamic law.
(2) Hindu college was established in Benaras in 1791 to encourage the study of ancient Sanskrit texts that would be useful for the administration of the country.

Question 15.
Why did many British officials begin to criticize the Orientalist vision of learning?
Answer:
(1) They said that knowledge of the East was full of errors and unscientific thought.
(2) Eastern literature was non-serious and light-hearted.
So, they argued that it was wrong on the part of the British to spend so much effort in encouraging the study of Arabic and Sanskrit language and literature.

Question 16.
How, according to Macaulay, could teaching of English be a way of civilizing people?
Answer:
(1) He felt that knowledge of English would allow Indians to read some of the finest literature the world had produced.
(2) It would make them aware of the developments in western science and philosophy.

Question 17.
How were children taught in pre-British times?
Answer:
(1) There were small institutions called pathshalas with not more than 20 students each.
(2) These institutions were set up by wealthy people or the local community. At times they were started by a guru (teacher).

Question 18.
How was the flexible education system in pre-British times suitable for local needs?
Answer:
(1) Classes were not held during harvest time when rural children often worked in the fields.
(2) The pathshalas started once again when the crops had been cut and stored. So even children of peasant families could study.

NCERT Class 8 History Chapter 7 Extra Questions Long Answers Type

Question 19.
State the main features of Wood’s Despatch in 1854.
Answer:

1. It emphasized the practical benefits of a system of European learning as opposed to oriental knowledge.
2. It said that European learning would enable Indians to recognise the advantages that flow from the expansion of trade and commerce.
3. European ways of life would change their tastes and desires and create a demand for British goods for Indians.
4. European learning would improve the moral character of Indians.
5. The literature of the East was not only full of grave errors, it could not instill in people a sense of duty and a commitment to work.

Question 20.
What was the impact of Wood’s Despatch on education system of India?
Answer:

1. Education departments of the government were set up to extend control over all matters regarding education.
2. Steps were taken to establish a system of university education.
3. In 1857, in spite of Sepoys Revolt, universities were being established in Calcutta, Madras and Bombay.
4. Attempts were also made to bring about changes within the system of school education.

Question 21.
State main features of school education in pre-British times.
Answer:

1. There were small institutions, called pathshalas with not more than 20 students each.
2. These institutions were set up by wealthy people or the local community. At that times they were started by a guru.
3. The system of education were flexible. There was no fixed fee, no printed books, no separate school building, no benches or chairs or blackboards, no annual examinations and no regular time-table.
4. Fee depended on the income of parents.
5. Teaching was oral and guru decided what to teach.
6. The guru interacted separately with groups of children with different levels ofleaming.

Question 22.
Explain any five points raised by William Adam in his report about the functioning of ‘Pathshala’s in India.
Answer:

1. There were small institutions, called pathshalas with not more than 20 students each.
2. These institutions were set up by wealthy people or the local community. At that time they were started by a guru.
3. The system of education were flexible. There was no fixed fee, no printed book, no separate school building, no benches or chairs or blackboards, no annual examinations and no regular time-table.
4. Fee depended on the income of parents.
5. Teaching was oral and guru decided what to teach.
6. The guru interacted separately with groups of children with different levels of learning.

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