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वचन-बोधनम् MCQ Questions with Answers Class 6 Sanskrit

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Sanskrit Grammar वचन-बोधनम् with Answers Pdf free download can refer to this page thoroughly. Because here we have compiled a list of MCQ Questions for Class 6 Sanskrit with Answers. So, Plan your Exam Preparation accordingly with the वचन-बोधनम् Class 6 MCQs Questions with Answers PDF. Also, you can practice and test your subject knowledge by solving these वचन-बोधनम् objective questions.

MCQ Questions for Class 6 Sanskrit Grammar वचन-बोधनम् with Answers

अधोलिखितेषु विकल्पेषु समुचितम् उत्तरं चित्वा लिखत (निम्नलिखित विकल्पों में से उचित उत्तर चुनकर लिखें।)
After choosing the proper answer among the following, rewrite it.

Question 1.
द्विवचनान्त पदम् लिखत।
(क) ते
(ख) सर्वे
(ग) छात्राः
(घ) सः।

Answer

Answer: (क) ते।


Question 2.
बहुवचनान्त पदम् लिखत।
(क) लते
(ख) सर्वाः
(ग) नारी
(घ) एका।

Answer

Answer: (ख) सर्वाः।


Question 3.
एकवचनान्त पदम् लिखत।
(क) कानि
(ख) द्वे
(ग) छात्रः
(घ) भवन्तः।

Answer

Answer: (ग) छात्रः।


Question 4.
एकवचनान्त पदम लिखत।
(क) काः
(ख) ते
(ग) फले
(घ) भवती।

Answer

Answer: (घ) भवती।


Question 5.
एकवचनान्त पदम् लिखत।
(क) का
(ख) भवत्यौ
(ग) लताः
(घ) अश्वाः।

Answer

Answer: (क) का।


Question 6.
द्विवचनान्त पदम् लिखत।
(क) तत्
(ख) माले
(ग) किम्
(घ) एते।

Answer

Answer: (ख) माले।


Question 7.
द्विवचनान्त पदम् लिखत।
(क) सर्वे
(ख) कानि
(ग) साधू
(घ) नदी।

Answer

Answer: (ग) साधू।


Question 8.
बहुवचनान्त पदम् लिखत।
(क) नारी
(ख) पत्रे
(ग) तो
(घ) सर्वाणि।

Answer

Answer: (घ) सर्वाणि।


Question 9.
बहुवचनान्त पदम् लिखत।
(क) एताः
(ख) सा
(ग) सः
(घ) फले।

Answer

Answer: (क) एताः।


Question 10.
बहुवचनान्तं पदं लिखत।
(क) पत्राणि
(ख) फलम्
(ग) लता
(घ) मृगः।

Answer

Answer: (क) पत्राणि।


Question 11.
बहुवचनान्तं पदं लिखत
(क) रामः
(ख) छात्राः
(ग) फलम्
(घ) पत्रे।

Answer

Answer: (ख) छात्राः।


Question 12.
एकवचनान्तं पदं लिखत।
(क) अजाः
(ख) अश्वौ
(ग) मृगः
(घ) सौ।

Answer

Answer: (ग) मृगः।


Question 13.
एकवचनान्तं पदं लिखत।
(क) मालाः
(ख) सर्वाणि
(ग) अश्वौ
(घ) पर्वतः।

Answer

Answer: (घ) पर्वतः।


Question 14.
द्विवचनान्तं पदं लिखत।
(क) नरौ
(ख) छात्राः
(ग) फलम्
(घ) पत्राणि।

Answer

Answer: (क) नरौ


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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Digestion and Absorption Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Digestion and Absorption Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Digestion and Absorption Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Biology Chapter 16 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Digestion and Absorption Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 16 Biology Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

I. Select the correct answer from the following questions:

Question 1.
Trypsin convert
(a) Fats into fatty acids
(b) Sucrose into glucose and fructose
(c) Proteins into peptones
(d) Starch and glycogen into maltose

Answer

Answer: (c) Proteins into peptones


Question 2.
Liver cells secrete
(a) Trypsin
(b) Bile and no enzyme
(c) Amvlopsin
(d) Lipase

Answer

Answer: (b) Bile and no enzyme


Question 3.
Bilirubin and biliverdin mainly occur in
(a) Blood
(b) Bile
(c) Pancreatic juice
(d) Saliva

Answer

Answer: (b) Bile


Question 4.
Milk protein is curdled into
(a) Rennin
(b) Maltase
(c) Trypsin
(d) Lactase

Answer

Answer: (a) Rennin


Question 5.
Amino acids are absorbed by
(a) Lacteals of villi
(b) wall of rectum
(c) Blood capillaries of villi
(d) Lacteals and blood capillaries of villi

Answer

Answer: (c) Blood capillaries of villi


Question 6.
Glycogen is stored in
(a) Liver only
(b) Liver and muscles
(c) Muscles only
(d) Pancreas

Answer

Answer: (b) Liver and muscles


Question 7.
Renin is found is
(a) Gastric juice in stomach
(b) Pancreatic juice
(c) Kidneys
(d) Liver

Answer

Answer: (a) Gastric juice in stomach


Question 8.
Digestion of fats, proteins and carbohydrates is completed in
(a) Large intestine
(b) small intestine
(c) stomach
(d) Liver

Answer

Answer: (b) Small intestine


Question 9.
Gastric juice contains
(a) Pepsin
(b) Rennin
(c) HCl
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 10.
Which of these is a group of end product of carbohydrate digestion?
(a) Galactose, glucose, maltose
(b) Sucrose, galactose, maltose
(c) Glucose, galactose, fructose
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Glucose, galactose, fructose


Question 11.
Human digestive juices lack
(a) Amylase
(b) Nucleases
(c) Cellulase
(d) Lactase

Answer

Answer: (c) Cellulase


Question 12.
In alimentary canal maximum absorption of water occurs in
(a) Rectum
(b) Stomach
(c) Small intestine
(d) Large intestine

Answer

Answer: (a) Rectum


Question 13.
Starch is hydrolysed by
(a) Lipase
(b) Pepsin
(c) Amylase
(d) Trypsin

Answer

Answer: (c) Amylase


Question 14.
Chief function of bile is
(a) Emulsfication of fat
(b) Regulation of digestion
(c) Elimination of waste products
(d) Digestion of fat through enzymes.

Answer

Answer: (a) Emulsfication of fat


Question 15.
Gastric juice contains
(a) Pepsin, lipase and rennin
(b) Pepsin, trypsin and rennin
(c) Pepsin only
(d) Pepsin, amylase and rennin

Answer

Answer: (a) Pepsin, lipase and rennin


Question 16.
Trypsin changes
(a) Protein to polypeptides
(b) Starch to sugar
(c) Fats to fatty acids and glycerol
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Protein to polypeptides


Question 17.
HCl of gastric juice is produced by
(a) Oxyntic cells
(b) Chief cells
(c) Columnar
(d) Goblet cells

Answer

Answer: (a) Oxyntic cells


Question 18.
Glycogen is formed from
(a) Lactic acid
(b) Amino acids
(c) Glucose
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 19.
The end product of carbohydrate digestion is
(a) Lactose
(b) Maltose
(c) Sucrose
(d) Glucose

Answer

Answer: (d) Glucose


Question 20.
teeth are used for cutting food.
(a) Incisors
(b) Canines
(c) Molar
(d) Premolar

Answer

Answer: (a) Incisors


Question 21.
The secretion that lubricates the alimentry canal
(a) Bile juice
(b) Pepsin
(c) Gastric juice
(d) Mucus

Answer

Answer: (d) Mucus


Question 22.
On chewing food became sweet since
(a) Food contains vitamin B
(b) Food contains sugar
(c) Salivary gland pour saliva
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Salivary gland pour saliva.


Question 23.
Largest gland of human body is
(a) Heart
(b) Pancreas
(c) Liver
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Liver


Question 24.
Large instestine is a muscular tube of about
(a) 1.5 m
(b) lm
(c) 2.5 m
(c) 2m

Answer

Answer: (a) 1.5 m


Question 25.
Arrangement of teeth in each half of the upper and lower jaw in the order I, C, PM, M is representd by a dental formula which in human is
(a) \(\frac { 3212 }{ 3212 }\)
(b) \(\frac { 2123 }{ 2123 }\)
(c) \(\frac { 2123 }{ 3212 }\)
(d) \(\frac { 2312 }{ 2321 }\)

Answer

Answer: (b) \(\frac { 2123 }{ 2123 }\)


II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
The major components of our food are …………, …………… and …………..

Answer

Answer: Carbohydrates, proteins, fat


Question 2.
Food provides energy and ……………. for growth and repair of tissues.

Answer

Answer: organic materials


Question 3.
……………. in food cannot be utilised by our body in their original form.

Answer

Answer: Bio macromolecules


Question 4.
Digestive system process of conversion of complex food substances to simple absorbale form is called …………….

Answer

Answer: digestion


Question 5.
An adult human has 32 permanent teeth which are of four different types, namely …………, …………., ………….. and ……………

Answer

Answer: incisors (I), Canine (C), Premolars (PM), molars (M)


Question 6.
The stomach, located in the upper left portion of the abdominal cavity, has ………… major parts.

Answer

Answer: three


Question 7.
The colon is divided into three parts …………….. and a descending part.

Answer

Answer: an ascending, a transverse


Question 8.
The wall of alimentary canal from oesophagus to rectum possess four layers namely serosa, …………, ………….. and ……………

Answer

Answer: muscularis, sub mucosa, mucosa


Question 9.
Villi are supplied with a network of capillaries and a large lymph vessel called the …………….

Answer

Answer: lacteal


Question 10.
All the four layers show …………….. in different parts of the alimentary canal.

Answer

Answer: modifications


Question 11.
…………. is the largest gland of the body weighing about ……………. in an adult human.

Answer

Answer: Liver, 1.2 to 1.5 kg


Question 12.
Each lobule is covered by a thin connective tissue sheath called the ………………

Answer

Answer: Glisson’s capsule


Question 13.
Mucus in saliva helps in lubricating and adhering the masticated food particles into ……………

Answer

Answer: a bolus


Question 14.
The bolus is then conveyed into the pharynx and then into the oesophagus by swallowing or …………….

Answer

Answer: deglutition


Question 15.
Variuos types of movement are generated by the …………….. of small intestine.

Answer

Answer: musularis layer


III. Mark the statements True (T) or False (F)

Question 1.
In diarrhoea the skin and the eyes turn yellow due to the deposit of bile pigments.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 2.
The abnormal frequency of bowel movement and increased liquidity of the faecal discharge is known as jaundice.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 3.
The causes of indigestion are inadequate enzyme secretion, anxiety, food poisoing, over eating and spicy food.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 4.
Absorption of substances take place in different parts of the alimentary canal, like mouth, stomach, small intestine and large intestine.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 5.
Fatty acids and glycerol being insoluble, cannot be absorbed into the blood.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 6.
Small amounts of monosaccharides like glucose, amino acids and some of electrolytes like chloride ions are generally absorbed by a simple diffusion.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 7.
The functions of small intestine are (i) absorption of some water, minerals and certain drugs (ii) secretion of mucus which help in adhering the waste (undigested) particles together and lubricating it for an easy passage.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 8.
Fats are broken down by lipases with the help of bile into di- and monoglycerides.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 9.
Nucleases in the pancreatic juice acts on nucleic acids to form nucleotides and nucleoides.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 10.
The secretions of the brush border cells of the mucosa along – with the secretions of the goblet cells constitute the intestinal juice or succus entericus.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 11.
The gastric juice contains inactive enzymes, trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, procarboxypeptidases, amylases, lipases and nucleases.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 12.
The food mixes thoroughly with the acidic gastric juice of the stomach by the churning movements of its muscular wall and the villi.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 13.
The gastro-oesophageal sphincter controls the passage of food into the stomach. The saliva secreted into the oral cavity contains electrolytes (Na+, K+, Cl, HCO) and enzymes, salivary amylase and lysozyme.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 14.
The pancreas is a compound elongated organ situated between the limbs of the ‘U’ shaped duodenum.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 15.
The bile secreted by the hepatic cells passes through the hepatic ducts and is stored and concentrated in a thin muscular sac called the gall bladder.

Answer

Answer: True


IV. Match the items in the two columns.

Column IColumn II
(a) Small intestine1. Elastic bag
(b) Pancreas2. Largest part of the food canal
(c) Duodenum3. Gland located in the band of duodenum
(d) Pharynx4. Narrow worm shaped projection
(e) Appendix5. Receives bile and pancreatic juice
(f) Colon6. Common passage for air breathed and the food swallowed
(g) Liver7. Largest gland in body
(h) Stomach8. Has three limbs ascending transverse and descending
(i) Parotid9. Bile juice
(g) HCl10. Small intestine
(k) Biliverdin and bilirubin11. Small intestine
(l) Villi and microvilli12. Dental formula in human
(m) abdominal cavity13. into the blood by this mechanism
(n) I, C, PM, M 2123/212314. Gastric juice
(o) Various nutrients like amino acids, monsacharides like glucose, electrolytes like Na+ are absorbed15. cardiac, fund, pyloric portions
Answer

Answer:

Column IColumn II
(a) Small intestine2. Largest part of the food canal
(b) Pancreas3. Gland located in the band of duodenum
(c) Duodenum5. Receives bile and pancreatic juice
(d) Pharynx6. Common passage for air breathed and the food swallowed
(e) Appendix4. Narrow worm shaped projection
(f) Colon8. Has three limbs ascending transverse and descending
(g) Liver7. Largest gland in body
(h) Stomach1. Elastic bag
(i) Parotid11. Small intestine
(g) HCl14. Gastric juice
(k) Biliverdin and bilirubin9. Bile juice
(l) Villi and microvilli10. Small intestine
(m) abdominal cavity15. cardiac, fund, pyloric portions
(n) I, C, PM, M 2123/212312. Dental formula in human
(o) Various nutrients like amino acids, monsacharides like glucose, electrolytes like Na+ are absorbed13. into the blood by this mechanism

Hope the information shared regarding the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption with Answers Pdf free download is true and genuine as far as our knowledge is concerned. If you feel any information regarding CBSE Class 11 Biology Digestion and Absorption MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers is missing do reach us and we will look into it and add it accordingly.

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MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 6 Tissues

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 6 Tissues with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Tissues Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Tissues Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Tissues Multiple Choice Questions of Class 9 Science Chapter 6 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Tissues Class 9 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 6 Science Class 9 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which tissue is present at the growing tips of stem and roots ?
(a) Permanent
(b) Meristematic
(c) Conductive
(d) Complex

Answer

Answer: (b) Meristematic


Question 2.
Blood is a type of:
(a) connective tissue
(b) muscular tissue
(c) nervous tissue
(d) epithelial tissue

Answer

Answer: (a) connective tissue


Question 3.
Brain is composed of:
(a) muscular tissue
(b) connective tissue
(c) nervous tissue
(d) epithelial tissue

Answer

Answer: (c) nervous tissue


Question 4.
The heart of organisms is made up of:
(a) muscular tissue
(b) connective tissue
(c) nervous tissue
(d) epithelial tissue

Answer

Answer: (a) muscular tissue


Question 5.
Skin of hand is composed of:
(a) muscular tissue
(b) connective tissue
(c) nervous tissue
(d) epithelial tissue

Answer

Answer: (d) epithelial tissue


Question 6.
Water and minerals are transported by:
(a) phloem
(b) cavities
(c) xylem
(d) all of them

Answer

Answer: (c) xylem


Question 7.
Stomata are found:
(a) in the epidermis of leaf
(b) in xylem
(c) in phloem
(d) collenchyma

Answer

Answer: (a) in the epidermis of leaf


Question 8.
Which muscles act involuntarily?
(i) Striated muscles
(ii) Smooth muscles
(iii) Cardiac muscles
(iv) Skeletal muscles
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: (b) (ii) and (iii)


Question 9.
Which is not a function of epidermis?
(a) Protection from adverse condition
(b) Gaseous exchange
(c) Conduction of water
(d) Transpiration

Answer

Answer: (c) Conduction of water


Question 10.
Cartilage is not found in:
(a) nose
(b) ear
(c) kidney
(d) larynx

Answer

Answer: (c) kidney


Fill in the Blanks.

Question 11.
_______ is a group of cells similar in structure and function.

Answer

Answer: Tissue


Question 12.
________ can be epithelial, connective, muscular and nervous tissue.

Answer

Answer: Animal tissues


Question 13.
________ is made of neurons that receive and conduct impulses.

Answer

Answer: Nervous tissue


Question 14.
The cells of permanent tissues do not ________

Answer

Answer: divide


Question 15.
When parenchyma contains chloroplast, then it is called _________

Answer

Answer: chlorenchyma


Question 16.
________ is the meristem at the base of the leaves or intemodes of stem.

Answer

Answer: Intercalary meristem


Question 17.
When many tissues join together, they form an _________

Answer

Answer: organ


Question 18.
Phloem ________ food from leaves to other parts of the plant.

Answer

Answer: transports


Question 19.
_______ transports the water and minerals absorbed by roots to the other parts of the plant.

Answer

Answer: Xylem


True/False.

Question 20.
Meristematic tissue is the dividing tissue present in the growing regions of the plant.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 21.
Blood and lymph are vascular connective tissue.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 22.
Heart muscles are voluntary muscles.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 23.
Cartilage is present in the nose and larynx.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 24.
Cork cambium is an example of lateral meristem.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 25.
Parenchyma with large air cavities are called aerenchyma.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 26.
Liginified thickened walls provide mechanical strength to the plant.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 27.
Heart muscles are connected with skeleton.

Answer

Answer: False


Match the Column.

Question 28.

AB
1. Connective tissue(i) Sclerenchyma
2. Nervous tissue(ii) Voluntary as well as involuntary muscles
3. Coir of coconut(iii) Involuntary muscles
4. Muscles of the heart(iv) Phloem
5. Eyelid(v) Neuron
(vi) Blood
Answer

Answer:

AB
1. Connective tissue(vi) Blood
2. Nervous tissue(v) Neuron
3. Coir of coconut(i) Sclerenchyma
4. Muscles of the heart(iii) Involuntary muscles
5. Eyelid(ii) Voluntary as well as involuntary muscles

Question 29.

AB
1. Fluid connective tissue(i) Subcutaneous layer
2. Filling of space inside the organs(ii) Cartilage
3. Striated muscle(iii) Skeletal muscle
4. Adipose tissue(iv) Areolar tissue
5. Surface of joints(v) Blood
6. Stratified squamous epithelium(vi) Skin
Answer

Answer:

AB
1. Fluid connective tissue(v) Blood
2. Filling of space inside the organs(iv) Areolar tissue
3. Striated muscle(iii) Skeletal muscle
4. Adipose tissue(i) Subcutaneous layer
5. Surface of joints(ii) Cartilage
6. Stratified squamous epithelium(vi) Skin

Answer in one Word/Sentence.

Question 30.
Which gas is required in photosynthesis?

Answer

Answer: Carbon dioxide (CO2)


Question 31.
Which tissue makes up the coir of coconut?

Answer

Answer: Sclerenchyma


Question 32.
Which connective tissue fills the space inside the organs?

Answer

Answer: Areolar connective tissue


Hope the information shared regarding the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 6 Tissues with Answers Pdf free download is true and genuine as far as our knowledge is concerned. If you feel any information regarding CBSE Class 9 Science Tissues MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers is missing do reach us and we will look into it and add it accordingly.

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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 Reproductive Health with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 Reproductive Health with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Reproductive Health Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Reproductive Health Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Reproductive Health Multiple Choice Questions of Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Reproductive Health Class 12 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 4 Biology Class 12 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Select the correct answer:

Question 1.
The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum in assisted reproductive technology is called :
(a) GIFT
(b) ZIFT
(c) ICSI
(d) ET

Answer

Answer: (c) ICSI


Question 2.
Increased IMR and decreased MMR in a population will:
(a) Cause rapid increase in growth rate
(b) Result in decline in growth rate
(c) Not cause significant change in growth rate
(d) Result in an explosive population.

Answer

Answer: (c) Not cause significant change in growth rate


Question 3.
Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive due to the :
(a) Suppression of gonadotropins
(b) Hyper secretion of gonadotropins
(c) Suppression of gametic transport
(d) Suppression of fertilisation.

Answer

Answer: (a) Suppression of gonadotropins


Question 4.
Sterilisation techniques are generally foolproof methods of contraception with least side effects. Yet, this is the last option for the couples because :
(i) It is almost irreversible
(ii) Of the misconception that it will reduce sexual urge/drive
(iii) It is a surgical procedure
(iv) Of lack of sufficient facilities in many parts of the country Choose the correct option :
(a) i and iii
(b) ii and iii
(c) ii and iv
(d) i, ii, iii and iv

Answer

Answer: (d) i, ii, iii and iv


Question 5.
A national level approach to build up a reproductively healthy society was taken up in our country in :
(a) 1950s
(b) 1960s
(c) 1980s
(d) 1990s.

Answer

Answer: (a) 1950s


Question 6.
Emergency contraceptives are effective if used within:
(a) 72 hrs of coitus
(b) 72 hrs of ovulation
(c) 72 hrs of menstruation
(d) 72 hrs of implantation

Answer

Answer: (a) 72 hrs of coitus


Question 7.
Choose the right one among the statements given below:
(a) lUDs are generally inserted by the user herself
(b) lUDs increase phagocytosis reaction in the uterus
(c) lUDs suppress gametogenesis
(d) lUDs once inserted need not be replaced.

Answer

Answer: (b) lUDs increase phagocytosis reaction in the uterus


Question 8.
The following statements are given regarding MTP. Choose the correct options given below:
(i) MTPs are generally advised during first trimester
(ii) MTPs are used as a contraceptive method
(iii) MTPs are always surgical
(iv) MTPs require the assistance of qualified medical personnel
(a) i and iii
(b) ii and iii
(c) i and iv
(d) i and ii

Answer

Answer: (c) i and iv


Question 9.
From the sexually transmitted diseases mentioned below, identify the one which does not specifically affect the sex organs:
(a) Syphilis
(b) AIDS
(c) Gonorrhoea
(d) Genital warts

Answer

Answer: (b) AIDS


Question 10.
Condoms are one of the most popular contraceptives because of the following reasons:
(a) These are effective barriers for insemination
(b) They do not interfere with coital act
(c) These help in reducing the risk of STDs
(d) All of the above.

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above.


Question 11.
Choose the correct statement regarding the ZIFT procedure :
(a) Ova collected from a female donor are transferred to the fallopian tube to facilitate zygote formation
(b) Zygote is collected from a female donor and transferred to the fallopian tube
(c) Zygote is collected from a female donor and transferred to the uterus
(d) Ova collected from a female donor and transferred to the uterus

Answer

Answer: (b) Zygote is collected from a female donor and transferred to the fallopian tube


Question 12.
The correct surgical procedure as a contraceptive method is:
(a) Ovariectomy
(b) Hysterectomy
(c) Vasectomy
(d) Castration.

Answer

Answer: (c) Vasectomy


Question 13.
Diaphragms are contraceptive devices used by females. Choose the correct option from the statements given below :
(i) They are introduced into the uterus
(ii) They are placed to cover the cervical region
(iii) They act as physical barriers for sperm entry
(iv) They act as spermicidal agents
(a) i and ii
(b) i and iii
(c) i, ii and iii
(d) iii and iv

Answer

Answer: (c) i, ii and iii


Question 14.
A procedure that finds use in testing for genetic disorders, but is also misused for female foeticide is:
(a) Lactational amenorrhea
(b) Amniocentesis
(c) Artificial insemination
(d) Parturition

Answer

Answer: (b) Amniocentesis


Assertion and Reason Type Questions

These questions consist of two statements each, printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
Question 15.
Assertion: The annual growth rate of Indian population has declined from 2.22% in 1981 to 1.8% in 2001.
Reason: More and more Indians are adopting family planning measures.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.


Question 16.
Assertion: Potential natality is never realised.
Reason: Biotic potential is resisted by environmental resistance.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.


Question 17.
Assertion: Overpopulation causes a number of socio-economic problems.
Reason: A number of diseases have been controlled.

Answer

Answer: (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.


Question 18.
Assertion: Test-tube baby has raised several legal problems.
Reason: Test-tube baby involves in vitro fertilisation followed by embryo transfer.

Answer

Answer: (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.


Question 19.
Assertion: Nowadays, there are less childless couples.
Reason: A number of measures are now available by which even infertile couples can have child.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.


Question 20.
Assertion: Copper-T is an effective contraceptive device in human females.
Reason: Copper-T prevents passage of sperms from vagina upwards into fallopian tubes.

Answer

Answer: (c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.


Question 21.
Assertion: Sex education in schools is necessary.
Reason: Sex education may eliminate certain myths and conceptions among students.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.


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MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 7 Diversity in Living Organisms

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 7 Diversity in Living Organisms with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Diversity in Living Organisms Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Diversity in Living Organisms Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Diversity in Living Organisms Multiple Choice Questions of Class 9 Science Chapter 7 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Diversity in Living Organisms Class 9 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 7 Science Class 9 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Mammals are:
(a) warm-blooded
(b) cold-blooded
(c) both
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (a) warm-blooded


Question 2.
Reptiles are:
(a) warm-blooded
(b) cold-blooded
(c) both
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (b) cold-blooded


Question 3.
The book ‘Systema Naturae’ was written by:
(a) Carolus Linnaeus
(b) Whittaker
(c) Haeckel
(d) None of them

Answer

Answer: (a) Carolus Linnaeus


Question 4.
How many research papers of Carolus Linnaeus were published on classification?
(a) 12
(b) 13
(c) 14
(d) 16

Answer

Answer: (c) 14


Question 5.
Which among the following produce seeds?
(a) Thallophyta
(b) Bryophyta
(c) Pteridophyta
(d) Gymnosperms

Answer

Answer: (d) Gymnosperms


Question 6.
Who proposed the nomenclature system of living organisms first of all?
(a) Robert Hooke
(b) Carolus Linnaeus
(c) Leeuwenhoek
(d) Schleiden

Answer

Answer: (b) Carolus Linnaeus


Question 7.
Who is considered the father of taxonomy?
(a) Carolus Linnaeus
(b) Robert Hooke
(c) Leeuwenhoek
(d) Schleiden

Answer

Answer: (a) Carolus Linnaeus


Question 8.
Which one is a true fish?
(a) Jellyfish
(b) Starfish
(c) Dogfish
(d) Silverfish

Answer

Answer: (c) Dogfish


Question 9.
Which among the following have an open circulatory system?
(i) Arthropoda
(ii) Mollusca
(iii) Annelida
(iv) Coelenterata
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: (a) (i) and (ii)


Question 10.
Gymnosperms are kept under:
(a) Algae
(b) Bryophyta
(c) Tracheophyta
(d) None of them

Answer

Answer: (c) Tracheophyta


Question 11.
Which among the following have scales?
(i) Amphibians
(ii) Pisces
(iii) Reptiles
(iv) Mammals
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i) and (ii)

Answer

Answer: (c) (ii) and (iii)


Question 12.
The amphibian animal is:
(a) Fish
(b) Frog
(c) Lizard
(d) Bat

Answer

Answer: (b) Frog


Question 13.
Identify a member of Porifera:
(a) Spongilla
(b) Euglena
(c) Penicillium
(d) Hydra

Answer

Answer: (a) Spongilla


Question 14.
Two chambered heart occurs in:
(a) crocodiles
(b) fish
(c) aves
(d) amphibians

Answer

Answer: (b) fish


Fill in the Blanks.

Question 15.
In Amoeba, locomotory organs are _________

Answer

Answer: pseudopodia


Question 16.
Locomotory organs of Euglena are __________

Answer

Answer: flagella


Question 17.
Locomotory organs are not found in ______ types of protozoa.

Answer

Answer: sporozoan


Question 18.
Locomotory organs of paramoecium are _________

Answer

Answer: cilia


True/False.

Question 19.
Charles Darwin first described the idea of natural selection in 1859 in his book, “The origin of species.”

Answer

Answer: True


Question 20.
Whittaker proposed a five kingdom classification.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 21.
Tropical regions of the earth, between the tropic of cancer and the tropic of Capricorn, are rich in diversity of plants and animals.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 22.
An earthworm is a unisexual animal.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 23.
Monera is divided into Archaebacteria and Eubacteria.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 24.
Blue-green algae belong to the kingdom Protista.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 25.
Starting from class, species come before the Genus.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 26.
All prokaryotes are classified under Monera.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 27.
The cockroach is an example of class Insecta.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 28.
Whale fish is not a mammal.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 29.
The word Porifera means animals with holes.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 30.
Molluscans have an open circulatory system and kidney like organs for excretion.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 31.
Kangaroos give birth to underdeveloped young ones which are nurtured in a bag attached to their abdomen.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 32.
In binomial nomenclature, the first name represents the species, and the second represents the genus.

Answer

Answer: False


Match the Column.

Question 33.

AB
1. Naked seed(i) Angiosperms
2. Covered seed(ii) Gymnosperms
3. Flagella(iii) Bryophytes
4. Marchantia(iv) Euglena
5. Marsilea(v) Thallophyta
6. Cladophora(vi) Pteridophyta
7. Penicillium(vii) Fungi
Answer

Answer:

AB
1. Naked seed(ii) Gymnosperms
2. Covered seed(i) Angiosperms
3. Flagella(iv) Euglena
4. Marchantia(iii) Bryophytes
5. Marsilea(vi) Pteridophyta
6. Cladophora(v) Thallophyta
7. Penicillium(vii) Fungi

Question 34.

AB
1. Kingdom Monera(i) Rhizopus
2. Kingdom Protista(ii) Earthworm
3. Kingdom Plantae(iii) Amoeba
4. Kingdom Fungi(iv) Bacteria
5. Kingdom Animalia(v) Algae
Answer

Answer:

AB
1. Kingdom Monera(iv) Bacteria
2. Kingdom Protista(iii) Amoeba
3. Kingdom Plantae(v) Algae
4. Kingdom Fungi(i) Rhizopus
5. Kingdom Animalia(ii) Earthworm

Answer in one Word/Sentence.

Question 35.
What is the basic unit of classification?

Answer

Answer: Species


Question 36.
In which kingdom will you place an organism which is single-celled, eukaryotic, and photosynthetic?

Answer

Answer: In Protista


Question 37.
Write the scientific name of a human being.

Answer

Answer: Homo sapiens


Question 38.
Who gave the 5-kingdom classification?

Answer

Answer: R. Whittaker


Question 39.
The ‘Origin of Species’ is written by:

Answer

Answer: Charles Darwin


Question 40.
Name the locomotory organs of starfish.

Answer

Answer: Tube feet


Question 41.
Which is the largest group of animals?

Answer

Answer: Arthropoda


Question 42.
How many chambers are there in heart of aves?

Answer

Answer: Four


Question 43.
Who is the father of Binomial Nomenclature?
or
Who is the father of Taxonomy?

Answer

Answer: Carolus Linnaeus


Question 44.
How many chambers are there in the crocodile’s heart?

Answer

Answer: Four Chambers


Question 45.
In which animal does locomotion occur by pseudopodia?

Answer

Answer: Amoeba


Question 46.
How many chambers are there in the reptile’s heart?

Answer

Answer: Three chambers (Incompletely four chambers)


Question 47.
Give the name of the locomotory organ of Euglena.

Answer

Answer: Flagella


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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Breathing and Exchange of Gases Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Breathing and Exchange of Gases Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Breathing and Exchange of Gases Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Biology Chapter 17 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Breathing and Exchange of Gases Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 17 Biology Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

I. Select the correct answers from the following questions:

Question 1.
Which of the following is not a step in the process of respiration?
(a) Breathing
(b) Diffusion of oxygen from blood to tissues
(c) Production of energy
(d) Diffusion of oxygen from tissues to blood

Answer

Answer: (a) Breathing


Question 2.
The atmosphere contains CO2 by volume
(a) 0.1%
(b) 0.5%
(c) 0.03%
(d) 0.3%

Answer

Answer: (c) 0.03%


Question 3.
Sudden deep inspiration is due to
(a) Increase in concentration of O2
(b) Increase in concentration of CO2
(c) Decrease in concentration of CO2
(d) Decrease in concentration of CO2

Answer

Answer: (b) Increase in concentration of CO2


Question 4.
A man respires about
(a) 40 times per minute
(b) 72 times per minute
(c) 12-16 times per minute
(d) 100 times per minute

Answer

Answer: (c) 12-16 times per minute


Question 5.
In which form CO2 is carried in blood
(a) Sodium bicarbonate
(b) Sodium carbonate
(c) Potassium bicarbonate
(d) Potassium carbonate

Answer

Answer: (d) Potassium carbonate


Question 6.
In man, gas exchange between the environment and the body takes place in
(a) Bronchi
(b) Larynx
(c) Alveoli
(d) Trachea

Answer

Answer: (c) Alveoli


Question 7.
Inspiration would not occur if the
(a) Diaphragm is elevated
(b) Diaphragm is lowered
(c) Ribs are elevated
(d) Ribs are elevated and diaphragm is lowered

Answer

Answer: (a) Diaphragm is elevated


Question 8.
Which one of the following does not contribute to the breathing movement in mammals?
(a) Abdominal muscles
(b) Larynx
(c) Ribs
(d) Diaphragm

Answer

Answer: (c) Ribs


Question 9.
Breathing centre that controls normal breathing in mammals lies in
(a) Mid brain
(b) Cerebellum
(c) Cerebrum
(d) Medulla oblongata

Answer

Answer: (a) Mid brain


Question 10.
If a person stays on hill for some days:
(a) His body will step up production of RBCs
(b) His body will step down production of RBCs
(c) His RBCs will turn into very large cells
(d) No change in the contents of RBCs in the body

Answer

Answer: (a) His body will step up production of RBCs


Question 11.
The largest quantity of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiratory effort is
(a) Tidal volume
(b) Vital capacity of lungs
(c) Lung volume
(d) Residual volume

Answer

Answer: (c) Lung volume


Question 12.
Which of the following facts suggests that O2 is transported from lungs to the tissues combined with haemoglobin rather than dissolved in blood plasma:
(a) Oxyhaemoglobin can dissociate into haemoglobin and O2
(b) An increase in CO2 concentration decreases the O2 affinity of haemoglobin
(c) Haehaemoglobin can combine with O2
(d) O2 carrying capacity of whole blood is higher than that of plasmsa and O2 content of blood leaving the lungs is greater than that of blood entering the lungs.

Answer

Answer: (d) O2 carrying capacity of whole blood is higher than that of plasma and O2 content of blood leaving the lungs is greater than that of blood entering the lungs.


Question 13.
If a man from sea coast of Mumbai goes to Mount Everest:
(a) His breathing rate and heart beat will increase
(b) His breathing rate and heart beat will decrease
(c) His breathing rate will increase, but heart beat will decrease
(d) His breathing rate will decrease, but heart beat will increase.

Answer

Answer: (a) His breathing rate and heart beat will increase


Question 14.
Body tissues obtain oxygen from oxyhaemoglobin because of its dissociation caused by
(a) Low CO2 concentration
(b) Low O2 and high CO3 concentration
(c) High CO2 concentration
(d) Low oxygen concentration

Answer

Answer: (b) Low O2 and high CO2 concentration


Question 15.
Lungs are covered by
(a) Perichondrium
(b) Pleura
(c) Periosteum
(d) Pericardium

Answer

Answer: (d) Pericardium


Question 16.
Tidal air is
(a) Total air taken into lungs
(b) Air that comes in and goes out in normal breathing
(c) Air inhaled in deep breathing
(d) Air expelled forcibly after normal inspiration

Answer

Answer: (b) Air that comes in and goes out in normal breathing


Question 17.
Lung lobes of human being are
(a) 2 left and 3 right
(b) 3 in each
(c) 2 in each
(d) 3 left and 2 right

Answer

Answer: (a) 2 left and 3 right


Question 18.
Body cavity is divided into thoracic
(a) Heart
(b) Liver
(c) Lungs
(d) Diaphragm

Answer

Answer: (d) Diaphragm


Question 19.
Breathing becomes faster in fever because
(a) Fever stimulates the respiratory centre of the man
(b) Oxygen carrying capacity of blood becomes lower
(c) Oxygen is used in fighting germs
(d) Increase in temperature increases metabolic rate requiring more oxygen

Answer

Answer: (d) Increase in temperature increases metabolic rate requiring more oxygen


Question 20.
Excess of water absorbed by human being is passed out in urine. Other sources is
(a) Inspiration
(b) Expiration
(c) Defaecation
(d) Salivation

Answer

Answer: (b) Expiration


Question 21.
Exchange of gases between the blood and the tissue of the body is called
(a) Internal respiration
(b) Cellular respiration
(c) External respiration
(d) Counter current exchange

Answer

Answer: (a) Internal respiration


Question 22.
Respiration involves in which following step:
(a) Transport of gases by the blood
(b) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between the blood and the tissues
(c) Diffusion of gases (O2 and CO2) across alveolar membrane.
(d) All of these functions.

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these functions.


II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
This process of exchange exchange of O2 from the atmosphere with CO2 produced by the cells is called …………… commonly known as …………….

Answer

Answer: breathing, respiration


Question 2.
…………… use their moist cuticle for respiration.

Answer

Answer: Earthworms


Question 3.
Among vertebrates, fishes respire through gills wheres ………….. and ………….. and ……………. use …………….

Answer

Answer: reptiles, birds, mammals, lungs


Question 4.
…………… like …………… can respire through their moist skin also.

Answer

Answer: Nasopharynsx, frogs


Question 5.
The nasal chamber opens into …………… which is a portion of pharyax, the common passage for ………….. and …………..

Answer

Answer: nasopharynx, food, air


Question 6.
Nasopharynx opens through glottis of the larynx region into the ……………..

Answer

Answer: trachea


Question 7.
The lungs are situated in the thoracic chamber which is anatomically an ………………

Answer

Answer: air-tight chamber


Question 8.
Breathing involves two stages: ……………… during which atmospheric air is drawn in and ……………. by which the alveolar air is released out.

Answer

Answer: inspiration, expiration


Question 9.
On an average, a healthy human respires …………….. times/minute.

Answer

Answer: 12-16


Question 10.
Total ……………. of air a person can inspire after a normal …………….

Answer

Answer: Volume, expiration


Question 11.
Volume of air that will remain in the ………… after a normal expiration. This includes ……………

Answer

Answer: lungs, ERV+RV


Question 12.
………….. and ……………. are exchanged in these sites by simple diffusion mainly based on pressure/concentration gradient.

Answer

Answer: O2, CO2


Question 13.
All the factors in our body are favourable for diffusion of ……………. from alveoli to tissues and that of …………… from tissues to alveoli.

Answer

Answer: O2, CO2


Question 14.
About ………….. of CO2 is carried in a dissolved state through ………….

Answer

Answer: 7 percent, plasma


Question 15.
O2 can bind with haemoglobin in a reversible manner to form ……………….

Answer

Answer: oxvhaemoglobin


III. Mark the statment True (T) or False (F)

Question 1.
Each haemoglobin molecule can carry a maximum of four molecules of O2.

Answer

Answer: True.


Question 2.
O2 is carried by haemoglobin as carbamino-haemoglobin (about 25-20 percent).

Answer

Answer: False.


Question 3.
Every 10 mL of oxygenated blood can deliver around 10 ml of O2 to the tissues under normal physiological conditions.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 4.
In the alveoli, where there is low pO2, high pCO2, higher H+ concentration and lesser temperature.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 5.
Every 100mL of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately 4 ml of CO2 to the alveoli.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 6.
The role of oxygen in the regulation of respiratory rhythm is quite insignificant.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 7.
Asthma is a difficulty in breathing causing wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 8.
In certain industries, especially those involving grinding or stone¬breaking, so much dust is produced that the defence mechanism of the body cannot fully cope with.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 9.
Emphysema is a chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are damaged due to which respiratory surface is decreased. One of the major causes of this is cigarette smoking.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 10.
The first step in respiration is breathing by which atmospheric air is taken in and the alveolar air is released out.

Answer

Answer: True.


Question 11.
It is approx 800 ml., i.e., a healthy man can inspire or expire approximately 2000 to 8000 ml of air per minute.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 12.
Volume of air remaining in the lungs even after a forcible expiration. This averages-100 mL to 200 mL.

Answer

Answer: False


IV. Match the items in column I with Column II

Column IColumn II
(a) Tidal volume1. averages 1000 ml to 1100 ml
(b) RV2. averages 2500 ml to 3000 ml
(c) ERV3. TV + IRV
(d) Inspiratory capacity4. approximately 6000 to 8000 ml of air per minute
(e) IRV5. averages 1100 ml to 1200 ml
(f) EC6. pO2 for oxygen and pCO2 for carbon dioxide
(g) FRC7. transported by RBC whereas 70 percent of it is carried as bicarbonate.
(h) Vital capacity8. TV + ERV
(i) Total lung Capacity9. transported by RBCs in the blood.
(j) Partial pressure10. for respiration
(k) About 97 percent of O2 is11. called lungs
(l) Nearly, 20-25 percent of CO2 is12. ERV + RV
(m) Gills13. This includes RV, ERV, TV and IRV
(n) Vascularised bags14. This includes ERV, TV and IRV
(o) Larynx is a cartilaginous box15. Sound box
Answer

Answer:

Column IColumn II
(a) Tidal volume4. approximately 6000 to 8000 ml of air per minute
(b) RV5. averages 1100 ml to 1200 ml
(c) ERV1. averages 1000 ml to 1100 ml
(d) Inspiratory capacity3. TV + IRV
(e) IRV2. averages 2500 ml to 3000 ml
(f) EC8. TV + ERV
(g) FRC12. ERV + RV
(h) Vital capacity14. This includes ERV, TV and IRV
(i) Total lung Capacity13. This includes RV, ERV, TV and IRV
(j) Partial pressure6. pO2 for oxygen and pCO2 for carbon dioxide
(k) About 97 percent of O2 is9. transported by RBCs in the blood.
(l) Nearly, 20-25 percent of CO2 is7. transported by RBC whereas 70 percent of it is carried as bicarbonate.
(m) Gills10. for respiration
(n) Vascularised bags11. called lungs
(o) Larynx is a cartilaginous box15. Sound box

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