CBSE Class 9

These NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 1 Democracy in the Contemporary World Questions and Answers are prepared by our highly skilled subject experts to help students while preparing for their exams.

Democracy in the Contemporary WorldNCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 1

Class 9 Civics Chapter 1 Democracy in the Contemporary World Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following does not to the spread of democracy in the first decade after 1945?
(a) Struggle by the people
(b) Invasion by foreign countries
(c) End of colonialism
(d) People’s desire for freedom.

Question 2.
Which of the following statement is true about today’s world:
(a) Monarchy as a form of government has vanished.
(b) The relationship betwefen different countries has become more democratic than ever before,
(c) In more and more countries, rulers are being elected by the people.
(d) There are no more military dictators in the world.

Question 3.
Use one of the following statements to complete the Sentence. Democracy in international organizations requires that:
1. The rich countries should have a greater say ,
2. Countries should have a say according to their military power.
3. Countries should be treated with respect in proportion to their population
4. All countries in the world should be treated equally.
Answer:
1. (d), 2. (c), 3. (d), 4. (d).

Question 4.
Based on the information given in this chapter, match the following countries and The path democracy has taken in that country:

Answer:
(a) II, (b) IV, (c) III, (d) I.

Question 5.
What are the difficulties people face in a non-democratic country? Give answers drawing from the examples given in this chapter.
Answer:
People face numerous difficulties in a non-democratic country. Some such difficulties are as under :

• People are devoid of their basic rights;
• They are not allowed to protest against the atrocities inflicted on them;
• They are not permitted to express and demonstrate their opposition;
• They are not allowed to form organizations to state their grievances.
• They do not choose their rulers, nor change them.
• They do riot possess freedom; they do not express their opinion nor can they organize a protest and political action.

Question 6.
Which freedoms are usually taken away when a democracy is overthrown by the military?
Answer:
When democracy is overthrown by the military, the people lose all their freedoms. They do not have the freedom to speech and, expression of their opinion. They cannot form political organizations, or organize their protest and action.

Question 7.
Which of the following positions can contribute to democracy at the global level? Give reasons for your answer in each case.
(a) My country gives more money to international institutions. Therefore, I want to be treated with more respect and exercise more power.
(b) My country may be small or poor. But my voice must be, heard, with equal respect, because these decisions will affect my country.
(c) Wealthy nations will have a greater say in international affairs. They cannot let their interests suffer just because they are outnumbered by poor nations.
(d) Big countries like India must have a greater say in international organizations.
Answer:
(a) By merely giving more money to the international institutions, a country should not be treated with more respect and exercise power. Democracy does not thrive on luxuries, nor by the rich. It is plutocracy, the rule of the rich, and hot the rule of the people.

(b) A country may be small in size and poor economically. Democracy will strengthen if all the countries, irrespective of their size or economy, are treated equally. Decisions in democracy affect all the countries equally.

(c) If wealthy nations, because of their wealth, have a greater say in international affairs, they would make decisions that would promote; their interests. This would not contribute to democracy, rather it would harm it adversely.

(d) Countries Which are large in population and bigger in size such as India should have their say, not at the cost of smaller ones. Representation of interests and number should be given the corresponding weightage. John Stuart Mill was strong of the view that the interest should not be sacrificed at the cost of number, nor the vice-versa.

Question 8.
Here are three opinions heard in a television debate on the struggle for democracy in Nepal. Which of these do you agree with and why?
Guest 1: India is a democracy. Therefore, the Indian government must support the people of Nepal who are struggling against monarchy and democracy.
Guest 2: That is a dangerous argument. We would be in the same position as the US was in Iraq. Remember, no outside force can promote democracy.
Guest 3: But why should we bother about the internal affairs of another country? We should be worried about our business interests there, not about democracy.
Answer:
Democracy breeds from within. Imposition of democracy on others or from above is, indeed, dangerous as the USA. really did in Iraq. It is impertinent that any democratic country, India including, should encourage democracy wherever it exists, but no country should implant democracy. One can teach people swimming if they do not learn to swim. The opinion of guest 3 is really weighty, for we should protect our interests in other countries, not that we make them democrat by losing our interest.

Question 9.
In an imaginary country called Happyland, the people overthrew the foreign ruler and brought back the old royal family. They said: “After all their ancestors were our kings before foreigners started ruling us. It is good that we have one strong ruler, who can help us become rich and powerful”.
When someone talked about democracy the wise men said it is a foreign idea. Their struggle was to throw the foreigners and their ideas out of the country. When someone demanded freedom for the media, the elders thought that too much criticism of the ruler would not help them improve their living standards. “After, all, the king is so kind and interested in the welfare of all the subjects. Why create problems for him. Don’t we all want to be happy?”
After reading the above passage, Chaman, Champa, and Chandra made the following observations:
Chaman: Happyland is a democratic country because people were able to throw out the foreign rulers and bring back the king.
Champa: Happyland is not a democratic country because people cannot
criticize the ruler. The king may be nice and may provide economic prosperity, but a king cannot give a democratic rule.
Chandru: What people heed is happiness. So they are willing to allow their new ruler to make decisions for them. If people are happy to must be democratic.
What is your opinion about each of these statements? What do you think about the form of government in this country?
Answer:
Democracy means the rule of the people, by them and for them. A slave country is never a democratic Country. National independence is one where people are free from the foreign rule.

The liberation from the British and independence of India was connected with the democratic ideal. But, if a country liberties itself from foreign rule and reverts back to the monarchical system does not make that democracy, for the monarchy is not democracy.

In fact, Where the rulers are hot subject to criticism by the people in general, their one does not find democracy. The essence of democracy is that the people rule themselves, that they can criticize their rulers and that they have freedom of opinion and expression, and that they can change their rulers through election:

Democracy and happiness are not the same, A happy man is not a democratic man, though, for a democracy, there is a need to have a good economy. People can build democracy and can also build their economy: the two supplement each other.
A country that has a king at its head is a monarchy and not a democracy, if the king is only a constitutional head, a country can be, as in Britain, a democratic form of government.

Class 9 Civics Chapter 1 Democracy in the Contemporary World Additional Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How is Allende pronounced?
Answer:
Allende is pronounced as Avendo.

Question 2.
When was Allende’s government overthrown?
Answer:
Allende’s government was overthrown on September 11, 1973.

Question 3.
When was Allende made President of Chile?
Answer:
Salvador Allende was made the President of Chile in 1970.

Question 4.
Mention the name of the political party which came to power in Chile in 1970.
Answer:
Popular Unity.

Question 5.
Who succeeded Allende in Chile in a military coup?
Answer:
General Augusta Planchet succeeded Allende.

Question 6.
Where is Calama located?
Answer:
Calama is located about a thousand miles away from the capital of Chile, Santiago.

Question 7.
How did the women of Calama demonstrate their grief?
Answer:
They remained silent, always in silence.

Question 8.
Which state in our country has a shape similar to Chile?
Answer:
Kerala.

Question 9.
Can you find, examples similar to what happened to Women of Calama from other countries?
Answer:
In Russia during the Czarist regime.

Question 10.
Can you identify who is the President of Chile now?
Answer:
Michelle Bachelet (Jan, 2006).

Question 11.
Why did newspapers in that country not write about women of Calama in those years?
Answer:
The newspapers in that country, in those years, were under state censorship.

Question 12.
Which political party governed Poland in 1980?
Answer:
The Polish UnitedWorkers Party—a one-party monopoly of power.

Question 13.
In which factory in the city of Golansk file strike began in 1980?
Answer:
Lenin Shipward.

Question 14.
Name the person who joined the strikers in Poland in 1980.
Answer:
Lech Walesa.

Question 15.
Name any two countries where the Communist Party ruled during the Polish events in 1980.
Answer:
Bulgaria and Hungary.

Question 16.
Identify a few countries around Poland.
Answer:
Germany, Lithuania, Belarus, Slovakia, Ukraine.

Question 17.
Why did the strike begin in the shipyard?
Answer:
The strike began to take back a crane operator a woman worker, who faced unjust dismissal from service.

Question 18.
Why was an independent trade union so important for Poland?
Answer:
It was the first trade union formed independently of the government’s, control.

Question 19.
When did the Glorious revolution occur in England?
Answer:
The glorious revolution occurred in England in 1688.

Question 20.
When did the 13 colonies declare independence in what is now known as the United States of America?
Answer:
In 1776.

Question 21.
Mention the several steps taken by the AHende’s government to help the poor workers.
Answer:
The Allende’s government, in Chile, took several steps to help the poor workers. These included

• reforms in the educational system
• free milk for children
• redistribution of land among the farmers.

Question 22.
Give two reasons Why AHende’s political party was popular in Chile?
Answer:
Allende’s political party, the Popular Unity was popular in Chile for reasons given below:
1. It was opposed to foreign companies exploiting natural resources (copper) against the interests of the people of Chile.
2. The rich opposed Allende’s political party, though the workers, by and large, liked Allende’s efforts.

Question 23.
What did Pinocfiet’s regime dp after overthrowing Allende’s government in Chile in 1973?
Answer:
Pinochet’s regime, after taking over power, began torturing people and killing those who were supporting Allende In the process, more than 2000 people were killed by the military regime. Many more were, reported ‘missing’. No one knows what had happened to them.

Question 24.
Why did Allende refer to “workers” in his speech? Why would have the rich opposed to him?
Answer:
Before Allende’s government wa$ taken over by Pinochet’s military regime, he got the opportunity to address his people, referring to them as ‘workers’; The rich-opposed Allende because his policies were pro-workers and pro-poor.

Question 25.
Think why would women and children of Calama be asked to keep quiet? Why people could not react to those events?
Answer:
The women and children of Calama were asked to keep quiet because if they spoke, their children would be killed by the military. People, could not react to the military’s torture because they knew that if they reacted, they would also be tortured.

Question 26.
How was Poland ruled in 1980?
Answer:
Poland, in 1980, was ruled by the Polish United Worker Party. Then there was a one-party monopoly of power in Poland. No one was permitted to oppose the official party line. The government trade unions owned all the factories. These trade unions were not independent of the ruling party.

Question 27.
Why did the strike begin in Lenin Shipyard in Gdansk?
Answer:
The workers of the Lenin Shipyard started a strike in the city of Gdansk. The demand of the workers was to take back a crane operator, a woman worker, who faced an unjust dismissal from service.

Question 28.
Which other demands were put forth as the strike spread across the whole city of Gdansk?
Answer:
The Lenin Shipyard strike spread as Lech Walesa, also dismissed from the service as an electrician, joined the strike. The demands of the workers began swelling:

• all the workers removed from the service be taken back;
• the workers sought the right to have independent trade unions;
• political process be made free;
• censorship on the press is removed.

Question 29.
Mention two provisions of the 21 point agreement made between the Polish government and the workers led by Walesa.
Answer:
The two provisions of the 21 point, an agreement between the Polish government and the workers were:

• The workers’ right to form independent trade unions was guaranteed.
• They got the right to go on strike.

Question 30.
Why did the Polish government lead by the Polish United Workers Party got panicky?
Answer:
The Polish Workers United Party got panicky as the solidarity, led by Walesa had more than one crore workers as its members; the revelations that the government was corrupt and mismanaged made the latter declare martial in the country. As thousands of Solidarity members were put in prison, the government withdrew freedoms given to the people.

Question 31.
What led to the rise of Walesa attaining power in Poland?
Answer:
In the late 1980s, Walesa was gaining popularity. He led another strike in 1988. The government had already become weak; the economy was bn its .decline; there was no hope of government’s getting support from the USSR. An agreement resulted in having free elections in the country. The solidarity won 99 seats of the Senate which had a total strength of 100. Lech Walesa became the President in October 1990.

Question 32.
What reasons would you give to say that Solidarity was popular in 1990?
Answer:
The following are the reasons to say that Solidarity was popular in Poland in 1990:

• Solidarity was a trade union organized to protect the interests of the workers.
• It sought to gain rights in favor of the workers, i.e. the right to organize, and the right to strike
• It sought to gain rights such as freedoms to talk about freely and to express protests.
• It was able to organize itself under the able leadership of men like Lech Walesa.

Question 33.
What freedoms were devised for the people in Chile and Poland when they did not have democracy?
Answer:
When Chile and Poland did not have democracy in the 1970s and 1980s respectively, the people were denied numerous freedoms. Some of these were:

• They were denied the right to personal liberties;
• They were denied the right to freedom of speech;
• They were not allowed to organize a strike;
• They were not allowed to register their protests freely;
• They were not permitted to express their views in the press; the press was also not free.

Question 34.
Can you think of reasons why people would have liked a change in their government?
Answer:
The people would have liked to have a change in their government because they would have liked a democracy in place of non-democracy; their desire to have a change would have ushered in an era of freedoms and prosperity for the people.

Question 35.
Identify some features that made Portugal under Salazar a case of non-democracy.
Answer:

1. Salazar overthrew the elected, government in 1926.
2. From 1926 to 1974, Salazar ruled as a dictator.
3. Salazar suppressed opposition; killed their leaders;
4. He organized ‘concentration camps’ where lie punished those who were involved in the working-class in forests.
5. He ruled through spies who were present in public places?
6. Citizens were denied freedoms; they could not discuss politics in the open.

Question 36.
What could be the impact of the presence of secret police in public places? Why is it necessary for people to discuss politics without fear?
Answer:
The presence of secret police in public places: cafes, railway stations, post offices, hospitals, universities, factories— would mean having a reign of terror. Under such a system, citizens would not talk against the regime for fear of being arrested and tortured. Politics without fear is a guarantee of democracy; with fear, that of a non-democracy.

Question 37.
Why were women given voting rights much later than men in most countries? Why did this not happen in India?
Answer:
Franchise (Voting rights) movements started in different countries at different times. These movements sought male franchise first. This is why men got voting rights earlier. In India, this did not happen so because democratic and voting rights ushered for all at the same time after independence.

Question 38.
How did the French Revolution, the Glorious Revolution and the American War of independence help pave the way for democracy?
Answer:
The French revolution of 1789 did not establish a secure and stable democracy, in France. But it prepared the ground for and inspired many struggles for democracy all over Europe. The French revolution was preceded by a more limited but no less significant movement in Britain. This culminated in the ‘Glorious’ revolution of 1688. Around the same time as the French revolution, the British colonies in what is today the United States of America declared themselves independent.

Since the principle underlying the Declaration of Independence of 1776 was democratic, it was natural that they set up a democratic system in the Constitution of the United States of America. These developments decided once for all that there are no divine rights of the kings that men and women constitute the basis on which their rights and liberties are built, that men and women are bom equal and born free.

Question 39.
How would you describe Salazar’s regime? as a dictatorship? Elections were held in Salazar’s Portugal. Why should it not be called a democracy?
Answer:
Salazar captured power in Portugal in 1926. For about a half-century, he ruled the country as a dictator. He was cruel to the opposition leaders, tortured them, and killed them. His government started concentration camps on a barren island to punish those involved in working-class protests. The spies and informers of the secret police were present in all public places, cafes, railway stations, post offices/ hospitals, offices, universities, and factories.

Being fearful of arrest, the citizen could not dare to discuss politics in the open. After 1945, the government allowed the opposition to campaign for one month before the elections. This one month of’ ‘free time was never enough to mobilize people politically for support during elections as no opposition was allowed after elections. The elections were held irregularly, every four or seven years. The opposition never won a single seat in these elections.

Question 40.
The late 17th century and the early 20th century saw some “democracies” in the world. Why were they not called democracies in the sense we use in the world today?
Answer:
Some countries of the world could be called ‘democracies’ by the beginning of the twentieth century. But these countries, which became democratic in the 19th century, did not allow all people to vote. Often the women did not have a right to vote. In some countries, only people owning property had the right to vote. In the United States of America, blacks did not have a right to vote all over the country until the second half of the twentieth century. So we cannot say that these were full democracies in the sense in. which we understand them today. Never, the beginning for democracy had begun. These countries had some of the following things common to them:

• The governments were no more dictatorial. A measure of governmental accountability was seen.
• Some kind of limited representative systems had started.
• People had started launching movements for their rights.

Question 41.
Where do you place Ghana as a democratic nation?
Answer:
The country that is today called Ghana used to be a British colony called Gold Coast. This country became independent in 1957. It was among the first counties in Africa to be liberated from colonialism. It inspired other African countries to struggle for freedom. Kwame Nkrumah, son of a goldsmith and a teacher himself was active in the independence struggle of his country. For him, like many other African nationalists, the struggle against foreign rule was linked to establishing the democratic rule.

After independence, Nkrumah became the first prime minister and then the president of Ghana. He was a friend of Jawaharlal Nehru and an inspiration for democrats, in Africa. But unlike Nehru, he deviated from the path of democracy and got himself elected the president for life. Nkrumah justified his actions by arguing that “Even a system based on a democratic constitution may need backing up in the period following independence by emergency measures of a totalitarian kind”. Shortly thereafter, in 1966, he was overthrown by the military, Ghana was no longer a democracy.

Question 42.
Explain wi(h examples as to how democracy lias been adopted in the world since 199’0’s.
Answer:
1990 saw’ numerous changes in the World. The communist regime came to an end in Poland, and Hungary in eastern European countries. The USSR disintegrated as a simple country and a multi-party system came to be adopted. Major changes, especially in Pakistan and Bangladesh” made a transition from army rule to a democratic regime in the 1990s. In Nepal, the monarch gave up many of his powers to become a ‘constitutional monarch’ to be guided by elected leaders. These changes were not permanent and were reversed in Pakistan and Nepal.

Yet the overall trend in this period is of more and more countries turning to democracy. This phase continues till now. By 2002, about 140 countries were holding multi-party elections. This number was higher than ever before. More than 80 previously non-democratic countries have made significant advances, towards democracy, during this period. but even today, there are many countries where people cannot express their opinion freely. They still cannot elect their leaders. They cannot decide how they will live in the present and in the future.

Question 43.
Give a detailed account of developments that took place in Myanmar since 1990.
Answer:
Elections were held in Myanmar (earlier Burma) in 1990. The NED (National League for Democracy), led by Aung Sang Suti Kyi won with a comprehensive victory. But the military rulers of Myanmar refused to recognise the election results and put the elected pro-democracy leaders including Suu Kyi under house arrest. Political activists, accused of even the most trivial offenses, have been jailed for seven to fifteen years. Anyone caught publicly airing views or issuing statements critical of the regime were sentenced to up to twenty years in prison. Due to the coercive policies of the military-ruled government in Myanmar, about 6 to 10 lakh people in that country, have been uprooted from their homes and have taken shelter elsewhere.

Despite the restrictions of house arrest, Suu Kyi continued to campaign for democracy. According to her, The quest for democracy in Myanmar is the struggle of the people to live whole, meaningful lives as free and equal members of the world community. Her struggle has won international recognition; She was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize. Yet the people in Myanmar are still struggling for establishing a democratic government.

Question 44.
Are we moving towards global democracy? Give examples.
Answer:
We know that democracy has expanded. Now more arid more people in Asia and Africa are also able to take part in forming governments in their countries. But does this trend also hold true for relationships among different countries or people from different countries? Are we moving towards global democracy?
A quick look at some of the major global institutions suggests that we are not.

Expansion of democracy within nations has not led to greater democracy at the international level. Consider these facts:
1. The United Nations (UN) is the largest and best-known international organization in the world. Every one of its 192 member countries has one vote in the UN General Assembly. But all the crucial decisions about taking action in any conflict situation are taken by the 15 member Security Council. While ten of its members are non-permanent, the real power is with five ‘permanent’ members-USA, Russia, UK, France, and China. Any one of these five can ‘veto’, that is to reject or to stall, any decision of the Security Council.

2. International Monetary Fund (IMF) is one of the biggest money lenders for any country in the World. Its 173 member states do not have equal voting power. The vote of each country is weighted by how much money it has given to IMF. Eight of the leading ‘G-8’ (Canada, Germany, Japan, Italy, UK, USA, Russia, and France) countries have a majority of votes. The World Bank has a similar .system of voting. The President of the World Bank is always a citizen of the USA, nominated by the Treasury Secretary (Finance Minister) of the US government.

3. The World Trade Organisation (WTO) is the key-global institution that decides upon rules of trade among different countries. Every decision of the WTO has to be by consensus of all the countries. So it appears to be fully democratic. But most of the decisions are taken in informal meetings which are secret and to which only some powerful countries are invited.

In fact, While nations are becoming more democratic than they were earlier/ international organizations are becoming less democratic. In this sense, the collapse of the USSR had a negative effect on democracy.

Now, the USA is the only superpower in the world. This has encouraged the USA to act unilaterally, without seeking the consent of or even consultation with other countries. This has led more and more people and countries to say that the UN should be more democratized. Only through equal participation of all the members, can the UN be a democratic organisation. In this way, the world also can be more democratic.

These NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure Questions and Answers are prepared by our highly skilled subject experts to help students while preparing for their exams.

Is Matter Around Us Pure NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 2

Class 9 Science Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is meant by a pure substance?
Answer:
A pure substance is the one that consists of a single type of particles, i.e., all constituent particles of the substance have the same chemical nature. Pure substances can be classified as elements or compounds.

Question 2.
List the points of differences between homogeneous and heterogeneous mixtures.
Answer:
A homogeneous mixture is a mixture having a uniform composition throughout the mixture. For example: salt in water, sugar in water, copper sulphate in water.

A heterogeneous mixture is a mixture having a non-uniform composition throughout the mixture. For example: sodium chloride and iron fillings, salt and sulphur, oil and water

Question 3.
Differentiate between homogeneous and heterogeneous mixtures with examples.
Answer:
A homogeneous mixture is a mixture having a uniform composition throughout the mixture. For example, mixtures of salt in water, sugar in water, copper sulphate in water, iodine in alcohol, alloy, and air have uniform compositions throughout the mixtures.

On the other hand, a heterogeneous mixture is a mixture having a non-uniform composition throughout the mixture. For example, composition of mixtures of sodium chloride and iron fillings, salt and sulphur, oil and water, chalk powder in water, wheat flour in water, milk and water are not uniform throughout the mixtures.

Question 4.
How are sol, solution and suspension different from each other?
Answer:
Sol is a heterogeneous mixture. In this mixture, the solute particles are so small that they cannot be seen with the naked eye. Also, they seem to be spread uniformly throughout the mixture. The Tyndall effect is observed in this mixture. For example; milk of magnesia, mud.

Solution is a homogeneous mixture. In this mixture, the solute particles dissolve and spread uniformly throughout the mixture. The Tyndall effect is not observed in this mixture. For example: salt in water, sugar in water, iodine in alcohol, alloy

Suspensions are heterogeneous mixtures. In this mixture, the solute particles are visible to the naked eye, and remain suspended throughout the bulk of the medium. The Tyndall effect is observed in this mixture. For example: chalk powder and water, wheat flour and water

Question 5.
To make a saturated solution, 36 g of sodium chloride is dissolved in 100 g of water at 293 K. Find its concentration at this temperature.
Answer:
Mass of solute (sodium chloride)=36 g (Given)
Mass of solvent (water) = 100 g (Given)
Then, mass of solution = Mass of solute + Mass of solvent
= (36 + 100) g
= 136 g
= \(\frac{\text { Mass of solute }}{\text { Mass of solvent }}\) × 100%
= \(\frac{36}{136}\) × 100%
= 26.47%
Therefore, concentration (mass by mass percentage) of the solution.

Question 6.
Classify the following as chemical or physical changes:

• Cutting of trees
• Melting of butter in a pan
• Rusting of almirah
• Boiling of water to form steam
• Passing of electric current through water, and water breaking down into hydrogen and oxygen gas
• Dissolving common salt in water
• Making a fruit salad with raw fruits
• Burning of paper and wood

Answer:

• Cutting of trees ? Physical change
• Melting of butter in a pan ? Physical change
• Rusting of almirah ? Chemical change
• Boiling of water to form steam ? Physical change
• Passing of electric current through water, and water breaking down into hydrogen and oxygen gas ? Chemical change
• Dissolving common salt in water ? Physical change
• Making a fruit salad with raw fruits ? Physical change
• Burning of paper and wood ? Chemical change

Question 7.
Try segregating the things around you as pure substances or mixtures.
Answer:
Pure substance: Water, salt, sugar
Mixture: Saltwater, soil, wood, air, cold drink, rubber, sponge, fog, milk, butter, clothes, food

Question 8.
What type of mixtures is separated by the technique of crystallization?
Answer:
By the technique of crystallization, pure solids are separated from impurities. For example, salt obtained from the sea is separated from impurities; crystals of alum (Phitkari) are separated from impure samples.

Class 9 Science Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which separation techniques will you apply for the separation of the following?
(a) Sodium chloride from its solution in water.
(b) Ammonium chloride from a mixture containing sodium chloride and ammonium chloride.
(c) Small pieces of metal in the engine oil of a car.
(d) Different pigments from an extract of flower petals.
(e) Butter from curd.
(f) Oil from water.
(g) Tea leaves from tea.
(h) Iron pins from sand.
(i) Wheat grains from husk.
(j) Fine mud particles suspended in water.
Answer:
(a) Sodium chloride from its solution in water ? Evaporation
(b) Ammonium chloride from a mixture containing sodium chloride and ammonium chloride ? Sublimation
(c) Small pieces of metal in the engine oil of a car ? Centrifugation or filtration or decantation
(d) Different pigments from an extract of flower petals ? Chromatography
(e) Butter from curd ? Centrifugation
(f) Oil from water ? Using separating funnel
(g) Tea leaves from tea ? Filtration
(h) Iron pins from sand ? Magnetic separation
(i) Wheat grains from husk ? Winnowing
(j) Fine mud particles suspended in water ? Centrifugation

Question 2.
Write the steps you would use for making tea. Use the words: solution, solvent, solute, dissolve, soluble, insoluble, filtrate and residue.
Answer:
First, water is taken as a solvent in a saucer pan. This water (solvent) is allowed to boil. During heating, milk and tea leaves are added to the solvent as solutes. They form a solution. Then, the solution is poured through a strainer. The insoluble part of the solution remains on the strainer as residue. Sugar is added to the filtrate, which dissolves in the filtrate. The resulting solution is the required tea.

Question 3.
Pragya tested the solubility of three different substances at different temperatures and collected the data as given below (results are given in the following table, as grams of substance dissolved in 100 grams of water to form a saturated solution).

(a) What mass of potassium nitrate would be needed to produce a saturated solution of
potassium nitrate in 50 grams of water at 313 K?
(b) Pragya makes a saturated solution of potassium chloride in water at 353 K and leaves the solution to cool at room temperature. What would she observe as the solution cools? Explain.
(c) Find the solubility of each salt at 293 K. What salt has the highest solubility at this temperature?
(d) What is the effect of change of temperature on the solubility of a salt?
Answer:
(a) At 313 K, 62 grams of Potassium nitrate dissolved in 100 grams of water. So to produce a saturated solution of potassium nitrate in 50 grams of water, we need
\(\frac{62 \times 50}{100}\) = 31 grams of potassium nitrate
(b) Some soluble potassium chloride will separate out in the form of crystals at room temperature because the solubility of potassium chloride will decrease with decrease in temperature.

(c) (i) Solubility of Potassium nitrate at 293 K is 32 grams.
(ii) Solubility of Sodium chloride at 293 K is 36 grams.
(iii) Solubility of Potassium chloride at 293 K is 35 grams.
(iv) Solubility of Ammonium chloride at 293 K is 37 grams.
The solubility of Ammonium chloride is highest at this temperature.

(d) The solubility of salt increases with increase in temperature.

Question 4.
Explain the following giving examples:
(a) Saturated solution
(b) Pure substance
(c) Colloid
(d) Suspension
Answer:
(a) Saturated solution: A saturated solution is a solution in which the maximum amount of solute has been dissolved at a given temperature. The solution cannot dissolve beyond that amount of solute at that temperature. Any more solute added will settle down at the bottom of the container as a precipitate.

Suppose 500 g of a solvent can dissolve a maximum of 150 g of a particular solute at 40°C. Then, the solution obtained by dissolving 150 g of that solute in 500 g of that solvent at 300 K is said to be a saturated solution at 300 K.

(b) Pure substance: A pure substance is a substance consisting of a single type of particles i. e., all constituent particles of the substance have the same chemical properties.
For example, salt, sugar, water are pure substances.

(c) Colloid: A colloid is a heterogeneous mixture. The size of the solutes in this mixture is so small that they cannot be seen individually with naked eyes, and seems to be distributed uniformly throughout the mixture. The solute particles do not settle down when the mixture is left undisturbed. This means that colloids are quite stable. Colloids cannot be separated by the process of filtration. They can be separated by centrifugation. Colloids show the Tyndall effect. For example, milk, butter, foam, fog, smoke, clouds.

(d) Suspension: Suspensions are heterogeneous mixtures. The solute particles in this mixture remain suspended throughout the bulk of the medium. The particles can be seen with naked eyes. Suspension shows the Tyndall effect. The solute particles settle down when the mixture is left undisturbed. This means that suspensions are unstable. Suspensions can be separated by the method of filtration. For example, mixtures of chalk powder and water, wheat flour and water.

Question 5.
Classify each of the following as a homogeneous or heterogeneous mixture. Soda water, wood, air, soil, vinegar, filtered tea
Answer:
Homogeneous mixtures: Soda water, air, vinegar
Heterogeneous mixtures: Wood, soil, filtered tea

Question 6.
How would you confirm that a colourless liquid given to you is pure water?
Answer:
Every liquid has a characteristic boiling point. Pure water has a boiling point of 100°C (373 K) at 1 atmospheric pressure. If the given colourless liquid boils at even slightly above or below 100°C, then the given liquid is not pure water. It must boil at sharp 100°C. Thus, by observing the boiling point, we can confirm whether a given colourless liquid is pure water or not.

Question 7.
Which of the following materials fall in the category of a “pure substance”?
(a) Ice
(b) Milk
(c) Iron
(d) Hydrochloric Acid
(e) Calcium oxide
(f) Mercury
(g) Brick
(h) Wood
(i) Air
Answer:
The following materials fall in the category of a “pure substance”:
(a) Ice
(c) Iron
(d) Hydrochloric acid
(e) Calcium oxide
(f) Mercury

Question 8.
Identify the solutions among the following mixtures:
(a) Soil
(b) Sea water
(c) Air
(d) Coal
(e) Soda water
Answer:
The following mixtures are solutions:
(b) Sea water
(c) Air
(e) Soda water

Question 9.
Which of the following will show the “Tyndall effect”?
(a) Salt solution
(b) Milk
(c) Copper sulphate solution
(d) Starch solution
Answer:
Milk and starch solution will show the “Tyndall effect”.

Question 10.
Classify the following into elements, compounds and mixtures:
(a) Sodium
(b) Soil
(c) Sugar solution
(d) Silver
(e) Calcium carbonate
(f) Tin
(g) Silicon
(h) Coal
(i) Air
(j) Soap
(k) Methane
(l) Carbon dioxide
(m) Blood
Answer:
Elements:
(a) Sodium
(d) Silver
(f) Tin
(g) Silicon

Compounds:
(e) Calcium carbonate
(k) Methane
(l) Carbon dioxide

Mixtures:
(b) Soil
(c) Sugar solution
(h) Coal
(i) Air
(j) Soap
(m) Blood

Question 11.
Which of the following are chemical changes?
(a) Growth of a plant
(b) Rusting of iron
(c) Mixing of iron fillings and sand
(d) Cooking of food
(e) Digestion of food
(f) Freezing of water
(g) Burning of candle
Answer:
The following changes are chemical changes:
(a) Growth of a plant
(b) Rusting of iron
(d) Cooking of food
(e) Digestion of food
(g) Burning of candle

Class 9 Science Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure Additional Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions
Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
Which of the following statements are true for pure substances?
(i) Pure substances contain only one kind of particles
(ii) Pure substances may be compounds or mixtures
(iii) Pure substances have the same com-position throughout
(iv) Pure substances can be exemplified by all elements other than nickel
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (ii)and (iii)
Answer:
(b) (i) and (iii)

Question 2.
Rusting of an article made up of iron is called
(a) corrosion and it is a physical as well as chemical chang
(b) dissolution and it is a physical change
(c) corrosion and it is a chemical change
(d) dissolution and it is a chemical change
Answer:
(c) corrosion and it is a chemical change

Question 3.
A mixture of sulphur and carbon disulphide is
(a) heterogeneous and shows Tyndall effect
(b) homogeneous and shows Tyndall effeet
(c) heterogeneous and does not show Tyndall effect
(d) homogeneous and does not show Tyndall effect
Answer:
(d) homogeneous and does not show Tyndall effect

Question 4.
Tincture of iodine has antiseptic properties. This solution is made by dissolving
(a) iodine in potassium iodide
(b) iodine in vaseline
(c) iodine in water
(d) iodine in alcohol
Answer:
(d) iodine in alcohol

Question 5.
Which of the following are homogeneous in nature?
(i) ice
(ii) wood
(iii) soil
(iv) air
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iv)

Question 6.
Which of the following are physical changes?
(i) Melting of iron metal
(ii) Rusting of iron
(iii) Bending of an iron rod
(iv) Drawing a wire of iron metal
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv)

Question 7.
Which of the following are chemical changes?
(i) Decaying of wood
(ii) Burning of wood
(iii) Sawing of wood
(iv) Hammering of a nail into a piece of wood
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii)

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define solvent.
Answer:
The component of the solution that dissolves the other component in it is called the solvent.

Question 2.
Define solute.
Answer:
The component of the solution that is dissolved in the solvent is called solute.

Question 3.
What is ’tincture of iodine’?
Answer:
A solution of iodine in alcohol is known as tincture of iodine. It has iodine (splid) as the solute and alcohol (liquid) as the solvent.

Question 4.
What are alloys?
Answer:
The homogeneous mixture of two or more metals or a metal and non-metal is called an alloy. E.g., steel is an alloy of iron and carbon.

Question 5.
Give one example of gas in liquid , solution.
Answer:
Cold-drinks, carbon dioxide gas as solute is mixed with water as a solvent.

Question 6.
How can a solution be dilute or concentrated?
Answer:
The amount of solute dissolved in a solvent decides whether the solution is dilute or concentrated.

Question 7.
What is “concentration of a solution”?
Answer:
The concentration of a solution is the amount of solute present in a given amount of solution or the amount of solute dissolved in a given mass or volume of solvent.

Question 8.
State the difference between aqueous and non-aqueous solution.
Answer:
Aqueous solutions have water as solvent and non-aqueous solutions do not have water as solvent.

Question 9.
What is “solubility” of a solute?
Answer:
The amount of the solute present in the saturated solution at the given temperature is called its solubility.

Question 10.
What is saturated solution?
Answer:
The maximum amount of solute that ‘ can be dissolved in a solvent at given temperature is called saturated solution, where no more solute can dissolve further.

Question 11.
What is unsaturated solution?
Answer:
If the amount of solute contained in a solution is less than the saturation level, it is called an unsaturated solution.

Question 12.
How can you convert saturated solution into unsaturated or vice-versa?
Answer:
Saturated solution on heating becomes unsaturated and unsaturated solution on cooling becomes saturated.

Question 13.
Why water is called universal solvent?
Answer:
Water can dissolve large number of substances in it.

Question 14.
What is Tyndall effect?
Answer:
The scattering of light by colloidal particles is known as Tyndall effect.

Question 15.
How can we separate colloidal mixtures?
Answer:
By centrifugation, in a centrifuge machine the colloidal solution is kept in a test tube, rotated very fast and due to centrifugal force’ the colloidal particles are separated.

Question 16.
What is emulsion?
Answer:
When both the dispersed phase and dispersing medium is liquid, it is called emulsion. E.g., milk, face cream.

Question 17.
What is aerosol?
Answer:
When the solid or liquid is dispersed in a gas if Is called aerosol. E.g., smoke, fog. .

Question 18.
What is the principle for separation of immiscible liquids?
Answer:
The principle of separating immiscible liquids into layers depends on their densities. The less denser liquid collects at the top and more denser liquid at- the bottom.

Question 19.
What is chromatography?
Answer:
Chromatography is the technique used for separation of those solutes that dissolve in the same solvent.

Question 20.
What is distillation?
Answer:
Distillation is the separation technique of two miscible liquids that boils without decomposition and have sufficient difference in their boiling points.

Question 21.
How can you separate two liquids that have less than 25 K difference of boiling points?
Answer:
To separate a mixture of two or more miscible liquids for which the difference in boiling points is less than 25 K, is fractional distillation.

Question 22.
What is condenser?
Answer:
It is an apparatus used to convert gas into liquid by cooling it.

Question 23.
What is crystallisation?
Answer:
When a saturated solution is heated and allowed to cool slowly, crystal of the solute dissolved in die saturated solution are separated from it. It is used to purify solids.

Question 24.
How will you separate miscible and immiscible liquids?
Answer:
Miscible liquid can be separated by distillation and immiscible liquids can be separated by using separating funnel.

Short Answer Type questions

Question 1.
Why is mixture called impure substance?
Answer:
Mixture consists of different components which retain their properties and can be easily separated by physical processes, hence it is called as impure substance.

Question 2.
Give the differences between mixture and compound.
Answer:
Mixture:

1. Constituents combine in any rato to form mixture.
2. Constituents retain their properties.
3. Constituents can be separated by physical processes.

Compound:

1. Constituents combine in fixed ratio to form a compound.
2. Constituents do not retain their properties
3. Constituents cannot be separated by physical processes.

Question 3.
Distinguish between a physical change and chemical change.
Answer:
Physical Change:

1. No new substance is formed.
2. It is a reversible change.
3. The properties of constituents are retained.
4. No new substance is formed.

Chemical Change:

1. New substance is formed.
2. It is irreversible change.
3. The properties of constituents are not retained.
4. Completely new substance is formed.

Question 4.
State the properties of a solution.
Answer:
Properties of a solution are:

1. A solution is a homogeneous mixture.
2. Particles of a solution are smaller than 1 nm and cannot be seen by naked eyes.
3. Do not scatter beam of light.
4. Solute particles cannot be separated from the mixture by the process of filtration and thus, solution is stable.

Question 5.
State the properties of a suspension.
Answer:
Properties of a suspension:

• Suspension is a heterogeneous mixture having particle size greater than 100 nm.
• The particles of a suspension can be seen by naked eyes.
• Particles can scatter a beam of light.
• It is unstable.

Question 6.
What is a colloidal solution?
Answer:
It is a heterogeneous solution which appears to be homogeneous, particles size is very small and so cannot be seen with naked eyes but it is stable. E.g., milk and blood.

Question 7.
State the properties of colloidal solution.
Answer:
Properties of colloidal solution.

• It is a heterogeneous mixture having particle size between 1 nm to 100 nm.
• Size of particles is very small, cannot be seen with naked eyes.
• It scatters a beam of light.
• They are stable as the particles do not settle when left undisturbed.

Question 8.
Give the applications of centrifugation.
Answer:
Application of centrifugation are:

1. Used in diagnostic laboratories for blood and urine test.
2. Used in dairies and home to separate butter from cream.
3. Used in washing machines as. a spinner to squeeze out water from wet clothes.

Question 9.
Give the applications of chromatography.
Answer:
Applications of chromatography are

1. To separate colours in a dye.
2. To separate pigments from natural colours.
3. To separate drugs from blood.

Question 10.
Why is crystallisation better than evaporation?
Answer:
Crystallisation is a process that separates a pure solid in the form of its crystals from a solution.

Crystallisation is better than evaporation because during evaporation

• Some solids decompose or some, like sugar may get charred on heating to dryness.
• Some impurities may remain dissolved in the solution even after filtration which on evaporation contaminates the solid.

Question 11.
How will you separate a mixture of oil and water?
Answer:
To separate a mixture of oil and water, we need a separating funnel as both are immiscible liquids.

Pour the mixture in separating funnel and let the funnel stand undisturbed for sometime. So that separate layer of oil and water are formed. Open the stopcock of the separating funnel and pour out the lower layer of water carefully.

Question 12.
A student is given a mixture of naphthalene ball’s powder and common salt. He need to separate this mixture. How will he do this?
Answer:
The properties of both naphthalene and common salt should be known, before we choose the separation technique.

Naphthalene is a sublimate which on heating changes to gaseous state directly. Hence to separate a volatile compound (sublimate) from a non-volatile compound (non-sublimate), the sublimation process is used.

In a China dish the mixture is kept, and is placed on a stand. An inverted funnel is kept over the mixture in China dish with plugged stem. The sublimate on heating gets collected on the funnel and common salt remains in the China dish.

Question 13.
How can we obtain different gases from air?
Answer:
Air is a homogeneous mixture and its components can be separated by fractional distillation.

Question 14.
How can you prove that water is a compound?
Answer:
When electricity is passed through water at two different electrodes, we get two different gases i.e., oxygen and hydrogen during electrolysis of water are produced. The ratio of oxygen: hydrogen is 1 : 2 by number of molecules.

• The properties of oxygen and hydrogen gases are entirely different from that of liquid water.
• The ratio of oxygen: hydrogen combination is always constant i.e., 1 : 2 by volume.
• To separate the components of water, we need electrolytic cell, and it is not a simple process.
• This proves that water is a compound.

Question 15.
How can we convert saturated solution into unsaturated by heating?
Answer:
Saturated solution is said to be saturated at a given temperature when there is no more scope of solute particles to dissolve/dissociate into water. It is because the solute particle has taken all the intermolecular space present in the solvent. On heating, the molecules of solvent gain kinetic energy, start vibrating and try to move away from each other thereby accommodating some more solute particle in fids space and hence it becomes an unsaturated solution.

Question 16.
What is the difference in fog and smoke?
Answer:
Fog is a colloidal solution with liquid dispersed in gas. Smoke is a colloidal solution with solid dispersed in gas.

Question 17.
If 20 g of salt is present is 220 g of solution, calculate the concentration of solution.
Answer:
Concentration of solution
= \(\frac{\text { Mass of solute }}{\text { (Mass of solute + Mass of solvent) }}\)
Mass solute = 20 g
Mass of solute + solvent = 220 g
∴ Concentration of solution
= \(\frac{20}{220}\) × 100 = 9.09%

Question 18.
In Chromatography: Sometimes a spot will remain on the baseline, where sample was first applied:
(a) Suggest what affinity this substance would have for solvent.
(b) Suggest the value for Rf of this substance.
(c) Outline how you could determine whether these materials are pure or a mixture?
Answer:
(a) The spot on the base line is not soluble in the solvent.
(b) Its Rf value is 0.
(c) The solvent can be changed, only such solvent should be used in which the given sample can travel. The pure substances always have rf value less than 1.

Question 19.
Some students proposed measuring the position of each spot from the top, others proposed from the center. Explain which method is better?
Answer:
To measure the distance travelled by the spot it is always advisable to measure the distance from the base line. The measurement from the center will not give the correct value of Rf.

Question 20.
Distinguish between the pure and impure substances.
Answer:
Pure substance have fixed boiling and melting point arid the impure substances boil or melt over the range of the temperature.

Question 21.
On adding impurity to a substance what happens to its Boiling point/ Melting point?
Answer:
The boiling point and the melting point does not remain fixed. The boiling point increases on addition of impurity.

Question 22.
Pure ethanol boils at 78.4° C and freezes at -114.3° C. You have a sample of ethanol which boils between 79.1° C and 79.9° C
(a) What can you say about its purity?
(b) What will you expect to find, when you measure its freezing point?
Answer:
(a) The sample is impure as it is boiling over a range of temperature.
(b) The freezing point will lower.

Question 23.
It is important that some substances are pure. Give two examples.
Answer:
Pure substances are required for several things in life like medicine and food should be pure if impurities are added into it can become fatal.

Long Answer Type questions

Question 1.
Give the difference between true solution, colloidal solution and suspension.
Answer:
The difference between true solution, colloidal solution and suspension

Question 2.
State the different types of colloids with examples.
Answer:
Different colloids are formed due to different dispersed phase and dispersing medium.

Question 3.
(a) Define solution.
(b) Give different types of solutions with one example each.
Answer:
(a) Solution: It is a homogeneous mixture of two or more substances. It consists of solute and solvent.

(b) Different types of solution:
(i) Based on solvent-aqueous and non-aqueous
Aqueous solution has water as solvent (sugar + water)
Non-aqueous solution has some other solvent but not water. Example, (sulphur + carbon disulphide)
(ii) Depending on the amount of solute dissolved in solvent-Dilute solution and con centrated solution.

Dilute solution-Less amount of solute particles are present in a solvent. Concentrated solution-Amount of solute present in its maximum capacity in a solvent.

(iii) Amount of solute present in its maximum capacity at a given temperature-Saturated
and unsaturated solution.
Saturated solution-It is a solution in which no more solute can further dissolve in a given solvent at a given temperature.
Unsaturated solution-It is a solution in which sorne more salute can dissolve in a solvent at a given temperature.

Question 4.
How can you separate the following mixtures?
(a) Sand + iron
(b) Cream from milk
(c) Salt + water
(d) AmmonIum chloride + NaCl
(e) Copper sulphate + water
(f) Rice and dal (uncooked)
(g) Gases from air
(h) Petrol and diesel from crude oil
(i) Drugs from blood
(j) Acetone from water
Answer:
(a) Sand + iron – magnetic separation
(b) Cream from milk – centrifugation
(c) Salt + water – evaporation
(d) Ammonium chloride + NaCl – sublimation
(e) Copper sulphate + water – crystallisation
(f) Rice and dal (uncooked) – hand picking
(g) Gases from air – fractional distillation
(h) Petrol and diesel from crude oil – fractional distillation
(i) Drugs from blood – chromatography
(j) Acetone from water – distillation

Question 5.
A metal coin is dissolved in acid. Chromatography is used to test the solution formed. The diagram given shows the chromatogram obtained.
(a) Describe how the chromatogram would be set up in the laboratory.
(b) What can you say about the composition of the coin?
(c) Which of the spots (A, B or C ) is more soluble in the solvent that was used in the chromatography?
Answer:
(a) To set up the chromatogram use the solvent, take chromatography paper and draw the base line with pencil, place the spot of the chromatogram on this line and dip it in the solvent such that the base line of the paper stays above the solvent line.

(b) The coin consists of three different materials as the chromatogram shows three spots.

(c) The spot B is more soluble in the solvent as it travelled the maximum distance.

Question 6.
Compare the simple distillation and fractional distillation.
Answer:
Simple distillation: The distillation flask is used to separate two substances having the difference in their boiling point more than 23 degrees.

Fractional distillation: The fractionating column in the set up helps in the separation of the fractions which may have very low difference in their boiling point. The fractionating column is a long chamber which controls the separation of one fraction at a time starting from the one with the lowest boiling point.

These NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India Questions and Answers are prepared by our highly skilled subject experts to help students while preparing for their exams.

Food Security in India NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Economics Chapter 4

Class 9 Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India InText Questions and Answers

Discuss

Question 1.
Some people say that the Bengal famine happened because there was a shortage of rice. Study the table given below and find out whether you agree with the statement.
Production of Rice in the Province of Bengal

Question 2.
Which year shows a drastic decline in food availability? (Textbook Page 43)
Answer:
1. From the Table it is clear that the availability of rice was much higher in 1943 than 1941, although lower than in 1942. But it will be wrong to say that the famine occurred solely due to a shortage of rice. It may be a factor but not the sole factor. Other causes such as improper distribution, poor carryover stocks due to less production in 1941, malnutrition, etc, were also responsible for the Bengal famine.

2. The year 1941 shows a drastic decline in food availability.

Discuss – A (NCERT Textbook page 45)

Question 1.
Why is agriculture a seasonal activity?
Answer:
In agriculture, farmers remain busy only during times of sowing, transplanting, and harvesting. They have no significant work when the plants are growing and maturing. So, agriculture is a seasonal activity.

Question 2.
Why is Ramu unemployed for about four months in a year?
Answer:
Ramu is unemployed for four months a year because during this period plants grow and mature.

Question 3.
What does Ramu do when he is unemployed?
Answer:
When Ramu is unemployed, he looks for work in other activities. Sometimes he gets employment in bricklaying or in construction activities in the village.

Question 4.
Who is supplementing income in Ramu’s family?
Answer:
Ramu’s wife and his eldest son Somu, who is 10 years old, are supplementing income in his family. His wife works as a house cleaner for the livestock. She gets ½ liter milk and some cooked food along with vegetables for her daily work. Ramu’s son, Somu works as pali to look after the cattle of the village Sarpanch and gets ₹ 1000 for his work.

Question 5.
Why does Ramu face difficulty when he is unable to have work?
Answer:
When Ramu is unable to get some work, he and his family face difficulties because he fails to earn enough either in cash or kind. In such a situation, the entire family has to depend on the meager income earned by Somu and his mother, Sunhari.

Question 6.
When is Ramu food insecure?
Answer:
Ramu is food insecure for 4 months when he fails to get some work during the off-season in agriculture.

Discuss – B

Question 1.
Does Ahmad have a regular income from rickshaw-pulling?
Answer:
No, Ahmed does not get regular income from rickshaw-pulling. During some days he gets enough earning for him to save some amount after buying all his day-to-day necessities. On other days, he barely earns enough to buy his daily necessities.

Question 2.
How does the yellow card help Ahmed run his family even with small earnings from rickshaw-pulling? (Textbook Page 45)
Answer:
The yellow card which Ahmed has is actually a PDS card for below-the poverty line people. With this card, Ahmed gets a sufficient quantity of wheat, rice, sugar, and kerosene oil for his family. He gets these essentials at half of the market price. He buys his monthly stock during a particular day when the ration shop is opened for below the poverty line. Thus, the yellow card helps Ahmed run his family even with small earnings from rickshaw-pulling.

Discuss

Study the graph below and answer the following questions:

Source: Economic Survey 2011-12, 2013-14

Question 1.
In which year did our country cross the 200 million tonnes per year mark in foodgrains production?
Answer:
Our country crossed the 200 million tonnes per year mark in foodgrain production in the following years:

• 2005-06
• 2009-10
• 2013-14

Question 2.
In which decade did India experience the highest decadal increase in foodgrain production?
Answer:
India experienced the highest decadal increase in food grain production during 2004-2014.

Question 3.
Is production increase consistent in India since 2000-01? (Textbook Page 47)
Answer:
Except for the year 2002-2003, the production increase is consistent in India since 2000-01.

Suggested Activity

Discuss

Picture 4.1 Starvation victims arriving at a relief centre, 1945.

Picture 4.2 During the Bengal Famine of 1943, a family leaves its village in Chittagong district in Bengal.

Question 1.
What do you see in Picture 4.1 (Given on Textbook, page 44)
Answer:
A group of people who are victims of starvation, arriving at a relief center.

Question 2.
Which age group is seen in the first picture?
Answer:
Elderly people.

Question 3.
Can you say that the family shown in picture 4.2 is a poor family? Why?
Answer:
Yes, the family shown in picture 4.2 is a poor family. This family is a victim of the Bengal famine of 1943. They have nothing to eat. So, they leave their native village in search of better prospects.

Question 4.
Can you imagine the source of livelihood of the people, (Shown in two Pictures) before the occurrence of famine? (In the context of a village).
Answer:
Before the occurrence of famine, the source of livelihood of these people must have been agriculture.

Question 5.
Find out what type of help is given to the victims of a natural calamity at a relief camp?
Answer:
The kinds of help given to the victims of a natural calamity at a relief camp include shelter, food, medical and, clothes, etc.

Question 6.
Have you ever helped such victims (in the form of money, food, clothes, medicines, etc). Gather more information about famines in India (Project work) (Textbook Page 44)
Answer:
Information about famines in India: Here are the details of some famines which occurred in India since 1791.

Discuss

Visit some farms in a nearby village and collect the details of food crops cultivated by the farmers. (Textbook Page 46)
Answer:
The food crops cultivated by the farmers are wheat, rice, pulses, maize, mustard, bajra, etc.

Discuss (Textbook Page 46)

Visit your area’s ration shop and get the following details:

Question 1.
When does the ration shop open.
Answer:
The ration shop in my area opens weekly.

Question 2.
What are the items sold at the ration shop?
Answer:
The items sold at the ration shop are wheat, rice, sugar, and kerosene oil.

Question 3.
Compare the prices of rice and sugar from the ration shop with the prices at any other grocery shop? (for families below the poverty line)
Answer:
The prices of rice and sugar sold at the ration shop are generally half of the market price.

Question 4.
Find out:
Do you have a ration card?
What has your family recently bought with this card from the ration shop?
Are there any problems that they face?
Why are ration shops necessary?
Answer:
Ration shops are necessary for every locality because they supply essential items at a subsidized rate for those who are below the poverty line.

Class 9 Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How is food security ensured in India?
Answer:
To ensure food security to all sections of the society the Indian government has carefully designed a food security system, which is composed of two components:

• Buffer stock, and
• Public Distribution System or PDS

In addition to PDS, various poverty alleviation programmes have also been started which comprise a component of food security. Some of these programmes are:

• Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS)
• Food-For-Work (FFW)
• Mid-Day Meals in schools
• Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY).

The cooperatives are also playing an important role in food security in India. Various NGOs are also working intensively in this direction.

Question 2.
Which are the people more prone to food insecurity?
Answer:
(i) A large section of people suffer from food and nutrition insecurity in India. However, the worst affected groups are landless people with little or no land to depend upon, traditional artisans, providers of traditional services, petty self-employed workers, and beggars.

(ii) In the urban areas, those engaged in the casual labour market and seasonal activities are more prone to food insecurity.

(iii) The SCs, STs, and some sections of the OBCs who have either poor land base or very low land productivity are prone to food insecurity.

(iv) The people affected by natural disasters, who have to migrate to other areas in search of work, are also among the most food-insecure people.

(v) A large proportion of pregnant and nursing mothers and children under the age of 5 years consti¬tute an important segment of the food insecure population.

Question 3.
Which states are more food insecure in India?
Answer:
The state of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, Odisha, West Bengal, Chhattisgarh, parts of Madhya Pradesh, and Maharashtra are more food insecure than other states of India.

Question 4.
Do you believe that Green Revolution has made India self-sufficient in food grains? How?
Answer:
Yes, the Green Revolution has made India self-sufficient in food grains. India adopted a new strategy in agriculture in the early 1970s which resulted in the Green Revolution. It introduced the Indian farmer to the cultivation of wheat and rice using High Yielding Varieties (HYVs) of seeds, chemical fertilizers, and pesticides. HYV seeds promised to produce much greater amounts of grain on a single plant.

The increase in food grains was, however, disproportionate. The highest rate of growth has been achieved in western Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, and Haryana where food grain production reached an all-time high of 78.9 million tonnes in 2012-13. The success of wheat was later replicated in rice. States like Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal have recorded significant increases in rice yield in 2012-13.

Question 5.
A section of people in India is still without food. Explain.
Answer:
Although India has achieved self-sufficiency in food grains as a result of the Green Revolution, a section of people are still without food because of extreme poverty. The landless laborers in rural areas, the casual workers in urban areas, SCs, and STs who are below the poverty line lead a very tough life in dearth of enough food grains.

The ill-funding of the public distribution system is also responsible for this. The PDS dealers are sometimes found resorting to malpractices like diverting the grains to the open market to get a better margin, selling poor quality grains at ration shops, etc. Unless corruption in the PDS and abject poverty are eliminated, a section of people is destined to food insecure.

Question 6.
What happens to the supply of food when there is a disaster or a calamity?
Answer:

• When a country faces a national disaster/calamity like earthquake, drought, flood, tsunami, there is widespread failure of crops causing famine.
• Due to a natural calamity, the total production of food grains decreases. It creates a shortage of food in the affected areas.
• Due to a shortage of food, the prices go up. At the high prices, some people cannot afford to buy food. If such calamity happens in a widespread area or is stretched over a longer time period, it may cause a situation of starvation.

Question 7.
Differentiate between seasonal hunger and chronic hunger.
Answer:
Hunger has chronic and seasonal dimensions.

Chronic hunger is a consequence of diets persistently inadequate in terms of quantity and /or quality. Poor people suffer from chronic hunger because of their very low income and in turn inability to buy food even for survival.

Seasonal hunger is related to cycles of food growing and harvesting. This is prevalent in rural areas because of the seasonal nature of agricultural activities and in urban areas because of the casual labour, e.g. there is less work for casual construction labour during the rainy season. This type of hunger exists when a person is unable to get work for the whole year.

Question 8.
What has our government done to provide food security to the poor? Discuss.
Answer:
(i) In order to provide food security to the poor, our government has carefully designed a food security system by creating a buffer stock of food grains and a public distribution system.

(ii) The Food Corporation of India (FCI) purchases wheat and rice from the farmers in states where there is surplus production. The farmers are paid a pre-announced price for their crops. The purchased food grains are stored in granaries to distribute them in the deficit areas and among the poorer strata of society at a price lower than the market price.

(iii) There is a public distribution system that makes available food grains at highly subsidized rates.

(iv) The government has also started various poverty alleviation programmes such as Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) in 1975, Food-For-Work (FFW) in 1977-78, Antodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) in 2000.

(v) Antodaya Anna Yojana is for the poorest of the poor. Under this scheme, 35 kg of food grains is made available to each eligible family at a highly subsidised+ rate of ₹ 2 per kg for wheat and ₹ 3 per kg for rice.

Question 9.
Why buffer stock is created by the government?
Answer:
(i) Buffer stock is created by the government to make the people of India’s food security. Buffer stock is the stock of food grains such as wheat and rice procured by the government through the Food Corporation of India (FCI).

(ii) The FCI buys wheat and rice from the farmers in states where there is surplus production at a preannounced price for their crops. The purchased food grains are stored in granaries to distribute them in the deficit areas and among the poorer strata of society a price lower than the market price.

(iii) This also helps resolve the problem of food shortage during adverse weather conditions or during periods of natural calamity.

Question 10.
Write notes on:
(a) Minimum support price
(b) Buffer stock
(c) Issue price
(d) Fair price shop.
Answer:
(a) Minimum Support Price: The Food Corporation of India purchase wheat and rice from the farmers in states where there is surplus production. The farmers are paid a pre-announced price of their crops. This price is called Minimum Support Price (MSP). The MSP is declared by the government every year before the sowing season to provide incentives to the farmers for raising the production of these crops.

(b) Buffer Stock:
(i) Buffer stock is created by the government to make the people of India’s food secure. Buffer stock is the stock of food grains such as wheat and rice procured by the government through the Food Corporation of India (FCI).

(ii) The FCI buys wheat and rice from the farmers in states where there is surplus production at a preannounced price for their crops. The purchased food grains are stored in granaries to distribute them in the deficit areas and among the poorer strata of society a price lower than the market price.

(iii) This also helps resolve the problem of food shortage during adverse weather conditions or during periods of natural calamity.

(c) Issue Price: The food grains purchased by FCI are stored in granaries to distribute them in the deficit areas and among the poorer strata of society at a price lower than the market price. This price is known as the Issue Price.

(d) Fair Price Shops: The food grains procured by the FCI are distributed through government-regulated ration shops among the poorer section of the society. These ration shops are also known as Fair Price shops. These shops are now present in most localities, villages, towns, and cities. They keep stock of food grains, sugar, and kerosene oil for working. These items are sold to people at a price lower than the market price. Any family with a ration card can buy a stipulated amount of these items e.g. 35 kgs of grains, 5 liters of kerosene and 5 kgs of sugar, etc; every month from the nearby ration shop.

Question 11.
What are the problems with the functioning of ration shops?
Answer:
Here are the problems of the functionary of ration shops:

• PDS dealers are sometimes found diverting the grains to the open market to get a better margin.
• They sell poor-quality grains at ration shops.
• The ration shops are not opened on a regular basis.
• It is common to find that these shops regularly have unsold stocks of poor-quality grains left. This has proved to be a big problem.
• When ration shops are unable to sell, massive stock of food grains piles up with the FCI.

Question 12.
Write a note on the role of cooperatives in providing food and related items.
Answer:

• There are various cooperatives also playing a significant role in food security in India especially in the southern and western parts of the country. The cooperative societies set up shops to sell low-priced goods to poor people.
• In Tamil Nadu, out of all fair price shops running there, around 94 percent are being run by cooperatives.
• In Delhi, Mother Dairy is making strides in the provision of milk and vegetables to the consumers at a controlled rate decided by the Government of Delhi.
• AMUL has brought the White Revolution in the country in milk and milk products from Gujarat.
• There are many more cooperative running in different parts of the country. The main objective of all these cooperatives is to contribute to ensuring food security for the people of India.

These NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Economics Chapter 3 Poverty as a Challenge Questions and Answers are prepared by our highly skilled subject experts to help students while preparing for their exams.

Poverty as a Challenge NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Economics Chapter 3

Class 9 Economics Chapter 3 Poverty as a Challenge InText Questions and Answers

Discuss the following:

Question 1.
Why do different countries use different poverty lines? (Textbook Page 32)
Answer:
Different countries use different poverty lines because the calorie requirement of different human races is different depending on their physical condition and eating habits. Also, the per capita income in different countries is different. It is higher in developed countries as compared to developing countries. A person not having a car in the United States may be considered poor, but in India, owning a car is still considered a luxury.

Question 2.
What do you think would be the ‘minimum necessary level’ in your locality? (Textbook Page 32)
Answer:
The ‘minimum necessary level’ in my locality should be ₹ 2000 per person per month.

Discuss

Study Table 3.1 given below and answer the following questions:
Table 1: Estimates of Poverty in India

Source: Economic Survey 2013-14, Ministry of Finance, Government of India.

Question 1.
Even if the poverty ratio declined between 1993-94 and 2004-05, why did the number of poor remain at about 407 million? (Textbook Page 33)
Answer:
The reason is that the population of the country kept on increasing during the same period. A good number of them got jobs due to the establishment of more industries and the growth of the tertiary sector. This caused a decline in the poverty ratio.

Question 2.
Are the dynamics of poverty reduction the same in rural and urban India? (Textbook Page 33)
Answer:

• No, It is because the conditions in rural and urban areas are completely different. In urban areas, employment opportunities have increased due to the expansion of the tertiary sector and increased industrialization.
• This has encouraged rural people to migrate to urban areas.
• Poverty in rural areas has reduced due to improved agricultural practices. This has enabled the rural people to earn a higher income.

Discuss

Observe some of the poor families around you and try to find the following:

Question 1.
Which social and economic group do they belong to? (Textbook Page 35)
Answer:
A few poor families live around our colony. All these families are living below the poverty line and belong to the lowest socio-economic group.

Question 2.
Who are the earning members in the family? (Textbook Page 35)
Answer:
Both husbands and wives do hard work from dawn to dusk to earn money. Most of them are working as casual labourers at construction sites.

Question 3.
What is the condition of the old people in the family? (Textbook Page 35)
Answer:
The condition of the old people in these families is very pathetic. They are physically weak and suffering from old age diseases. They are leading a very tough life due to a lack of proper care and medical aid.

Question 4.
Are all the children (boys and girls) attending schools? (Textbook Page 35)
Answer:
Only boys are attending schools. Girls stay at home to help their parents with household work.

Discuss

Study the graph given below and do the following.

Graph: Poverty Ratio in the Selected Indian States, 2011-2012

Source: Economic Survey 2013-14, Ministry of Finance, Government of India.

Question 1.
Identify the three states where the poverty ratio is the highest. (Textbook Page 36)
Answer:
Bihar, Odisha, and Assam.

Question 2.
Identify the three states where the poverty ratio is the lowest. (Textbook Page 36)
Answer:
Kerala, Himachal Pradesh, and Punjab.

Discuss

Study the graph given below and do the following.

Graph: Number of poor by region ($1.25 per day) in millions

Source: World Development Indicators 2014, The World Bank.

Question 1.
Identify the areas of the world, where poverty ratios have declined. (Textbook Page 37)
Answer:
South Asia, East Asia, and Pacific and China.

Question 2.
Identify the areas of the globe which has the largest concentration of the poor. (Textbook Page 37)
Answer:
South Asia has the largest concentration of the poor.

Class 9 Economics Chapter 3 Poverty as a Challenge Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Describe how the poverty line is estimated in India.
Answer:
In India, the poverty line is estimated considering the following factors required for subsistence:

• A minimum level of food requirement
• Clothing
• Footwear
• Fuel and light
• Educational and medical requirements, etc.

These physical quantities are multiplied by their prices in rupees. The present formula for food requirements while estimating the poverty line is based on the desired calorie requirement. On the basis of these calculations, for the year 2011-12, the poverty line for a person was fixed at ₹ 816 per month for the rural areas and ₹ 1000 for the urban areas. People earning more than this amount are considered above the poverty line and those earning less than this amount are considered below the poverty line.

Question 2.
Do you think that the present methodology of poverty estimation is appropriate?
Answer:
I don’t think that the present methodology of poverty estimation is appropriate because it only takes economic factors into view and leaves other important factors like health care, self-confidence, gender equality, etc. The present methodology of poverty estimation does not look appropriate from yet another point of view. It considers a ‘minimum’ subsistence level of living rather than a ‘reasonable level of living. Poverty has many facets. It will be wrong to confine it to economic factors only. With the passage of time, the definition of Constitution poverty has changed.

Now many scholars have broadened the concept into human poverty. A large number of people may have been able to feed themselves but if they lack education, job security, self-confidence, dignity, gender equality, they are considered poor. If we really want to remove poverty, we will have to take into consideration many points along with income. We will have to provide the people with health care, education and job security, gender equality and dignity to all are also important points which need to be achieved.

Question 3.
Describe poverty trends in India since 1973.
Answer:

• There is a substantial decline in poverty ratios in India from about 55 percent in 1973 to 45 percent in 1993.
• The proportion of people below the poverty line further came down 45 percent in 1993-94 to 37.2 percent in 2004-05.
• This proportion further came down to about 21.9 percent in 2011-12.

If the trend continues, people below the poverty line may come down to less than 20 percent in the next few years. Although the percentage of people living under poverty declined in the earlier two decades (1973-1993), the number of poor declined from 407.1 million in 2004-05 to 269.3 million in 2011-12.

Question 4.
Discuss the major reasons for poverty in India.
Answer:
The major reasons for poverty in India are given below:
(i) The economic development under the British colonial administration was at a low level. The policies of the colonial government ruined traditional handicrafts and discouraged the development of industries like textiles. The low rate of growth remained till the Nineteen-eighties. As a result, job opportunities became less. The promotion of economic growth would have changed the scenario but it could not be done.

(ii) The ever-increasing population is also a major reason for poverty in our country. Population control measures failed to achieve the desired goal. This perpetuated the cycle of poverty.

(iii) There are huge income inequalities in our country. One of the major reasons for this is the unequal distribution of land and other resources. Major policy initiatives like land reforms which aimed at the redistribution of assets in rural areas have not been implemented properly and effectively by most of the state governments.

(iv) The socio-cultural and economic factors are also responsible for poverty. People in India, including the very poor, spend a lot of money on religious ceremonies.

(v) Small farmers have hardly any savings. So, they borrow money to buy agricultural inputs like seeds, fertiliser, pesticides, etc. Unable to repay, they become victims of indebtedness which pushes them into poverty.

Question 5.
Identify the social and economic groups which are most vulnerable to poverty in India.
Answer:

• Social groups which are most vulnerable to poverty in India are scheduled caste and scheduled tribe households.
• Among the economic groups, the most vulnerable groups are the rural agricultural labour households and the urban casual labour households.
• In poor families, all suffer, but some suffer more than others. Women, elderly people, and female infants are the poorest of the poor because they are denied equal access to resources available to the family.

Question 6.
Give an account of interstate disparities of poverty in India.
Answer:
(i) In India, we see interstate disparities of poverty. What this means is that the proportion of poor people is not the same in every state. Though there has been a decline in poverty in every state of India from the early seventies, the success rate of reducing poverty has varied from state to state. Many states and union territories have a poverty ratio less than the national average of 21.9. But there are also some states where the poverty ratios are higher than the national average.

(ii) Bihar and Odisha continue to be the two poorest states with poverty ratios of 33.7 and 37.6 percent respectively. Along with rural poverty, urban poverty is also high in states like Odisha, Mad¬hya Pradesh, Bihar, and Uttar Pradesh.

(iii) States like Kerala, Jammu and Kashmir, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, and West Bengal show a significant decline in poverty. Punjab and Haryana have traditionally succeeded in reducing poverty with the help of high agricultural growth rates.

Question 7.
Describe global poverty trends.
Answer:
(i) There has been a substantial reduction in global poverty but it is marked with great regional differences. Poverty declined substantially in China and Southeast Asian countries as a result of rapid economic growth and massive investments in human resource development. The number of poors in China has come down from 85 percent in 1981 to 14 percent in 2008 to 6 percent in 2011.

(ii) In countries of South Asia i.e. India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Nepal, Bangladesh and Bhutan, the decline has not been as rapid. Despite the decline in the percentage of the poor, the number of poor has declined marginally from 61 percent in 1981 to 36 percent in 2008.

(iii) In sub-Saharan Africa, poverty declined from 51 percent in 1981 to 47 percent in 2008. In Latin America, the ratio of poverty remained the same. It has declined from 11 percent in 1981 to 6.4 percent in 2008.

(iv) Poverty can also be seen again in some of the former socialist countries like Russia, where officially it was non-existent earlier.

Question 8.
Describe the current government strategy of poverty alleviation?
Answer:
Removal of poverty has been a major objective of the Indian development strategy. The current anti-poverty strategy of the government is based on two planks:

• Promotion of economic growth
• Targeted anti-poverty programmes

(i) Promotion of economic growth: Since the eighties, India’s economic growth has been one of the fastest in the world. The growth rate jumped from an average of about 3.5 percent a year in the 1970s to about 6 percent during the 1980s and 1990s. The higher growth rates have helped significantly in the reduction of poverty.

(ii) Targeted anti-poverty programmes: The government has started many schemes for the removal of poverty. Some of them are:

• Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, (MGNREGA) 2005 aims to provide 100 days of wage employment to every household to ensure livelihood security in rural areas.
• Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana (PMRY) was started in 1993 with an aim to create self-employment opportunities for educated unemployed youth in rural areas and small towns.
• Rural Employment Generation Programme (REGP) was launched in 1995. Its aim is to create self-employment opportunities in rural areas and small towns.
• Swamajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY) was launched in 1999. The programme aims at bringing the assisted poor families above the poverty line by organising them into self-help groups through a mix of bank credit and government subsidies.
• Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Rozgar Yojana was launched in 2000. Under this scheme, additional central assistance is given to states for basic services such as primary health, primary education, rural shelter, rural drinking water, and rural electrification.

Question 9.
Answer the following questions briefly:
(i) What do you understand by human poverty?
(ii) Who are the poorest of the poor?
(iii) What are the main features of the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005?
Answer:
(i) Human poverty is a concept that goes beyond the limited view of poverty which only focuses on lack of income. It is more concerned with a ‘reasonable level of living than a ‘minimum level of living. A large number of people may be able to feed themselves but if they lack education, health care, self-confidence, job security, dignity, etc. They are considered poor. Thus, the major components of human poverty are illiteracy, caste and gender discrimination, lack of proper health care and sanitation.

(ii) Women, children (especially the girl child), and old people are the poorest of the poor because they are systematically denied equal access to resources available to the family.

(iii) Main features of the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005:

• The Act aims to provide 100 days of wage employment to every household to ensure livelihood security in rural areas.
• It also aims at sustainable development to address the cause of drought, deforestation, and soil erosion.
• One-third of the proposed jobs have been reserved for women.

These NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Economics Chapter 2 People as Resource Questions and Answers are prepared by our highly skilled subject experts to help students while preparing for their exams.

People as Resource NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Economics Chapter 2

Class 9 Economics Chapter 2 People as Resource InText Questions and Answers

Lets’s Discuss, NCERT Textbook Page 17

Question 1.
Looking at the photograph can you explain how a doctor, a teacher, engineer, and a tailor are an asset to the economy?

Answer:
These people provide different services to the people of the country. A doctor treats the patients, a teacher gives education to the children and plays a valuable role in moulding them into good citizens, an engineer, a tailor, and many other people in different professions serve the society and the country in their own way. Therefore, they are an asset to the economy of the nation.

Lets’s Discuss, NCERT Textbook Page 18

Question 2.
Do you notice any difference between the two friends? What are those?
Answer:
Story of Sakal
There were two friends Vilas and Sakal living in the same village Semapur. Sakal was a twelve-year-old boy. His mother Sheela looked after domestic chores. His father Buta Chaudhary worked in an agricultural field. Sakal helped his mother with domestic chores. He also looked after his younger brother Jeetu and sister Seetu. His uncle Shyam had passed the matriculation examination, but, was sitting idle in the house as he had no job. Buta and Sheela were eager to teach Sakal. They forced him to join the village school which he soon joined.

He started studying and completed his higher secondary examination. His father persuaded him to continue his studies. He raised a loan for Sakal to study a vocational course in computers. Sakal was meritorious and interested in studies from the beginning. With great vigour and enthusiasm, he completed his course. After some time he got a job in a private firm. He even designed a new kind of software. This software helped him increase the sale of the firm. His boss acknowledged his services and rewarded him with a promotion.

Story of Vilas
Vilas was an eleven-year-old boy residing in the same village as Sakal. Vilas’s father Mahesh was a fisherman. His father passed away when he was only two years old. His mother Geeta sold fish to earn money to feed the family. She bought fish from the landowner’s pond and sold it in the nearby mandi. She could earn only Rs 150 a day by selling fish. Vilas became a patient of arthritis. His mother could not afford to take him to the doctor. He could not go to school either. He was not interested in studies. He helped his mother in cooking and also looked after his younger brother Mohan. After some time his mother fell sick and there was no one to look after her. There was no one in the family to support them. Vilas, too, was forced to sell fish in the same village. He like his mother earned only a meager income.

• Vilas had lost his father at his early age whereas Sakai was living with his parents.
• Sakai was interested in studies and went to school but Vilas was too poor to go to school.
• Sakai completed a course in computers and got a nice job in a private firm whereas Vilas remained illiterate and so never got any proper employment. He sold fish in the village market and earned a meager income.
• Since Sakai earned a good income, he was able to improve his family’s condition but Vilas could not do so. He and his family were bound to live in extreme poverty.

Lets’s Discuss, NCERT Textbook Page 21

Question 3.
Study the graph given below and answer the following questions:

Source: Economic Survey, 2012.
1. Has the literacy rates of the population increased since 1951?
2. In which year India has the highest literacy rates?
3. Why literacy rate is high among the males of India?
4. Why are women less educated than men?
5. How would you calculate literacy in India?
6. What is your projection about India’s literacy rate in 2020?
Answer:
1. Yes, the literacy rates of the population have increased since 1951. It was 18% in 1951. The figure rose to 74% in 2010-2011.
2. India has the highest literacy rate in 2011.
3. It is because, in our country, men’s education is considered more important than women’s.
4. India is a country where males dominate. They are given all privileges and are always seen at the forefront. Hence, their education is considered of utmost importance whereas women’s education is undermined. This is the reason why women are less educated than men.
5. The literacy rate can be calculated on the basis of the number of literate people divided by the population multiplied by 100. This formula is expressed in the following way;
Literacy Rate = \(\frac{\text { Number of literate people in India }}{\text { Population of India } \times 100}\)
6. India’s literacy rate would be 80% by 2020.

Lets’s Discuss, NCERT Textbook Page 23

Question 4.
Discuss this table given below in the classroom and answer the following questions.
1. Is the increase in the number of colleges adequate to admit the increasing number of students?
2. Do you think we should have more Universities?
3. What is the increase noticed among the teachers in the year 1998-99?
4. What is your idea about future Colleges and Universities?
Table 1: Number of Institutions of Higher Education, Enrolment and Faculty

Source: UGC Annual Report 1996-97 and 1998-99 and Selected Educational Statistics, Ministry of HRD, Draft Report of Higher Educational for 11th Five Year Plan, the working group on Economic Survey 2011-12, 2012-13.
Answer:
1. No, the increase in the number of colleges is not adequate to admit the increasing number of students because the number of students is increasing at a faster rate compared to the colleges being established in the country.
2. Yes, there should have more Universities to keep pace with the increasing number of students.
3. There was an increase of 21 thousand teachers in the year 1998-99 compared to 1996-97.
4. Future Colleges and Universities should focus on increasing access, quality, adoption of state-specific curriculum modification, vocationalisation, and networking on the use of information technology.

Lets’s Discuss, NCERT Textbook Page 23

Question 5.
Study the table given below and answer the following questions:
Table 2: Health infrastructure over the years

1. What is the percentage increase in dispensaries from 1951 to 2011?
2. What is the percentage increase in doctors and nursing personnel from 1951 to 2011?
3. Do you think the increase in the number of doctors and nurses is adequate for India? If not, why?
4. What other facilities would you like to provide in a hospital?
5. Discuss the hospital you have visited.
6. Can you draw a graph using this table?
Answer:
1. The percentage increase in dispensaries and hospitals from 1951 to 2011 is = \(\frac{28472-9201}{9201 \times 100}\) = 209.17%

2. The percentage increase in doctors from 1951 to 2011 is = \(\frac{816629-61800}{61800 \times 100}\) = 1221.40%

The percentage increase in nursing personnel from 1951 to 2011 is = \(\frac{1702555-18054}{18054 \times 100}\) = 9330.34%

3. For a country like India where the population is so huge, the increase in the number of doctors and nurses is not adequate. We need more number of them.

4. Facilities that should be provided in a hospital are:

• Hospitals should be neat and clean.
• Doctors should be available 24 hours.
• Emergency wards should be made more efficient.
• Poor patients should be given treatment at a subsidized rate.
• At least one ATM should be there in every hospital.
• Chemist shops should also be available in hospitals.

5. Recently I visited Max Super Speciality Hospital located in Vaishali, Ghaziabad. It is India’s first truly integrated healthcare system, providing three levels of clinical service e.g. primary, secondary, and tertiary within one system. It has all the features of a world-class hospital. It has a team of highly qualified and trained doctors, nurses, and patient care personnel to provide the highest standard of care. This hospital is equipped with the latest medical equipment. Great care is taken on cleanliness. It has fully computerized health records. 24-hour chemist, ambulance, patient diagnostic, and emergency services are available here. The hospital is centrally air-conditioned.

Class 9 Economics Chapter 2 People as Resource Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you understand by ‘people as a resource?
Answer:
‘People as a resource’ is a way of referring to a country’s working people in terms of their existing productive skills and abilities. If we look at the population from a productive aspect, it emphasizes its ability to contribute to the creation of the Gross National Product. Like other resources population also is a resource—which is called a human resource. When the existing human resource is further developed by becoming more educated and healthy, we call it human capital formation that adds to the productive power of the country.

Question 2.
How are human resources different from other resources like land and physical capital?
Answer:
Human resource is different from other resources in the following ways:

• Human capital is in one way superior to other resources like land and physical capital. Human resources can make use of land and capital. Land and capital cannot become useful on their own.
• Human resources need investment through education, training, and medical care, etc. to develop. On the other hand, land and physical capital need money and physical inputs to develop.
• Land and physical capital are useless without human resources. Thus we can say that human resource is the most important resource because it helps to utilize natural resources.

Question 3.
What is the role of education in human capital formation?
Answer:
Education plays a very significant role in human capital formation. It is an important input for the growth of an individual. It enables humans to realize their full potential and achieve success in life in the form of higher incomes through better jobs and higher productivity. Education helps individuals to make better use of the economic opportunities available before them.

Education and skill are the major determinants of the earning of any individual in the market. We have seen that a majority of women are paid low compared to men because they have meager education and skill formation. But women with high education and skill formation are paid at par with the men. So, education is important and it should be imparted to children with great care.

Question 4.
What is the role of health in human capital formation?
Answer:
Not only education but health also plays a vital role in human capital formation. The health of a person helps him to realize his potential and the ability to fight illness. A healthy person can do the work in a more effective manner. He or she can contribute to the growth and development of the economy by doing productive work. On the contrary, an unhealthy person becomes a liability for the family and society. So health is an indispensable basis for realizing one’s well-being. Our government has been very serious on this point. The improvement in the health status of the population has been the priority of the country.

Question 5.
What part does health play in the individual’s working life?
Answer:
An individual’s working life is directly associated with his or her health. If he or she is healthy, he or she will work enthusiastically and efficiently. If not, doing work will be a burden for him or her. In that case, no firm or organization will induce to employ him or her. So health should be given priority because only a healthy person can become an asset to society and the nation.

Question 6.
What are the various activities are undertaken in the primary sector, secondary sector, and tertiary sector?
Answer:
The various activities have been classified into three main sectors i.e., primary, secondary, and tertiary.

• The primary sector includes agriculture, forestry, animal husbandry, fishing, poultry farming, mining, and quarrying.
• Manufacturing is included in the secondary sector.
• Trade, transport, communication, banking, education, health, tourism, services, insurance, etc. are included in the tertiary sector.

Question 7.
What is the difference between economic activities and non-economic activities?
Answer:
Economic activities: Activities that come under the tertiary sector result in the production of goods and services. These activities add value to the national income and are called economic activities. These activities involve remuneration or money.

Non-economic activities: These activities are not performed for money and so do not add value to the national income. In fact, these activities are performed for self-consumption or to satisfy emotional needs.

Question 8.
Why are women employed in low-paid work?
Answer:

• A majority of women have meager education and low skill formation. This is the main reason why they are paid low compared to men.
• Less education means less awareness as a result of which most of the women work in the unorganized sector and face job insecurity and earn a meager income.
• In our male-dominated society, women are considered physically inferior and therefore they are paid less than men for the same work.

Question 9.
How will you explain the term unemployment?
Answer:
The state of being without any work both for an educated and uneducated person, for earning one’s livelihood is meant by unemployment. Unemployment is said to exist when people who are willing to work at the going wages cannot final jobs.

Question 10.
What is the difference between disguised unemployment and seasonal unemployment?
Answer:
The difference between disguised unemployment and seasonal unemployment is given below:

Question 11.
Why is educated unemployed, a peculiar problem of India?
Answer:

• Educated unemployment has become a common problem in urban areas. Many youths with matriculation, graduation, and post-graduation degrees are not able to find jobs.
• A study showed that unemployment of graduates and post-graduate has increased faster than among matriculates. This is really a peculiar phenomenon.
• A paradoxical manpower situation is witnessed as a surplus of manpower in certain categories coexists with a shortage of manpower in others.
• There is unemployment among technically qualified people on one hand, while there is a dearth of technical skills for economic growth. Educated unemployment is, thus, a peculiar problem in India.

Question 12.
In which field do you think India can build the maximum employment opportunity?
Answer:
India can build the maximum employment opportunity in the tertiary sector, also called the service sector. This sector in India employs many different kinds of people. There are a number of services such as biotechnology, information technology, etc. that employ highly skilled and educated workers. At the same time, there are a very large number of workers engaged in services such as small shopkeepers, repairpersons, transport persons, etc.

Question 13.
Can you suggest some measures in the education system to mitigate the problem of the educated unemployment?
Answer:
In order to mitigate the problem of the educated unemployed, the following measures can be suggested:

• The focus should be given to increasing access, quality, adoption of states-specific curriculum modification, vocationalisation, and networking on the use of information technology.
• There should be a focus on distant education, the convergence of formal, non-formal, distant, and IT education institutions.
• More opportunities should be made available in the service sector such as biotechnology, information technology, etc. so that educated unemployed can find jobs easily.
• The number of universities and institutions of higher learning in specialized areas should be increased in order to increase the enrolment of students. At the same time recruitment of teachers should also be increased.

Question 14.
Can you imagine some village that initially had no job opportunities but later came up with many?
Answer:
1. Ratanpura was a very backward village a few decades ago. The only occupation of the villagers was agriculture which was dependent on rainfall. If rainfall was sufficient, there was no problem but if it was poor, the villagers would face problems because there were no other job opportunities.

2. Then electricity came there which changed the system of irrigation. People could now irrigate much larger areas more effectively with the help of electric-run tube wells. They could now grow more than one crop in a year and get work almost all the year.

3. By and by small-scale industries were set up which opened the door of employment. These industries provided both skilled and unskilled jobs to the village people.

4. With the passage of time people became aware of education and acknowledged the government for the need for schools in the village. The government set up a primary and a secondary school where village people got an education which ultimately enabled them to find jobs outside the village.

5. Then computer centers were set up which opened the door of vocational courses to the young enthusiastic villagers. These villagers after completing the course got jobs in private firms.

Question 15.
Which capital would you consider the best—land, labour, physical capital, and human capital? Why?
Answer:
Land, labour, physical capital, and human capital—all play important roles in the growth of an economy. All these are resources and we cannot undermine the value of one over the other. But it is also a fact that human capital is the best of all because human resources can make use of land and capital. It is noteworthy that land and capital cannot become useful on their own. They can be utilized only by humans. If humans do not make these resources usable they would remain unutilized. This very fact establishes the superiority of human capital over others.

Investment in human resources through education and medical care can give high rates of return in the future. Several years of education adds to the quality of labor. This enhances total productivity which further adds to the growth of the economy. Countries like Japan are rich and developed in spite of not having natural resources. The reason is that these countries have invested in human resources.

These NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 1 Matter in Our Surroundings Questions and Answers are prepared by our highly skilled subject experts to help students while preparing for their exams.

Matter in Our Surroundings NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 1

Class 9 Science Chapter 1 Matter in Our Surroundings InText Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following are matter?
Chair, air, love, smell, hate, almonds, thought, cold, cold drink, smell of perfume.
Answer:
Anything that occupies space and has mass is called matter. Matter can exist in three physical states—solid, liquid, and gaseous.

Chair and almond are forms of matter in the solid state.
Cold drink is a liquid state of matter.
Air is a gaseous state of matter.

Note: The sense of smell is not matter. However, the smell or odour of a substance is classified as matter. The smell of any substance (say, perfume) can be classified as matter. This is because, perfume is in liquid state inside the bottle.

It comes out in the form of tiny droplets. These droplets of perfume are matter and spread out in the atmosphere to create a sense of smell. This smell can be detected by our olfactory system.

Question 2.
Give reasons for the following observation:
The smell of hot sizzling food reaches you several metres away, but to get the smell from cold food you have to go close.
Answer:
Solids diffuse at a very slow rate. But, if the temperature of the solid is increased, then the rate of diffusion of the solid particles into air increases. This is due to an increase in the kinetic energy of solid particles. Hence, the smell of hot sizzling food reaches us even at a distance, but to get the smell from cold food we have to go close.

Question 3.
A diver is able to cut through water in a swimming pool. Which property of matter does this observation show?
Answer:
The ability of a diver to cut through water in a swimming pool shows that the particles of matter have intermolecular spaces. The intermolecular spaces in liquids is fair enough to let the diver pass through it.

Question 4.
What are the characteristics of particles of matter?
Answer:
The characteristics of particles of mat¬ter are:

• Particles of matter have spaces between them.
• Particles of matter are continuously moving.
• Particles of matter attract each other.

Question 5.
The mass per unit volume of a substance is called density (density = mass/volume). Arrange the following in order of increasing density – air, exhaust from chimney, honey, water, chalk, cotton, and iron.
Answer:
The given substances in the increasing order of their densities can be represented as:
Air < Exhaust from chimney < Cotton < Water < Honey < Chalk < Iron

Question 6.
(a) Tabulate the differences in the characteristics of states of matter.
(b) Comment upon the following: rigidity, compressibility, fluidity, filling a gas container, shape, kinetic energy, and density.
Ans. (a) The differences in the characteristic states of matter are given in the following table.

(b) Rigidity can be expressed as the tendency of matter to resist a change in shape. Compressibility is the ability to be reduced to a lower volume when force is applied.

• Fluidity is the ability to flow.
• By filling a gas container we mean the attainment of shape of the container by gas.
• Shape defines a definite boundary.
• Kinetic energy is the energy possessed by a particle due to its motion.
• Density is mass per unit volume.

Question 7.
Give reasons:
(a) A gas fills completely the vessel in which it is kept.
(b) A gas exerts pressure on the walls of the container.
(c) A wooden table should be called a solid.
(d) We can easily move our hand in air, but to do the same through a solid block of wood, we need a karate expert.
Answer:
(a) There is little attraction between particles of gas. Thus, gas particles move freely in all directions. Therefore, gas completely fills the vessel in which it is kept.

(b) Particles of gas move randomly in all directions at high speed. As a result, the particles hit each other and also hit the walls of the container with a force. Therefore, gas exerts pressure on the walls of the container.

(c) A wooden table has a definite shape and volume. It is very rigid and cannot be compressed i.e., it has the characteristics of a solid. Hence, a wooden table should be called a solid.

(d) Particles of air have large spaces between them. On the other hand, wood has little space between its particles. Also, it is rigid. For this reason, we can easily move our hands in air, but to do the same through a solid block of wood, we need a karate expert.

Question 8.
Liquids generally have lower density as compared to solids. But you must have observed that ice floats on water. Find out why.
Answer:
The mass per unit volume of a substance is called density (density = mass/volume). As the volume of a substance increases, its density decreases.

Though ice is a solid, it has large number of empty spaces between its particles. These spaces are larger as compared to the spaces present between the particles of water. Thus, the volume of ice is greater than that of water. Hence, the density of ice is less than that of water. A substance with lower density than water can float on water. Therefore, ice floats on water.

Question 9.
Convert the following temperature to Celsius scale:
(a) 300 K (b) 573 K
Answer:
(a) 300 K = (300 – 273)°C = 27°C
(b) 573 K = (573 – 273)°C = 300°C

Question 10.
What is the physical state of water at:
(a) 250°C
(b) 100°C
Answer:
(a) Water at 250°C exists in gaseous state.
(b) At 100°C, water can exist in both liquid and gaseous form. At this temperature, after getting the heat equal to the latent heat of vaporization, water starts changing from liquid state to gaseous state.

Question 11.
For any substance, why does the temperature remain constant during the change of state?
Answer:
During a change of state, the temperature remains constant. This is because all the heat supplied to increase the temperature is utilised in changing the state by overcoming the forces of attraction between the particles. Therefore, this heat does not contribute in increasing the temperature of the substance.

Question 12.
Suggest a method to liquefy atmospheric gases.
Answer:
By applying pressure and reducing the temperature, atmospheric gases can be liquefied.

Question 13.
Why does a desert cooler cool better on a hot dry day?
Answer:
When a liquid evaporates, the particles of the liquid absorb energy from the surroundings to compensate the loss of energy during evaporation. This makes the surroundings cool.

In a desert cooler, the water inside it is made to evaporate. This leads to absorption of energy from the surroundings, thereby cooling the sur¬roundings. Again, we know that evaporation depends on the amount of water vapour present in air (humidity). If the amount of water vapour present in air is less, then evaporation is more. On a hot dry day, the amount of water vapour present in air is less. Thus, water present inside the desert cooler evaporates more, thereby cooling the surroundings more. That is why a desert cooler cools better on a hot dry day.

Question 14.
How does water kept in an earthen pot (matka) become cool during summers?
Answer:
There are some pores in an earthen pot through which the liquid inside the pot evaporates. This evaporation makes the water inside the pot cool. In this way, water kept in an earthen pot becomes cool during summers.

Question 15.
Why does our palm feel cold when we put some acetone or petrol or perfume on it?
Answer:
When we put some acetone or petrol or perfume on our palm, it evaporates. During evaporation, particles of die liquid absorb energy from the surrounding or the surface of the palm to compensate for the loss of energy, making the surroundings cool. Hence, our palm feels cold when we put some acetone or petrol or perfume on it.

Question 16.
Why are we able to sip hot tea or milk faster from a saucer than a cup?
Answer:
A liquid has a larger surface area in a saucer than in a cup. Thus, it evaporates faster and cools faster in a saucer than in a cup. For this reason, we are able to sip hot tea or milk faster from a saucer than a cup.

Question 17.
What type of clothes should we wear in summers?
Answer:
We should wear cotton clothes in summers. During summers, we sweat more. On the other hand, cotton is a good absorber of water. Thus, it absorbs sweat from our body and exposes the liquid to the atmosphere, making evaporation faster. During this evaporation, particles on the surface of the liquid gain energy from our body surface, making the body cool.

Class 9 Science Chapter 1 Matter in Our Surroundings Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Convert the following temperatures to Celsius scale.
(a) 293 K
(b) 470 K
Answer:
Kelvin is an SI unit of temperature, where 0°C = 273.16 K (approximately 273 K)
(a) 293 K = (293 – 273) °C = 20 °C
(b) 470 K = (470 – 273) °C= 197 °C

Question 2.
Convert the following temperatures to Kelvin scale.
(a) 25°C
(b) 373°C
Answer:
Kelvin is an SI unit of temperature, where 0°C = 273.16 K (approximately 273 K)
(a) 25 °C = (25 + 273) K = 298 K
(b) 373 °C = (373 + 273) K = 646 K

Question 3.
Give reason for the following observations.
(a) Naphthalene balls disappear with time without leaving any solid.
(b) We can get the smell of perfume sitting several metres away.
Answer:
(a) Naphthalene undergoes sublimation easily i.e., the change of state of naphthalene from solid to gas takes place easily. Thus, naphthalene balls disappear with time without leaving any solid.

(b) Gaseous particles possess high speed and large spaces between them. Particles of perfume diffuse into these gaseous particles at a very fast rate and reach our nostrils. This enables us to smell the perfume from a distance.

Question 4.
Arrange the following substances in increasing order of forces of attraction between particles-water, sugar, oxygen.
Answer:
Sugar is a solid; the forces of attraction between the particles of sugar are strong. Water is a liquid; the forces of attraction here are weaker than sugar. Oxygen is a gas; the forces of attraction are the weakest in gases.

Thus, the increasing order of forces of attraction between the particles of water, sugar and oxygen is
Oxygen < Water < Sugar

Question 5.
What is the physical state of water at
(a) 25°C
(b) 0°C
(c) 100°C
Answer:
(a) Water at 25°C is present in the liquid state.

(b) At 0°C, water can exist as both solid and liquid. At this temperature, after getting the heat equal to the latent heat of fusion, the solid form of water i.e., ice starts changing into its liquid form i. e., water.

(c) At 100 °C, water can exist as both liquid and gas. At this temperature, after getting the heat equal to the latent heat of vaporization, water starts changing from its liquid state to its gaseous state, i.e., water vapours.

Question 6.
Give two reasons to justify that
(a) water at room temperature is a liquid.
(b) an iron almirah is a solid at room temperature.
Answer:
(a) At room temperature (25 °C), water is a liquid because it has the following characteristic of liquid:

• At room temperature, water has no shape but has a fixed volume that is, it occupies the shape of the container in which it is kept.
• At room temperature, water flows.

(b) An iron almirah is a solid at room temperature (25 °C) because:

• it has a definite shape and volume like a solid at room temperature.
• it is rigid as solid at room temperature.

Question 7.
Why is ice at 273 K more effective in cooling than water at the same temperature?
Answer:
Ice at 273 K has less energy than water (although both are at the same temperature). Water possesses the additional latent heat of fusion. Hence, at 273 K, ice is more effective in cooling than water.

Question 8.
What produces more severe bums, boiling water or steam?
Answer:
Steam has more energy than boiling water. It possesses the additional latent heat of vaporization. Therefore, bums produced by steam are more severe than those produced by boiling water.

Question 9.
Name A, B, C, D, E and F in the following diagram showing change in its state.

Answer:

Class 9 Science Chapter 1 Matter in Our Surroundings Additional Important Questions and Answers

Multiple Choice Questions
Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
Which one of the following sets of phenomena would increase on raising the temperature?
(a) Diffusion, evaporation, compression of gases
(b) Evaporation, compression of gases, solubility
(c) Evaporation, diffusion, expansion of gases
(d) Evaporation, solubility, diffusion, compression of gases
Answer:
(c) Evaporation, diffusion, expansion of gases

Question 2.
Seema visited a Natural Gas Compressing Unit and found that the gas can be liquefied under specific conditions of temperature and pressure. While sharing her experience with friends she got confused. Help her to identify the correct set of conditions
(a) Low temperature, low pressure
(b) High temperature, low pressure
(c) Low temperature, high pressure
(d) High temperature, high pressure
Answer:
(c) Low temperature, high pressure

Question 3.
The property to flow is unique to fluids. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Only gases behave like fluids
(b) Gases and solids behave like fluids
(c) Gases and liquids behave like fluids
(d) Only liquids are fluids
Answer:
(c) Gases and liquids behave like fluids

Question 4.
During summer, water kept in an earthen pot becomes cool because of the phenomenon of
(a) diffusion
(b) transpiration
(c) osmosis
(d) evaporation
Answer:
(d) evaporation

Question 5.
A few substances are arranged in the increasing order of forces of attraction between their particles. Which one of the following represents a correct arrangement?
(a) Water, air, wind
(b) Air, sugar, oil.
(c) Oxygen, water, sugar
(d) Salt, juice, air
Answer:
(c) Oxygen, water, sugar

Question 6.
On converting 25°C, 38°C and 66°C to kelvin scale, the correct sequence of temperature will be
(a) 298 K, 311 K and 339 K
(b) 298 K, 300 K and 338 K
(c) 273 K, 278 K and 543 K
(d) 298 K, 310 K and 338 K
Answer:
(a) 298 K, 311 K and 339 K

Question 7.
Choose the correct statement of the following
(a) conversion of solid into vapours without passing through the liquid state is called vapourisation.
(b) conversion of vapours into solid without passing through the liquid state is called sublimation.
(c) conversion of vapours into solid without passing through the liquid state is called freezing.
(d) conversion of solid into liquid is called sublimation.
Answer:
(b) conversion of vapours into solid without passing through the liquid state is called sublimation.

Question 8.
The boiling points of diethyl ether, acetone and n-butyl alcohol are 35°C, 56°C and 118°C respectively. Which one of the following correctly represents their boiling points in kelvin scale?
(a) 306 K, 329 K, 391K
(b) 308 K, 329 K, 392 K
(c) 308 K, 329 K, 391 K
(d) 329 K, 392 K, 308 K
Answer:
(c) 308 K, 329 K, 391 K

Question 9.
Which condition out of the following will increase the evaporation of water?
(a) Increase in temperature of water
(b) Decrease in temperature of water
(c) Less exposed surface area of water
(d) Adding common salt to water
Answer:
(a) Increase in temperature of water

Question 10.
In which of the following conditions, the distance between the molecules of hydrogen gas would increase?
(i) Increasing pressure on hydrogen contained in a closed container
(ii) Some hydrogen gas leaking out of the container
(iii) Increasing the volume of the container of hydrogen gas
(iv) Adding more hydrogen gas to the container without increasing the volume of the container
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
Answer:
(c) (ii) and (iii)

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Name any two things that are not the state of matter.
Answer:
The feelings of love and hate are not the state of matter.

Question 2.
Name any two substances which exist in all the three states of matter at low range of temperature.
Answer:
Water and wax.

Question 3.
Define the specific heat of a substance.
Answer:
It is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a gram of substance by 1°C.

Question 4.
How is the boiling point of a liquid affected with the increasing or decreasing pressure?
Answer:
The boiling of a liquid is proportional to the pressure i.e. with the increasing pressure, boiling point will increase and with the decreasing pressure, it will decrease.

Question 5.
What is the advantage of boiling the acids under low pressure conditions?
Answer:
It helps to concentrate them without them undergoing any decomposition.

Question 6.
What is the S.I. unit for expressing the specific heat of a substance?
Answer:
Cal/g/°C

Question 7.
The calorie and joule are the units used to measure the heat energy. How are they interrelated?
Answer:
1 Joule = 1 / 4.18 calorie or 1 calorie = 4.18 Joules

Question 8.
What happens when a body warms up?
Answer:
When a body warms up showing the rise in temperature, it absorbs the heat from its surroundings.

Question 9.
What happens when a hot body is left at room temperature to cool?
Answer:
When a hot body is left at room temperature to cool, it looses the heat to the surroundings.

Question 10.
What effect does the evaporation of a liquid has on the liquid?
Answer:
Evaporation of a liquid has cooling effect i.e., the temperature of a liquid falls with increasing evaporation.

Question 11.
Why are the earthen pots more effective in Cooling water in rural areas?
Answer:
In rural areas where there is no electricity, the earthen pots are effective means for cooling water because they allow the evaporation of water from the surface.

Question 12.
When will the clothes spread on a cloth line will dry faster, on a hot humid day or hot dry day?
Answer:
On hot dry day as the relative atmospheric humidity is less, the rate of evaporation will be more and hence the domes will dry faster.

Question 13.
Alcohol and water are two liquids. Alcohol has lower boiling point than water. Which of the two would evaporate faster at a given temperature?
Answer:
Alcohol, it has low boiling point as compared to the water.

Question 14.
State the two precautions you will observe when measuring the volume of a liquid using a measuring cylinder?
Answer:
The two precautions include placing the measuring cylinder on the flat surface and reading the lower meniscus if water, with eyes in line of the meniscus.

Question 15.
What is dry ice?
Answer:
It is the solidified form of carbon dioxide at low temperature and high pressure conditions.

Question 16.
What are the three properties of the state of matter?
Answer:
Mass, volume and inertia are the three properties of states of matter.

Question 17.
What happens to the particles of a matter when it is heated?
Answer:
The particles of matter gain the thermal energy and use it to increase their kinetic energy.

Question 18.
Why do we feel our palm cool after placing an ice cube on it?
Answer:
Ice cube placed on palm extracts the heat from the palm surface to melt. This extraction of heat cools the palm.

Question 19.
What is a pure substance?
Answer:
A substance which has its specific melting point, boiling point and density is called a pure substance. All the elements and compounds are examples of pure substance.

Question 20.
What are volatile liquids?
Answer:
Liquids which vapourise even at the room temperature are called volatile liquids for example alcohol, acetone, etc.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is matter? State its different forms.
Answer:
Anything in our surroundings that occupies space and has its own mass is called matter. All forms of the matter are made of the small particles that are invisible to naked eyes.

Question 2.
What happens when 10g of table salt is dissolved in the 100 ml of water? Does it bring any change in the volume of the solution?
Answer:
When salt is added to water, the particles of the salt occupies the spaces present in between the particles of the water hence, their occur no evident change in its volume.

Question 3.
A student mixed 100 ml alcohol and 100 ml of water together in a container. What would be the net volume of mixture in the container? Why?
Answer:
The net volume of the mixture in the container would be slightly less than 200 ml because the particles of the water and alcohol would occupy the spaces present between each other.

Question 4.
How will you experimentally prove that matter is made up of small particles?
Answer:
Take a known volume of water in a container and dissolve a small amount of table salt in water by continuous stirring. When the volume of the solution is measured, it shows no difference to show that the matter is made of small particles with spaces among them that can be occupied by the others.

Question 5.
(a) What is diffusion?
(b) State the different factors which affect the diffusion.
Answer:
(a) Diffusion refers to the phenomenon of the intermixing of particles of the two or more substances on their own based on the concentration differences.
(b) Diffusion is affected by the concentration differences, mass of the diffusing particles, the medium in which the particles have to diffuse and the distance in between the source and sink.

Question 6.
Why do you smell a lighted incense stick put away in the house temple on ground floor when studying in your study room on the first floor?
Answer:
The particles of perfume in incense stick mix with the air and freely move in all directions from the area of their higher concentration in the temple room to the other rooms. The incoming of these perfume particles because of their diffusion, makes you smell the sweet smell of incense.

Question 7.
What are the different states of matter? Give examples.
Answer:
There are three states of matter, solid, liquid and gases.

• Solid: Stone, brick, salt, sugar, a metal block, etc.
• Liquid: liquid water, alcohol, milk, oil, petrol, etc.
• Gases: Oxygen, nitrogen, hydrogen, carbon dioxide, etc.

Question 8.
Classify the constituents of body into the different states of matter.
Answer:
Solid: Bones, teeth and muscles.
Liquid: Water, blood and lymph Gases: Inhaled air and exhaled air.

Question 9.
A rubber band can be stretched unlike solids then why shall it be considered a solid?
Answer:
A rubber band is a solid despite of the fact that it can be stretched because it does not change its shape at its own. An external force needs to be applied on it to force it change its shape and after the removal of the force, it mostly regains its shape.

Question 10.
A handful of salt or sugar take the shape of the container like liquids then why are they considered solids than liquids?
Answer:
A handful of salt or sugar does take the shape of the container like liquids yet they are considered solids because the individual crystal they contain, has a fixed shape.

Question 11.
Why is a sponge considered a solid when it can be compressed like gases or liquids?
Answer:
A sponge is considered solid even when it can be compressed like gases or liquids because its compression is because of the presence of minute air holes or cavities filled with air rather than the solid matter it has in its structure.

Question 12.
Define volume? Write its S.I. unit.
Answer:
Volume is the space occupied by a substance. All the solids and liquids have definite volume. It’s S.I. unit cubic metre (m3) but commonly used in cm³ when, 1 cm³ = 1000 ml = 1 litre.

Question 13.
Define density. State its S.I. unit.
Answer:
Density refers to the mass per unit
volume of a substance. It is measured in kg/m³ or g/cm³.
Density = \(\frac{\text { Mass }}{\text { Volume }}\)

Question 14.
Which have more density, solids or liquids? Why?
Answer:
Solids have more density than liquids because with particles placed close together, they have more mass per unit volume as compared to liquids in which the particles are loosely packed.

Question 15.
Why gases can be compressed but not solids?
Answer:
The gases can be compressed because their particles have very less force of attraction in between them so that they are in random motion with large distance among one another. Hence, when external pressure is applied, the particles come close to each other and the gas compresses but in solids the particles have large force of attraction hence, the distance is very less such that even upon applying the external pressure, they fail to be compressed.

Question 16.
Can particles of a solid diffuse into another solid? If yes, give example.
Answer:
Yes, the particles of a solid can diffuse into another solid but the diffusion takes a long time. For example if two metal blocks are tied together and left undisturbed for a long time i.e. for years, the particles of one diffuse into another as it become difficult to separate mem from each other.

Question 17.
What do you understand by the compression of a gas? Give examples of the use of compressed gas in daily life.
Answer:
The compression of a gas refers to reducing of the volume of a gas in a container on applying external pressure. The different compressed gases are used in daily life such as LPG (Liquefied petroleum gas) used for cooking, oxygen gas used in hospitals and CNG (Compressed natural gas) used as fuel in vehicles.

Question 18.
Why liquids have definite volume but not shape?
Answer:
Liquids have definite volume but not shape because they have moderate force of attraction between particles such that the distance between the particles is also moderate giving them a definite volume but not shape.

Question 19.
What do you understand by the anomalous behaviour of water? What is its advantage to living organisms?
Answer:
Water has anomalous behaviour because unlike other substances, on freezing its density decreases and therefore the ice floats on the water surface. The floating of ice is important for aquatic living organisms as they can survive in water below the surface of thick ice in oceans such as Arctic ocean and polar regions.

Question 20.
What happens when a crystal of potassium permanganate is gently placed at the bottom of the water rilled beaker?
Answer:
The crystal of potassium permanganate gets dissolved in water. The dissolution involves the diffusion of its particles in water. This diffusion continues until the particles of potassium permanganate get evenly distributed in water.

Question 21.
State the relation in between the density and diffusion of a given substance into another substance.
Answer:
Diffusion involves the free intermixing of a substance into another. It is inversely proportional to the under root of the density of the substance. Therefore, an ink with low density dissolves or diffuses faster in water than a drop of honey which is denser than ink.

Question 22.
How will you test the purity of honey bought from a shop?
Answer:
A drop of the honey to be tested is poured in a glass of water. If it forms a streak going down the water than its pure, otherwise not.

Question 23.
How do the aquatic plants and animals manage to survive in water?
Answer:
All aquatic plants and animals require carbon dioxide or oxygen or both for their successful survival. These gases are soluble in water. Carbon dioxide dissolves in water forming carbonic acid which is a very acid weak and oxygen is sparingly soluble in water, about 0.7% per litre of water.

Question 24.
Arrange the following
Liquid, solid, gas
in the increasing order of the rate of diffusion of their particles with reason.
Answer:
In solids the force of attraction are very strong hence, the particles are” bound close to each other but in gases, the force of attraction between the particles is very less, hence, they are free to move randomly. Therefore, in gases the rate of the diffusion is maximum than in solids.

The liquids have moderate force of attraction, therefore they lie in between solids and liquids for the rate of diffusion.
Solids < Liquids < Gases

Question 25.
Why does a gas stored in the container exerts pressure on its walls?
Answer:
A gas stored in a container exerts pressure on its walls because the gas particles are in free random motion. Whenever, they hit the wall of the container, they exert pressure which is proportional to the motion of the particles and their density.

Question 26.
Why does an inflated balloon when kept in sun expands in size and when kept in deep freezer, it shrinks?
Answer:
A balloon kept in sun expands because at high temperature, the Heat energy gained by the particles is transformed into their increased kinetic energy and therefore, they hit the walls of the balloon with greater force exerting more pressure.

When the same balloon is kept in deep freezer because of the low. temperature conditions, the particles lose their kinetic energy and hit the balloon walls with low pressure, making it to contract in size.

Question 27.
Define pressure and atmospheric pressure.
Answer:
Pressure is denned as the thrust acting per emit area. It’s S.I. unit is Pascal but it can also be measured in terms of atmospheric pressure.

The normal atmospheric pressure is the pressure exerted by the air at sea level. It is 760 mm of Hg.
1 Atmospheric pressure (atm) = 1 × 10s Pascal.

Question 28.
How is a vapour different from a gas? Give example.
Answer:
Vapour refers to the gaseous state of a substance that at room temperature exists in its liquid form such as the water vapours formed after the evaporation of liquid water whereas the gas refers to an element or compound that exits in gaseous state even at the room temperature such as oxygen and nitrogen present in air.

Question 29.
What happens when a solid cube of ice is heated in a beaker?
Answer:
When a solid cube of ice is heated, the heat supplied is used up in increasing the vibrations of the particles of the solid but soon the force of attraction reduces enough to allow the particles become free and flow, making the ice to melt.

When the water is continued to be heated, there comes a time when the force of attraction reduces enough to allow particles to leave the water surface and fly free in the atmospheric air in form of vapours.

Question 30.
Define the folio wings:
(i) Latent heat of fusion
(ii) Latent heat of vapourisation
Answer:
(i) Latent heat of fusion: It refers to the heat required to change 1 kg of solid substance into its liquid state at normal atmospheric pressure without any change in temperature at its melting point.

(ii) Latent heat of vapourisation: It refers to the amount of heat required to change 1 kg of liquid substance into its vapours at atmospheric pressure without any change in temperature at normal on its boiling point.

Question 31.
Is the boiling point of water is same in Rajasthan, Shimla, Nanital and Srinagar? Give reason for your answer.
Answer:
No, the boiling point varies with altitude. With the increasing altitude, the boiling point decreases because boiling point is the temperature at which the vapour pressure equals the atmospheric pressure. Hence, as we go at the higher altitudes, the boiling point will decrease with decreasing atmospheric pressure.

Question 32.
On which day, you expect the wet clothes spread on a line to dry faster and why?
(i) Cloudy day or dry day.
(ii) Calm dry day or windy dry day.
Answer:
(i) The wet clothes will dry faster on a dry day as the percentage of water vapours are less in atmospheric air. The atmospheric pressure would be less to oppose the release of vapours from clothes than on a cloudy in which because of the presence of the water vapours, the atmospheric pressure would be more to prevent the release of water vapours.

(ii) On a windy dry day, the clothes will dry faster as the blowing wind would maintain a low pressure over the clothes forcing the wafer vapours to leave the clothes surface.

Question 33.
Why does evaporation cause the cooling of the surface?
Answer:
Evaporation involves the leaving of the particles of a liquid in gaseous state in air. A particle to leave the surface of the liquid has to have some extra energy. The evaporating particles absorb this required extra energy from the surface producing the cooling effect.

Question 34.
A student kept equal volume of water in same shape and size of the two containers, A of clay and B of plastic at same place for 2 hours. After two hours, water in which container will have lower temperature? Why?
Answer:
In container A, the temperature of water would be less because the clay surface is more porous than plastic hence, from its surface there will be more evaporation of water. The cooling effect of evaporation will reduce more temperature in container A than in container B.

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
How will you prove that the particles are very-very small beyond our imagination.
Answer:
The matter is made up of very-very tiny particles that are invisible to naked eyes and are even invisible under a microscope but their existence can be proved by the activities like:

• Take 100 ml of water in a beaker and dissolve 2-3 crystals of potassium permanganate.
• Take 10 ml of the above solution and add it to 100 ml of clear water in other beaker.
• Keep diluting the solution like above for 6-8 times.

We only observe that the colour only fades with each dilution but does not disappear i.e. the 2-3 crystals of potassium permanganate added to the water initially had millions of the particles that kept distributing themselves with each dilution.

Question 2.
How will you show that gases are more compressible than liquids?
Answer:
To show that the gases undergo compression more easily than liquids, take two 100 ml syringes.

Close their nozzle by inserting them in a rubber cork. Remove the piston, fill the air in one syringe and some water in the other syringe. Place the piston back in its position and apply the pressure.

In syringe filled with air, pressure is applied more easily than in syringe filled with water because, the air, a mixture of gases is more compressible than water.

Question 3.
A student takes a metallic kettle pot partially filled with water and places it over a burner as shown in the figure. What observations will he make when

(a) places the kettle pot on the flame.
(b) after some time of heating over the flame.
(c) he brings a plate filled with ice cubes near the mouth of the kettle’s nozzle. Why?
Answer:
(a) When the kettle is placed over the burner, first kettle body gains heat that is further gained by the water and hence, its temperature starts increasing with increasing time.
(b) After some time, he would see the water vapours in form of steam coming out of the mouth of nozzle.
(c) When he brings a plate filled with ice cubes over the mouth of the nozzle the water vapours present in steam would condense back in liquid water droplets.

Question 4.
What is evaporation? State some its advantages.
Answer:
Evaporation is the loss of water in form of water vapours from the surface of water in a container or a surface at room temperature. The advantage of evaporation include:

• The cooling effect it creates on the surface which is used in rural areas to cool the water and by plants to keep their leaf surface cool.
• The addition of water vapours to atmosphere to regulate the water cycle.
• In loss of solvent in process of crystallization such as extraction of salt from the saline water.

Question 5.
Describe the different factors which affect the rate of evaporation.
Answer:
A number of factors affect the rate of evaporation. These factors include

• Surface area available for evaporation. The rate of evaporation increases with increasing surface area.
• Temperature affects the rate of evaporation as with increasing temperature, the rate of evaporation also increases simultaneously.
• Wind speed, with increasing wind speed, the rate of evaporation also increases. Therefore, the wet clothes dry faster on a hot, dry and windy day.
• Relative humidity, with increasing relative humidity, the rate of evaporation decreases. Therefore, wet clothes dry slower on a humid day than on a dry day.
• Mass of the solvent particles, with the increasing mass, their evaporation decreases.

Question 6.
Graphically describe the heating curve which a student will plot on heating an ice cube until it gets transformed in state of water vapours.
Answer:
The graph shows that when ice cube is heated, there is no rise in the temperature as the given heat is used up in melting the ice into water. Once in form of water, the temperature starts rising until it reaches 100°C or so. From this temperature onward, he would find no further rise in temperature despite continuous heating as the heat supplied would be used up in transforming the liquid water into its vapours.