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Here you will find Real Numbers Class 10 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 1 with Answers Solutions, Extra Questions for Class 10 Maths are solved by experts and will guide students in the right direction.

Extra Questions for Class 10 Maths Real Numbers with Answers Solutions

Extra Questions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 1 Real Numbers with Solutions Answers

Real Numbers Class 10 Extra Questions Objective Type

Question 1.
The graph of y = f(x) is given. The no. of zeros of f(x) will be:

(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 3
Solution.
As graph of/(x) cut the x and at 3 points
∴ Zeros of fix) are 3.
Choice (b) is correct.

Question 2.
For some integer m, the form of every positive even integer will be:
(a) m
(b) m + 1
(c) 2m
(d) 2m + 1
Answer:
(c) 2m
Solution.
2m is even integer
Hence, Choice (c) is correct.

Question 3.
The rational number which can be expressed as a terminating decimal number will be:
(a) \(\frac {77}{210}\)
(b)
(c) \(\frac {13}{3125}\)
(d) \(\frac {8}{17}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac {13}{3125}\)
Solution.
As the prime factorization of denominators of \(\frac {13}{3125}\) is only at the ninth place of 2 and 5.
Hence, choice (c) is correct.

Question 4.
For some integer n, the form of every positive odd integer will be:
(a) n
(b) n + 1
(c) 2n
(d) 2n + 1
Answer:
(d) 2n + 1
Solution.
For some integer n, the odd positive integer will be (2n + 1)
Hence, choice (d) is correct.

Question 5.
Which of the following graph is not of a quadratic polynomial?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Answer:
(d)

Solution.
Choice (d) is correct, (d)

Question 6.
Decimal expansion of rational number \(\frac {14587}{1250}\) will end after the following decimal places:
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
Answer:
(d) four
Solution.
Given Rational Number \(\frac {14587}{1250}\)
The factors of the denominator 1250 is 5 × 2
So the Number is terminating decimal expansion

∴ Number will end after 4 is decimal places.
Hence choice (d) is correct. Answer:

Question 7.
The decimal expansion of \(\frac {131}{120}\) will terminate after how many places of decimals?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 1
(d) 2
Answer:
(a) 3

Question 8.
The decimal expansion of the rational number \(\frac{11}{2^{3} \cdot 5^{2}}\) will terminate after:
(a) one decimal place
(b) two decimal places
(c) three decimal places
(d) more than 3 decimal places.
Answer:
(c) three decimal places

Question 9.
The decimal expansion of the rational number \(\frac{43}{2^{4} \times 5^{3}}\)will terminate after:
(a) 3 places
(b) 4 places
(c) 5 places
(d) 1 place.
Answer:
(b) 4 places

Question 10.
The decimal expansion of the rational numbers \(\frac{23}{2^{2} \cdot 5}\) will terminate after:
(a) one decimal place
(b) two decimal places
(c) three decimal places
(d) more than three decimal places.
Answer:
(b) two decimal places

Real Numbers Class 10 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Use Euclid’s division algorithm to find the HCF of:
(i) 135 and 225
(ii) 196 and 38220
(iii) 867 and 255
Solution:
(i) We start with the larger number 225.
By Euclid’s division algorithm, we have Dividend = (Divisor × Quotient + Remainder)
225 = 135 × 1 + 90

We apply Euclid’s division algorithm on divisor 135 and the remainder 90.
Dividend = (Divisor × Quotient + Remainder)
135 = 90 × 1 + 45 1

Again, we apply Euclid’s division algorithm on divisor 90 and remainder 45.
90 = 45 × 2 + 0
∴ HCF (135,225) =45

(ii) We have,
Dividend = 38220 and Divisor = 196
Dividend = (Divisor × Quotient + Remainder)
38220 = 196 × 195 + 0
Hence, HCF (196, 38220) = 196

(iii) By Euclid’s division algorithm,
we have
Dividend = (Divisor × Quotient + Remainder)
867 = 255 + 3 + 102
We apply Euclid’s division algorithm on the divisor 255 and the remainder 102.
Dividend = (Divisor × Quotient + Remainder)
255 = 102 × 2 + 51
Again, we apply Euclid’s division algorithm on the divisor 102 and the remainder 51.
Dividend = (Divisor × Quotient + Remainder)
102 = 51 × 2 + 0
∴ HCF (867, 255) = 51

Question 2.
Using Euclid’s division algorithm prove that: 847, 2160 are co-primes/relatively prime.
Solution.
Definition of co-primes or relatively primes : Two numbers are said to be co-prime or relatively prime. If their HCF is 1. Hence to prove 847 and 2160 as co-prime numbers we will find their HCF and which should be 1.
Now steps to find HCF will be as under
2160 = 847 × 2 + 466
847 = 466 × 1 + 381
466 = 381 × 1 + 85
381 = 85 × 4 + 41
85 = 41 × 2 + 3
41 = 3 × 13 + 2
3 = 2 × 1 + 1 .
2 = 1 × 2 + 0
Therefore, the HCF = 1.
Hence, the numbers are co-prime relatively prime.

Question 3.
Find the largest number that divides 628, 3129 and 15630 to leave remainders 3, 4 and 5 respectively.
Solution.
Required number = HCF of (628 – 3), (3129 – 4) and (15630 – 6) i.e., required number
= HCF of 625, 3125,15625
To find HCF of 625, 3125 and 15625 first we will find HCF of 625 and 3125 and then we will find HCF of HCF of (625 & 3125) and 15625.
Step (1): HCF of 625 and 3125 by using Euclid’s division algorithm is
3125 = 625 × 5 + 0
⇒ HCF of 625 and 3125 is 625.
Step (2): Now HCF of625 and 15625 will be : 15625 = 625 × 25 + 0
⇒ HCF of 625 and 15625 is 625.
Hence HCF of 625, 3125 and 15625 is 625.
Hence required number is 625.

Question 4.
An Army contingent of 616 members is to march behind an army bond of 32 members in a parade. The two groups are to march in the same number of columns. What is the maximum number of columns in which they can march?
Solution.
To find the maximum number of columns, we have to find the HCF of 616 and 32. By Euclid’s division algorithm 19 4

i.e., 616 = 32 × 19 + 8 i.e., 32 – 8 × 4 + 0
∴ The HCF of 616 and 32 is 8.
Hence, maximum number of columns is 8.

Question 5.
Show that the square of an odd positive integer is of the form 8m + 1, for some whole number m.
Solution.
Any positive odd integer is of the form 2q + 1, where q is a whole number.
Therefore,
(2q + 1² = 4q² + 4q + 1
= 4 q(q + 1) + 1 …(1)
q(Question + 1) is either 0 or even because out of q and q + 1 one of the number is even. So, it is 2m, where m is a whole number.
Therefore, (2q + 1)²
= 4.2 m + 1 = 8m + 1. [From (1)]

Question 6.
Given that HCF (306, 657) = 9, find LCM (306, 657).
Solution.
We have,
HCF (306, 657) = 9
We know that,
Product of LCM and HCF
= Product of two numbers
⇒ LCM × 9 = 306 × 657
⇒
Hence, LCM (306, 657) = 22338

Real Numbers Class 10 Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Use Euclid’s division lemma to show that the square of any positive integer is either of the form 3m or 3m + 1 for some integer m.
Solution:
By Euclid’s division algorithm, we have
a – bq + r …(i)
On putting b = 3 in Eq (i), we get a = 3q + r, [0 ≤ r < 3, i.e. , r = 0, 1, 2]
If r = 0 ⇒ a – 3q
⇒ a² = 9q² …(ii)
If r = 1 ⇒ a = 3q + 1
⇒ a² = 9q² + 6q + 1 …(iii)
If r = 2 ⇒ a = 3q + 2
⇒ a² = 9q² + 12g + 4 …(iv)
From Eq (ii), 9q² is a square of the form 3m, where m 3q²
From Eq (iii), 9q² + 6q + 1 i.e., 3(3q² + 2q) + 1 is a square which is of the form
3m + 1, where m = 3q² + 2q
From Eq (iv) 9q² + 12q + 4 i.e.,3(3q² + 4q + 1) + 1 is a square which is of the form 3m + 1, where m – 3q² + 4q + 1.
∴ The square of any positive integer is either of the form 3m or 3m + 1 for some integer m.

Question 2.
Show that that square of an odd positive integer can be of the form 6q + 1 or 6q + 3 for some integer q.
Solution:
We know that any positive integer can be of the form 6m, 6m + 1, 6m + 2, 6m + 3, 6m + 4 or 6m + 5, for some integer m.
Thus, an odd positive integer can be of the form 6m + 1, 6m + 3, or 6m + 5.
Thus we have :
(6m + 1)² – 36m² + 12m + 1
= 6(6m² + 2m) + 1 = 6q + 1,
q = 6m² + 2m is an integer.
(6m + 3)² – 36m² + 36m + 9
6(6m² + 6m + 1) + 3
= 6q + 3,
q = 6m² + 6m + 1 is an integer.
(6m + 5)² 36m² + 60m + 25
= 6(6m² + 10m + 4) + 1 = 6q+ 1, q
= 6m² + 10m + 4 is an integer.
Thus, the square of an odd positive integer can be of the form 6q + 1 or 6q + 3.

Question 3.
Find the LCM and HCF of the fo11owing pairs of integers and verify that LCM × HCF = product of the two numbers.
(i) 26 and 91 (ii) 510 and 92
Sol:
(i) 26 and 91
26 = 2 × 13 and 91 = 7 × 13
LCM of 26 and 91
= 2 × 7 × 13 = 182
and HCF of 26 and 91 = 13

Now, 182 × 13 = 2366 and 26 × 91 = 2366
Hence, 182 × 13 = 26 × 91

(ii) 510 and 92
510 = 2 × 3 × 5 × 17
and 92 = 2 × 2 × 23

∴ LCM of 510 and 92
= 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 × 17 × 23 = 23460
and HCF of 510 and 92 = 2
Now, 23460 × 2 = 46920
and 510 × 92 = 46920
Hence, 23460 × 2 = 510 × 92

Question 4.
Prove that 5 + √3 is an irrational number.
Solution:
Let us assume, to the contrary, that 5 + √3 is rational.
So that we can find integers p and q(q ≠ 0) such that
5 + √3 = P/q,
Where p and q are coprime.

Since, p and q are integers, we get \(\frac {p}{q}\) – \(\frac {5q}{q}\) is a rational. So √3 is rational.
But this contradict the fact that √3 is irrational.
So, we conc1ude that 5 + √3 is irrational.
Proved

Question 5.
With out performing 1ong division, show whether the rational number is terminating decimal or non-terminating decimal. Find a1so its decimal expansion without performing actual division.
Solution:
Given Number is \(\frac {17}{8}\) in this 17 and 8 are coprime and the denominator is on1y the mu1tip1e of 2.
∴ \(\frac {17}{8}\) is a terminating decimal.
Now,

Question 6.
Without performing 1ong division procidure, show that the rational Number \(\frac {17}{90}\) is terminating decimal or non terminating repeating decimal.
Solution:
Given, Number

In denominator it contains 32 therefore this number is non-terminating repeating decimal.

Question 7.
Exp1ain, Why
(17 × 5 × 11 × 3 × 2 + 2 × 11) is a composite number.
Solution:
17 × 5 × 11 × 3 × 2 + 2 × 11
= 2 × 11 [17 × 5 × 3 + 1]
= 22 × 256 = 2 × 11 × 4 × 4 × 4 × 4
Which is a product of more than two prime numbers i.e., 2 and 11. Hence it is a composite number.

Question 8.
Without performing the 1ong division process, find whether the rational Number \(\frac {987}{10500}\) is terminating or non terminating decimal. Give reason of your answer.
Solution:

∵ The prime factor of denominator is of the form 53 × 22
∴ The given rational number is terminating decimal.

Real Numbers Class 10 Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Prove that √2 is irrational.
Solution:
If possible, let √2 be rational and let its simp1est form be \(\frac {a}{b}\) .
Then, a and b are integers having no common factor other than 1, and b ≠ 0.
Now,

[on squaring both sides]
⇒ 2 b² = a² …(i)
⇒ 2 divides a² [∵ 2 divides 2b²]
⇒ 2 divides a
[ ∵ 2 is prime and divides c² ⇒ 2 divides a]
Let a = 2c for some integer c.
Putting a = 2c in (i), we get
2b² = 4c²
⇒ b² = 2c²
⇒ 2 divides b² [ ∵ 2 divides 2c²]
⇒ 2 divides b[ ∵ 2 is prime and 2 divides b² ⇒ 2 divides b]
Thus, 2 is a common factor of a and b.
But, this contradicts the fact that a and b have no common factor other than 1.
The contradiction arises by assuming that √2 is rational.
Hence, √2 is irrational.

Question 2.
Why n is an irrational number.
Solution:
We know that the ratio of circumference of a circle to 1ength of its corresponding diameter is known as ‘π’ (pie).
i.e., π = \(\frac {c}{d}\)
Now, read this to understand why ‘π’ is an irrational number.
If we take circumference of a circle as an integer (natural number) then we find length of its corresponding diameter comes in decimal not an integer (natura1 number)] so ratio of \(\frac {c}{d}\) is not in the form of \(\frac {p}{q}\), i.e., p and q bothare not integers.

Simi1arly if we take diameter of circle as an integer (natura1 number) then circumference of its corresponding circle comes out to be in the decimal form so again ratio \(\frac {c}{d}\) = π does not comes in the form of \(\frac {p}{q}\) because diameter, i.e., ‘q’ is an integer and ‘p’ is in decimal form.

So it is clear that for any circle if length of diameter is natura1 number then circumference is the decimal form or if circumference is a natura1 number then diameter is a decimal number. So we can say that the ratio \(\frac{\pi}{d}\) can never come in the form of \(\frac {p}{q}\) where p and q both are integers and q ≠ 0. So it is clear that the ratio \(\frac{c}{d}\), i.e., π can never be rational hence ‘π’ is a1ways an irrational number.

Question 3.
Prove that 3 + 2√5 is irrational.
Solution:
let us assume, to the contrary, that 3 + 2√5 is a rational number.
Now, let 3 + 2√5 = x, where a and b are coprime and b ≠ 0.

Since, a and b are integers, therefore
\(\frac {a}{2b}\) – \(\frac {3}{2}\) is a rational number.
∴ √5 is a rational number.
But √5 is an irrational number.
This shows that our assumption is wrong.
So, 3 + 2 √5 is an irrational number.
Hence proved.
Example 4. Prove that √3 is irrational.
Solution:
If possible, let √3 be rational and let its simplest form be \(\frac{a}{b}\)
Then, a and b are integers having no common factor other than 1, and b ≠ 0.
[on squaring both sides]
⇒ 3b² = a² …(i)
⇒ 3 divides a² [ ∵ 3 divides 3b²]
⇒ 3 divides a [∵ 3 is prime and divides a² ⇒ 3 divides a]
Let a = 3c for some integer c.
Putting a = 3c in (i), we get
3b² = 9c²
⇒ b² = 3c²
⇒ 3 divides b² [ ∵ 3 divides 3c²]
⇒ 3 divides b [ ∵ 3 is prime and 3 divides b² ⇒ 3 divides b]
Thus, 3 is a common factor of a and b. But, this contradicts the fact that a and b have no common factor other than 1.
The contradiction arises by assuming that √3 is rational.
Hence, √3 is irrational.

Question 3.
The fo11owing rea1 numbers have decimal expansions as given be1ow. In each case, decide whether they are rational or not. If they are rational and of the form \(\frac{p}{q}\), what can you say about the prime factors of q?
(i) 43.123456789
(ii) 0.120120012000120000….
(iii) \(43 . \overline{123456789}\)
Solution:
(i) 43.123456789 is terminating. So, it represents a rational number.
Thus,

Thus, q = 10⁹
(ii) 0.120120012000120000…. is non-terminating and non-repeating. So, it is an irrational number.
(iii) \(43 . \overline{123456789}\) is non-terminating but repeating. So it is a rational.

Thus q = 999999999

Diversity and Discrimination Class 6 Questions and Answers Provided helps you to answer complex Questions too easily. You can use them while preparing for board exams and all of them are given by subject experts. Reading NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Social Science Civics Chapter 2 Diversity and Discrimination familiarizes you with the kind of questions appearing in the board exams. Students are advised to read these solutions on a regular basis to score well.

Diversity and Discrimination Class 6 Questions and Answers Civics Chapter 2

Make your learning experience enjoyable by preparing from the quick links available on this page. Use the Class 6 SST Civics Chapter 2 NCERT Solutions and get to know different concepts involved. All the Solutions are covered as per the latest syllabus guidelines. Knowing the NCERT Class 6 Civics Chapter 2 Questions and Answers helps students to attempt the exam with confidence.

Class 6 Civics Chapter 2 NCERT Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Match the following statements in a way that challenges stereotypes.

Answer:
a-3
b-4
c-1
d-2

Question 2.
How can the stereotype that girls are a burden on their parents affect the life of a daughter? Imagine this situation and list at least five different effects that this stereotype can have on the way daughters get treated in the house.

Answer:
In many families, the girls are considered as a burden. This burden is not felt only by the others but significantly by the family members. This stereotype thinking does not exist only in rural areas but also found in urban areas.

Over the centuries, it is considered that the girls will go to other homes, hence there is no benefit of their education, nutrition or better nursing. This type of family’s behavior af­fected negatively on the girls mind. This is a fact that this trend is now reducing its sphere due to the various reasons. Effects of such type of stereotype can be expressed as under:

1. They become physically and mentally weak and anemic.
2. Due to the lack of education, growth of minds of girls do not take place properly.
3. The girls always feel that they are inferior and cannot do anything without help of man.
4. They always feel insecure. And this is the reason, they face domestic violence silently.
5. They never feel independent even after marriage. Girls of such types of families pass their lives as a servant in her in-laws house.

Question 3.
What does the Constitution say with regard to equality? Why do you think it is important for all people to be equal?

Answer:
Our constitution is one of largest constitution of the world. Our constitution has been divided into 22 parts. Part III is related to the Fundamental Rights. Under article 21 of Fundamental Rights, our constitution has provided that all are equal before the law and thus no one should be discriminated on the ground of their religion, work, status, sex, language, colour, customs and practices etc. Hence, it is prohibited to violate the constitution.

In the absence of equality:

1. Opportunity of progress may be affected for the poor and marginalized people.
2. Women and downtrodden may not be included in the mainstream.
3. The whole society will be divided.
4. Societal harmony will be disrupted.
5. Conflicts will be raised in the society.
6. Hence, it is important that all be treated equal so that inequality be removed off from the society and all could give their contribution in the progress of the country.

Question 4.
Sometimes people make prejudiced comments in our presence. We are often not in a position to do anything about this because it is difficult to say something right then and there. Divide the class into groups and each group discuss what they could do in one of the following situations:
(a) A friend begins to tease a classmate because he is poor.
(b) You are watching TV with your family and one of them makes a prejudicial comment about a particular religious community.
(c) Children in your class refuse to share their food with a particular person because they think as she is dirty.
(d) Someone tells you a joke that makes fun of a community because of their accent.
(e) Some boys make remarks about girls not being able to play games as well as they play.
Discuss in the class what the different groups have suggested for the above situations, and also talk about the problems that can come up when raising the issue.

Answer:
(a) We cannot tease anyone on the ground of being poor or rich. Therefore, I will suggest that it shouldn’t be done.
(b) This issue is unnecessary and harmful for the society as well as for the country. These type of prejudicial comments disrupt the society and hurt the sentiments of the people.

Hope the data shared above regarding the NCERT Class 6 Social Science Civics Chapter 2 Diversity and Discrimination PDF has aided in your exam preparation. If you ever need any assistance you can always reach us and our team will guide you at the soonest possibility.

The French Revolution Class 9 Questions and Answers Provided helps you to answer complex Questions too easily. You can use them while preparing for board exams and all of them are given by subject experts. Reading NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science History Chapter 1 The French Revolution familiarizes you with the kind of questions appearing in the board exams. Students are advised to read these solutions on a regular basis to score well.

The French Revolution Class 9 Questions and Answers History Chapter 1

Make your learning experience enjoyable by preparing from the quick links available on this page. Use the Class 9 SST History Chapter 1 NCERT Solutions and get to know different concepts involved. All the Solutions are covered as per the latest syllabus guidelines. Knowing the NCERT Class 9 History Chapter 1 Questions and Answers helps students to attempt the exam with confidence.

The French Revolution NCERT Intext Questions and Answers

Question 1.
See figure given below. Explain, why the artist has portrayed the nobleman as the spider and the peasant as the fly.
Answer:

The reason is obvious. The spider is a parasite who feeds on the fly once it is trapped by the spider. Similarly, in the eighteenth century France the nobles exploited the poor peasants under the protection of the government. They extracted feudal dues from the peasants in the forms of tithes and taille. Peasants also had to render all kinds of services to the noblemen.

This system was highly exploitative. That’s why the artist has portrayed the nobleman as the spider and the peasant as the fly. What the artist wants to say is that the peasants easily came into the trap of the noblemen and were made to fulfil all their requirements by hook or by crook. Like the spider the nobles too fed on the peasants.

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks boxes in figure given below with appropriate terms from among the following:

Answer:

Question 3.
Representatives of the Third Estate take the oath raising their arms in the direction of Bailly, the President of the Assembly, standing on a table in the centre. Do you think that during the actual event Bailly would have stood with his back to the assembled deputies? What could have been David’s intention in placing Bailly the way he has done?
Answer:

Preparatory sketch for a large painting by Jacques-Louis David.
The painting was intended to be hung in the National Assembly.

I don’t think that during the actual event Bailly would have stood with his back to the assembled deputies. What David, the artist intend to show is that the constitution of 1791 that came into existence two years after the French Revolution, had turned its back on the hopes and aspirations of the peasants, labourers and women, instead of meeting them and listening to their problems. Despite the Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen, not all citizens had the right to vote. Only the rich and the propertied class enjoyed the voting right. The remaining men and women were classed as passive citizens.

Question 4.
Look carefully at the painting and identify the objects which are political symbols you saw in Box 1 on NCERT T.B pages 12-13 (broken chain, red cap, fasces, Charter on the Declaration of Rights). The pyramid stands for equality, often represented by a triangle. Use the symbols to interpret the painting. Describe your impressions of the female figure of liberty.
Answer:

Nanine Vallain, Liberty.
This is one of the rare paintings by a woman artist. The revolutionary events made it possible for women to train with established painters and to exhibit their works in the Salon, which was an exhibition held every two years.

The painting is a female allegory of liberty -that is, the female form symbolises the idea of freedom. The scroll in the right hand of the woman stands for the Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen. In the left hand she is holding aloft the red cap symbolising the torch of freedom. The pyramid in the background symbolises equality as all the three sides of a pyramid are equal. The female figure of liberty symbolises the equality of man and woman.

Question 5.
Describe the persons represented in figure given below – their actions, their postures, the objects they are carrying. Look carefully to see whether all of them come from the same social group. What symbols has the artist included in the image? What do they stand for? Do the actions of the women reflect traditional ideas of how women were expected to behave in public? What do you think: does the artist sympathise with the women’s activities or is he critical of them? Discuss your views in the class.
Answer:

This print is one of the many pictorial representations of the events of 5 October 1789,
when women marched to Versailles and brought the king back with them to Paris.

The persons represented here are the Parisian women who are on their way to Versailles. Being fed up with the king and the existing system these women are seen ready to do anything for the betterment of their condition. All these women are carrying agricultural implements to use them in the storming of Bastille.

Yes, all of them come from the same social group—the peasantry class. One of the woman is carrying aloft the symbol of justice. This symbolises that these women want justice and they won’t sit unless they get it. The woman on the horse symbolises power and strength. The drum symbolises that they are proclaiming their march to all concerned.

The actions of the women do not reflect the traditional ideas of how women were expected to behave in public. These women are not afraid of anyone. They are determined to force the king to pay attention to their condition.

Yes, the artist appears to be a great sympathiser of these women and their activities.

Question 6.
Compare the manifesto drafted by Olympe de Gouges with the Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen.
Answer:
The manifesto drafted by Olympe de Gouges gives emphasis on the equality of women. She says that women like men are born free and must remain equal to men in rights. On the other hand the Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen does not mention women at all. It only talks about men and their rights.

While Olympe de Gouges supports the idea of preservation of the natural rights of woman and man, the Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen supports the idea of preservation of the natural rights of man only.

Question 7.
Describe the picture in your own words. What are the images that the artist has used to communicate the following ideas; greed, equality, justice, takeover—by the state of the assets of the church?
Answer:

This anonymous print of 1790 seeks to make the idea of justice tangible.

Greed is symbolised by the fat clergyman on the extreme left.
The two men holding him symbolise government officials who under the instruction of the clergyman have taken over the assets of the church.
The man and woman in the extreme right symbolise equality.
In the middle is standing the press which symbolises justice.

History Class 9 Chapter 1 NCERT Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Describe the circumstances leading to the outbreak of revolutionary protest in France.
Answer:
The following circumstances led to the outbreak of revolutionary protest in France:

(i) The eighteenth century French society was divided into three estates the clergy, the nobility and the third estates which included businessman, officials, peasants and artisans. The clergy and nobility were exempted from taxes. Only the third estate had to pay taxes.

(ii) The population of France increased immensely in the 1780s. This led to a rapid increase in the demand for food grains. Production of grains could not keep pace with the demand. So the price of bread which was the staple diet of the majority rose rapidly.

(iii) Most of the workers were employed as labourers in workshops whose owner fixed their wages. But the wages did not keep pace with the rise in prices. So, the gap between the poor and the rich widened which created dissatisfaction among the poor.

(iv) To meet its regular expenses, such as the cost of maintaining an army, the court, running government offices or universities, the state was forced to increase taxes. The burden of increased taxes fell on the third estate only.

(v) On 5 May 1789, the King called together an assembly of the Estates General to pass proposals for new taxes. The first and second estates sent 300 representatives each, who were seated in rows facing each other on two sides, while 600 members of the third estate had to stand at the back. Voting in the Estates General in the past had been conducted according to the principle that each estate had one vote. This time too Louis XVI was determined to continue the same practice. But the members of the third estate demanded that each member would have one vote. When the king rejected this proposal, they walked out of the assembly in protest.

(vi) Meanwhile a severe winter in France caused severe hardships to the poor. Due to bad harvest, the price of bread rose. The bakers exploited the situation and hoarded supplies. After spending hours in long queues at the bakery, crowds of angry women stormed into the shops. At the same time, the king ordered troops to move into Paris. On 14 July 1789, the agitated crowd stormed and destroyed fortress-prison, the Bastille. This led to the outbreak of revolutionary protest in France.

Question 2.
Which groups of French society benefited from the revolution? Which groups were forced to relinquish power? Which sections of society would have been disappointed with the outcome of the revolution?
Answer:
(i) The wealthier middle class people who were also educated benefited from the revolution. These people were capable enough to seize power as soon as the Jacobin government fell.

(ii) The privileged class that included the clergy and the nobility was forced to relinquish power. The National Assembly passed a decree that abolished the age-old feudal system of obligations and taxes. Tithes, taxes levied by the church were also abolished and the lands owned by the church were also confiscated.

(iii) Non-propertied sections of society and women would have been disappointed with the outcome of the revolution. These people were classed as passive citizens having no right to vote. Women’s demand for voting rights continued for many years. It was finally in 1946 that they won this right.

Question 3.
Describe the legacy of the French Revolution for the peoples of the world during the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.
Answer:
(i) The ideals of liberty and democratic rights were the most important legacy of the French Revolution.
These ideals spread from France to the rest of Europe during the nineteenth century, where feudal system were abolished.

(ii) Political revolution in Europe began with the French Revolution. This revolution influenced the people in other European countries and political revolutions raged through Europe as people fought against the authority of kings.

(iii) Colonised peoples got inspired by the ideals of the French Revolution. They reworked the idea of freedom from bondage into the movements to create a sovereign nation state. Tipu Sultan and Rammohan are two examples of individuals who responded to the ideas coming from revolutionary France.

Question 4.
Draw up a list of democratic rights we enjoy today whose origins could be traced to the French revolution.
Answer:
The origins of many of the democratic rights we enjoy today could be traced to the Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen, constituted in 1791 after the French Revolution:

• Right to Life
• Right to Equality
• Freedom of Speech, Expression and Thought
• Equality before Law
• Right to Vote and be elected for political offices
• Right to Property
• Right to Resist oppression
• Right to Justice and Security.

Question 5.
Would you agree with the view that the message of universal rights was beset with contradictions? Explain.
Answer:
The message of universal rights was beset with contradictions:
(i) The Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen laid stress on equality but a large section of society was denied to it. All rights were given to men with property. Non-propertied section and women were ignored totally. They had no right to vote.

(ii) The presence of a huge number of people as passive citizens, without voting rights, was like not putting into practice what you preach. The revolutionary journalist Jean-Paul Marat felt that the Constitution of 1791 had given the task of representing the people to the rich. And the poor were suppressed.

(iii) The Declaration of Rights failed to establish liberty to all. France continued to hold and expand colonies. It tried to give an image of liberator to the world but could not succeed.

(iv) Slavery continued to exist in France for a long time. It was finally abolished in French colonies in 1848.

(v) Jeans-Paul Marat felt that the Declaration of Rights was biased. The law was influenced by the rich. The women were regarded as passive citizens. They were also discriminated on the basis of gender. These were against the ideals of the universal rights.

Question 6.
How would you explain the rise of Napoleon?
Answer:
The fall of the Jacobin government allowed the wealthier middle classes to seize power. A new constitution was introduced which denied the vote to non-propertied sections of society. It provided for two elected legislative councils. These then appointed a Directory, an executive made up of five members. This was meant as a safeguard against the concentration of power in a one-man executive as under the Jacobians. However, the Directors often clashed with the legislative councils, who then sought to dismiss them.

The political instability of the Directory paved the way for the rise of Napoleon Bonaparte, a military dictator. In 1804, he crowned himself Emperor of France. Then he set out to conquer neighbouring European countries, dispossessing dynasties and creating kingdoms where he placed members of his family. Napoleon view himself as a moderniser of Europe.

He introduced many laws such as the protection of private property and a uniform system of weights and measures provided by the decimal system. In the beginning many saw Napoleon as a liberator who would bring freedom for the people. But soon the Napoleonic armies came to be viewed everywhere as an invading force. He was finally defeated at Waterloo in 1815.

Class 9 History Chapter 1 NCERT Intext Activity Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Find out more about any one of the revolutionary figures you have read about in this chapter. Write a short biography of this person.
Answer:
Do it yourself with the help of internet.

Question 2.
The French Revolution saw the rise of newspapers describing the events of each day and week. Collect information and pictures on any one event and write a newspaper article. You could also conduct an imaginary interview with important personages such as Mirabeau, Olympe de Gouges or Robespierre. Work in groups of two or three. Each group could then put up their articles on a board to produce a wallpaper on the French Revolution.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Hope the data shared above regarding the NCERT Class 9 Social Science History Chapter 1 PDF has aided in your exam preparation. If you ever need any assistance you can always reach us and our team will guide you at the soonest possibility.

Understanding Diversity Class 6 Questions and Answers Provided helps you to answer complex Questions too easily. You can use them while preparing for board exams and all of them are given by subject experts. Reading NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Social Science Civics Chapter 1 Understanding Diversity familiarizes you with the kind of questions appearing in the board exams. Students are advised to read these solutions on a regular basis to score well.

Understanding Diversity Class 6 Questions and Answers Civics Chapter 1

Make your learning experience enjoyable by preparing from the quick links available on this page. Use the Class 6 SST Civics Chapter 1 NCERT Solutions and get to know different concepts involved. All the Solutions are covered as per the latest syllabus guidelines. Knowing the NCERT Class 6 Civics Chapter 1 Questions and Answers helps students to attempt the exam with confidence.

Class 6 Civics Chapter 1 NCERT Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Fill out the following information about yourself

1. When I go out I like wearing ____________________
2. At home I speak in _________________________
3. My favourite sport is ________________________
4. I like reading books about ______________________

Answer:

1. Pant and Shirt
2. Hindi
3. Football
4. SST

Question 2.
Name three ways in which Samir Ek and Samir Do were different? Did these differences prevent them from becoming friends?

Answer:
Samir Ek and Samir Do were different on the ground of:

1. Languages: Samir Ek is more familiar with English while Samir Do speaks Hindi.
2. Religion: Samir Ek is Hindu and Samir Do is Muslim.
3. Schooling: Samir Ek is a school going boy while Samir Do does not go to school.

Question 3.
Make a list of the festivals that might have been celebrated by the two boys. Can you think of a situation in which you made friends with someone who was very differ­ent from you? Write a story that describes this.

Answer:
The festivals celebrated by the Samir Ek are: Holi, Dipawali, Dussehra. The festivals celebrated by the Samir Do are: Eids, Muharram, Eid-Miladunnabi.

Yes. On the occasion of Eid my father invited some orphan boys and girls who were in an orphanage, situated nearby at my home. Their names were V. Thomas, Nikku, UrshaThapa etc. They were from Kerala, Assam, Himachal Pradesh respectively, They enjoyed of Sevaiyan, Dahi Bada, Mutter Chaat.

My father planned to play carrom board with them. We played with them for a long time and became familiar with them about their regional languages, food, tradition, culture etc. Thus, we became friends and we celebrated each occasion together.

Question 4.
Make a list of the food that you have eaten from different parts of India. Make a list of the languages besides your mother tongue that you can speak at least one or two words of.

Answer:
list of the food that I have eaten from different parts of India are:

1. Idly Dosa – Karnataka
2. Upma –
3. Coconut chatni – Kerala
4. Chhole Bhature – Chandigarh
5. Dal, Chapati, Rice – Lucknow
6. Mughlai Biryani – Hyderabad

List of the languages besides mother tongue which I can speak.
My mother tongue is Hindi. I can speak English, Bhojpuri and Urdu.

Question 5.
Imagine that you are a writer or an artist who lives in the place described above. Either write a story or draw a picture of your life here.
Do you think you would enjoy living in a place like this? List five different things that you would miss the most if you lived here.

Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 6.
List at least three different ways in which people in India do the following . One of the pos­sible answers has been provided for you already.

Answer:

Question 1.
Draw up a list of the different festivals celebrated in your locality. Which of these celebrations are shared by members of different regional and religious communities?

Answer:
Following festivals are celebrated in my locality and all are celebrated and shared by members of dif­ferent regional and religious communities.

Republic Day, Independence Day, Gandhi Jayanti, Holi, Diwali, Dussehra, Id-ul-fitr, Id-ul-Azha, Christmas, Guru Nanak Jayanti, Mahavir Jayanti, BudhPumima, Lohri, Bihu, Pongal, Onam etc. Republic Day, Independence Day, Gandhi Jayanti are the National Festivals which are celebrated with huge enthusiasm by all.

Question 2.
What do you think living in India with its rich heritage of diversity adds to your life?

Answer:
India is a country where the people are living with its rich heritage of diversity. India is a vast country in view of the population as well as in the area. The geographical conditions also differ from place to place. The livelihoods, living conditions depend on geographical areas where they live. Difference may be on the basis of language, colour, height, food habits, clothes, customs, religions, regions, interest, culture, practices etc.

Likewise, India is a country of much diversity in various aspects. We speak different languages, have various types of food, celebrate different festivals, and practice different religions. Also, we do many things that are similar. Inspite of various diversities, all Indians are tied together.

As far as our life is concerned, I and my family celebrate festivals, rituals, participate in the marriage parties, eat each other’s foods and wear dresses which are familiar in other cultures. In any manner, when we follow other customs, we feel good.

Question 3.
Do you think the term “unity in diversity” is an appropriate term to describe India? What do you think Nehru is trying to say about Indian unity in the sentence quoted above from his book ‘The Discovery of India⁵?

Answer:
Yes, I think “unity in diversity” is an appropriate term to describe India.

Pt. Nehru quoted in the book “The Discovery of India” that Indian unity is not something imposed from the outside but rather it was something deeper and within its fold the widest tolerance of belief and custom was practiced and every variety acknowledged and even encouraged.

I think Pt. Nehru wants to say that the unity in the Indian people is inherent and not imposed by anyone. They are one, respecting each other’s belief, values, faith, religions, traditions etc. When country is in need all come together and fight with the unity as it happened in the Indian Freedom Movement.

Question 4.
Underline the line in the poem sung after the Jallianwala Bagh massacre, which according to you, reflects India’s essential unity.

Answer:
All the lines and words of the poem sung after the Jallianwala Bagh massacre are full of unity. Al­though, we would underline the following lines:
O friend the blood of Hindus and Muslims flows together today

Question 5.
Choose another region in India and do a similar study of the historical and geographical factors that influence the diversity found there. Are these historical and geographical fac­tors connected to each other? How?

Answer:
Students can do it with the assistance of their teacher.

Hope the data shared above regarding the NCERT Class 6 Social Science Civics Chapter 1 Understanding Diversity PDF has aided in your exam preparation. If you ever need any assistance you can always reach us and our team will guide you at the soonest possibility.

India Size and Location Class 9 Questions and Answers Provided helps you to answer complex Questions too easily. You can use them while preparing for board exams and all of them are given by subject experts. Reading NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Geography Chapter 1 India Size and Location familiarizes you with the kind of questions appearing in the board exams. Students are advised to read these solutions on a regular basis to score well.

India Size and Location Class 9 Questions and Answers Geography Chapter 1

Make your learning experience enjoyable by preparing from the quick links available on this page. Use the Class 9 SST Geography Chapter 1 NCERT Solutions and get to know different concepts involved. All the Solutions are covered as per the latest syllabus guidelines. Knowing the NCERT Class 9 Geography Chapter 1 Questions and Answers helps students to attempt the exam with confidence.

India Size and Location NCERT Intext Questions and Answers

Lets’s Discuss, NCERT Textbook Page 2

Question 1.
(i) Why 82°30′ E has been selected as the Standard Meridian of India?
(ii) Why is the difference between the durations of day and night hardly felt at Kanyakumari but not so in Kashmir?
Answer:
(i) 82°30′ E has been selected as the Standard Meridian of India because India has a wide east- west extent making it difficult to select the longitudes at the eastern or western ends a Standard Meridian as this would lead to serious discrepancies between the time followed and the sun’s position in the sky. To avoid such difficulty and to have a uniform time across the country 80°32′ E has been selected as the Standard Meridian as it passes through the middle of India reducing such differences.

(ii) As equator receivers direct sunlight, the duration between day and night would hardly be felt at Kanyakumari, on the other hand, Kashmir is at 37°N latitude, which means that it is 37 degrees away from the equator or it is 37 degrees away from the area which receives direct sunlight.

Lets’s Discuss, NCERT Textbook Page 4
(i) The number of Union Territories along the western and eastern coast.
(ii) Area-wise which is the smallest and which is the largest state?
(iii) The states which do not have an international border or lie on the coast.
(iv) Classify the states into four groups each having common frontiers with
(a) Pakistan
(b) China
(c) Myanmar and
(d) Bangladesh
Answer:
(i)

• Union Territories on the western coast are four in number: Daman and Diu, Dadra and Nagar
  Haveli, Mahe (now Puducherry) and Lakshadweep.
• Union Territories on the eastern coast of India are two in number: Pondicherry (now Puducherry) and Andaman & Nicobar Islands.

(ii)

• Goa is the smallest state.
• Rajasthan is the largest state.

(iii) The states which do not have an international border or lie on the coast are: Haryana, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand.

(iv)

• States having common frontiers with Pakistan are: Jammu & Kashmir, Punjab, Rajasthan and Gujarat.
• States having common frontiers with Myanmar are: Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim and Arunchal Pradesh.
• States having common frontiers with Myanmar are: Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur and Mizoram.
• States having common frontiers with Bangladesh are: West Bengal, Meghalaya, Assam and Tripura.

Geography Class 9 Chapter 1 NCERT Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below:
(i) The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Orissa (Now Odisha)
(c) Chhattisgarh
(d) Tripura
Answer:
(b) Orissa (Now Odisha)

(ii) The eastern most longitude of India is
(a) 97°25’E
(b) 68°7′ E
(c) 77°6’E
(d) 82°32’E
Answer:
(a) 97°25’E

(iii) Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Sikkim have common frontiers with
(a) China
(b) Bhutan
(c) Nepal
(d) Myanmar
Answer:
(c) Nepal

(iv) If You intend to vistit Kavarati during your summer vacations, which one of the following Union Territories of India you will be going to?
(a) Puducherry
(b) Lakshadweep
(c) Andaman & Nicobar
(d) Diu and Daman
Answer:
(b) Lakshadweep

(v) My friend hails from a country which does not share land boundary with India. Identify the country.
(a) Bhutan
(b) Tajikistan
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Nepal
Answer:
(b) Tajikistan

Question 2.
Answer the following questions briefly.
(i) Name the group of islands lying in the Arabian Sea.
(ii) Name the countries which are larger than India.
(iii) Which island group of India lies to its south-east?
(iv) Which island countries are our southern neighbours?
Answer:
(i) Lakshadweep
(ii) Russia, Canada, USA, China, Brazil and Australia.
(iii) Andaman and Nicobar island group of India lies to its south-east.
(iv) Sri Lanka and Maldives are island countries and our southern neighbours.

Question 3.
The sun rises two hours earlier in Arunchal Pradesh as compared to Gujarat in the west but the watches show the same time. How does this happen?
Answer:
From Gujarat to Arunachal Pradesh there is a time lag of two hours. It means the sun rises two hours earlier in Arunachal Pradesh in the extreme east as compared to Gujarat in the extreme west. We know that the earth takes 4 minutes to rotate through 1° of longitude. So, the time taken by the earth to rotate through 15° longitude is 1 hour. Since India has a longitudinal extent of 30°, so there is a time difference of 2 hours between Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat. But the watches show the same time because they are set for all parts of the country according to he Indian Standard Time (1ST) measured at 822° longitudes.

Question 4.
The Central location of India at the head of the Indian Ocean is considered of great significance. Why?
Answer:
The central location of India at the head of the Indian ocean is considered of great significance because of the following reasons:
(i) The Trans Indian Ocean routes which connect the countries of Europe in the west and the countries of East Asia provide a strategic central location to India.

(ii) The Deccan peninsula protrudes into the Indian Ocean helps India to establish close contact with West Asia, Africa and Europe from the western coast and with southwest and East Asia from the eastern coast.

(iii) No other country has a long coastline on the Indian Ocean as India has. It is India‘s eminent position in the Indian ocean which justifies the naming of an ocean after it.

Map Skills

Question 1.
Identify the following with the help of map reading.
(i) The island groups of India in the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal.
(ii) The countries constituting Indian Subcontinent.
(iii) The states through which the Tropic of Cancer passes.
(iv) The northernmost latitude in degrees.
(v) The southernmost latitude of the Indian mainland in degrees.
(vi) The eastern and the western most longitude in degrees.
(vii) The place situated on the three seas.
(viii) The strait separating Sri Lanka from India.
(ix) The Union Territories of India.
Answer:
(i) The Andaman and Nicobar islands lie in the Bay of Bengal and the Lakshadweep islands lie in the Arabian Sea.
(ii) Pakistan, Maldives, Nepal, Bhutan, Sri Lanka and Bangladesh.
(iii) Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura and Mizoram.
(iv) 37°6’N
(v) 8°4’N
(vi) 68°7′ E and 97°25′ E
(vii) Kanyakumari
(viii) Palk Strait
(ix) Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Chandigarh, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Daman and Diu, Lakshadweep, Puducherry and Delhi.

Project/Activity
(i) Find out the longitudinal and latitudinal extent of your state.
(ii) Collect information about the ‘Silk Route’. Also find out the new developments, which are improving communication routes in the regions of high altitude.
Answer:
(i) Suppose my state is Uttar Pradesh. Its longitudinal and latitudinal extent are 11°A’ E to 84°39′ E and about 30°20′ N to about 23°53′ N respectively.
(ii)

• The Silk Route was an ancient network of trade routes that for centuries were central to cultural
  interaction through regions of the Asian continent connecting the east and west from China to the Mediterranean Sea.
• The Silk Route or road derives its name from the lucrative trade in Chinese silk carried out along its length, beginning during the Han dynasty.
• Trade on the Silk Route played a significant role in the development of the civilisations of China, the Indian subcontinent, Persia, Europe, the Horn of Africa and Arabia, opening the long-distance political and economic relations between the civilisations.

Hope the data shared above regarding the NCERT Class 9 Social Science Geography Chapter 1 India Size and Location PDF has aided in your exam preparation. If you ever need any assistance you can always reach us and our team will guide you at the soonest possibility.

Population Class 9 Questions and Answers Provided helps you to answer complex Questions too easily. You can use them while preparing for board exams and all of them are given by subject experts. Reading NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Geography Chapter 6 Population familiarizes you with the kind of questions appearing in the board exams. Students are advised to read these solutions on a regular basis to score well.

Population Class 9 Questions and Answers Geography Chapter 6

Make your learning experience enjoyable by preparing from the quick links available on this page. Use the Class 9 SST Geography Chapter 6 NCERT Solutions and get to know different concepts involved. All the Solutions are covered as per the latest syllabus guidelines. Knowing the NCERT Class 9 Geography Chapter 6 Questions and Answers helps students to attempt the exam with confidence.

Population NCERT Intext Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What could be the reasons of uneven distribution of population in India?
Answer:
The reasons of uneven distribution of population in India are:

• Topography
• Climate
• Basic facilities such as education, health, electricity, etc.
• Basic facilities such as education, health, electricity, etc.
• Employment opportunities
• Transport facilities.

Question 2.
Table 6.1 reveals that despite the decline in growth rates, the number of people being added every decade is steadily increasing. Why?

Answer:
The reason behind this is that facilities have been increased to live a comfortable life. Medical facilities have been improved. Prevention of infections diseases and application of modern medical practices in diagnosis and treatment of ailments have brought down the death rate.

India: Sex Ratio 1901-2011
Answer:
The reasons for sex ratio variations could be:
(i) Indian society is male dominant society. People in such a society prefer to have male children. They think female children as a burden and unwanted. This leads to female foeticide.

(ii) Literacy level in India is very low. Since people don’t have proper education, they start discriminat¬ing between male and female children.

Geography Class 9 Chapter 6 NCERT Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below:
(i) Migrations change the number, distribution and composition of the population in
(a) the area of departure
(b) the area of arrival
(c) both the area of departure and arrival
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) both the area of departure and arrival

(ii) A large proportion of children in a population is a result of
(a) high birth rates
(b) high life expectances
(c) high death rates
(d) more married couples
Answer:
(a) high birth rates

(iii) The magnitude of population growth refers to
(a) the total population of an area
(b) the number of persons added each year
(c) the rate at which the population increases
(d) the number of females per thousand males
Answer:
(a) the total population of an area

(iv) According to the census 2001, a ‘literate’ persons is one who
(a) can read and write his/her name
(b) can read and write any language
(c) is 7 years old and can read and write any language with understanding
(d) knows the 3‘R’s (readings, writing, arithmetic)
Answer:
(c) is 7 years old and can read and write any language with understanding

Question 2.
Answer the following questions briefly:
(i) Why is the rate of population growth in India declining since 1981?
Answer:
The rate of population growth in India is declining since 1981 as a result of greater use of birth control measures.

(ii) Discuss the major components of population growth.
Answer:
The major components of population growth are:

• Birth rate
• Death rate, and
• Migration

Question 3.
The difference between birth rate and death rate accounts for natural increase in population. Migration is the movement of people across regions and territories. Migration can be internal (within the country) or international (between the countries).
Answer:

Question 4.
What is the relation between occupational structure and development?
Answer:
Development is directly related to occupational structure of the population. Those countries are less developed where a higher percentage of population is engaged in primary activities which include agriculture, forestry, animal husbandry, fishing, etc. As development takes place more people tend to move into secondary occupations which includes manufacturing industry, building and construction work, etc. In highly developed countries like the USA, there is a high percentage of people involved in tertiary activities such as banking, transport, communications, etc.

Question 5.
What are the advantages of having a healthy population?
Answer:
The advantages of having a healthy populations are:

• The health of a person helps him to realise his potential and the ability to fight illness. An unhealthy person becomes a liability for an organisation.
• A healthy population plays an important role in the developmental activities of their nation.
• Absenteeism is low where people are healthy.
• Peace and prosperity prevail in the society if its inhabitants are healthy.

Question 6.
What are the significant features of the National Population Policy 2000?
Answer:
The National Population Policy 2000 provides a policy framework for:
(i) Imparting free and compulsory school education upto 14 years of age.
(ii) Reducing infant mortality rate to below 30 per 1000 live births.
(iii ) Achieving universal immunisation of children against all vaccine preventable diseases.
(iv) Promoting delayed marriage for girls.
(v) Making family welfare a people-centred programme.
(vi) Spreading awarness among adolescents about the risks of unprotected sex.
(vii) Making contraceptive services accessible and affordable.
(Viii) Providing food supplements, nutritional services.
(ix) Strengthening legal measures to prevent child marriage.

Project Activity

Question 1.
Conduct a class census by preparing a questionnaire. The questionnaire should contain minimum five questions. Questions should relate to students, their family members, their class performance, their health, etc. Each students is required to fill up the questionnaire. Compile the information in numerical terms (in terms of percentage). Present the information through pie-chart, bar-diagram or in any other way.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Hope the data shared above regarding the NCERT Class 9 Social Science Geography Chapter 6 Population PDF has aided in your exam preparation. If you ever need any assistance you can always reach us and our team will guide you at the soonest possibility.