Author name: Prasanna

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Understanding Our Criminal Justice System Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Appearing Students of Class 8 Exams can download MCQ on Understanding Our Criminal Justice System Class 8 with Answers from here. By practicing Class 8 Civics Chapter 6 MCQ with Answers, you can score well in the exam. Download Class 8 SST Civics Chapter 6 MCQ in PDF format from the below access links and start practicing on a regular basis for better subject knowledge.

Question 1.
Under which Article of the Constitution every person has the Fundamental Right to be defended by a lawyer.
(a) Art 35
(b) Art 35a
(c) Article 22
(d) Art 27

Answer

Answer: (c) Article 22

---

Question 2.
Who are the players in the criminal justice system?
(a) Police
(b) Public Prosecutor
(c) Judge
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above

---

Question 3.
Who among them represent the interests of the State?
(a) Judge
(b) Police
(c) Lawyer
(d) Public Prosecutor

Answer

Answer: (d) Public Prosecutor

---

Question 4.
What is the of FIR?
(a) First Information Report
(b) First Investigation Report
(c) First Informing Report
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) First Information Report

---

Question 5.
A criminal offence is regarded as
(a) Public wrong
(b) Public welfare
(c) Private wrong
(d) Public safety

Answer

Answer: (a) Public wrong

---

Question 6.
What are the players in criminal justice system?
(a) Police
(b) Public Prosecutor
(c) Defence Lawyer
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above
The four players in criminal justice system are Police, Public Prosecutor, Defence Lawyer and the judge.

---

Question 7.
Which is not the responsibility of the public prosecutor?
(a) To represent the interest of the state.
(b) Also represents the interest of the witness.
(c) Has to act impartially
(d) The prosecutor must conduct the prosecution

Answer

Answer: (b) Also represents the interest of the witness.
Public prosecutor represents the interest of the state. He must conduct the prosecution. He has to act impartially.

---

Question 8.
Which is not applicable in Open court?
(a) The police cannot be present during the proceedings.
(b) What is held in the presence of the accused
(c) People can see the whole proceedings
(d) Hearing of the case in front of viewers

Answer

Answer: (a) The police cannot be present during the proceedings.
In the Fair Trial Charge sheet filed by the police and the court gives the copy to the accused and case are discussed in the Open court, where everyone can hear the case and on Basis of evidence judgment are taken.

---

Question 9.
Which of them is not true about the F.I.R.?
(a) The police begin the investigation after the registration of F.I.R
(b) The complainant may/may not sign the F.I.R.
(c) There is a prescribed form to register an F.I.R.
(d) The F.I.R. mentions the date, time, and place of the offence

Answer

Answer: (b) The complainant may/may not sign the F.I.R.
It is with the registration of an FIR that the police can begin their investigations into a crime. The F.I.R. mentions the date, time, and place of the offence. There is a prescribed form to register an F.I.R.

---

Question 10.
Why did Sub-inspector Rao kept Sushil in the police custody for two days?
(a) The police forcibly kept Sushil in custody. He was not presented with a memo.
(b) Sushil was abused.
(c) They forcibly tried to extract a confession from him.
(d) He was beaten.

Answer

Answer: (c) They forcibly tried to extract a confession from him.
It was not legal to arrest sushil in the police custody for two days and they forcibly tried to extract a confession from him.

---

Question 11.
Who was the sub-inspector to arrest shanti?
(a) Mr. shinde
(b) Mr. Rao
(c) Mr. Sushil
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Mr. Rao
When Shanti was arrested for theft, sub-inspector Rao kept her brother Sushil in the police custody for two days.

---

Question 12.
What are the importance of the court of law in our legal system?
(a) Provide Documents
(b) Provide Justice
(c) Provide Wealth
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Provide Justice
Courts play an important role in our legal system as they are the one who provides justice and see to it that person who has been accused of committed crime is guilty or not.

---

Question 13.
What is an Offence?
(a) Act defines as relief
(b) Act defines as punishment
(c) Act defines as a Crime
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Act defines as a Crime
This refers to the act that the law defines as a crime.

---

Question 14.
Which of the following is not mention in the four players in criminal justice system?
(a) Police
(b) Villagers
(c) Judge
(d) Defence lawyer

Answer

Answer: (b) Villagers
The Police, The Defence Lawyer, The Public Prosecutor and The Judge are the four players in criminal justice system.

---

Question 15.
What are civil cases?
(a) Cases of private right
(b) Cases of crime offence
(c) Cases of Parliament
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Cases of private right
Cases connected with private rights are called civil cases. Breach of contract, matrimonial cases, etc. are examples of civil cases.

---

Write true (T) or false (F)

1. The judge is like an umpire in a game and conducts the trial impartially and in an open court.

Answer

Answer: True

---

2. According to Article 22 criminal law guarantee to every arrested person Fundamental Rights. One of which is the Right to be informed at the time arrest of the offence for which the person is being arrested.

Answer

Answer: True

---

3. A boy under 20 yrs of age and women cannot be called to the police station only for questioning.

Answer

Answer: False

---

4. According to D.K. Basu guidelines, the police officials who carry out the arrest or interrogation should wear clear, accurate and visible identification and name tags with their designations.

Answer

Answer: True

---

5. Article 39A of the Constitution says that every person has a Fundamental Right to be defended by a lawyer.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Match the following

1.

Column-I	Column-II
1. Prosecutor	(a) Player in the criminal justice system.
2. Art 39A	(b) Cognizable offence
3. The Public Prosecutor	(c) on behalf of the state
4. FIR	(d) State provides lawyer

Answer

Answer:

Column-I	Column-II
1. Prosecutor	(c) on behalf of the state
2. Art 39A	(d) State provides lawyer
3. The Public Prosecutor	(a) Player in the criminal justice system.
4. FIR	(b) Cognizable offence

---

Fill in the blanks

1. The judge hears all the witnesses and any other ……………………… presented by the ……………………… and the defence.

Answer

Answer: evidence, prosecution

---

2. The FIR also states the name and address of the ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: Complainant

---

3. The ……………………… and the law both state the every person should carry out their roles in a proper manner.

Answer

Answer: Constitution

---

4. It was the responsibility of the ……………………… to prove beyond reasonable doubt that Shanti was not guilty.

Answer

Answer: Prosecution

---

5. A boy under ……………………… of age and women cannot be called to the police station only for questioning.

Answer

Answer: 15 yrs.

---

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Question 1.
Which term is meant ‘broken’ and is used deliberately and actively by groups to highlight the centuries of discrimination they have experienced within the caste system.
(a) Ostracise
(b) Dalit
(c) Assertive
(d) Confront

Answer

Answer: (b) Dalit

---

Question 2.
Who, being an adivasis, activist, has also pointed out that one of the violators of Constitutional rights guaranteed to tribal people are governments in the various States of India?
(a) C.K. Janu
(b) Rathnam
(c) Kabir
(d) Soyrabai

Answer

Answer: (a) C.K. Janu

---

Question 3.
In which year did the government passed the Employment of Manual Scavengers and Construction of Dry Latrines (Prohibition) Act.
(a) In 1991
(b) In 1992
(c) In 1993
(d) In 1990

Answer

Answer: (c) In 1993

---

Question 4.
When was the Act framed in response to demands made by Dalits and others that the government must take seriously the ill treatment and humiliation Dalits and tribal groups face in everyday life?
(a) In 1989
(b) In 1970
(c) In 1980
(d) In 2003

Answer

Answer: (a) In 1989

---

Question 5.
Which article of the Indian Constitution States that untouchability has been abolished.
(a) Art 18
(b) Art 19
(c) Art 16
(d) Art 17

Answer

Answer: (d) Art 17

---

Question 6.
What do you mean by Ostracise?
(a) Banish Individual or group
(b) Banish Caste
(c) Banish religion
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Banish Individual or group
This means to exclude or banish an individual or a group. It refers to a social boycott of an individual and his family.

---

Question 7.
What is meant by the term ‘Assertive’?
(a) Those never express themselves
(b) Those oppose every concept
(c) Those express themselves strongly
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Those express themselves strongly
An assertive person or group is one that can express themselves and their views strongly. During 1970s-1980s periods, in parts of southern India, a number of assertive Dalit groups came into being and asserted their rights.

---

Question 8.
What was abolished according to Article 17 of the Constitution states?
(a) Trafficking
(b) Beggar
(c) Untouchability
(d) Employment of children below ten years of age.

Answer

Answer: (c) Untouchability
Article 17 of the Constitution states the abolished of the Untouchability. It assures that no one can henceforth prevent Dalits from educating themselves, entering temples, using public facilities etc.

---

Question 9.
Reservations play an important role in providing social justice to:
(a) Adivasis
(b) Dalits
(c) Muslims
(d) Both a and b

Answer

Answer: (d) Both a and b
Reservations play an important role in providing social justice to adivasis and dalits. The laws give reserve seats in education and government employment for Dalits and Adivasis.

---

Question 10.
What are the names of manual scavengers in different parts of the India?
(a) Bhangis in Gujarat
(b) Pakhis in Andhra Pradesh
(c) Sikkaliars in Tamil Nadu.
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these
Manual scavengers in different parts of the country are known by the names of Bhangis in Gujarat, Pakhis in Andhra Pradesh and Sikkaliars in Tamil Nadu.

---

Question 11.
According to which Article of the Indian Constitution states the abolished of the Untouchability?
(a) Article 20
(b) Article 25
(c) Article 18
(d) Article 21

Answer

Answer: (d) Article 21
Article 17 of the Constitution states the abolished of the Untouchability. It assures that no one can henceforth prevent Dalits from educating themselves, entering temples, using public facilities etc.

---

Question 12.
Who was an Adivasi activist has pointed encroachers of Timber merchants and Paper mill owners?
(a) C K Janu
(b) Chokhamela
(c) kabir
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) C K Janu
C K Janu an Adivasi activist has pointed out that the state governments are the violators of their constitutional rights and they allow encroachers the form of Timber merchants, Paper mill owners and Industrialists.

---

Question 13.
Who was the religious minorities in India?
(a) Sikh
(b) Muslim
(c) Jain
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these
Some of the religious minorities of India are Sikh, Muslim, Parsi, Buddhist, Jain etc. They have particularly drawn upon the right to freedom of religion and cultural and educational rights.

---

Question 14.
who was the wife of Bhakti poet Chokhamela?
(a) Soyra bai
(b) Chandra
(c) Knata bai
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Soyra bai
Soyrabai was the wife of Bhakti poet Chokhamela. They belonged to the Mahar caste, at that time considered as untouchable.

---

Question 15.
What are the fundamental rights in the constitution that are treated with dignity and equality?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to freedom
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both a and b
The fundamental rights in the constitution that dalits can draw upon to insist that they should be treated with dignity and as equal were the Right to Equality, Right to freedom.

---

Write true (T) or false (F)

1. The choice of struggle has depended on the circumstances that the marginalised found themselves in.

Answer

Answer: True

---

2. Art 15 of the Constitution States that untouchability has been abolished.

Answer

Answer: False

---

3. Art 17 of the Constitution notes that no citizen of India shall be discriminated against on the basis of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.

Answer

Answer: False

---

4. Governments across India have their own list of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and backward and most backward castes.

Answer

Answer: True

---

5. Rathnam was written about as symbol of Dalit action.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Match the following

1.

Column-I	Column-II
1. Kabir	(a) Symbol of Dalit Action
2. C.K. Janu	(b) Adivasi Activist
3. Rathnam	(c) Bhakti tradition
4. In 1993	(d) The central govt, passed the scheduled tribes and other traditional forest Dwellers.
5. Bengali	(e) The Safai Karamchari Andolan filed a PIL.

Answer

Answer:

Column-I	Column-II
1. Kabir	(c) Bhakti tradition
2. C.K. Janu	(a) Symbol of Dalit Action
3. Rathnam	(b) Adivasi Activist
4. In 1993	(e) The Safai Karamchari Andolan filed a PIL.
5. Bengali	(d) The central govt, passed the scheduled tribes and other traditional forest Dwellers.

---

Fill in the blanks

1. Article ……………………… of the Constitution notes that no citizen of India shall be discriminated against on the basis of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.

Answer

Answer: Article 15

---

2. ……………………… was the wife of well-known Bhakti poet Chokhamela.

Answer

Answer: Soyrabai

---

3. ……………………… are exposed to subhuman conditions of work and face serious health hazards.

Answer

Answer: Manual Scavengers

---

4. In ……………………… the Safai Karamchari Andolan and 13 other organisations and individuals filed a PIL in the Supreme Court.

Answer

Answer: 2003

---

5. Constitution gurantees right of ……………………… to re-possess their lands.

Answer

Answer: tribal.

---

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Question 1.
The impression or sensation remains on the retina for about how may seconds even after removal of the object ?
(a) 1 second
(b) 1/16th of a second
(c) 16 seconds
(d) 1 minute

Answer

(b) 1/16th of a second
The impression or sensation remains on the retina for about 1/16th of a second even after removal of the object.

---

Question 2.
The cells present in the retina of eye and responding to intensity of light are:
(a) Rod-shaped cells
(b) Both of these
(c) Cones
(d) None of these

Answer

(a) Rod-shaped cells
The cells present in the retina of eye and responding to intensity of light are Rod¬shaped cells.

---

Question 3.
The cells present in the retina of eye and responding to colour are:
(a) Rod-shaped cells
(b) Both of these
(c) Cones
(d) None of these

Answer

(c) Cones
The cells present in the retina of eye and responding to colour are cones.

---

Question 4.
The disease of eye in which crystalline lens becomes hazy or even opaque due to development of membrane over it is :
(a) Myopia
(b) Cataract
(c) Hypermetropia
(d) Presbyopia

Answer

(b) Cataract
The disease of eye in which crystalline lens becomes hazy or even opaque due to development of membrane over it is cataract.

---

Question 5.
Angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection:
(a) Always
(b) Sometimes
(c) Under special conditions
(d) Never

Answer

(a) Always
Angle of incidence is always equal to the angle of reflection.

---

Question 6.
Image formed by a plane mirror is:
(a) Virtual, behind the mirror and enlarged
(b) Virtual, behind the mirror and of the same size as the object
(c) Real at the surface of the mirror and enlarged .
(d) Real, behind the mirror and of the same size as the object

Answer

(b) Virtual, behind the mirror and of the same size as the object
Image formed by a plane mirror is virtual, behind the mirror and of the same size as the object.

---

Question 7.
Reflection is:
(a) absorption of light rays by the surface of an object
(b) passing of light rays through the surface of an object
(c) bouncing back of light rays from the surface object
(d) None of these

Answer

(c) bouncing back of light rays from the surface object
Reflection is bouncing back of light rays from the surface of an object.

---

Question 8.
Splitting of light into its colours is known as:
(a) spectrum
(b) dispersion
(c) rainbow
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) dispersion
Dispersion is splitting of light into its colours.

---

Question 9.
Which of the following is not a source of light:
(a) Tubelight
(b) The sun
(c) The moon
(d) Fire fly

Answer

(c) The moon
The moon is not a source of light.

---

Question 10.
Which type of mirror is used to obtain a virtual, laterally inverted image and equal in size of an object ?
(a) plane mirror
(b) concave mirror
(c) convex mirror
(d) all of these

Answer

(a) plane mirror
Plane mirror is used to obtain a virtual, laterally inverted image and equal in size of an object.

---

Question 11.
The angle between incident ray and normal is called the angle of:
(a) reflection
(b) incidence
(c) refraction
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) incidence
The angle between incident ray and normal is called the angle of incidence.

---

Question 12.
The lens present in eye is:
(a) convex lens
(b) concave lens
(c) either convex or concave
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) convex lens
The lens present in eye is convex lens.

---

Question 13.
Kaleidoscope is based on the pattern of:
(a) reflection
(b) multiple reflection
(c) spectrum
(d) diffused reflection

Answer

(b) multiple reflection
Kaleidoscope is based on the pattern of multiple reflection.

---

Question 14.
When two mirrors are placed parallel to each other, and a candle is placed in the centre of the mirrors no. of images will be formed.
(a) infinite
(b) three
(c) six
(d) no image will be formed

Answer

(a) infinite
When two mirrors are placed parallel to each other and a candle is placed in the centre of the mirrors infinite number of images will be formed.

---

Question 15.
The difference in the colour of the eye is due to difference in:
(a) retina
(b) iris
(c) sclera
(d) pupil

Answer

(b) iris
The difference in the colour of the eye is due to difference in iris.

---

Question 16.
Beam of light striking the reflecting surface is called:
(a) Reflecting ray
(b) Incident ray
(c) Refracted ray
(d) Normal

Answer

(b) Incident ray
Beam of light striking the reflecting surface is called incident ray.

---

Question 17.
Beam of light, bounced back by the surface after falling on it is called
(a) Reflecting ray
(b) Incident ray
(c) Refracted ray
(d) normal

Answer

(a) Reflecting ray
Beam of light, bounced back by the surface after falling on it is called

---

Question 18.
Band of seven colours is called:
(a) Dispersion
(c) VIBGYOR
(b) Spectrum
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer

(b) Spectrum
Band of seven colours is called spectrum.

---

Question 19.
Rainbow is formed after rain due to
(a) Dispersion
(c) Reflection
(b) Multiple reflection
(d) Refraction

Answer

(a) Dispersion
Rainbow is formed after rain due to dispersion.

---

Question 20.
Front bulged part of the eyeball is called:
(a) Cornea
(b) Choroid
(c) Pupil
(d) Retina

Answer

(a) Cornea
Front bulged part of the eyeball is called cornea.

---

Question 21.
Visually impaired people can read and write using:
(a) Degital pens
(b) Electronic writer
(c) Braille system
(d) Hearing aids

Answer

(c) Braille system
Visually impaired people can read and write using Braille system.

---

Question 22.
The amount of light entering the eye is regulated by:
(a) Iris
(b) Ciliary muscles
(c) Pupil
(d) Lens

Answer

(a) Iris
The amount of light entering the eye is regulated by Iris.

---

Question 23.
The focal length of the eye-lens is changed by:
(a) Retina
(b) Iris
(c) Pupil
(d) Ciliary muscles

Answer

(d) Ciliary muscles
The focal length of the eye-lens is changed by ciliary muscles.

---

Question 24.
The human eye forms the image of an object at its:
(a) Iris
(b) Cornea
(c) Pupil
(d) Retina

Answer

(d) Retina
The human eye forms the image of an object at its retina.

---

Question 25.
Far point of a normal human eye is situated at:
(a) 25 m
(b) 25 mm
(c) 25 cm
(d) Infinity

Answer

(d) Infinity
Far point of a normal eye is situated at infinity.

---

Question 26.
The least distance of distinct vision for a young adult with normal vision is:
(a) 25 m
(b) 25 mm
(c) 25 cm
(d) Infinity

Answer

(c) 25 cm
The least distance of distinct vision for a young adujt with normal vision is

---

Question 27.
The near point at the age of 60 years is:
(a) 25 cm
(b) 25 m
(c) 200 cm
(d) Infinity

Answer

(c) 200 cm
200 cm is the near point at the age of 60 years.

---

Question 28.
The massage of image formation is convfeyed to the brain by:
(a) Cornea
(b) Ciliary muscles
(c) Yellow spot
(d) Optical nerve

Answer

(d) Optical nerve
The message of image formation is conveyed to the brain by optical nerve.

---

Question 29.
A person who cannot see the distant objects is said to be suffering from:
(a) Myopia
(b) Presbyopia
(c) Hypermetropia
(d) Astigmatism

Answer

(a) Myopia
A person who cannot see the distant objects is said to be suffering from Myopia

---

Question 30.
A person who cannot see the near by objects is said to be suffering from:
(a) Myopia
(b) Presbyopia
(c) Hypermetropia
(d) Astigmatism

Answer

(c) Hypermetropia
A person who cannot see die nearby objects is said to be suffering from Hypermetropia

---

Match the Column-A with Column-B:

Question 1.

Column-A	Column-B
(a) A perpendicular drawn on the surface of mirror, at the point of incidence	(i) reflected ray
(b) A ray of light that falls on a mirror	(ii) reflection
(c) A ray of light that bounces back after striking the mirror	(iii) normal
(d) Returning of a ray of light to the same medium after hitting a surface	(iv) incident ray

Answer

Column-A	Column-B
(a) A perpendicular drawn on the surface of mirror, at the point of incidence	(iii) normal
(b) A ray of light that falls on a mirror	(iv) incident ray
(c) A ray of light that bounces back after striking the mirror	(i) reflected ray
(d) Returning of a ray of light to the same medium after hitting a surface	(ii) reflection

---

Question 2.

Column-A	Column-B
(a) When light is incident on smooth, polished and regular surface	(i) dispersion
(b) Reflection from rough surface	(ii) braille system
(c) Visually challenged persons can read and write using	(iii) multiple reflection
(d) Splitting of light into its constituent colours	(iv) regular reflection
(e) Beautiful patterns are formed in a Kaleidoscope due to	(v) diffused reflection

Answer

Column-A	Column-B
(a) When light is incident on smooth, polished and regular surface	(iv) regular reflection
(b) Reflection from rough surface	(v) diffused reflection
(c) Visually challenged persons can read and write using	(ii) braille system
(d) Splitting of light into its constituent colours	(i) dispersion
(e) Beautiful patterns are formed in a Kaleidoscope due to	(iii) multiple reflection

---

Question 3.

Column-A	Column-B
(a) Changes the focal length of eye lens	(i) retina
(b) It controls the amount of light that can pass through the eye lens to the retina	(ii) cornea
(c) Opening of the eye	(iii) iris
(d) Protect the eyes	(iv) pupil
(e) The image of object in eye is formed on	(v) ciliary muscles

Answer

Column-A	Column-B
(a) Changes the focal length of eye lens	(v) ciliary muscles
(b) It controls the amount of light that can pass through the eye lens to the retina	(iii) iris
(c) Opening of the eye	(iv) pupil
(d) Protect the eyes	(ii) cornea
(e) The image of object in eye is formed on	(i) retina

---

State whether the following statements are True or False:

Question 1.
Plane mirror forms inverted image.

Answer

False

---

Question 2.
Sunlight consists of seven colours.

Answer

True

---

Question 3.
Reflection of light takes place in the same medium.

Answer

True

---

Question 4.
Plane mirror forms real image.

Answer

False

---

Question 5.
Jugnu is a natural source of light.

Answer

True

---

Question 6.
Light travels in a straight line.

Answer

True

---

Question 7.
Braille system is used by visually challenged people to read and write.

Answer

True

---

Question 8.
Kaleidoscope works due to dispersion of light.

Answer

False

---

Question 9.
Splitting of white light into its constituent colours by a prism is called dispersion.

Answer

True

---

Question 10.
Light is reflected from all surfaces.

Answer

True

---

Question 11.
The size of the pupil is controlled by the iris.

Answer

True

---

Question 12.
Angle of incidence” is always equal to the angle of reflection.

Answer

True

---

Question 13.
The light ray, which strikes any surface is called the reflected ray.

Answer

True

---

Question 14.
When all the parallel rays reflected from a plane surface are not parallel, the reflection is known as diffused or irregular reflection.

Answer

True

---

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
The normal makes an angle of ………………….. with the surface of the mirror.

Answer

90°

---

Question 2.
When beam of light stricking a smooth surface, gets reflected in one direction, it is called ………………….. reflected.

Answer

regular

---

Question 3.
The image which cannot be taken on a screen is called a ………………….. image.

Answer

virtual

---

Question 4.
Splitting of white light into its seven constituent colours is called ……………………

Answer

dispersion

---

Question 5.
When an object is placed between two plane mirrors at 90° to each other, number of images formed will be ……………………

Answer

three

---

Question 6.
A person 1 m in front of a plane mirror seems to be away from his image …………………..

Answer

2m

---

Question 7.
If you touch your ………………….. ear with right hand in front of a plane mirror it will be seen in the mirror that your right ear is touched with ……………………

Answer

left, left hand

---

Question 8.
The size of the pupil becomes ………………….. when you see in dim light.

Answer

large

---

Question 9.
Night birds have ………………….. cones than rods in their eyes.

Answer

less

---

Question 10.
A plane mirror ………………….. all the light falling on it.

Answer

reflects

---

Question 11.
According to law of reflection:
Angle of ………………….. = Angle of ……………………

Answer

incidence, reflection

---

Question 12.
………………….. script is used by visually challenged people.

Answer

Braille

---

Question 13.
Kaleidoscope is based on the principle of …………………..

Answer

multiple reflection

---

Question 14.
………………….. no. of images are formed in plane mirror at right angle to each other.

Answer

Infinite

---

Question 15.
The transparent front part of eye is called …………………..

Answer

cornea

---

Question 16.
The size of the ………………….. is controlled by the iris.

Answer

pupil

---

Question 17.
The eye lens focuses light on ……………………

Answer

retina

---

Question 18.
………………….. is the spot at the junction of the optic nerve and the retina where there are no sensory cells.

Answer

Blind spot

---

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Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Civics Chapter 9 Public Facilities with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 8 Social Science with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Public Facilities Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ of Chapter 9 Civics Objective Questions.

Public Facilities Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Appearing Students of Class 8 Exams can download MCQ on Public Facilities Class 8 with Answers from here. By practicing Class 8 Civics Chapter 9 MCQ with Answers, you can score well in the exam. Download Class 8 SST Civics Chapter 9 MCQ in PDF format from the below access links and start practicing on a regular basis for better subject knowledge.

Question 1.
Which is one of the major reasons Siva can’t bring his family to Chennai.
(a) Shortage of money
(b) Shortage of living facilities
(c) Unemployment
(d) Shortage of water

Answer

Answer: (d) Shortage of water

---

Question 2.
Which companies provide public facilities but at price that only some people can afford.
(a) Private companies
(b) Public companies
(c) Semi-government companies
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Private companies

---

Question 3.
Porto Alegre is a city in ………………………… .
(a) Australia
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Brazil
(d) India

Answer

Answer: (c) Brazil

---

Question 4.
The census 2001 put rural household electrification at.
(a) 44%
(b) 78%
(c) 49%
(d) 52%

Answer

Answer: (a) 44%

---

Question 5.
Mumbai suburban ………………………………. is well functioning public transport system.
(a) Roadways
(b) Waterways
(c) Railways
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Railways

---

Question 6.
Under which Article of our Constitution, Right to Water gets recognition?
(a) Article 20
(b) Article 21
(c) Article 22
(d) Article 23

Answer

Answer: (b) Article 21
The Constitution of India recognizes the right to water as being a part of the Right to Life under Article 21. It is the right of every person, whether rich or poor, to have sufficient amounts of water to fulfill his/her daily needs at a price that he/she can afford.

---

Question 7.
For what purpose bore well water is not used?
(a) Toilets
(b) Washing
(c) Gardening
(d) Cooking and drinking purposes

Answer

Answer: (d) Cooking and drinking purposes
Bore well water is brackish and is not used for cooking and drinking purpose.

---

Question 8.
What are the important characteristic of public facility?
(a) It benefits privileged section of the society
(b) Its benefits can be shared by many people
(c) It benefits underprivileged sections of the society
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Its benefits can be shared by many people
The important characteristic of public facility is that its benefits can be shared by many people.

---

Question 9.
What are the main source of water for the poor people?
(a) Bottled water
(b) Municipal water
(c) Water tanker
(d) Private bore well

Answer

Answer: (b) Municipal water
The main source of water for the poor people are municipal water.

---

Question 10.
Which is the world’s densest railway route?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Delhi
(c) Patna
(d) Mathura

Answer

Answer: (a) Mumbai
Mumbai sub-urban railway is the world’s densest railway route.

---

Question 11.
What is special about Porto Alegre?
(a) Highest infant death rate
(b) Lowest adult death rate
(c) Lowest infant death rate
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Lowest infant death rate
Porto Alegre has lowest infant death rate than other cities of the world because of the availability of safe water maintained by city water department.

---

Question 12.
What do you mean by the term ‘Universal access’?
(a) Physical access to property
(b) Physical access to good
(c) Physical access to water
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Physical access to good
Universal access is achieved when everyone has physical access to a good and can also afford it.

---

Question 13.
What do you mean by right to life?
(a) Provide public facilities by government to people
(b) Provide tax free facilities
(c) Provide job facilities
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Provide public facilities by government to people
The constitution of India guarantees right to life for all persons living in this country. The responsibility to provide public facilities, therefore, must be that of the government.

---

Question 14.
What of the following is not considered as our basic needs?
(a) Food
(b) Internet
(c) Water
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Internet
Primary requirements of food, water, shelter, healthcare, sanitation and education are necessary for survival.

---

Question 15.
What are some public facilities essential for everyone?
(a) Electricity
(b) Public transport
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both a and b
Electricity, Public Transport, Safe drinking water, Health care, Provision of schools colleges and Sanitation.

---

Write true (T) or false (F)

1. The Constitution of India recognises the right to water as being a part of the Right to Life under Art 21.

Answer

Answer: True

---

2. Shortage of water is the major reason why Mr. Ramagopal can’t bring his family to Chennai.

Answer

Answer: False

---

3. In budget, the government announces the various ways in which it plans to meet the expenses.

Answer

Answer: True

---

4. The shortage of water has opened up opportunities for private companies in a big way.

Answer

Answer: True

---

5. Railways are the most important form of public transport over short distances.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Match the following

1.

Column-I	Column-II
1. Mumbai	(a) Parliament
2. Porto Alegre	(b) Children between the ages of 6 – 14 ages
3. Government Budget being presented in the	(c) Suburban Railway
4. Article 21	(d) Right to life
5. Right to Education	(e) Brazil

Answer

Answer:

Column-I	Column-II
1. Mumbai	(c) Suburban Railway
2. Porto Alegre	(e) Brazil
3. Government Budget being presented in the	(a) Parliament
4. Article 21	(d) Right to life
5. Right to Education	(b) Children between the ages of 6 – 14 ages

---

Fill in the blanks

1. ……………………… and ……………………… are travelling through Chennai in Bus.

Answer

Answer: Amu, Kumar

---

2. Senior government officials like Mr. Ramagopal live in ……………………… Chennai.

Answer

Answer: Anna Nagar

---

3. ……………………… is essential for life and for good health.

Answer

Answer: Water

---

4. Every year the government budget is being presented in the ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: Parliament

---

5. The government needs to play an active role in providing adequate access to proper ……………………… facilities.

Answer

Answer: health

---

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Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 History Chapter 1 Tracing Changes through a Thousand Years with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 7 Social Science with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Tracing Changes through a Thousand Years Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ of Chapter 1 History Objective Questions.

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Appearing Students of Class 7 Exams can download MCQ on Tracing Changes through a Thousand Years Class 7 with Answers from here. By practicing Class 7 History Chapter 1 MCQ with Answers, you can score well in the exam. Download Class 7 SST History Chapter 1 MCQ in PDF format from the below access links and start practicing on a regular basis for better subject knowledge.

Question 1.
The word ‘Rajput’ was derived from:
(a) Rajaputra
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Rajya

Answer

Answer: (a) Rajaputra

---

Question 2.
Who claimed Kshatriya caste?
(a) Group of students
(b) Group of warriors
(c) Group of priests

Answer

Answer: (b) Group of warriors

---

Question 3.
Manuscripts were placed in:
(a) Temples
(b) school
(c) Libraries and Archives

Answer

Answer: (c) Libraries and Archives

---

Question 4.
Al-Idrisi was an:
(a) Cartographer
(b) Writer
(c) Doctor

Answer

Answer: (a) Cartographer

---

Question 5.
…………… draws the map.
(a) Engineer
(b) Artist
(c) Cartographer

Answer

Answer: (c) Cartographer

---

Question 6.
Who used the term ‘Hind’?
(a) Al-Idrisi
(b) Vasco da gama
(c) Minhaj-i Siraj

Answer

Answer: (c) Minhaj-i Siraj

---

Question 7.
Who used to copy down the scripts?
(a) Scribes
(b) Archaeologist
(c) Cartographer

Answer

Answer: (a) Scribes

---

Question 8.
Which was the most dominant group in the society?
(a) Kshatriyas
(b) Traders
(c) Brahmans
(d) Muslims

Answer

Answer: (c) Brahmans
These included the worship of new deities, the construction of temples by royalty and the growing importance of Brahmans, the priests, as dominant groups in society.

---

Question 9.
Ziyauddin Barani was a chronicles of which century?
(a) 18th century
(b) 19th century
(c) 14th century
(d) 15th century

Answer

Answer: (c) 14th century
The fourteenth-century chronicler Ziyauddin Barani wrote his chronicle first in 1356 and another version two years later.

---

Question 10.
What does script refers to?
(a) Written form of language
(b) Spoken form of language
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Written form of language
Script refers to written form of language. Manuscripts were collected by wealthy people, rulers, monasteries and temples. They were placed in libraries and archives.

---

Question 11.
In which period the number and variety of textual records increased dramatically?
(a) 600 to 700 CE
(b) 700 to 800 CE
(c) 800 to 1000 CE
(d) 700 to 1750 CE

Answer

Answer: (d) 700 to 1750 CE
Through the thousand years between 700 and 1750 the character of the different regions did not grow in isolation. These regions felt the impact of larger pan-regional forces of integration.

---

Question 12.
When did the medieval period began in India?
(a) 9th century AD
(b) 8th century AD
(c) 10th century AD
(d) 18th century AD

Answer

Answer: (b) 8th century AD
The medieval period began in India in 8th century AD.

---

Question 13.
In which periods the British historian divided the history of India?
(a) Hindu
(b) Muslims
(c) British
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above
British historian divided the history of India in the following three periods-Hindu, Muslim and British.

---

Question 14.
Why were only Brahmans dominated in the society during the medieval period?
(a) They were only class to proficient in Sanskrit language
(b) They were only class to proficient in British language
(c) They were only class to proficient in Hindi language
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) They were only class to proficient in Sanskrit language
Brahmans were dominated in the society because they were the only class of people who were proficient in Sanskrit language.

---

Question 15.
What were the new crops and beverages that arrived in Indian sub-continent in the medieval period?
(a) Corn
(b) Coffee
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both a and b
Corn, chillies, tea, coffee and potatoes.

---

Question 16.
What do you mean by ‘archives’?
(a) Place where manuscripts were collected
(b) Place where diamonds were collected
(c) Place where toys were collected
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Place where manuscripts were collected
Archives were the places where manuscripts and documents were kept or collected.

---

Question 17.
Who was Al-Idrisi?
(a) Cartographer
(b) Choreographer
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Cartographer
Al-idrisi was an Arab cartographer.

---

Match the following

1.

Column I	Column II
1. Southern Karnataka	(a) Ma’bari
2. Andhra Pradesh	(b) Gujari
3. Gujarat	(c) Telangani
4. Tamil Nadu	(d) Sindi, Lahori, Dvarsamudri

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
1. Southern Karnataka	(d) Sindi, Lahori, Dvarsamudri
2. Andhra Pradesh	(c) Telangani
3. Gujarat	(b) Gujari
4. Tamil Nadu	(a) Ma’bari

---

Fill in the blanks

1. A person who draws maps is called ……………. .

Answer

Answer: Cartographer

---

2. Al-Idrisi was a ……………. .

Answer

Answer: cartographer

---

3. Islam’s holy book is ……………. .

Answer

Answer: Quran

---

4. Many rulers were ……………. of Islam.

Answer

Answer: Patrons

---

5. Hindustan was used first by ……………. .

Answer

Answer: Minhaj-i-Siraj

---

6. Ali was son-in-law of ……………. .

Answer

Answer: Prophet Muhammad

---

7. ……………. used term ‘Hind’.

Answer

Answer: Amir Khusrau

---

8. Ziyauddin Barani wrote his first chronicle in ……………. .

Answer

Answer: 1356

---

9. Gauri was the language of ……………. state.

Answer

Answer: Bengal

---

10. Ghiyasuddin Balban was ……………. of Delhi.

Answer

Answer: Sultan

---

11. The knowledge of Sanskrit texts earned the ……………. a lot of respect in society.

Answer

Answer: Brahmanas

---

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Stars and the Solar System Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Stars and the Solar System Multiple Choice Questions of Class 8 Science Chapter 17 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Stars and the Solar System Class 8 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 17 Science Class 8 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
Phases of the moon occur because:
(a) we çan see only that part of the moon which reflects light towards us
(b) our distance from the moon keeps changing
(c) the shadow of the earth convers only a part of the moon’s surface
(d) the thickness of the moon’s atmosphere is not constant

Answer

(a) we can see only that part of the moon which reflects light towards us
Phases of the moon occur because we can see only that part of the moon which reflects light towards us.

---

Question 2.
Science of studying compostion of universe and other related information is called:
(a) Astronomy
(b) Geology
(c) Astrology
(d) None of these

Answer

(a) Astronomy
Science of studying composition of universe and other related information is called astronomy.

---

Question 3.
Galaxy to which the solar system belongs is called:
(a) Akash Ganga
(b) Ursa major
(c) Orion
(d) Milky way

Answer

(d) Milky way
Galaxy to which the solar system belongs is called Milky way.

---

Question 4.
Hottest planet of solar system is:
(a) Mars
(b) Venus
(c) Mercury
(d) Earth

Answer

(c) Mercury
Hottest planet of solar system is mercury.

---

Question 5.
The brightest planet in. the night sky is:
(a) Mars
(b) Marcury
(c) Earth
(d) Venus

Answer

(d) Venus
Venus is the brightest planet in the night sky.

---

Question 6.
Which of the following is not inner planet:
(a) Mercury
(b) Jupiter
(c) Mars
(d) Earth

Answer

(b) Jupiter
Jupiter is not inner planet. It is outer planet.

---

Question 7.
Which of the following Is not outer planet:
(a) Venus
(b) Saturn
(c) Uranus
(d) Neptune

Answer

(a) Venus
Venus is not outer planet. It is inner planet.

---

Question 8.
Halley’s comet appear after nearly:
(a) 75 years
(b) 76 years
(c) 76 months
(d) None of these

Answer

(b) 76 years
Hally’s comet appear after nearly 76 years.

---

Question 9.
Shooting stars are:
(a) Stars
(b) Planets
(c) Meteors
(d) Nope of these

Answer

(c) Meteors
Shooting stars are meteors.

---

Question 10.
Asteroids are seen between the orbits of:
(a) Mercury and Earth
(b) Mais and Jupiter
(c) Earth and Mars
(d) Nne of these

Answer

(b) Mais and Jupiter
Asteroids are seen between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.

---

Question 11.
The first Indian artificial statellite was:
(a) Aryabhatta
(b) INSAT
(c) Kalpana-I
(d) IRS

Answer

(a) Aryabhatta
Aryabhatta Was the first Indian artificial satellite.

---

Question 12.
Distance between stars are measured in:
(a) metres
(b) kilometres
(c) light year
(d) None of these

Answer

(c) light year
Distance between stars are measured in light year.

---

Question 13.
The largest planet is:
(a) Earth
(b) Mercury
(c) Jupiter
(d) Neptune

Answer

(c) Jupiter
The largest planet is Jupiter.

---

Question 14.
Remote sensing means:
(a) collecting data from a nearby place
(b) collecting data from a distance
(c) using remote to ‘ON’ our electronic
(d) None of these appliances

Answer

(b) collecting data from a distance
Remote sensing means collecting data from a distance.

---

Question 15.
On new moon day:
(a) moon is visible
(b) moon is not visible
(c) only moon is visible partially
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) moon is not visible
On new moon day moon is not visible.

---

Question 16.
Which of the following is not a member of solar system:
(a) Satellite
(b) Artificial satellite
(c) Sun
(d) Planet

Answer

(b) Artificial satellite
Artificial satellite is not a member of solar system because it is man-made.

---

Question 17.
Which of the following is not a planet:
(a) Mercury
(b) Mars
(c) Saturn
(d) Moon

Answer

(d) Moon
Moon is not a planet. Mercury, mars and satum are planets.

---

Question 18.
Which of the following is a Star:
(a) Sun
(b) Saturn
(c) Moon
(d) Mars

Answer

(a) Sun
Sun is a star.

---

Question 19.
A group of small stars is called:
(a) Orion
(b) Pleiades
(c) Sirius
(d) The great bear

Answer

(b) Pleiades
A group of small stars is called pleiades.

---

Question 20.
Orion is a:
(a) Star
(b) Satellite of Jupiter
(c) Constellation
(d) Artificial satellite

Answer

(c) Constellation
Orion is a constellation.

---

Question 21.
A constellation with five stars and looking like the letter M is called:
(a) Orion
(b) Cassiopeia
(c) Pleiades
(d) The great bear

Answer

(b) Cassiopeia
Cassiopeia is a constellation with five starts and looks like the letter M.

---

Question 22.
The length of shadow is shortest at:
(a) Morning
(b) Night
(c) Evening
(d) Noon

Answer

(d) Noon
The length of shadow is shortest at noon.

---

Question 23.
The brightest star of sky is:
(a) Sinus
(b) Alpha centuary
(c) Pleiades
(d) Pole

Answer

(b) Alpha centuary
The brightest star of sky is Alpha centuary.

---

Question 24.

The diagram shows which constellation:
(a) Pleiades
(b) Leo
(c) Orion
(d) Cassiopeia

Answer

(b) Leo
Leo is the constellation.

---

Question 25.
Which of the following is star:
(a) Alpha centuary
(b) Diebos
(c) Orion
(d) Phobos

Answer

(a) Alpha centuary
Alpha centuari is a star.

---

Question 26.
Ursa Major is:
(a) a star
(b) seen only with a telescope
(c) a constellation
(d) a natural satellite of mars

Answer

(c) a constellation
Ursa Major is a constellation.

---

Question 27.
Phases of moon are observed becauses:
(a) the moon does not reflect sunlight
(b) the sunlight reflected by some parts of moon reaches the earth
(c) the shadow of earth falls on the moon
(d) only some parts of the moon can emit light

Answer

(b) the sunlight reflected by some parts of moon reaches the earth
Phases of moon are observed because the sunlight reflected by some parts of moon reaches the earth.

---

Question 28.
Morning and evening star is better known as:
(a) Venus
(b) Mercury
(c) Sirius
(d) Proxina centuary

Answer

(a) Venus
Venus is known as morning and evening star.

---

Question 29.
Which of the following is NOT a member of the solar system:
(a) An asteroid
(b) A satellite
(c) A constellation
(d) A comet

Answer

(c) A constellation
A constellation is not a member of the solar system.

---

Question 30.
Which of the following is NOT a planet of the sun:
(a) Sirius
(b) Mercury
(c) Saturn
(d) Earth

Answer

(a) Sirius
Sirius is not a planet of the sun.

---

Match the Column-A with Column-B:

Question 1.

Column-A	Column-B
(a) Closest planet to the sun	(i) Uranus
(b) Largest planet	(ii) Venus
(c) Planet with rings	(iii) Mercury
(d) Brightest planet	(iv) Jupiter
(e) Planet which rotates on its axis from east to west	(v) Saturn

Answer

Column-A	Column-B
(a) Closest planet to the sun	(iii) Mercury
(b) Largest planet	(iv) Jupiter
(c) Planet with rings	(v) Saturn
(d) Brightest planet	(ii) Venus
(e) Planet which rotates on its axis from east to west	(i) Uranus

---

Question 2.

Column-A	Column-B
(a) Inner planets	(i) Great Bear
(b) Outer planets	(ii) Mars
(c) Constellations	(iii) Moon
(d) Satellite of the Earth	(iv) Saturn

Answer

Column-A	Column-B
(a) Inner planets	(ii) Mars
(b) Outer planets	(iv) Saturn
(c) Constellations	(i) Great Bear
(d) Satellite of the Earth	(iii) Moon

---

Question 3.

Column-A	Column-B
(a) Shooting stars	(i) Orbit
(b) A constellation of seven stars shaped like a big spoon	(ii) Meteors
(c) Path of satellite	(iii) Satellite
(d) A heavenly body which revolves around a planet	(iv) Ursa Major

Answer

Column-A	Column-B
(a) Shooting stars	(ii) Meteors
(b) A constellation of seven stars shaped like a big spoon	(iv) Ursa Major
(c) Path of satellite	(i) Orbit
(d) A heavenly body which revolves around a planet	(iii) Satellite

---

State whether the following statements are True or False:

Question 1.
All planets rotate from west to east.

Answer

False

---

Question 2.
Moon has light of its own.

Answer

False

---

Question 3.
The sun is the nearest star to us.

Answer

True

---

Question 4.
All the planets of the solar system have one or more satellites.

Answer

False

---

Question 5.
Mars is called red planet.

Answer

True

---

Question 6.
Pole star is a member of the solar system.

Answer

False

---

Question 7.
Mercury is the smallest planet of the solar system.

Answer

True

---

Question 8.
Uranus is the farthest planet in our solar system.

Answer

False

---

Question 9.
INSAT is an artificial satellite.

Answer

True

---

Question 10.
There are nine planets in our solar system.

Answer

False

---

Question 11.
Constellation Orion can be seen only with the telescope.

Answer

False

---

Question 12.
From space, the Earth appear blue-green due to the reflection of light from water and landmass on its surface.

Answer

True

---

Question 13.
The mass of Earth is about 318 times that of Jupiter.

Answer

False

---

Question 14.
Saturn is the least dense planet.

Answer

True

---

Question 15.
A planet also rotates on its own axis.

Answer

True

---

Question 16.
Moon is visible due to reflected sunlight.

Answer

True

---

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
The planet which is farthest from the sun is …………………..

Answer

Neptune

---

Question 2.
The planet which appears reddish in colour is …………………..

Answer

Mars

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Question 3.
A group of stars that appear to form a pattern in the sky is ………………….. known as a

Answer

Constellation

---

Question 4.
A celestial body that revolves around a planet is known as …………………..

Answer

Satellite

---

Question 5.
Shooting stars are actually not …………………..

Answer

Stars

---

Question 6.
Asteroids are found between the orbits of ………………….. and …………………..

Answer

Mars and Jupiter

---

Question 7.
Mercury shows phases like those of …………………..

Answer

Moon

---

Question 8.
………………….. is the middle aged star.

Answer

Sun

---

Question 9.
Orion is seen during ………………….. season.

Answer

winter

---

Question 10.
Comet seen after 76 years …………………..

Answer

Halley’s comet

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Question 11.
Arrangement of stars in ………………….. constellation resembles a hunter.

Answer

Orion

---

Question 12.
Transmission of T.V. programmes over distant places made possible with the help of ……………………

Answer

remote sensing

---

Question 13.
Moon is a ………………….. satellite of the Earth.

Answer

natural

---

Question 14.
First artificial satellite launched by India is called …………………..

Answer

Aryabhatta

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Question 15.
The earth revolves around the ……………………

Answer

Sun

---

Question 16.
Venus rotates from ………………….. to ……………………

Answer

east to west

---

Question 17.
The various shapes of the bright part of the moon as seen during the month are called …………………..

Answer

phases of the moon

---

Question 18.
The objects in the sky which do not twinkle are called …………………..

Answer

planets

---

Question 19.
The ………………….. is the brightest object in the night sky.

Answer

Moon

---

Question 20.
The path in which the planet revolves around the sun is called an ……………………

Answer

Orbit

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