Author name: Prasanna

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Chemical Kinetics Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Chemical Kinetics Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Chemical Kinetics Multiple Choice Questions of Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Chemical Kinetics Class 12 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 4 Chemistry Class 12 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
A first order reaction has a half life period of 34.65 seconds. Its rate constant is
(a) 2 × 10-2 s-1
(b) 4 × 10-4 s-1
(c) 20 s-1
(d) 2 × 10-4 s-1

Answer

Answer: (a) 2 × 10-2 s-1


Question 2.
If a graph is plotted between In k and 1/T for the first order reaction, the slope of the straight line so obtained is given by
(a) –\(\frac { E_a }{R}\)
(b) \(\frac { E_a }{2.303 R}\)
(c) \(\frac { 2.303 }{E_a.R}\)
(d) \(\frac { E_a }{2.303}\)

Answer

Answer: (a) –\(\frac { E_a }{R}\)


Question 3.
The unit of rate constant for a zero order reaction is
(a) mol L-1s-1
(b) s-1
(c) L mol-1s-1
(d) L2mol-2s-1

Answer

Answer: (a) mol L-1s-1


Question 4.
A catalyst increases the speed of a chemical reaction by
(a) increasing activation energy
(b) decreasing activation energy
(c) increasing reactant energy
(d) decreasing threshold energy

Answer

Answer: (b) decreasing activation energy


Question 5.
The units of the rate constant for the second order reaction are:
(a) mol-1 litre s-1
(b) mol litre-2 s-1
(c) s-1
(d) mol litre-1 s-1

Answer

Answer: (a) mol-1 litre s-1


Question 6.
The value of k for a reaction is 2.96 × 10-30 s-1. What is the order of the reaction?
(a) Zero
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1

Answer

Answer: (d) 1


Question 7.
A reaction is found to be of second order with respect to concentration of carbon monoxide. If concentration of carbon monoxide is doubled, the rate of reaction will
(a) triple
(b) increase by a factor of 4
(c) double
(d) remain unchanged

Answer

Answer: (b) increase by a factor of 4


Question 8.
If the concentrations are expressed in mol litre-1 and time in s, then the units of rate constant for the first-order reactions are
(a) mol litre-1 s-1
(b) mol-1 litre s-1
(c) s-1
(d) mol² litre-2 s-1

Answer

Answer: (c) s-1


Question 9.
The half life of a first order reaction having rate constant 200 s-1 is
(a) 3.465 × 10-2 s
(b) 3.465 × 10-3 s
(c) 1.150 × 10-2 S
(d) 1.150 × 10-3 S

Answer

Answer: (b) 3.465 × 10-3 s


Question 10.
The rate of a reaction is 1.209 × 10-4L² mol-2s-1. The order of the reaction is:
(a) zero
(b) first
(c) second
(d) third

Answer

Answer: (d) third


Question 11.
A catalyst increases the rate of a reaction by
(a) increasing threshold energy
(b) increasing activation energy
(c) activating the reactants
(d) lowering activation energy

Answer

Answer: (d) lowering activation energy


Question 12.
Time required for 100% completion of a zero order reaction is:
(a) t100% = a/k
(b) t100% = a.k
(c) t100% = a/2k
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) t100% = a/k


Question 13.
Arrhenius equation is represented by:
(a) k = AeEa/RT
(b) k = Ae-Ea/RT
(c) t1/2 = 0.693/k
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) k = Ae-Ea/RT


Question 14.
The overall order of a reaction, which has the rate expression: Rate = AC[A]1/2[B]3/2 is:
(a) First order
(b) Second order
(c) Third order
(d) Zero order

Answer

Answer: (b) Second order


Question 15.
If half life period of a first order reaction is 100 seconds. Then rate constant will be:
(a) 6.93 × 10-3 second-1
(b) 6.93 × 10-2 second-1
(c) 0.693 second-1
(d) 6.93 second-1

Answer

Answer: (a) 6.93 × 10-3 second-1


Question 16.
If rate constant for a reaction is mole litre-1 second-1, then order of reaction is:
(a) Zero order
(b) First order
(c) Second order
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Zero order


Question 17.
Identify the order of reaction from the given rate constant k = 2.6 × 10-4 L mol-1 s-1
(a) First
(b) Zero
(c) Second
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Second


Question 18.
For a reaction: N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3, the rate of reaction with respect to NH3 will be:
(a) –\(\frac{d\left[\mathrm{NH}_{3}\right]}{d t}\)
(b) –\(\frac{d[NH_3]^2}{d t}\)
(c) +\(\frac { 1 }{10}\) \(\frac { d[NH_3] }{dt}\)
(d) –\(\frac { 1 }{10}\) \(\frac { d[NH_3] }{dt}\)

Answer

Answer: (c) +\(\frac { 1 }{10}\) \(\frac { d[NH_3] }{dt}\)


Question 19.
Half life period of a first order reaction depends upon:
(a) Concentration of reactants
(b) Concentration of products
(c) Rate constant of reaction
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Rate constant of reaction


Question 20.
Half life period of a first order reaction is:
(a) directly proportional to the initial concentration of the reactant
(b) half of the rate constant
(c) same for all reactions
(d) independent of the initial concentration of the reactants

Answer

Answer: (d) independent of the initial concentration of the reactants


Assertion and Reason Type Questions

The questions given below consist of an assertion and a reason. Use the following key to choose the appropriate answer.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is correct, Reason (R) is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion (A) is wrong, but Reason (R) is correct statement.

Question 21.
Assertion: Rate of reaction increases with increase in temperature.
Reason: Number of collisions increases – with increase in temperature.

Answer

Answer: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).


Question 22.
Assertion: Reactions of higher order are rare.
Reason: The chances of simultaneous multimolecular collisions are extremely small.

Answer

Answer: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).


Question 23.
Assertion: The half life period for a first order reaction is independent of initial concentration of reactants.
Reason: For first order reaction, t1/2 = \(\frac { 0.693 }{k}\)

Answer

Answer: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).


Question 24.
Assertion: For the first order reaction the units of rate constant are time-1.
Reason: The rate of first order reaction remains constant throughout.

Answer

Answer: (c) Assertion (A) is correct, Reason (R) is wrong statement.


Question 25.
Assertion: For a first order reaction, graph of [A] vs. t is a straight line.
Reason: For first order reaction, k = \(\frac { 2.303 }{t}\) log \(\frac { [R]_0 }{[R]}\)

Answer

Answer: (d) Assertion (A) is wrong, but Reason (R) is correct statement.


Question 26.
Assertion: For complex reactions molecularity and order are not same.
Reason: Order of a reaction may be zero.

Answer

Answer: (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).


Question 27.
Assertion: A catalyst increases the rate of a reaction.
Reason: A catalyst forms an activated complex of lower potential energy.

Answer

Answer: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).


Question 28.
Assertion: The molecularity of the reaction
H2 + Br2 → 2HBr is 2.
Reason: Order of the reaction is 3/2.

Answer

Answer: (c) Assertion (A) is correct, Reason (R) is wrong statement.


Question 29.
Assertion: For the reaction:
RCl + NaOH (aq) → ROH + NaCl, the rate of reaction is reduced to half when the concentration of RCl is reduced to half.
Reason: The rate of reactions is represented by k[RCl], i.e. it is a first order reaction.

Answer

Answer: (c) Assertion (A) is correct, Reason (R) is wrong statement.


Question 30.
Assertion: Photochemical reactions always occur in the presence of light.
Reason: Photochemical reactions even with, ΔG = +ve occur.

Answer

Answer: (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).


Hope the information shared regarding the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics with Answers Pdf free download is true and genuine as far as our knowledge is concerned. If you feel any information regarding CBSE Class 12 Chemistry Chemical Kinetics MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers is missing do reach us and we will look into it and add it accordingly.

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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 5 Surface Chemistry with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 5 Surface Chemistry with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Surface Chemistry Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Surface Chemistry Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Surface Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions of Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 5 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Surface Chemistry Class 12 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 5 Chemistry Class 12 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
Movement of dispersion medium under the influence of electric field is known as
(a) electrodialysis
(b) electrophoresis
(c) electroosmosis
(d) cataphoresis.

Answer

Answer: (c) electroosmosis


Question 2.
At CMC (Critical Micellisation Cone.) the surface molecules
(a) associate
(b) dissociate
(c) decompose
(d) become completely soluble.

Answer

Answer: (a) associate


Question 3.
Milk is an example of
(a) emulsion
(b) suspension
(c) foam
(d) sol.

Answer

Answer: (a) emulsion


Question 4.
Tyndall effect is due to
(a) electric charge
(b) scattering of light
(c) absorption of light
(d) none of these.

Answer

Answer: (b) scattering of light


Question 5.
Fog is a colloidal system of
(a) liquid dispersed in a gas
(b) gas dispersed in a gas
(c) solid dispersed in gas
(d) solid dispersed in liquid

Answer

Answer: (a) liquid dispersed in a gas


Question 6.
Blood may be purified by
(a) coagulation
(b) dialysis
(c) electro-osmosis
(d) filtration

Answer

Answer: (b) dialysis


Question 7.
Blue colour of water in sea is due to
(a) refraction of blue light by impurities in sea water
(b) scattering of light by water
(c) refraction of blue sky by water
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) refraction of blue light by impurities in sea water


Question 8.
The cause of Brownian movement is
(a) heat change in liquid state
(b) attractive force between colloidal particles and dispersion medium
(c) bombardment of the colloidal particles by the molecules of the dispersion medium
(d) interaction of charged particles

Answer

Answer: (c) bombardment of the colloidal particles by the molecules of the dispersion medium


Question 9.
Emulsifying agent present in milk that makes it stable is
(a) maltose
(b) casein
(c) lactose
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) casein


Question 10.
Cloud is an example of
(a) liquid dispersed in gas
(b) solid dispersed in gas
(c) solid dispersed in liquid
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) liquid dispersed in gas


Question 11.
The colour of sky is due to
(a) absorption of light
(b) transmission of light
(c) scattering of light
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (c) scattering of light


Question 12.
Which of the following is lyophobic colloid?
(a) Starch in water
(b) Gum in water
(c) Soap in water
(d) Gold sol

Answer

Answer: (d) Gold sol


Question 13.
At high concentration of soap in water, soap behaves as
(a) molecular colloid
(b) associated colloid
(c) macro molecular colloid
(d) lyophilic colloid

Answer

Answer: (b) associated colloid


Question 14.
The efficiency of a protective colloid is described in terms of
(a) gold number
(b) flocculation number
(c) valence of counter ion
(d) Tyndall effect.

Answer

Answer: (a) gold number


Question 15.
The function of enzymes in the living system is to
(a) maintain pH
(b) catalyse biochemical process
(c) provide immunity
(d) transport oxygen

Answer

Answer: (b) catalyse biochemical process


Question 16.
The ultrafiltration process of purification of colloidal solutions is based on:
(a) optical properties of colloids
(b) electrical properties of colloids
(c) magnetic properties of colloids
(d) size of colloids

Answer

Answer: (d) size of colloids


Question 17.
In physical adsorption the forces associated are
(a) ionic
(b) covalent
(c) van der Waals
(d) hydrogen bonding

Answer

Answer: (c) van der Waals


Question 18.
The colloidal system where liquid is dispersed in solid is
(a) Gel
(b) Aerosol
(c) Emulsion
(d) Foam

Answer

Answer: (a) Gel


Question 19.
Which one of the following has minimum gold number?
(a) Gelatin
(b) Starch
(c) Gum arabic
(d) Sodium oleate

Answer

Answer: (a) Gelatin


Question 20.
Which of the following is not a favourable condition for physical adsorption?
(a) High pressure
(b) -ΔH
(c) High temperature
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) High temperature


Question 21.
Which property of colloids is not dependent on the charge on colloidal particles?
(a) Coagulation
(b) Electro-osmosis
(c) Tyndall effect
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Tyndall effect


Question 22.
Tyndall effect is observed in
(a) True solution
(b) Precipitate
(c) Colloidal solution
(d) Vapour

Answer

Answer: (c) Colloidal solution


Question 23.
In the coagulation of solution As2S3 which has maximum coagulating value
(a) NaCl
(b) KCl
(c) BaCl2
(d) AlCl3

Answer

Answer: (d) AlCl3


Question 24.
Which one has the highest coagulating power for ferric hydroxide sol?
(a) KCl
(b) K2SO4
(c) Na3PO4
(d) NaCl

Answer

Answer: (c) Na3PO4


Assertion and Reason Type Questions

The questions given below consist of an assertion and a reason. Use the following key to choose the appropriate answer.

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is correct, Reason (R) is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion (A) is wrong, but Reason (R) is correct statement.

Question 25.
Assertion: An ordinary filter paper impregnated with collodion solution stops the flow of colloidal particles.
Reason: Pore size of the filter paper becomes more than the size of colloidal particle.

Answer

Answer: (c) Assertion (A) is correct, Reason (R) is wrong statement.


Question 26.
Assertion: Colloidal solutions show colligative properties.
Reason: Colloidal particles are large in size.

Answer

Answer: (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).


Question 27.
Assertion: Colloidal solutions do not show brownian motion.
Reason: Brownian motion is responsible for stability of sols.

Answer

Answer: (d) Assertion (A) is wrong, but Reason (R) is correct statement.


Question 28.
Assertion: Coagulation power of Al3+ is more than Na+
Reason: Greater the valency of the flocculating ion added, greater is its power to cause precipitation (Hardy- Schulze rule).

Answer

Answer: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).


Question 29.
Assertion: Detergents with low CMC are more economical to use.
Reason: Cleansing action of detergents involves the formation of micelles. These are formed when the concentration of detergents becomes equal to CMC.

Answer

Answer: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).


Hope the information shared regarding the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 5 Surface Chemistry with Answers Pdf free download is true and genuine as far as our knowledge is concerned. If you feel any information regarding CBSE Class 12 Chemistry Surface Chemistry MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers is missing do reach us and we will look into it and add it accordingly.

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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Electrochemistry Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Electrochemistry Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Electrochemistry Multiple Choice Questions of Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Electrochemistry Class 12 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 3 Chemistry Class 12 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
If the conductivity and conductance of a solution is same then its cell constant is equal to:
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) 10
(d) 1000

Answer

Answer: (a) 1


Question 2.
The units of conductivity are:
(a) ohm-1
(b) ohm-1 cm-1
(c) ohm-2 cm² equiv-1
(d) ohm-1 cm²

Answer

Answer: (b) ohm-1 cm-1


Question 3.
The resistance of 0.1 N solution of acetic acid is 250 ohm, when measured in a cell of cell constant 1.15 cm-1. The equivalent conductance (in ohm-1 cm² equivalent-1) of 0.1 N acetic acid is
(a) 18.4
(b) 0.023
(c) 46
(d) 9.2

Answer

Answer: (c) 46


Question 4.
In infinite dilution of aqueous solution of BaCl2, molar conductivity of Ba2+ and Cl ions are = 127.32 S cm²/mol and 76.34 S cm2/mol respectively. What is A°m for BaCI2 at same dilution?
(a) 280 S cm² mol-1
(b) 330.98 S cm² mol-1
(c) 90.98 S cm² mol-1
(d) 203.6 S cm² mol-1

Answer

Answer: (a) 280 S cm² mol-1


Question 5.
The specific conductance of 0.1 M NaCl solution is 1.06 × 10-2 ohm-1 cm-1. Its molar conductance in ohm-1 cm² mol-1 is
(a) 1.06 × 10²
(b)1.06 × 10³
(c) 1.06 × 104
(d) 53

Answer

Answer: (a) 1.06 × 10²


Question 6.
The limiting molar conductivities A° for NaCl, KBr and KCl are 126, 152 and 150 S cm² mol-1 respectively. The A° for NaBr is
(a) 278 S cm² mol-1
(b) 976 S cm² mol-1
(c) 128 S cm² mol-1
(d) 302 S cm² mol-1

Answer

Answer: (c) 128 S cm² mol-1


Question 7.
λ(CICH2COONa) = 224 ohm-1 cm² gm eq-1, λ(NaCl) = 38.2 ohm-1 cm² gm eq-1. λ(HCl) = 203 ohm-1 cm² gm eq-1, what is the value of λ(CICH2COOH)?
(a) 288.5 ohm-1 cm² gm eq-1
(b) 289.5 ohm-1 cm² gm eq-1
(c) 388.8 ohm-1 cm² gm eq-1
(d) 59.5 ohm-1 cm² gm eq-1

Answer

Answer: (c) 388.8 ohm-1 cm² gm eq-1


Question 8.
The limiting molar conductivities of HCl, CH3COONa and NaCl are respectively 425, 90 and 125 mho cm² mol-1 at 25 °C. The molar conductivity of 0.1 M CH3COOH solution is 7.8 mho cm² mol-1 at the same temperature. The degree of dissociation of 0.1 M acetic acid solution at the same temperature is
(a) 0.10
(b) 0.02
(c) 0.15
(d) 0.03

Answer

Answer: (b) 0.02


Question 9.
The values of limiting ionic conductance of H and HCOO ions are respectively 347 and 53 S cm² mol-1 at 298 K. If the molar conductance of 0.025 M methanoic acid at 298 K is 40 S cm² mol-1, the dissociation constant of methanoic acid at 298 K is
(a) 1 × 10-5
(b) 2 × 10-5
(c) 1.5 × 10-4
(d) 2.5 × 10-4

Answer

Answer: (d) 2.5 × 10-4


Question 10.
The ionisation constant of a weak electrolyte is 2.5 × 10-5 and molar conductance of its 0.01 M solution is 19.6 S cm² mol-1. The molar conductance at infinite dilution (S cm² mol-1) is
(a) 402
(b) 392
(c) 306
(d) 39.2

Answer

Answer: (b) 392


Question 11.
Which of the following statements is incorrect about electrochemical cell?
(a) Electrons are released at anode.
(b) Chemical energy is converted into electrical energy.
(c) Salt bridge maintains the electrical neutrality of the electrolytes.
(d) Cell can work indefinitely.

Answer

Answer: (d) Cell can work indefinitely.


Question 12.
Point out the correct statement in a cell of zinc and copper:
(a) Zinc acts as cathode and copper as anode.
(b) Zinc acts as anode and copper as cathode.
(c) The standard reduction potential of zinc is more than that of copper.
(d) The flow of electrons is from copper to zinc.

Answer

Answer: (b) Zinc acts as anode and copper as cathode.


Question 13.
The standard electrode potentials for Pb2+/Pb and Zn2+/Zn are – 0.126 V and – 0.763 V respectively. The e.m.f. of the cell Zn | Zn2+ (0.1 M) | | Pb2+ (0.1 M) | Pb is:
(a) 0.637 V
(b) < 0.637 V
(c) > 0.637 V
(d) 0.889 V.

Answer

Answer: (a) 0.637 V


Question 14.
A zinc electrode is placed in 0.1 M solution of ZnSO4 at 25°C. Assuming that the salt is dissociated to an extent of 20% at this dilution, the potential of this electrode is (E° = -0.76V)
(a) – 0.81 V
(b) – 0.79 V
(c) 0.81 V
(d) 0.79 V

Answer

Answer: (a) – 0.81 V


Question 15.
For the electrode reaction Mn+(aq) + ne → M(s) Nernst equation is
(a) E = E° + \(\frac { RT }{nF}\) ln \(\frac { [m] }{[m^{n+}]}\)
(b) E° = E° + RT ln [Mn+]
(c) E = E° + \(\frac { RT }{nF}\) ln [Mn+]
(d) \(\frac { E }{E°}\) = \(\frac { RT }{nF}\) ln [Mn+]

Answer

Answer: (c) E = E° + \(\frac { RT }{nF}\) ln [Mn+]


Question 16.
cell apd ΔG° are related as:
(a) ΔG° = nF E°cell
(b) ΔG = -nF E°cell
(c) ΔG° = -nF E°cell
(d) ΔG° = nF E°cell = 0.

Answer

Answer: (c) ΔG° = -nF E°cell


Question 17.
Which of the following will decrease the voltage of the cell?
Sn(s) + 2Ag+ (aq) → Sn2+ (aq) + 2 Ag(s)
(a) increase in the size of silver rod
(b) increase in the concentration of Sn2+ ions
(c) increase in the concentration of Ag+ ions
(d) None of the above.

Answer

Answer: (b) increase in the concentration of Sn2+ ions


Question 18.
In the diagram given below, the value of x is
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry with Answers 1
(a) 0.35 V
(b) 0.65 V
(c) 0.325 V
(d) -0.65 V

Answer

Answer: (c) 0.325 V


Question 19.
By how much will the potential of a zinc electrode change if the solution of ZnSO4 in which it is immersed is diluted to 10 times at 298 K?
(a) Decreases by 30 mV
(b) Increases by 30 mV
(c) Increases by 60 mV
(d) Decreases by 60 mV

Answer

Answer: (b) Increases by 30 mV


Question 20.
The e.m.f. of the cell:
Cu(s) | Cu2+ (1M) | | Ag+ (1M) | Ag is 0.46 V. The standard reduction potential of Ag+|Ag is 0.80 V. The standard reduction potential of Cu2+ |Cu is
(a) -0.34 V
(b) 1.26 V
(c) -1.26 V
(d) 0.34 V

Answer

Answer: (d) 0.34 V


Question 21.
Saturated solution of KNO3 is used to make salt bridge because
(a) velocity of K+ is greater than that of NO\(_3^-\)
(b) velocity of NO\(_3^-\) is greater than that of K+
(c) velocity of both K+ and NO\(_3^-\) are nearly the same
(d) KNO3 is highly soluble in water.

Answer

Answer: (c) velocity of both K+ and NO\(_3^-\) are nearly the same


Question 22.
Aluminium displaces hydrogen from acids, but copper does not. A galvanic cell prepared by combining Cu/Cu2+ and Al/Al3+ has an emf of 2.0 V at 298 K. If the potential of copper electrode is + 0.34 V, that of aluminium electrode is
(a) -2.3 V
(b) +2.34 V
(c) -1.66 V
(d) 1.66 V

Answer

Answer: (c) -1.66 V


Question 23.
Standard electrode potentials are:
Fe2+/Fe (E°= -0.44 V), Fe3+/Fe2+ (E° = 0.77 V)
Fe2+, Fe3+ and Fe blocks are kept together, then
(a) Fe3+ increases
(b) Fe3+ decreases
(c) Fe2+ |Fe3+ remains unchanged
(d) Fe2+ decreases

Answer

Answer: (b) Fe3+ decreases


Question 24.
The standard reduction potentials for two reactions are given below:
AgCl(s) + e → Ag(s) + Cl(aq) E° = 0.22 V
Ag+(aq) + e → Ag(s) E ° = 0.80 V
The solubility product of AgCl under standard conditions of temperature (298 K) is given by
(a) 1.6 × 10-5
(b) 1.5 × 10-8
(c) 3.2 × 10-10
(d) 1.5 × 10-10

Answer

Answer: (d) 1.5 × 10-10


Question 25.
The e.m.f. of the following Daniell cell at 298 K is E1
In | ZnSO4 (0.01 M) | | CuSO4 (1.0) | Cu
When concentration of ZnSO4 is 1.0 M and that of CuSO4 is 0.01 M, the e.m.f. changed to E2. What is the relationship between E1 and E2?
(a) E1 > E2
(b) E1 < E2
(c) E1 = E2
(d) E2 = 0 ≠ E1

Answer

Answer: (a) E1 > E2


Question 26.
Cu2+/cu = 0.34 V and E°Zn2+/Zn = -0.76 V. A Daniell cell contains 0.1 M ZnSO4 solution and 0.01 M CuSO4 solution at its electrodes. The EMF of the cell is
(a) 1.10 V
(b) 1.04 V
(c) 1.16 V
(d) 1.07 V

Answer

Answer: (d) 1.07 V


Question 27.
Consider the following EΘ values E(Fe3+/Fe2+) = + 0.77 V, E(Sn2+/Sn) = -0.14 V Under standard conditions, the potential for the reaction:
Sn(s)+2Fe3+(oq) → 2Fe2+(aq) + Sn2+(aq)is
(a) 0.91 V
(b) 1.40 V
(c) 1.68 V
(d) 0.63 V

Answer

Answer: (a) 0.91 V


Question 28.
If E°(Fe2+/Fe) = -0.441 V and E°(Fe3+/Fe2+) = 0.771V, the standard E.M.F. of the reaction:
Fe + 2Fe3+ → 3Fe2+ will be
(a) 1.653 V
(b) 1.212 V
(c) 0.111 V
(d) 0.330 V

Answer

Answer: (b) 1.212 V


Question 29.
Number of coulombs required to deposit 90 g of Al when the electrode reaction Al3+ + 3e → Al is:
(a) 9.65 × 104
(b) 8.685 × 105
(c) 9.65 × 105
(d) 6.955 × 104

Answer

Answer: (c) 9.65 × 105


Question 30.
10800 C of electricity through the electrolyte deposited 2.977 g of metal with atomic mass 106.4 a.m.u. The valency of metal cation is:
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1

Answer

Answer: (a) 4


Question 31.
The charge on 1 gram mole ion of N3- is
(a) 6.00 × 105 C
(b) 2.89 × 105 C
(c) 3.98 × 105 C
(d) 4.89 × 105 C

Answer

Answer: (b) 2.89 × 105 C


Question 32.
A current of 3A was passed through a solution of AuCl\(_{ 4 }^{-}\) ions using gold electrodes and it caused deposition of 1.234 g of Au (Atomic mass of Au = 197). The time for which the current was passed is
(a) 20 min 8s
(b) 30 min 12s
(c) 10 min 4s
(d) 10 min 40s

Answer

Answer: (c) 10 min 4s


Question 33.
An electric current is passed through silver voltmeter connected to a water voltmeter. The cathode of silver voltmeter weighed 0.108 g more at the end of electrolysis. The volume of O2 at STP evolved is
(a) 5.6 cm³
(b) 550 cm³
(c) 22.4 cm³
(d) 11.2 cm³

Answer

Answer: (a) 5.6 cm³


Question 34.
Same amount of electric current is passed through solution of AgNO3 and HCl. If 1.08 g of silver is obtained in the first case, the amount of hydrogen liberated at S.T.P. in the second case is:
(a) 112 cm³
(b) 22400 cm³
(c) 224 cm³
(d) 1.008 g

Answer

Answer: (a) 112 cm³


Question 35.
4.5 g of aluminium (at. mass = 27. a.m.u) is deposited at cathode from Al3+ solution by certain quantity of electric charge. The volume of hydrogen produced at STP from H+ ions in solution by the same quantity of electric charge will be
(a) 44.8 L
(b) 22.4 L
(c) 11.2 L
(d) 5.6 L

Answer

Answer: (d) 5.6 L


Question 36.
The quantity of electricity needed to separately electrolyse 1 M solution of ZnSO4, AICl3 and AgNO3 completely is in the ratio of
(a) 2 : 3 : 1
(b) 2 : 1 : 1
(c) 2 : 1 : 3
(d) 2 : 2 : 1

Answer

Answer: (a) 2 : 3 : 1


Question 37.
When lead storage battery discharges
(a) SO2 is evolved
(b) PbSO4 is consumed
(c) Lead is formed
(d) H2SO4 is consumed.

Answer

Answer: (d) H2SO4 is consumed.


Question 38.
In a Leclanche dry cell, anode is:
(a) Graphite rod
(b) FeO and Fe(OH)2
(c) Zinc container
(d) MnO2 + C

Answer

Answer: (c) Zinc container


Question 39.
Rust is a mixture of
(a) FeO and Fe(OH)3
(b) FeO and Fe(OH)2
(c) Fe2O3 and Fe(OH)3
(d) Fe3O4 and Fe(OH)3.

Answer

Answer: (c) Fe2O3 and Fe(OH)3


Question 40.
Which of the following will be formed when lead storage battery is charged?
(a) Sulphuric add is consumed
(b) lead is consumed
(c) sulphuric acid is formed
(d) lead sulphate is formed.

Answer

Answer: (c) sulphuric acid is formed


Question 41.
For a H2 – O2 fuel cell, the theoretical voltage has been found to be 1.23V and ΔH to be -285 kJ mol-1. The efficiency of the fuel cell is
(a) 76%
(b) 83%
(c) 89%
(d) 72%

Answer

Answer: (b) 83%


Question 42.
Which of the following reaction occurs at cathode in H2 – O2 fuel cell?
(a) H+ + OH → H2O
(b) O2 + 2H2O + 4e → 4 OH
(c) 2H2 + O2 > 2H2O
(d) H2 + 2OH → 2H2O + 2e

Answer

Answer: (b) O2 + 2H2O + 4e → 4 OH


Question 43.
Which of the following reaction occurs at anode during the recharging of lead storage battery?
(a) PbSO4 + 2H2O → PbO2 + SO\(_{ 4 }^{2-}\) +4H+ + 2e
(b) Pb + S0\(_{ 4 }^{2-}\) → PbSO4 + 2e
(c) PbSO4 + 2e → Pb + S0\(_{ 4 }^{2-}\)
(d) PbO2 + 4H+ + SO\(_{ 4 }^{2-}\) + 2e → PbSO4 + 2H2O

Answer

Answer: (a) PbSO4 + 2H2O → PbO2 + SO\(_{ 4 }^{2-}\) +4H+ + 2e


Question 44.
In nickel-cadmium storage cell, the electrolyte is
(a) moist KOH
(b) dil H2SO4
(c) aqueous NH4Cl
(d) Ni(OH)3(aq)

Answer

Answer: (a) moist KOH


Assertion and Reason Type Questions

The questions given below consist of an assertion and a reason. Use the following key to choose the appropriate answer.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is correct, Reason (R) is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion (A) is wrong, but Reason (R) is correct statement.

Question 45.
Assertion: Equivalent conductance of all electrolytes decreases with increasing concentration.
Reason: Lesser number of ions are available per gram equivalent at higher concentration.

Answer

Answer: (c) Assertion (A) is correct, Reason (R) is wrong statement.


Question 46.
Assertion: Iron is protected from corrosion by connecting magnesium metal with it. Reason: Iron acts as a cathode and magnesium as anode which gradually disappears.

Answer

Answer: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).


Question 47.
Assertion: Chromium is used for coating iron.
Reason: Chromium is non-corroding metal which forms a protective layer on iron.

Answer

Answer: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).


Question 48.
Assertion: Zinc can liberate H2 from aqueous solution of HCl.
Reason: Zinc has +ve reduction potential.

Answer

Answer: (c) Assertion (A) is correct, Reason (R) is wrong statement.


Question 49.
Assertion: Copper sulphate solution can be kept in a zinc vessel.
Reason: The position of zinc is higher than copper in the electrochemical series.

Answer

Answer: (d) Assertion (A) is wrong, but Reason (R) is correct statement.


Question 50.
Assertion: For CH3COOH, the molar
conductance of 0.1 M CH3COOH and equivalent conductance of 0.1 N CH3COOH is same.
Reason: These do not depend upon concentration.

Answer

Answer: (c) Assertion (A) is correct, Reason (R) is wrong statement.


Question 51.
Assertion: 0.1 M NH4OH at 25°C has more conductance than at 50°C.
Reason: Conductance of a weak electrolyte increases with increase in temperature.

Answer

Answer: (d) Assertion (A) is wrong, but Reason (R) is correct statement.


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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements Multiple Choice Questions of Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements Class 12 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 6 Chemistry Class 12 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
Cinnabar is an ore of
(a) Hg
(b) Ag
(c) Sn
(d) Al

Answer

Answer: (a) Hg


Question 2.
Pyrolusite is an ore of
(a) Ag
(b) Hg
(c) Sn
(d) Mn

Answer

Answer: (d) Mn


Question 3.
Malachite is an ore of
(a) Hg
(b) Cu
(c) Sn
(d) Mn

Answer

Answer: (b) Cu


Question 4.
The process employed for the concentration of sulphide ore is
(a) Froth floatation
(b) Roasting
(c) Electrolysis
(d) Calcination

Answer

Answer: (a) Froth floatation


Question 5.
Zone-refining is used for the
(a) concentration of an ore
(b) reduction of metal oxide
(c) purification of metal
(d) purification of an ore.

Answer

Answer: (c) purification of metal


Question 6.
The metal always found in free state is
(a) Gold
(b) Silver
(c) Copper
(d) Sodium

Answer

Answer: (a) Gold


Question 7.
Bauxite is an ore of
(a) Aluminium
(b) Calcium
(c) Copper
(d) Zinc

Answer

Answer: (a) Aluminium


Question 8.
Most abundant element in earth’s crust is
(a) O
(b) Si
(c) Al
(d) Fe

Answer

Answer: (a) 0


Question 9.
Which of the following ores is concentrated by the froth floatation process?
(a) Haematite
(b) Magnetite
(c) Copper pyrite
(d) Bauxite

Answer

Answer: (c) Copper pyrite


Question 10.
Common impurities present in bauxite ore:
(a) CuO
(b) ZnO
(c) Fe2O3
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Fe2O3


Question 11.
In which of the following minerals Al is not present?
(a) Cryolite
(b) Mica
(c) Feldspar
(d) Fluorspar

Answer

Answer: (d) Fluorspar


Question 12.
In the metallurgy of iron from haematite, limestone is added to act as
(a) flux
(b) slag
(c) a reducing agent
(d) an oxidising agent

Answer

Answer: (a) flux


Question 13.
Purest form of iron is
(a) cast iron
(b) wrought iron
(c) steel
(d) pig iron

Answer

Answer: (b) wrought iron


Question 14.
In the extraction of chlorine by electrolysis of brine
(a) oxidation of Cl ion to chlorine gas occurs.
(b) reduction of Cl ion to chlorine gas occurs.
(c) for overall reaction ΔGΘ has negative value.
(d) a displacement reaction takes place.

Answer

Answer: (c) for overall reaction ΔGΘ has negative value.


Question 15.
When copper ore is mixed with silica in a reverberatory furnace, copper matte is produced. The copper matte contains
(a) sulphides of copper (II) and iron (II)
(b) sulphides of copper (II) and iron (III)
(c) sulphides of copper (I) and iron (II)
(d) sulphides of copper (I) and iron (III)

Answer

Answer: (c) sulphides of copper (I) and iron (II)


Question 16.
Which of the following reactions is an example of auto reduction?
(a) Fe3O4 + 4C0 → 3Fe + 4CO2
(b) Cu2O + C → 2Cu + CO
(c) Cu2+(aq) + Fe(s) → Cu(s) + Fe2+(aq)
(d) Cu2O + \(\frac { 1 }{2}\) Cu2S → 3Cu + \(\frac { 1 }{2}\) SO2

Answer

Answer: (d) Cu2O + \(\frac { 1 }{2}\) Cu2S → 3Cu + \(\frac { 1 }{2}\) SO2


Question 17.
A number of elements are available in earth’s crust but most abundant elements are
(a) Al and Fe
(b) Al and Cu
(c) Fe and Cu
(d) Cu and Ag

Answer

Answer: (a) Al and Fe


Question 18.
Zone refining is based on the principle that
(a) impurities of low boiling metals can be separated by distillation.
(b) impurities are more soluble in molten metal than in solid metal.
(c) different components of a mixture are differently adsorbed on an adsorbent.
(d) vapours of volatile compound can be decomposed in pure metal.

Answer

Answer: (b) impurities are more soluble in molten metal than in solid metal.


Question 19.
In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore, the metal is formed by the reduction of Cu2O with
(a) FeS
(b) CO
(c) Cu2S
(d) SO2

Answer

Answer: (c) Cu2S


Question 20.
Brine is electrolysed by using inert electrodes. The reaction at anode is
(a) Cl (aq.) → \(\frac { 1 }{2}\) Cl2 (g) + e; E\(_{ cell }^{Θ}\) = 1.36 V
(b) 2H2O (l) → O2 (g) + 4H+ + 4e; E\(_{ cell }^{Θ}\) = 1.23 V
(c) Na+ (aq.) + e → Na(s); E\(_{ cell }^{Θ}\) = 2.71 V
(d) H+ (aq.) + e → \(\frac { 1 }{2}\) H2 (g); E\(_{ cell }^{Θ}\) = 0.00 V

Answer

Answer: (a) Cl (aq.) → \(\frac { 1 }{2}\) Cl2 (g) + e; \(_{ cell }^{®}\) = 1.36 V


Question 21.
In …………… the metallurgy of aluminium
(a) Al3+ is oxidised to Al (s).
(b) graphite anode is oxidised to carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide.
(c) oxidation state of oxygen changes in the reaction at anode.
(d) oxidation state of oxygen changes in the overall reaction involved in the process.

Answer

Answer: (b) graphite anode is oxidised to carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide.


Question 22.
Electrolytic refining is used to purify which of the following metals?
(a) Cu and Zn
(b) Ge and Si
(c) Zr and Ti
(d) Zn and Hg

Answer

Answer: (a) Cu and Zn


Question 23.
Extraction of gold and silver involves leaching the metal with CN ion. The metal is recovered by
(a) displacement of metal by some other metal from the complex ion.
(b) roasting of metal complex.
(c) calcination followed by roasting.
(d) thermal decomposition of metal complex.

Answer

Answer: (a) displacement of metal by some other metal from the complex ion.


Answer the questions 24-26 on the basis of the figure given below:
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements with Answers 1

Question 24.
Choose the correct option of temperature at which carbon reduces FeO to iron and produces CO.
(a) Below temperature at point A.
(b) Approximately at the temperature corresponding to point A.
(c) Above temperature at point A but below temperature at point D.
(d) Above temperature at point A.

Answer

Answer: (d) Above temperature at point A.


Question 25.
Below point ‘A’ FeO can
(a) be reduced by carbon monoxide only.
(b) be reduced by both carbon monoxide and carbon.
(c) be reduced by carbon only.
(d) not be reduced by both carbon and carbon monoxide.

Answer

Answer: (a) be reduced by carbon monoxide only.


Question 26.
For the reduction of FeO at the temperature corresponding to point D, which of the following statements is correct?
(a) ΔG value for the overall reduction reaction with carbon monoxide is zero.
(b) ΔG value for the overall reduction reaction with a mixture of 1 mol carbon and 1 mol oxygen is positive.
(c) ΔG value for the overall reduction reaction with a mixture of 2 mol carbon and 1 mol oxygen will be positive.
(d) ΔG value for the overall reduction reaction with carbon monoxide is negative.

Answer

Answer: (a) ΔG value for the overall reduction reaction with carbon monoxide is zero.


Assertion and Reason Type Questions

The questions given below consist of an assertion and a reason. Use the following key to choose the appropriate answer.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is correct, Reason (R) is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion (A) is wrong, but Reason (R) is correct statement.

Question 27.
Assertion: Oxide and carbonate ores are concentrated by froth floatation process.
Reason: In froth floatation, pine oil is used because it preferentially wets the ore particles.

Answer

Answer: (d) Assertion (A) is wrong, but Reason (R) is correct statement.


Question 28.
Assertion: Gold and platinum occur in native state.
Reason: Gold and platinum are expensive metals.

Answer

Answer: (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).


Question 29.
Assertion: Aluminothermy is used for the extraction of Cr from Cr2O3.
Reason: Aluminium has a high melting point.

Answer

Answer: (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).


Question 30.
Assertion: Titanium can be purified by Van Arkel process.
Reason: Titanium form volatile Til4 unstable compound.

Answer

Answer: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).


Question 31.
Assertion: In Mond process, nickel is heated in a stream of CO forming a volatile complex.
Reason: This is an electrolytic refining method.

Answer

Answer: (c) Assertion (A) is correct, Reason (R) is wrong statement.


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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these The p-Block Elements Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

The p-Block Elements Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the The p-Block Elements Multiple Choice Questions of Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on The p-Block Elements Class 12 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 7 Chemistry Class 12 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
Which of the following compounds contains S=O and S=S bonds?
(a) Sulphuric acid
(b) Thiosulphuric acid
(c) Sulphurous acid
(d) Thiosulphurous acid.

Answer

Answer: (b) Thiosulphuric acid


Question 2.
Which of the following halogen shows only negative oxidation state?
(a) Chlorine
(b) Bromine
(c) Fluorine
(d) Iodine

Answer

Answer: (c) Fluorine


Question 3.
Which of the following is the strongest acid?
(a) H2O
(b) H2S
(c) H2Se
(d) H2Te

Answer

Answer: (d) H2Te


Question 4.
The oxoacid of halogen having maximum acidic character is
(a) HCl4
(b) HClO3
(c) HClO2
(d) HClO

Answer

Answer: (a) HCl4


Question 5.
Which of the following oxide of nitrogen is called laughing gas?
(a) NO2
(b) N2O
(c) N2O3
(d) N2O5

Answer

Answer: (b) N2O


Question 6.
Among the following, which is the strongest oxidising agent?
(a) Br2
(b) l2
(c) Cl2
(d) F2

Answer

Answer: (d) F2


Question 7.
The basicity of H2PO2 is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer

Answer: (a) 1


Question 8.
The basicity of phosphorous acid H3PO3 is
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) One
(d) Zero

Answer

Answer: (a) Two


Question 9.
Which of the following is a neutral oxide of nitrogen?
(a) N2O
(b) N2O5
(c) NO2
(d) N2O4

Answer

Answer: (a) N2O


Question 10.
Among the trihalides of nitrogen, which one is least basic?
(a) Nl3
(b) NBr3
(c) NCl3
(d) NF3

Answer

Answer: (d) NF3


Question 11.
The correct order of thermal stability of hydrogen halides (HX) is
(a) HI > HBr > HCl > HF
(b) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
(c) HCl < HF < HBr < HI
(d) HI > HCl > HF > HBr

Answer

Answer: (b) HF > HCl > HBr > HI


Question 12.
Maximum covalency of nitrogen is:
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 6

Answer

Answer: (c) 4


Question 13.
In the following compounds which has minimum boiling point?
(a) H2Se
(b) H2Te
(c) H2O
(d) H2S

Answer

Answer: (d) H2S


Question 14.
The shape of XeF4 is
(a) square planar
(b) tetrahedral
(c) square pyramidal
(d) trigonal bipyramidal

Answer

Answer: (a) square planar


Question 15.
In the following which is dibasic acid?
(a) H3PO4
(b) H3PO3
(c) H3PO2
(d) HClO4

Answer

Answer: (b) H3PO3


Question 16.
In the following strongest reducing agent is:
(a) PH3
(b) BiH3
(c) SbH3
(d) ASH3

Answer

Answer: (b) BiH3


Question 17.
On addition of cone. H2SO4 to a chloride salt, colourless fumes are evolved but in case of iodide salt, violet fumes come out. This is because
(a) H2SO4 reduces Hl to l2
(b) Hl is of violet colour
(c) Hl gets oxidised to l2
(d) Hl changes to HlO3

Answer

Answer: (c) Hl gets oxidised to l2


Question 18.
In qualitative analysis, when H2S is passed through an aqueous solution of salt acidified with dil. HCl, a black precipitate is obtained. On boiling the precipitate with dil. HNO3, it forms a solution of blue colour. Addition of excess of aqueous solution of ammonia to this solution gives
(a) deep blue precipitate of Cu (OH)2
(b) deep blue solution of [Cu(NH3)4]2+
(c) deep blue solution of Cu(NO3)2
(d) deep blue solution of Cu(OH)2. CU(NO3)2

Answer

Answer: (b) deep blue solution of [Cu(NH3)4]2+


Question 19.
In a cyclotrimetaphosphoric acid molecule, how many single and double bonds are present?
(a) 3 double bonds; 9 single bonds
(b) 6 double bonds; 6 single bonds
(c) 3 double bonds; 12 single bonds
(d) Zero double bonds; 12 single bonds

Answer

Answer: (c) 3 double bonds; 12 single bonds


Question 20.
Which of the following elements can be involved in pπ-dπ bonding?
(0) Carbon
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Phosphorus
(d) Boron

Answer

Answer: (c) Phosphorus


Question 21.
Which of the following pairs of ions are isoelectronic and isostructural?
(a) CO\(_{ 3 }^{2-}\), NO\(_{ 3 }^{-}\)
(b) ClO\(_{ 3 }^{-}\), CO\(_{ 3 }^{2-}\)
(c) SO\(_{ 3 }^{2-}\), NO\(_{ 3 }^{-}\)
(d) ClO\(_{ 3 }^{-}\), SO\(_{ 3 }^{2-}\)

Answer

Answer: (a) CO\(_{ 3 }^{2-}\), NO\(_{ 3 }^{-}\)


Question 22.
Affinity for hydrogen decreases in the group from fluorine to iodine. Which of the halogen acids should have highest bond dissociation enthalpy?
(a) HF
(b) HCl
(c) HBr
(d) HI

Answer

Answer: (a) HF


Question 23.
Bond dissociation enthalpy of E-H (E = element) bonds is given below. Which of the compounds will act as strongest reducing agent?
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements with Answers 1
(a) NH3
(b) PH3
(c) ASH3
(d) SbH3

Answer

Answer: (d) SbH3


Question 24.
On heating with concentrated NaOH solution in an inert atmosphere of CO2, white phosphorus gives a gas. Which of the following statement is incorrect about the gas?
(a) It is highly poisonous and has smell like rotten fish.
(b) Its solution in water decomposes in the presence of light.
(c) It is more basic than NH3.
(d) It is less basic than NH3.

Answer

Answer: (c) It is more basic than NH3.


Question 25.
Which of the following acids forms three series of salts?
(a) H3PO2
(b) H3BO3
(c) H3PO4
(d) H3PO3

Answer

Answer: (c) H3PO4


Question 26.
Strong reducing behaviour of H3PO2 is due to
(a) Low oxidation state of phosphorus
(b) Presence of two -OH groups and one P-H bond
(c) Presence of one -OH group and two P-H bonds
(d) High electron gain enthalpy of phosphorus

Answer

Answer: (c) Presence of one -OH group and two P-H bonds


Question 27.
On heating lead nitrate forms oxides of nitrogen and lead. The oxides formed are
(a) N3O, PbO
(b) NO3, PbO
(c) NO, PbO
(d) NO, PbO2

Answer

Answer: (b) NO3, PbO


Question 28.
Which of the following elements does not show allotropy?
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Bismuth
(c) Antimony
(d) Arsenic

Answer

Answer: (a) Nitrogen


Question 29.
Which of the following statements is wrong?
(a) Single N-N bond is stronger than the single P-P bond.
(b) PH3 can act as a ligand in the formation of coordination compound with transition elements.
(c) NO2 is paramagnetic in nature.
(d) Covalency of nitrogen in N2O5 is four.

Answer

Answer: (a) Single N-N bond is stronger than the single P-P bond.


Question 30.
A brown ring is formed in the ring test for NO3 ion. It is due to the formation of
(a) [Fe(H2O)5 (NO)]2+
(b) FeSO4. NO2
(c) [Fe(H2O)4(NO)2]2+
(d) FeSO4.HNO3

Answer

Answer: (a) [Fe(H2O)5 (NO)]2+


Question 31.
Elements of group-15 form compounds in +5 oxidation state. However, bismuth forms only one well-characterised compound in +5 oxidation state. The compound is
(a) Bi3O5
(b) BiF5
(c) BiCl5
(d) Bi2S5

Answer

Answer: (b) BiF5


Question 32.
On heating ammonium dichromate and barium azide separately we get
(a) N2 in both cases
(b) N2 with ammonium dichromate and NO with barium azide
(c) N2O with ammonium dichromate and N2 with barium azide
(d) N2O with ammonium dichromate and NO2 with barium azide

Answer

Answer: (a) N2 in both cases


Question 33.
In the preparation of HNO3, we get NO gas by catalytic oxidation of ammonia. The moles of NO produced by the oxidation of two moles of NH3 will be
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6

Answer

Answer: (a) 2


Question 34.
The oxidation state of central atom in the anion of compound NaH2PO2 will be
(a) +3
(b) +5
(c) +1
(d) -3

Answer

Answer: (c) +1


Question 35.
Which of the following is not tetrahedral in shape?
(a) NH\(_{ + }^{4}\)
(b) SiCl4
(c) SF4
(d) SO\(_{ + }^{2-}\)

Answer

Answer: (c) SF4


Question 36.
Which of the following are peroxoacids of sulphur?
(a) H2SO5 and H2S2O8
(b) H2SO5 and H2S2O7
(c) H2S2O7 and H2S2O8
(d) H2S2O6 and H2S2O7

Answer

Answer: (a) H2SO5 and H2S2O8


Question 37.
Hot cone. H2SO4 acts as moderately strong oxidising agent. It oxidises both metals and non-metals. Which of the following element is oxidised by cone. H2SO4 into two gaseous products?
(a) Cu
(b) S
(c) C
(d) Zn

Answer

Answer: (c) C


Question 38.
A black compound of manganese reacts with a halogen acid to give greenish yellow gas. When excess of this gas reacts with NH3 an unstable trihalide is formed. In this process the oxidation state of nitrogen changes from
(a) – 3 to + 3
(b) – 3 to 0
(c) – 3 to + 5
(d) 0 to – 3

Answer

Answer: (a) – 3 to + 3


Question 39.
In the preparation of compounds of Xe, Bartlett had taken O\(_{ 2 }^{+}\) PtF\(_{ 6 }^{-}\) as a base compound. This is because
(a) both O2 and Xe have same size.
(b) both O2 and Xe have same electron gain enthalpy.
(c) both O2 and Xe have almost same ionisation enthalpy.
(d) both Xe and O2 are gases.

Answer

Answer: (c) both O2 and Xe have almost same ionisation enthalpy.


Question 40.
In solid state PCl5 is a
(a) covalent solid
(b) octahedral structure
(c) ionic solid with [PCl6]+ octahedral and [PCl4] tetrahedra
(d) ionic solid with [PCl4]+ tetrahedral and [PCl6] octahedra

Answer

Answer: (d) ionic solid with [PCl4]+ tetrahedral and [PCl6] octahedra


Question 41.
Reduction potentials of some ions are given below. Arrange them in decreasing order of oxidising power.
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements with Answers 2
(a) ClO4 > IO4 > BrO4
(b) IO4 > BrO4 > ClO4
(c) BrO4 > IO4 > ClO4
(d) BrO4 > ClO4 > IO4

Answer

Answer: (c) BrO4 > IO4 > ClO4


Question 42.
Which of the following is isoelectronic pair?
(a) ICl2, ClO2
(b) BrO2, BrF2+
(c) ClO2, BrF
(d) CN, O3

Answer

Answer: (b) BrO2, BrF2+


Assertion and Reason Type Questions

The questions given below consist of an assertion and a reason. Use the following key to choose the appropriate answer.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is correct, Reason (R) is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion (A) is wrong, but Reason (R) is correct statement.

Question 43.
Assertion: Ozone is a powerful oxidising agent in comparison to O2.
Reason: Ozone is diamagnetic but O2 is paramagnetic.

Answer

Answer: (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).


Question 44.
Assertion: F2 has low reactivity.
Reason: F-F bond has low bond dissociation enthalpy.

Answer

Answer: (d) Assertion (A) is wrong, but Reason (R) is correct statement.


Question 45.
Assertion: F-F bond in F2 molecule is strong.
Reason: F atom is small in size.

Answer

Answer: (d) Assertion (A) is wrong, but Reason (R) is correct statement.


Question 46.
Assertion: P4 is more reactive than N2.
Reason: P-P single bond in P4 is much weaker than N ≡ N in N2 molecule.

Answer

Answer: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).


Question 47.
Assertion: Xenon forms fluorides.
Reason: Because 5d-orbitals are available for valence shell expansion.

Answer

Answer: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).


Question 48.
Assertion: HClO4 is stronger acid than HClO3.
Reason: Oxidation state of Cl in HClO4 is +7 and in HClO3 is +5.

Answer

Answer: (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).


Question 49.
Assertion: Iodine dissolves in aqueous solution of potassium iodide.
Reason: Potassium iodide behaves as an organic solvent and therefore, dissolves non-polar iodine.

Answer

Answer: (c) Assertion (A) is correct, Reason (R) is wrong statement.


Question 50.
Assertion: HClO4 is stronger acid than HBrO4.
Reason: HClO4 ionises less in water than HBrO4.

Answer

Answer: (c) Assertion (A) is correct, Reason (R) is wrong statement.


Question 51.
Assertion: H3PO3 is a dibasic acid.
Reason: There are two H atoms directly bonded to P.

Answer

Answer: (c) Assertion (A) is correct, Reason (R) is wrong statement.


Question 52.
Assertion: Reaction of SO2 and H2S in the presence of Fe2O3 catalyst gives elemental sulphur.
Reason: SO2 is reducing agent.

Answer

Answer: (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).


Question 53.
Assertion: The acidic strength of halogen acids varies in the order HF > HCl > HBr > HI.
Reason: The bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen acids decreases in the order HF > HCl > HBr > HI.

Answer

Answer: (d) Assertion (A) is wrong, but Reason (R) is correct statement.


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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these The d-and f-Block Elements Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

The d-and f-Block Elements Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the The d-and f-Block Elements Multiple Choice Questions of Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on The d-and f-Block Elements Class 12 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 8 Chemistry Class 12 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
Which transition metal can show highest oxidation state?
(a) Sc
(b) Ti
(c) Os
(d) In

Answer

Answer: (c) Os


Question 2.
Which of the following is not an actinoid?
(a) Thorium
(b) Californium
(c) Uranium
(d) Terbium

Answer

Answer: (d) Terbium


Question 3.
Which of the following would be diamagnetic?
(a) Cu2+
(b) Ni2+
(c) Cd2+
(d) Ti3+

Answer

Answer: (c) Cd2+


Question 4.
Misch metal is an alloy of
(a) La
(b) Th
(c) Ac
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) La


Question 5.
Maximum magnetic moment is shown by
(a) 3d8
(b) 3d7
(c) 3d9
(d) 3d5

Answer

Answer: (d) 3d5


Question 6.
Maximum oxidation number of manganese is in
(a) K2MnO4
(b) MnO2
(c) KMnO4
(d) Mn2O4

Answer

Answer: (c) KMnO4


Question 7.
Electronic configuration of Fez+ ion is
(a) [Ar] 4s23d4
(b) [Ar] 4s13d5
(c) [Ar] 3d6
(d) [Ar] 3d8

Answer

Answer: (c) [Ar] 3d6


Question 8.
Electronic configuration of Cr (Z = 24) is
(a) 3d4 4s2
(b) 3d6 4s0
(c) 3d5 4s1
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) 3d5 4s1


Question 9.
Increasing order of paramagnetism is
(a) Cu2+ CO2+, Mn2+, Ni2+
(b) CO2+, Cu2+, Mn2+, Ni2+
(c) Cu2+, Ni2+, CO2+, Mn2+
(d) Mn2+, CO2+, Ni2+, Cu2+

Answer

Answer: (c) Cu2+, Ni2+, CO2+, Mn2+


Question 10.
Copper sulphate dissolves in excess of KCN to give:
(a) [CU(CN)4]3-
(b) [CU(CN)4]2-
(c) CuCN
(d) [Cu(CN2].

Answer

Answer: (a) [CU(CN)4]3-


Question 11.
Which of the following is not a lanthanoid element?
(a) Cerium
(b) Europium
(c) Lutetium
(d) Thorium

Answer

Answer: (d) Thorium


Question 12.
Which is colourless in H2O?
(a) Ti3+
(b) V3+
(c) Cr3+
(d) Sc3+

Answer

Answer: (d) Sc3+


Question 13.
Which one is coloured?
(a) Cu2Cl2
(b) [SC(H2O)6]3+
(c) [Zn(H2O)6]2+
(d) [Ti(H2O)6]3+

Answer

Answer: (d) [Ti(H2O)6]3+


Question 14.
Which of the following titanium compounds cannot be prepared? (Atomic No. of Ti = 22)
(a) TiO
(b) TiO2
(c) K2TiO4
(d) TiCl2

Answer

Answer: (c) K2TiO4


Question 15.
Electronic configuration of a transition element X in +3 oxidation state is [Ar]3d5. What is its atomic number?
(a) 25
(b) 26
(c) 27
(d) 24

Answer

Answer: (b) 26


Question 16.
The electronic configuration of Cu (II) is 3d9 whereas that of Cu (I) is 3d10. Which of the following is correct?
(a) Cu (II) is more stable
(b) Cu (II) is less stable
(c) Cu (I) and Cu (II) are equally stable
(d) Stability of Cu (I) and Cu (II) depends on nature of copper salts

Answer

Answer: (a) Cu (II) is more stable


Question 17.
Metallic radii of some transition elements are given below.
Fe – 126
Co – 125
Ni – 125
Cu – 128
Which of these elements will have highest density?
(a) Fe
(b) Ni
(c) Co
(d) Cu

Answer

Answer: (d) Cu


Question 18.
Generally transition elements form coloured salts due to the presence of unpaired electrons. Which of the following compounds will be coloured in solid state?
(a) Ag2 SO4
(b) CuF2
(c) ZnF2
(d) Cu2 Cl2

Answer

Answer: (b) CuF2


Question 19.
On addition of small amount of KMnO4 to concentrated H2SO4, a green oily compound is obtained which is highly explosive in nature. Identify the compound from the following.
(a) Mn2O7
(b) MnO2
(c) MnSO4
(d) Mn2O3

Answer

Answer: (a) Mn2O7


Question 20.
The magnetic nature of elements depends on the presence of unpaired electrons. Identify the configuration of transition element, which shows highest magnetic moment.
(a) 3d7
(b) 3d5
(c) 3d8
(d) 3d2

Answer

Answer: (b) 3d5


Question 21.
Which of the following oxidation state is common for all lanthanoids?
(a) +2
(b) +3
(c) +4
(d) +5

Answer

Answer: (b) +3


Question 22.
Which of the following reactions are disproportionation reactions?
(i) Cu+ → Cu2+ + Cu
(ii) 3MnO42- + 4H+ → 2MnO4 + MnO2 + 2H2O
(iii) 2KMnO4 → K2MnO4 + MnO2 + O2
(iv) 2MnO4 + 3Mn2+ + 2H2O → 5MnO2 + 4H+
(a) i, ii
(b) i, ii, iii
(c) ii, iii, iv
(d) i, iv

Answer

Answer: (a) i, ii


Question 23.
When KMnO4 solution is added to oxalic acid solution, the decolourisation is slow in the beginning but becomes instantaneous after some time because
(a) CO2 is formed as the product
(b) Reaction is exothermic
(c) MnO4 catalyses the reaction
(d) Mn2+ acts as autocatalyst

Answer

Answer: (d) Mn2+ acts as autocatalyst


Question 24.
There are 14 elements in actinoid series. Which of the following elements does not belong to this series?
(a) U
(b) Np
(c) Tm
(d) Fm

Answer

Answer: (c) Tm


Question 25.
KMnO4 acts as an oxidising agent in acidic medium. The number of moles of KMnO4 that will be needed to react with one mole of sulphide ions in acidic solution is
(a) 2/5
(b) 3/5
(c) 4/5
(d) 1/5

Answer

Answer: (a) 2/5


Question 26.
Which of the following is amphoteric oxide?
Mn2O7, CrO3, Cr2O3, CrO, V2O5, V2O4
(a) V2O5, Cr2O3
(b) Mn2O7, CrO3
(c) CrO, V2O5
(d) V2O5, V2O4

Answer

Answer: (a) V2O5, Cr2O3


Question 27.
Gadolinium belongs to 4f series. Its atomic number is 64.
Which of the following is the correct electronic configuration of gadolinium?
(a) [Xe] Af7 5d16s²
(b) [Xe] 4f6 5d² 6s²
(c) [Xe] 4f8 6d²
(d) [Xe]4f9 5s1

Answer

Answer: (a) [Xe] Af7 5d16s²


Question 28.
Interstitial compounds are formed when small atoms are trapped inside the crystal lattice of metals. Which of the following is not the characteristic property of interstitial compounds?
(a) They have high melting points in comparison to pure metals
(b) They are very hard
(c) They retain metallic conductivity
(d) They are chemically very reactive

Answer

Answer: (d) They are chemically very reactive


Question 29.
The magnetic moment is associated with its spin angular momentum and orbital angular momentum. Spin only magnetic moment value of Cr3+ ion is
(a) 2.87 B.M.
(b) 3.87 B.M.
(c) 3.47 B.M.
(d) 3.57 B.M.

Answer

Answer: (b) 3.87 B.M.


Question 30.
KMnO4 acts as an oxidising agent in alkaline medium.
When alkaline KMnO4 is treated with Kl, iodide ion is oxidised to
(a) l2
(b) lO
(c) lO3
(d) lO4

Answer

Answer: (c) lO3


Question 31.
Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Copper liberates hydrogen from acids.
(b) In its higher oxidation states, manganese forms stable compounds with oxygen and fluorine.
(c) Mn3+ and Co3+ are oxidising agents in aqueous solution.
(d) Ti2+ and Cr2+ are reducing agents in aqueous solution.

Answer

Answer: (a) Copper liberates hydrogen from acids.


Question 32.
When acidified K2Cr2O7 solution is added to Sn2+ salts then Sn2+ changes to
(a) Sn
(b) Sn3+
(c) Sn4+
(d) Sn+

Answer

Answer: (c) Sn4+


Question 33.
Highest oxidation state of manganese in fluoride is +4 (MnF4) but highest oxidation state in oxides is +7 (Mn2O7) because
(a) fluorine is more electronegative than oxygen.
(b) fluorine does not possess d-orbitals.
(c) fluorine stabilises lower oxidation state.
(d) in covalent compounds fluorine can form single bond only while oxygen forms double bond.

Answer

Answer: (d) in covalent compounds fluorine can form single bond only while oxygen forms double bond.


Question 34.
Although Zirconium belongs to 4d transition series and Hafnium to 5d transition series even then they show similar physical and chemical properties because
(a) both belong to d-block
(b) both have same number of electrons
(c) both have similar atomic radius
(d) both belong to the same group of the periodic table

Answer

Answer: (c) both have similar atomic radius


Question 35.
Why is HCI not used to make the medium acidic in oxidation reactions of KMnO4 in acidic medium?
(a) Both HCl and KMnO4 act as oxidising agents.
(b) KMnO4 oxidises HCl into Cl2 which is also an oxidising agent.
(c) KMnO4 is a weaker oxidising agent than HCl.
(d) KMnO4 acts as a reducing agent in the presence of HCl.

Answer

Answer: (b) KMnO4 oxidises HCl into Cl2 which is also an oxidising agent.


Assertion and Reason Type Questions

The questions given below consist of an assertion and a reason. Use the following key to choose the appropriate answer.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is correct, Reason (R) is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion (A) is wrong, but Reason (R) is correct statement.

Question 36.
Assertion: Tungsten has very high melting point.
Reason: Tungsten is a covalent compound.

Answer

Answer: (c) Assertion (A) is correct, Reason (R) is wrong statement.


Question 37.
Assertion: Cuprous salts are diamagnetic.
Reason: Cu+ has 3d-filled subshell.

Answer

Answer: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).


Question 38.
Assertion: Fe2+ has 3d6 electronic configuration.
Reason: Electrons are lost from 4s-orbital to form Fe2+ ion.

Answer

Answer: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).


Question 39.
Assertion: La(OH)3 is more basic than LU(OH)3.
Reason: Basic character of hydroxides of lanthanoids increase on moving from La3+ to LU3+.

Answer

Answer: (c) Assertion (A) is correct, Reason (R) is wrong statement.


Question 40.
Assertion: FeCl3 reacts with KCNS to give blood red colouration.
Reason: FeCl3 reacts with KCNS to form potassium ferro-ferricyanide.

Answer

Answer: (c) Assertion (A) is correct, Reason (R) is wrong statement.


Question 41.
Assertion: Sodium chloride used to clear snow on the roads.
Reason: The alkaline solution of potassium dichromate contains CrO42- ions.

Answer

Answer: (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A)


Question 42.
Assertion: Zn2+ is colourless and Cu2+ is colourled.
Reason: Both Zn2+ and Cu2+ contain 3d-filled subshell.

Answer

Answer: (c) Assertion (A) is correct, Reason (R) is wrong statement.


Question 43.
Assertion: There is a continuous decrease in size among lanthanoids.
Reason: Lanthanoids show lanthanoid contraction.

Answer

Answer: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).


Question 44.
Assertion: Lanthanoids show a limited number of oxidation states whereas actinoids show a large number of oxidation states. Reason: Energy gap between 4f, 5d and 6s subshells is small whereas that between 5f, 6d and 7s subshells is large.

Answer

Answer: (c) Assertion (A) is correct, Reason (R) is wrong statement.


Question 45.
Assertion: E° value of Mn3+|Mn2+ is more positive than for Cr3+|Cr2+.
Reason: Cr3+ is more stable than Cr2+ but Mn3+ is less stable than Mn2+.

Answer

Answer: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).


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