Author name: Prasanna

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Body Fluids and Circulation Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Body Fluids and Circulation Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Body Fluids and Circulation Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Biology Chapter 18 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Body Fluids and Circulation Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 18 Biology Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

I. Select the correct answer from the following questions:

Question 1.
Heart is incompletely 4 chambered in
(a) Amphibian
(b) Birds
(c) Fishes
(d) Reptiles

Answer

Answer: (d) Reptiles

---

Question 2.
Blood will lose maximum O₂ while passing through
(a) Left atrium
(b) Arteries
(c) Tissue capillaries
(d) Alvelor capillaries

Answer

Answer: (c) Tissue capillaries

---

Question 3.
Ventricular systole is stimulated by
(a) S-A node
(b) A-V aperture
(c) A-V node
(d) A-V valve

Answer

Answer: (c) A-V node

---

Question 4.
Lymph lacks
(a) Erythrocytes
(b) Plasma proteins
(c) Platelets
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

---

Question 5.
The sound dupp in heart is produced by
(a) Closure of semilunar valves
(b) Closure of A-V valves
(c) Opening of A-V Valves
(d) Opening of semilunar valves

Answer

Answer: (a) Closure of semilunar valves

---

Question 6.
Heart beat initiates from
(a) Bundle of his
(b) Purkinje fibres
(c) Sinuauricular node
(d) Auriculoventricular node

Answer

Answer: (c) Sinuauricular node

---

Question 7.
Pulmonary vein carries
(a) Pure blood from heart
(b) Impure blood from lungs
(c) Pure blood from lungs
(d) Impure blood from heart

Answer

Answer: (c) Pure blood from lungs

---

Question 8.
Blood and lymph differ in
(a) Blood has cells while lymph is without cells
(b) Blood has RBCs which are absent in lymph
(c) Blood has several inorganic substances which are absent in lymph
(d) Blood has WBCs which are absent in lymph

Answer

Answer: (b) Blood has RBCs which are absent in lymph

---

Question 9.
Blood platelets are source of
(a) Calcium
(b) Fibrinogen
(c) Haemoglobin
(d) Thrombolastin

Answer

Answer: (d) Thromboplastin

---

Question 10.
Pacemaker of the heart is
(a) A-V node
(b) I-A septum
(c) S-A node
(d) A-V septum

Answer

Answer: (c) S-A node

---

Question 11.
Valves are found in veins to check the back flow of the blood, flowing under
(a) Low pressure
(b) High pressure
(c) Very high pressure
(d) No pressure

Answer

Answer: (a) Low pressure

---

Question 12.
The vessel carrying blood to Bowman’s capsule is
(a) Efferent arteriole
(b) Afferent arteriole
(c) Pulmonary vein
(d) Renal vein

Answer

Answer: (b) Afferent arteriole

---

Question 13.
Thrombin occurs in vertebrates in
(a) Blood and important for clotting
(b) Liver and initiates secretion
(c) Stomach and digests proteins
(d) Blood and imparts red colour

Answer

Answer: (a) Blood and important for clotting

---

Question 14.
The blood pressure is measured by the instrument
(a) Stethoscope
(b) Echocariograph
(c) Sphymomanometer
(d) Electrocardiograph

Answer

Answer: (c) Sphymonanometer

---

Question 15.
Which of the following carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart
(a) Pulmonary veins
(b) Renal vein
(c) Hepatic vein
(d) Jugular vein

Answer

Answer: (a) Pulmonary veins

---

Question 16.
A pacemaker is meant for
(a) Transplanting heart
(b) Transplanting liver
(c) Regulation of blood flow
(d) Initiation of heart beats

Answer

Answer: (d) Initiation of heart beats

---

Question 17.
In which animal haemoglobin is dissolved
(a) Earthworm
(b) Frog
(c) Cockroach
(d) Rabbit

Answer

Answer: (a) Earthworm

---

Question 18.
Blood circulation was first discovered by
(a) His
(b) Darwin
(c) Lansteiner
(d) Harvey

Answer

Answer: (d) Harvey

---

Question 19.
Average heart beat/pulse rate in adult human being is
(a) 80/ minute
(b) 72/minute
(c) 100/minute
(d) 60/minute

Answer

Answer: (b) 72/minute

---

Question 20.
Normal blood pressure in an adult human beings is
(a) 200/110
(b) 120/80
(c) 100/60
(d) 150/100

Answer

Answer: (b) 120/80

---

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
…………. is the most commonly used body fluid by most of the higher organisms including ………… for this purpose.

Answer

Answer: Blood, humans

---

Question 2.
Another body fluid, …………. also helps in the transport of certain substances.

Answer

Answer: lumph

---

Question 3.
Blood is a special connective tissue consisting of a fluid matrix, …………. and formed elements.

Answer

Answer: plasma

---

Question 4.
…………., …………. and …………. are the major proteins.

Answer

Answer: Fibrinogen, globulins, albumins

---

Question 5.
Plasma is a ………… coloured, viscous fluid constituting nearly …………. percent of the blood.

Answer

Answer: straw, 55

---

Question 6.
Plasma also contains small amount of minerals like ……………….. etc.

Answer

Answer: Ca⁺⁺, Mg⁺⁺, HCO₃^– Cl^–

---

Question 7.
RBCs are formed in the …………… in the adults.

Answer

Answer: red bone marrow

---

Question 8.
A healthy individual has ………….. gms of haemoglobin in every 100 ml of blood.

Answer

Answer: 12-16

---

Question 9.
………….. are also known as white blood cells.

Answer

Answer: Leucocytes

---

Question 10.
Both ………….. are responsible for immune responses of the body.

Answer

Answer: B and T lymphocytes

---

Question 11.
Platelets also called …………… are cell fragments produced from ……………. (special cells in the bone marrow).

Answer

Answer: thrombocytes, megakryocytes

---

Question 12.
The distribution of antigens and antibodies in the four groups of blood. ………….., ……….., ………. and …………. are given

Answer

Answer: A, B, AB, O

---

Question 13.
Such individuals are called ……………. and those in whom this antigen is absent are called ……………

Answer

Answer: Rh positive (Rh+ve), Rh negative (Rh-ve)

---

Question 14.
A specialised cardiac musculature called the ……………. is also distributed in the heart.

Answer

Answer: nodal tissue

---

Question 15.
These branches give rise to minute fibres throughout the ventricular musculature of the respective sides and are called ……………

Answer

Answer: purkinje fibres

---

III. Mark the statements True (T) or False (F):

Question 1.
The SAN can generate maximum number of action potentials i.e., 70-75 per minute and is responsible for initiating and maintaining the rhythmic contractile activity of the heart. Therefore, it is called the pacemaker.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 2.
Ventricular systole increases the ventricular pressure causing the closure of tricuspid and bicuspid valves due to attempted backflow of blood into the atria.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 3.
Our heart normally beats 50-60 times in a minute.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 4.
During a cardiac cycle, each ventricle pumps out approximately 70 ml of blood which is called the stroke volume

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 5.
The cardiac output of an athlete will be much higher than that of an ordinary man

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 6.
During each cardiac cycle two prominent sounds are produced which can be easily heard through a stethoscope

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 7.
ECG is a graphical representation of the electrical activity of the heart during a cardiac cycle

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 8.
To obtain a standard ECG, a patient is connected to the machine with three electrical leads (one to each wrist and to the left ankle) that continuosly monitor the heart activity

Answer

Answer: True.

---

Question 9.
The T-wave represents the electrical excitation (or depolarisation) of the atria, which leads to the contraction of both the atria.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 10.
The P-wave represents the return of the ventricles from excited to normal state (repolarisation).

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 11.
A special coronary system of blood vessels is present in our body exclusively for the circulation of blood to and from the cardiac musculature.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 12.
Adrenal medullary 7 hormones can also increase the cardiac output.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 13.
Hypertension is the term for blood pressure that is higher than normal (120/80). High blood pressure leads to heart diseases and also affects vital organs like brain and kidney.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 14.
Coronary Artery Disease, often referred to as atherosclerosis, affects the vessels that supply blood to the heart muscle.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 15.
Heart failure means the state of heart which is not pumping blood effectively enough to meet the needs of the body.

Answer

Answer: True

---

IV. Match the items of Column I with the items of Column II Column

Column I	Column II
(a) Angina pectoris	1. Systolic
(b) 120 mm Hg (milimetres of mercury pressure)	2. Diastolic
(c) 80 mm Hg (milimetres of mercury pressure)	3. myogenic
(d) Heart is called	4. A symptom of acute chest pain appears when enough oxygen is not reaching the heart muscle.
(e) Plasme is a	5. Water and proteins contribute 6-8 pecent of it.
(f) 90-92 percent of plasma is	6. against the Rh antigens
(g) Erythrocytes or	7. White blood cells (WBC)
(h) Leucocytes	8. Straw coloured
(i) Thrombocytes	9. called ‘Universal donors
(j) ‘O’ group individuals are	10. Red blood ceils (RBC)
(k) AB group	11. Called ‘Universal recipients
(l) An Rh-ve person if exposed to Rh+Ve blood will form specific antibodies	12. Platelets
(m) Lymph is a colourless fluid containing specialised lymphocytes	13. Which are responsible for the immune responses of the body.
(n) Annelids and chordates have a	14. Closed circulatory system.
(o) Rh antigens of the foetus do not get exposed to the Rh-ve blood of	15. the mother in the first pregnancy as the two bloods are well separated by the placenta.

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(a) Angina pectoris	4. A symptom of acute chest pain appears when enough oxygen is not reaching the heart muscle.
(b) 120 mm Hg (milimetres of mercury pressure)	1. Systolic
(c) 80 mm Hg (milimetres of mercury pressure)	2. Diastolic
(d) Heart is called	3. myogenic
(e) Plasme is a	8. Straw coloured
(f) 90-92 percent of plasma is	5. Water and proteins contribute 6-8 pecent of it.
(g) Erythrocytes or	10. Red blood ceils (RBC)
(h) Leucocytes	7. White blood cells (WBC)
(i) Thrombocytes	12. Platelets
(j) ‘O’ group individuals are	9. called ‘Universal donors
(k) AB group	11. Called ‘Universal recipients
(l) An Rh-ve person if exposed to Rh+Ve blood will form specific antibodies	6. against the Rh antigens
(m) Lymph is a colourless fluid containing specialised lymphocytes	13. Which are responsible for the immune responses of the body.
(n) Annelids and chordates have a	14. Closed circulatory system.
(o) Rh antigens of the foetus do not get exposed to the Rh-ve blood of	15. the mother in the first pregnancy as the two bloods are well separated by the placenta.

---

Hope the information shared regarding the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation with Answers Pdf free download is true and genuine as far as our knowledge is concerned. If you feel any information regarding CBSE Class 11 Biology Body Fluids and Circulation MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers is missing do reach us and we will look into it and add it accordingly.

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 10 Gravitation with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Gravitation Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Gravitation Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Gravitation Multiple Choice Questions of Class 9 Science Chapter 10 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Gravitation Class 9 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 10 Science Class 9 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The unit of G in the S.I. system is:
(a) Newton m²/kg²
(b) Newton m² kg²
(c) Newton m kg
(d) Newton m²/kg

Answer

Answer: (a) Newton m²/kg²

---

Question 2.
The gravitational constant is denoted by which symbol?
(a) g
(b) M
(c) G
(d) k

Answer

Answer: (c) G

---

Question 3.
The unit of weight in the S.I. system is:
(a) kg m²
(b) Newton
(c) ms^-2
(d) ms

Answer

Answer: (b) Newton

---

Question 4.
When an object is released from a height, its initial velocity is:
(a) u = 100 ms^-1
(b) u = 9.8 ms^-1
(c) u = 0
(d) u = \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Answer

Answer: (c) u = 0

---

Question 5.
The relation between g and G is:
(a) \(g=\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{R}^{2}}\)
(b) g = GMR²
(c) \(g=\frac{M R^{2}}{G}\)
(d) \(g=\frac{\mathrm{GR}^{2}}{\mathrm{M}}\)

Answer

Answer: (a) \(g=\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{R}^{2}}\)

---

Question 6.
The mass of the earth is:
(a) 6.4 × 10²⁴
(b) 6 × 10¹⁰ kg
(c) 6 × 10²⁴ kg
(d) 6 × 10¹⁹ kg

Answer

Answer: (c) 6 × 10²⁴ kg

---

Question 7.
The radius of the earth is:
(a) 6.4 × 10^-6 m
(b) 6.4 × 10⁶ m
(c) 4.6 × 10⁶ m
(d) 6.4 × 10⁴ m

Answer

Answer: (b) 6.4 × 10⁶ m

---

Question 8.
By applying the universal law of gravitation, the weight of the object on the moon will be:
(a) \(\mathrm{W}_{m}=\frac{\mathrm{GR}_{m}^{2}}{\mathrm{M}_{m} \times m}\)
(b) \(\mathrm{W}_{m}=\frac{\mathrm{GM}_{m} \times \mathrm{R}_{m}^{2}}{m}\)
(c) \(\mathrm{W}_{m}=\mathrm{G} \frac{\mathrm{R}_{m}^{2} \times m}{\mathrm{M}_{m}}\)
(d) \(\mathrm{W}_{m}=\mathrm{G} \frac{\mathrm{M}_{m} \times m}{\mathrm{R}_{m}^{2}}\)

Answer

Answer: (d) \(\mathrm{W}_{m}=\mathrm{G} \frac{\mathrm{M}_{m} \times m}{\mathrm{R}_{m}^{2}}\)

---

Question 9.
The value of acceleration due to gravity:
(a) is the same on the equator and poles
(b) is least on poles
(c) is least on the equator
(d) increases from pole to equator

Answer

Answer: (c) is least on the equator

---

Question 10.
The value of quantity G in the law of gravitation:
(a) depends on the mass of earth only
(b) depends on the radius of the earth only
(c) depends on both the mass and radius of the earth
(d) is independent of the mass and radius of the earth

Answer

Answer: (d) is independent of the mass and radius of the earth

---

Question 11.
The atmosphere is held to the earth by:
(a) gravity
(b) wind
(c) clouds
(d) earth’s magnetic field

Answer

Answer: (a) gravity

---

Question 12.
Law of gravitation gives the gravitational force between:
(a) the earth and a point mass only
(b) the earth and sun only
(c) any two bodies having some mass
(d) two charged bodies only

Answer

Answer: (c) any two bodies having some mass

---

Fill in the Blanks.

Question 1.
Force of gravitation due to the earth is called _________

Answer

Answer: gravity

---

Question 2.
The force of gravity _______ with altitude.

Answer

Answer: decreases

---

Question 3.
The force of gravity _______ from poles to the equator.

Answer

Answer: decreases

---

Question 4.
The ______ of a body is the force with which the earth attracts it.

Answer

Answer: weight

---

Question 5.
The accepted value of G is _________

Answer

Answer: 6.673 × 10^-11 Nm² kg^-2

---

Question 6.
Relative density has ______ unit.

Answer

Answer: no

---

Question 7.
The value of g is taken as _________

Answer

Answer: 9.8 ms^-2

---

True/False.

Question 1.
The value of acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 ms^-2

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 2.
The value of acceleration due to gravity on the moon is g/6.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 3.
The value of G was found out by Henry Cavendish by using a sensitive balance.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 4.
The mass of an object is constant and does not change from place to place.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 5.
The relative density of a substance is the product of its density and that of water.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 6.
Gravitation is a weak force unless bodies of large masses are involved.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 7.
The weight of an object is equal to the ratio of its mass and acceleration due to gravity.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 8.
The weight may vary from place to place but the mass stays constant.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 9.
All objects experience a force of buoyancy when they are immersed in a fluid.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 10.
Objects having more density than that of the liquid in which they are immersed, float on the surface of the liquid.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Match the Column.

Question 1.

A	B
1. The value of g	(i) g/6
2. The value of G	(ii) maximum
3. The value of g at the centre of the earth	(iii) 6.673 × 10-1 Nm2 kg-2
4. The value of g at the earth’s poles	(iv) 9.8 ms-2
5. The value of g on the moon	(v) zero

Answer

Answer:

A	B
1. The value of g	(iv) 9.8 ms-2
2. The value of G	(iii) 6.673 × 10-1 Nm2 kg-2
3. The value of g at the centre of the earth	(v) zero
4. The value of g at the earth’s poles	(ii) maximum
5. The value of g on the moon	(i) g/6

---

Answer in one Word/Sentence.

Question 1.
Write down the formula which shows the relation between the mass of the earth M, the radius of the earth R, acceleration due to gravity g, and universal constant of gravitation G.

Answer

Answer: \(g=\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{R}^{2}}\)

---

Question 2.
What will be the change in the value of g while going in-depth?

Answer

Answer: The value of g decreases

---

Question 3.
What is the value of g on earth’s center?

Answer

Answer: Zero

---

Question 4.
What will be the weight of a person, sitting in a spacecraft which is revolving around the earth?

Answer

Answer: Zero

---

Question 5.
Write S.I. unit of G.

Answer

Answer: Nm² kg^-2 or Nm²/kg²

---

Question 6.
How many newtons are there in 1 kg weight?

Answer

Answer: 9.8 N

---

Question 7.
What is the value of acceleration due to gravity at the moon?

Answer

Answer: 1.63 ms^-2

---

Question 8.
Write the S.I. unit of pressure.

Answer

Answer: N/m² or Nm^-2

---

Question 9.
Which symbol is used to show the S.I. unit of pressure?

Answer

Answer: Pa (Pascal)

---

Question 10.
What is the thrust on a unit area called?

Answer

Answer: Pressure

---

Hope the information shared regarding the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 10 Gravitation with Answers Pdf free download is true and genuine as far as our knowledge is concerned. If you feel any information regarding CBSE Class 9 Science Gravitation MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers is missing do reach us and we will look into it and add it accordingly.

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 19 Excretory Products and their Elimination with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Excretory Products and their Elimination Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Excretory Products and their Elimination Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Excretory Products and their Elimination Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Biology Chapter 19 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Excretory Products and their Elimination Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 19 Biology Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

I. Select the correct answer from the following questions:

Question 1.
Blood coming out of liver has high concentration of
(a) Urea
(b) Protein
(c) Erythrocytes
(d) Oxygen.

Answer

Answer: (a) Urea.

---

Question 2.
Urinary bladder opens into
(a) tlreter
(b) Urethra
(c) Uterus
(d) All of these.

Answer

Answer: (b) Urethra.

---

Question 3.
Reabsorption of water in the kidney is under control of
(a) ACTH
(b) LH
(c) PSH
(d) ADH.

Answer

Answer: (d) ADH.

---

Question 4.
A normal adult excretes urine per day
(a) 3-4 litres
(b) 4-5 litres
(c) 12-i5 litres
(d) 2-3 litres.

Answer

Answer: (c) 12-15 litres.

---

Question 5.
Excretory product of mammals in mainly
(a) Uric acid
(b) Ammonia
(c) Urea
(d) Creatinine.

Answer

Answer: (c) Urea.

---

Question 6.
Loop of Henle lies in
(a) Medulla
(b) Ureter
(c) Cortex
(d) Pelvis.

Answer

Answer: (a) Medulla.

---

Question 7.
Removal of amino group from an amino acid is
(a) Amination
(b) Excretion
(c) Deamination
(d) Defecaetion.

Answer

Answer: (d) Defecaetion.

---

Question 8.
Glomerular filtrate differs from plasma
(a) Yellowish colour
(b) Presence of urea
(c) Absence of proteins
(d) Potassium concentration

Answer

Answer: (c) Absence of proteins.

---

Question 9.
Glomerular present in glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in
(a) Distal convoluted tubule
(b) Bowman’s capsule
(c) Loop of Henle
(d) Proximal convoluted tubule.

Answer

Answer: (d) Proximal convoluted tubule.

---

Question 10.
Nitrogenous wastes are excreted as uric acid in birds to help in
(a) Elimination of excess heat
(b) Conservation of body heat
(c) Reduce the change of kidney stone formation
(d) Conservation of water inside body.

Answer

Answer: (d) Conservation of water inside body.

---

Question 11.
Structural and functional unit of kidney is
(a) Loop of Henle
(b) Malpighian body
(c) Glomerular
(d) Nephron.

Answer

Answer: (d) Nephron.

---

Question 12.
Glomerular capillaries receive blood having a hydrostatic pressure of
(a) 80mm Hg.
(b) 85mm Hg.
(c) 75mm Hg.
(d) 90mm Hg.

Answer

Answer: (c) 75 mm. Hg.

---

Question 13.
Excretion of urea is called
(a) Ammonotelism
(b) Uricotelism
(c) Urination
(d) Ureotelism.

Answer

Answer: (d) Ureotelism.

---

Question 14.
In glycosuria, urine contains
(a) Glucose
(b) Inoraganic ions
(c) Amino acids
(d) Epithelial cells.

Answer

Answer: (a) Glucose.

---

Question 15.
The major excretory organs in mosquitoes are
(a) Flame cells
(b) Nephrons
(c) Nephridia
(d) Malpighian tubules.

Answer

Answer: (d) Malpighian tubules.

---

Question 16.
Filration in the nephron is brought about by
(a) Passive diffusion
(b) Active transport
(c) Secretion
(d) Blood pressure.

Answer

Answer: (d) Blood pressure.

---

Question 17.
The plasma resembles in its composition with the filtrate produced in glomerulus except for the presence of
(a) Amino acids
(b) Glucose
(c) Chlorides
(d) Proteins.

Answer

Answer: (d) Proteins.

---

Question 18.
When a person is suffering from poor renal reabsorption which one of the following will not help in maintenance of blood volume?
(a) Increased ADH secretion
(b) Decreased arterial pressure in kidneys
(c) Increased arterial pressure in kidneys
(d) Decreased glomerular filtration.

Answer

Answer: (c) Increased arterial pressure in kidneys.

---

Question 19.
In such patients, urea can be removed by a process called
(a) Uremia
(b) hemodialysis
(c) renal failures
(d) Glomerulonephritis

Answer

Answer: (b) Hemodialysis.

---

Question 20.
An adult human excretes on an average of urine per day.
(a) 1 to 1.5 litres
(b) 2 to 2.5 litres
(c) 500 gram
(d) 250 gram

Answer

Answer: (a) 1 to 1.5 litres.

---

II. Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
………….., …………. and …………. are the major forms of nitrogenous wastes excreted by the animals.

Answer

Answer: Ammonia, urea, uric acid

---

Question 2.
The process of excreting ………… is Ammonotelism.

Answer

Answer: ammonia

---

Question 3.
………….. are the tubular excretory structures of earthworms and other annelids.

Answer

Answer: Nephridia

---

Question 4.
…………… tubules are the excretory structures of most of the insects including cockroaches.

Answer

Answer: Malpighian

---

Question 5.
…………….. perform the excretory function in crustaceans like prawn.

Answer

Answer: Antennal glands or green glands

---

Question 6.
In humans, the excretory system consists of ………….., …………., …………. and …………..

Answer

Answer: a pair of kidneys, one pair of ureters, a urinary bladder, a urethra

---

Question 7.
Each kidney of an adult human measures ………….. in length, …………., ………… with an average weight of ………….

Answer

Answer: 10-12 cm, 5-7 cm in width, 2-3 cm in thickness, 120-170 g

---

Question 8.
Inside the kidney, there are two zones, an outer cortex and an inner ………….

Answer

Answer: Irrational

---

Question 9.
A hairpin shaped Henle’s loop is the next part of the tubule which has a ……………..

Answer

Answer: descending and ascending limb

---

Question 10.
Such nephrons are called ……….. nephrons.

Answer

Answer: cortical

---

Question 11.
The glomerular capillary blood pressure causes filtration of blood through 3 layers i.e., the …………….. the epithelium of Bowman’s capsule and a basement membrane between these two layers.

Answer

Answer: endothelium of glomerular blood vessels

---

Question 12.
GFR in a healthy individual is approximately …………..

Answer

Answer: 125ml/minute

---

Question 13.
Reabsorption of water also occur ………….. in the initial segments of the nephron.

Answer

Answer: passively

---

Question 14.
Large amounts of water could be reabsorbed conditionally from this region to produce a ……………

Answer

Answer: concentrated urine.

---

Question 15.
ANF can cause ………….. and thereby …………. the blood pressure.

Answer

Answer: vasodilation, decrease

---

III. Mark the statements (T) True or (F) False:

Question 1.
ADH facilitates water reabsorption from latter parts of the tubule, thereby preventing diuresis.

Answer

Answer: True.

---

Question 2.
Angtiotensis II, being a powerful vasoconstrictor, increases the glomerular blood pressure and therby GFR.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 3.
The process of release of urine is called the micturition reflex and the neural mechanisms causing it is called the micturition.

Answer

Answer: False.

---

Question 4.
The kidneys, lungs, liver and skin also help in the elimination of excretory wastes.

Answer

Answer: True.

---

Question 5.
Our lungs remove large amounts of CO₂ (18 litres/day) and also significant quantities of water every day.

Answer

Answer: True.

---

Question 6.
Sweat produced by the sweat glands is a watery fluid containing NaCl. small amounts of urea, lactic acid, etc.

Answer

Answer: True.

---

Question 7.
Kidney transplantation is the ultimate method in the correction of acute renal failures (kidney failure).

Answer

Answer: True.

---

Question 8.
Stone or insoluble mass of crystallised salts (oxalates) formed within in kidney.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 9.
Human kidneys can produce urine only one tiitie concentrated than the initial filtrate formed.

Answer

Answer: False.

---

Question 10.
NaCl is transported by the descending limb of Henle’s loop which is exchanged with the ascending limb of vasa recta.

Answer

Answer: False.

---

Question 11.
Collecting duct also plays a role in the maintenance of pH and ionic balance of blood by the selective secretion of H⁺ and K⁺ ions.

Answer

Answer: True.

---

Question 12.
PCT is also capable of reabsorption of HCO₃^– and selective recretion of hydrogen and potassium ions.

Answer

Answer: False.

---

Question 13.
The epithelial cells of Bowman’s capsule called podocytes are arranged in an intricate manner so as to leave some minute spaces called Alteration slits or slit pores.

Answer

Answer: True.

---

Question 14.
The Malpighian corpuscle, PCT and DCT of the nephron are situated in the cortical region of the kidney where as the loop of Henle dips into the medulla.

Answer

Answer: True.

---

Question 15.
Antennal glands are the tubular exretory structures of earthworms and other annelids.

Answer

Answer: False.

---

IV. Match the column I with column II.

Column I	Column II
(a) Aquatic amphibians and aquatic insects are	1. Cockroaches
(b) Reptiles, birds, land snails and insects	2. Prawn
(c) Malpighian tubules	3. Columns of Bertini
(d) Antennal glands or green glands	4. Uricotelic animals.
(e) Meduallary pyramids	5. ammonotelic in nature.
(f) Proximal convoluted tubule	6. Vasodilation and thereby decrease the blood pressure.
(g) Distal convoluted tubule	7. CNS (central nervous system)
(h) glomerular nitration rate	8. in the skin can eliminate certain substances
(i) Vasa recta	9. the renal tubules.
(j) Atrial Natriuretic Facter (ANF) can cause	10. PCT
(k) Stretch receptors on the walls of the bladder send signals to the	11. sodium-potassium balance in blood.
(l) Sweat and sebaceous glends	12. 180 litres per day
(m) Ketone bodies	13. DCT
(n) NH3 to maintain the pH	14. counter current mechanism
(o) 99 percent of the filtrate has to be reabsorbed by	15. Ketonuria

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(a) Aquatic amphibians and aquatic insects are	5. ammonotelic in nature.
(b) Reptiles, birds, land snails and insects	4. Uricotelic animals.
(c) Malpighian tubules	1. Cockroaches
(d) Antennal glands or green glands	2. Prawn
(e) Meduallary pyramids	3. Columns of Bertini
(f) Proximal convoluted tubule	10. PCT
(g) Distal convoluted tubule	13. DCT
(h) glomerular nitration rate	12. 180 litres per day
(i) Vasa recta	14. counter current mechanism
(j) Atrial Natriuretic Facter (ANF) can cause	6. Vasodilation and thereby decrease the blood pressure.
(k) Stretch receptors on the walls of the bladder send signals to the	7. CNS (central nervous system)
(l) Sweat and sebaceous glends	8. in the skin can eliminate certain substances
(m) Ketone bodies	15. Ketonuria
(n) NH3 to maintain the pH	11. sodium-potassium balance in blood.
(o) 99 percent of the filtrate has to be reabsorbed by	9. the renal tubules.

---

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Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Locomotion and Movement Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Locomotion and Movement Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Locomotion and Movement Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Biology Chapter 20 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Locomotion and Movement Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 20 Biology Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

I. Select the correct answer from the following questions:

Question 1.
Human skull is
(a) Tricondylic
(b) Acondvlic
(c) Dicondylic
(d) Monocondylic

Answer

Answer: (c) Dicondylic.

---

Question 2.
Cranium of man is formed of bones
(a) 8
(b) 6
(c) 2
(d) 4

Answer

Answer: (a) 8.

---

Question 3.
Face of skull is formed of bones
(a) 28
(b) 10
(c) 8
(d) 14

Answer

Answer: (d) 14.

---

Question 4.
Curves in the vertebral column are
(a) 8
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 1

Answer

Answer: (b) 4.

---

Question 5.
Which vertebra is commonly called yesbone?
(a) Thoracic
(b) Axis
(c) Atlas
(d) Typical carvical.

Answer

Answer: (c) Atlas.

---

Question 6.
Axis vertebra is characterised by the presence of
(a) Transverse
(b) Odontoid process
(c) Neural spine
(d) Pre and post zygapophysis.

Answer

Answer: (b) Odontoid process.

---

Question 7.
Total number of cervical vertebrae in human vertebral column are
(a) 3
(b) 12
(c) 7
(d) 5.

Answer

Answer: (c) 7.

---

Question 8.
Total number of thoracic vertebrae in human vertebral column are
(a) 3
(b) 12
(c) 5
(d) 7

Answer

Answer: (b) 12.

---

Question 9.
Total number of lambar vertebrae in human vertebral column are
(a) 3
(b) 12
(c) 5
(d) 7

Answer

Answer: (c) 5.

---

Question 10.
Xiphoid process is the lowest part of
(a) Pectoral girdle
(b) Pelvic girdle
(c) Lumbar vertebrae
(d) Sternum.

Answer

Answer: (d) Sternum.

---

Question 11.
Trochlea is a part of
(a) Pectoral girdle
(b) Pelvic girdle
(c) Femur
(d) Humerus bone.

Answer

Answer: (d) Humerus bone.

---

Question 12.
Sigmoid notch is a part of
(a) Ulna bone
(b) Humerus bone
(c) Tibia bone
(d) Radius bone.

Answer

Answer: (d) Radius bone.

---

Question 13.
Innominate bone is also known as
(a) Pelvic girdle
(b) Pectoral girdle
(c) Clavicle
(d) Sternum

Answer

Answer: (a) Pelvic girdle.

---

Question 14.
Acetabulum is a part of
(a) Humerus bone
(b) Pelvic girdle
(c) Femur bone
(d) Pectoral girdle

Answer

Answer: (b) Pelvic girdle.

---

Question 15.
The obturator foramen is a part of
(a) Skull
(b) Spinal cord
(c) Pelvic girdle
(d)Vertebral column.

Answer

Answer: (c) Pelvic girdle.

---

Question 16.
Articulation of femur with pelvic girdle is an example of
(a) Pivot joint
(b) Hinge joint
(c) Gliding joint
(d) Ball and socket join.

Answer

Answer: (d) Ball and socket join.

---

Question 17.
Obturator foramen occurs in
(a) Skull
(b) Pelvic girdle
(c) Vertebrae
(d) Pectoral girdle

Answer

Answer: (d) Pelvic girdle.

---

Question 18.
The total number of bones in human skeleton is
(a) 305
(b) 206
(c) 205
(d) 306

Answer

Answer: (b) 206.

---

Question 19.
Cervical vertebrae occur in
(a) Neck
(b) Abdomen
(c) Thorax
(d) Tail.

Answer

Answer: (a) Neck.

---

Question 20.
Knee joint is
(a) Angular joint
(b) Pivot joint
(c) Hinge joint
(d) Ball and socked joint.

Answer

Answer: (c) Hinge joint.

---

Question 21.
The ions that play an important role in muscle contraction are
(a) Ca⁺⁺
(b) K⁺
(c) Na⁺⁺
(d) Mg⁺⁺

Answer

Answer: (a) Ca⁺⁺

---

Question 22.
Myoglobin is found in
(a) Slow muscle fibres
(b) Blood
(c) Lymph
(d) Fast muscle fibres.

Answer

Answer: (a) Slow muscle fibres

---

Question 23.
Which of the following proteins is associated with the primary (thick) myofilaments:
(a) Tropomyosin
(b) Actin
(c) Tropoin
(d) Meromyosin.

Answer

Answer: (d) Meromyosin.

---

Question 24.
The synovial fluid is found in
(a) Internal ear
(b) Freely movable joints
(c) Around the brain
(d) Intercellular spaces.

Answer

Answer: (b) Freely movable joints.

---

Question 25.
Number of ribs in man is
(a) 16 pairs
(b) 10 pairs
(c) 14 pairs
(d) 12 pairs

Answer

Answer: (d) 12 pairs.

---

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Human beings can move ……….., …………, …………, ………… etc. Such voluntary movements are called locomotion.

Answer

Answer: limbs, jaws, eyelids, tongue

---

Question 2.
Cells of the human body exhibit three main types of movements, namely, ……….., …………. and …………..

Answer

Answer: amoeboid, ciliary, muscular

---

Question 3.
Based on their location, three types of muscles are identified, (i) ………… (ii) ………… and (iii) ………….

Answer

Answer: Skeletal, Visceral, Cardiac

---

Question 4.
……………. are the muscles of heart. Based on appearance, cardiac muscles are ………….

Answer

Answer: Cardiac muscles, striated

---

Question 5.
Muscle fibre is a …………. as the sarcoplasm contains many nuclei.

Answer

Answer: syncitium

---

Question 6.
Each myofibril has alternate …………. and ………… bands on it.

Answer

Answer: dark, light

---

Question 7.
The thin filaments are firmly attached to the …………..

Answer

Answer: ‘Z’ line.

---

Question 8.
A complex protein …………… is distributed at regular intervals on the …………..

Answer

Answer: Troponin, tropomyosin

---

Question 9.
Each meromyosin has two important parts, a …………. with a short arm and a ………….

Answer

Answer: globular head, tail

---

Question 10.
Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent by the …………… via a motor neuron.

Answer

Answer: central nervous system (CNS)

---

Question 11.
Muscle contains a red coloured oxygen storing pigment called …………….

Answer

Answer: myoglobin

---

Question 12.
Skeletal system consists of a framework of bones and …………..

Answer

Answer: few cartilages

---

Question 13.
Axial skeleton comprises …………. distributed along the main axis of the body.

Answer

Answer: 80 bones

---

Question 14.
Each middle ear contains three tiny bones- …………., ………….. and stapes, collectively called …………..

Answer

Answer: Malleus, Incus, Ear Ossicles

---

Question 15.
Our vertebral column is formed by 26 serially arranged units called ………….. and is …………. placed.

Answer

Answer: vertebrae, dorsally

---

III. Mark the statements (T) True or (F) False

Question 1.
First seven pairs of ribs are called true ribs.

Answer

Answer: True.

---

Question 2.
The 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs do not articulate directly with the help of hyaline cartilage. These are called vertebrochondral ribs.

Answer

Answer: True.

---

Question 3.
The bones of the limbs along with their girdles constitute the appendicular skeletion. Each limb is made of 30 bones.

Answer

Answer: True.

---

Question 4.
The fore limb (hand) bones are humerus, radius and ulna, carpals (wrist bones-8 in number), meta carpals (palm bones – 5 in number) and phalanges (digits- 14 in number).

Answer

Answer: True.

---

Question 5.
A cup shaped bone called patella cover the knee ventrally (knee cap).

Answer

Answer: True.

---

Question 6.
Joints are essential for all types of movements involving the bony parts of the body.

Answer

Answer: True.

---

Question 7.
Auto immune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle. (Myasthenia gravis).

Answer

Answer: True.

---

Question 8.
Arthritis : Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid crystals.

Answer

Answer: False.

---

Question 9.
Tetany : Rapid spasms (wild contractions) in muscle is due to lesser Ca⁺⁺ in body fluid.

Answer

Answer: True.

---

Question 10.
Human beings can move limbs, jaws, eyelids, tongue etc. Some of the movements result in a change of place or location. Such voluntary movements are called locomotion.

Answer

Answer: True.

---

Question 11.
Walking, running, climbing, flying, swimming are all some forms of locomotory movements.

Answer

Answer: True.

---

Question 12.
Only 10 percent of body weight of a human adult is contributed by muscles.

Answer

Answer: False.

---

Question 13.
Each myosin (thick) filament is also a polymerised protein. Many monomeric proteins called meromyosins constitute one thick filament.

Answer

Answer: True.

---

Question 14.
The junction between a motor neuron and the sarcolemma of the muscle fibre is called the neuromuscular junction or motor-end plate.

Answer

Answer: True.

---

Question 15.
Red muscles also contain plenty of mitochondria which can utilise the large amount of oxygen stored in them for ATP production. These muscles, therefore, can also be called aerobic muscles.

Answer

Answer: True.

---

IV. Match the items of column I with the items of column II

Column I	Column II
(a) Walking	1. muscles of heart
(b) Microfilaments	2. in the inner walls of hollow
(c) Passage of ova through the female reproductive tract.	3. Voluntary muscles.
(d) Striated muscles	4. fascia
(e) Cardiac muscles	5. locomotory movements.
(f) Visceral muscles	6. ciliary movement
(g) Muscle bundles or fascicles	7. a globular head with a short arm and a tail.
(h) Actin	8. amoeboid movement
(i) Myosin	9. Malleus, Incus and stapes
(j)  Meromyosin	10. A or Anisotropic band
(k) Ear ossicles	11. appendicular skeleton
(l) Thoracic	12. I band or Isotropic band
(m) Bones of the limbs	13. is a large triangular flat bone
(n) Scapula	14. Decreased levels of estrogen is a common cause.
(o) Osteoporosis	15. 12.

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(a) Walking	5. locomotory movements.
(b) Microfilaments	8. amoeboid movement
(c) Passage of ova through the female reproductive tract.	6. ciliary movement
(d) Striated muscles	3. Voluntary muscles.
(e) Cardiac muscles	1. muscles of heart
(f) Visceral muscles	2. in the inner walls of hollow
(g) Muscle bundles or fascicles	4. fascia
(h) Actin	12. I band or Isotropic band
(i) Myosin	10. A or Anisotropic band
(j)  Meromyosin	7. a globular head with a short arm and a tail.
(k) Ear ossicles	9. Malleus, Incus and stapes
(l) Thoracic	15. 12.
(m) Bones of the limbs	11. appendicular skeleton
(n) Scapula	13. is a large triangular flat bone
(o) Osteoporosis	14. Decreased levels of estrogen is a common cause.

---

Hope the information shared regarding the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement with Answers Pdf free download is true and genuine as far as our knowledge is concerned. If you feel any information regarding CBSE Class 11 Biology Locomotion and Movement MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers is missing do reach us and we will look into it and add it accordingly.

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 21 Neural Control and Coordination with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Neural Control and Coordination Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Neural Control and Coordination Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Neural Control and Coordination Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Biology Chapter 21 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Neural Control and Coordination Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 21 Biology Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

I. Select the correct answer from the following questions:

Question 1.
Humain brain has greater development of
(a) Optic lobes
(b) Medullu oblongata
(c) Cerebrum
(d) Cerebellum

Answer

Answer: (c) Cerebrum

---

Question 2.
Outer most covering of brain is
(a) Pia mater
(b) White matter
(c) Arachnoid
(d) Dura mater

Answer

Answer: (d) Dura mater

---

Question 3.
Third ventricle occurs in
(a) Brain
(b) Skull
(c) Bones
(d) Heart

Answer

Answer: (a) Brain

---

Question 4.
Tree like branched structure found in cerebellum is
(a) Areole
(b) Arachnoid
(c) Arboreal
(d) Arbor

Answer

Answer: (a) Areole

---

Question 5.
Number of spinal nerves in human being is
(a) 31
(b) 37
(c) 14
(d) 20

Answer

Answer: (a) 31

---

Question 6.
Fourth cranial nerve is
(a) Trochlear (Pathetic)
(b) Optic
(c) Oculomotor
(d) Trigeminal

Answer

Answer: (a) Trochlear (Pathetic)

---

Question 7.
Auditory nerve is responsible for
(a) Sight
(b) Hearing
(c) Smell
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Hearing

---

Question 8.
Synapse is a dose proximity of
(a) Two veins
(b) Two lymphatics
(c) Two neurons
(d) Two arteries

Answer

Answer: (c) Two neurons

---

Question 9.
Outer region of spinal cord is
(a) White matter
(b) Grey matter
(c) Pia mater
(d) Dura matere

Answer

Answer: (a) White matter

---

Question 10.
A nerve impulse leaves a neuron via the
(a) Dendrites
(b) Axon
(c) Cyton
(d) Nucleus

Answer

Answer: (b) Axon

---

Question 11.
Regulatory control of temperature
(a) Hypothalamus
(b) Cerebellum
(c) Superior
(d) Inferior colliculi

Answer

Answer: (a) Hypothalamus

---

Question 12.
Endolymph is found in
(a) Internal ear
(b) Cnidoblast
(c) Synovial cavity
(d) Posterior chamber of eye

Answer

Answer: (a) Internal Ear

---

Question 13.
Sequence of ear ossicles is
(a) Stapes, malleus, incus
(b) Malleus, stapes, incus
(c) malleus, incus, stapes
(d) Incus, stapes, malleus

Answer

Answer: (c) malleus, incus, stapes

---

Question 14.
Pupil is regulated by
(a) Radial and circular muscles
(b) Meridional muscles
(c) Radial muscles
(d) Circular muscles

Answer

Answer: (d) Circular muscles

---

Question 15.
The hair cells in the ear are stimulated by movements of
(a) Lymph
(b) Endolymph
(c) Perilymph
(d) Haemolymph

Answer

Answer: (b) Endolymph

---

Question 16.
Cochlea of mammalian ear helps in
(a) Phonoreception
(b) Sound production
(c) Equilibrium & hearing
(d) Equilibrium

Answer

Answer: (a) Phonoreception

---

Question 17.
Fovea centralis lacks
(a) Rod ceils
(b) Blood vessels
(c) Covering of nerve fibres
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

---

Question 18.
Iris is an extension of
(a) Sclera
(b) Retina
(c) Cornea
(d) Choroid and retina

Answer

Answer: (d) Choroid and retina

---

Question 19.
The optic disc is also called
(a) Blind spot
(b) Fovea
(c) Ora serrata
(d) Optic chiasma

Answer

Answer: (a) Blind spot

---

Question 20.
The rods are receptors for
(a) Vision
(b) Taste
(c) Smell
(d) Hearing
(e) Touch

Answer

Answer: (a) Vision

---

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
…………….. is the process through which two or more organs interact and complement the functions of one another.

Answer

Answer: Coordination

---

Question 2.
The neural system of all animals is composed of highly specialised cells called ‘…………..’ which can detect, receive and transmit different kinds of stimuli.

Answer

Answer: neurons

---

Question 3.
The human neural system is divided into two parts, namely, (i) ……………. and (ii) …………….

Answer

Answer: the central neural system (CNS), the peripheral neural system.

---

Question 4.
The nerve fibres of the PNS are of two types, namely, (a) ………….. and (b) …………..

Answer

Answer: afferent fibres, efferent fibres.

---

Question 5.
The PNS is divided into two divisions called ………….. and …………..

Answer

Answer: somatic neural system, autonomic neural system

---

Question 6.
A neuron is a microscopic structure composed of three major parts, namely, ……….., …………. and …………

Answer

Answer: cell body, dendrites, axon.

---

Question 7.
There are two types of axons, namely, ………….. and ………….

Answer

Answer: myelinated, non-myelinated

---

Question 8.
The brain can be divided into three major parts: (i) ………….., (ii) …………., and (iii) …………..

Answer

Answer: forebrain, midbrain, hind brain

---

Question 9.
The midbrain is located betwen the …………….. of the forebrain and pons of the hind brain.

Answer

Answer: thalamus/hypothalamus,

---

Question 10.
The hind brain comprise ……….., …………… and …………

Answer

Answer: pones, cerebellum, medulla.

---

Question 11.
The iris is called the ………….

Answer

Answer: pupil.

---

Question 12.
There are two types of photoreceptor cells, namely ………….

Answer

Answer: rods and cones

---

Question 13.
The photosensitive compounds in the human eyes is composed of ………… (a protein) and …………. (an aldehyde of vitamin A).

Answer

Answer: opsin, retinal

---

Question 14.
The ear can be divided into three major sections called the …………, the …………. and the ………….

Answer

Answer: outer ear, middle ear, inner ear

---

Question 15.
The coiled portion of the labyrinth is called ……………

Answer

Answer: cochlea.

---

III. Mark the statements True (T) or False (F)

Question 1.
The waves in the lymphs induce a ripple in the basilar membrane.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 2.
The saccula and utricle contain a projecting ridge called macula.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 3.
The inner ear also contains a complex system called hair cells.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 4.
The hair cells are present in rows on the internal side of the organ of corti.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 5.
At the base of the cochlea, the scala vestibuli ends at the otolith organ.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 6.
The fluid filled inner ear called labyrinth consists of two parts, the bony and the membranous labyrinths.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 7.
The malleus is attached to the tympanic membrane and the stapes is attached to the oval window of the cochlea.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 8.
The space between the lens and the retina is called aqueous chamber.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 9.
The space between the cornea and the lens is called vitreous chamber

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 10.
The ciliary body itself continues forwards to form a pigmented and opaque structure called the iris.

Answer

Answer: True

---

IV. Match the column I with column II.

Column I	Column II
(a) Photoreceptor cells	1. Cerebrum, thalamus and hypothalamus
(b) Dense connective tissue	2. Corpus callosum
(c) Choroid	3. reflex action
(d) Central nervous system	4. rods and cones
(e) Hind brain	5. Passes through the mid brain
(f) Cerebral aqueduct	6. sclera
(g) Forebrain	7. Hypothalamic hormones.
(h) Neurosecretory cells	8. Contain many blood vessels
(i) Hemispheres	9. Cranial meninges
(j) The brain	10. pons, cerebellum and medulla
(k) Neurotransmitters bind	11. plasma membrane
(l) Plasma membrane	12. resting potential
(m) Nerve impulse	13. myelinated and non-myeli nated.
(n) axons	14. receptors
(o) neuron	15. cell body, dendrites and axon

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(a) Photoreceptor cells	4. rods and cones
(b) Dense connective tissue	6. sclera
(c) Choroid	8. Contain many blood vessels
(d) Central nervous system	3. reflex action
(e) Hind brain	10. pons, cerebellum and medulla
(f) Cerebral aqueduct	5. Passes through the mid brain
(g) Forebrain	1. Cerebrum, thalamus and hypothalamus
(h) Neurosecretory cells	7. Hypothalamic hormones.
(i) Hemispheres	2. Corpus callosum
(j) The brain	9. Cranial meninges
(k) Neurotransmitters bind	14. receptors
(l) Plasma membrane	12. resting potential
(m) Nerve impulse	11. plasma membrane
(n) axons	13. myelinated and non-myeli nated.
(o) neuron	15. cell body, dendrites and axon

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Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Sound with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Sound Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Sound Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Sound Multiple Choice Questions of Class 9 Science Chapter 12 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Sound Class 9 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 12 Science Class 9 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
For hearing a distinct sound, the time interval between the original sound and the reflected one must be at least:
(a) 1 s
(b) 0.1 s
(c) 2 s
(d) 0.2 s

Answer

Answer: (b) 0.1 s

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Question 2.
The persistence of sound in an auditorium is the result of repeated reflections of sound and is called:
(a) reverberation
(b) audible
(c) distinct sound
(d) reflection

Answer

Answer: (a) reverberation

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Question 3.
The speed v, frequency υ, and wavelength λ, of sound are related by the equation:
(a) v = λυ
(b) υ = λv
(c) λ = υv
(d) v = \(\frac{\lambda}{υ}\)

Answer

Answer: (a) v = λυ

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Question 4.
The speed of sound is maximum in:
(a) solids
(b) liquids
(c) gases
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) solids

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Question 5.
Our ears are sensitive to sound frequencies between:
(a) 20 Hz to 20 kHz
(b) 2 Hz to 20 Hz
(c) 20 kHz to 200 kHz
(d) 2000 kHz to 20000 kHz

Answer

Answer: (a) 20 Hz to 20 kHz

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Question 6.
Which of the following waves are produced by bats?
(a) Infrasonic waves
(b) Ultrasonic waves
(c) Audible waves
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Ultrasonic waves

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Question 7.
Maximum tolerable sound is:
(a) 0 dB
(b) 10 dB
(c) 60 dB
(d) 120 dB

Answer

Answer: (d) 120 dB

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Question 8.
Sound waves are:
(a) magnetic waves
(b) electric waves
(c) electromagnetic waves
(d) mechanical waves

Answer

Answer: (d) mechanical waves

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Question 9.
In SONAR, we use:
(a) ultrasonic waves
(b) infrasonic waves
(c) radio waves
(d) audible sound waves

Answer

Answer: (a) ultrasonic waves

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Question 10.
Sound travels in the air if:
(a) particles of medium travel from one place to another
(b) there is no mixture in the atmosphere
(c) disturbance moves
(d) both particles as well as disturbance travel from one place to another

Answer

Answer: (c) disturbance moves

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Question 11.
When we change feeble sound to loud sound we increase its:
(a) frequency
(b) amplitude
(c) velocity
(d) wavelength

Answer

Answer: (b) amplitude

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Question 12.
In the curve half the wavelength is:

(a) AB
(b) BD
(c) DE
(d) AE

Answer

Answer: (b) BD

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Question 13.
An earthquake produces which kind of sound before the mainshock wave begins:
(a) ultrasound
(b) infrasound
(c) audible sound
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) infrasound

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Question 14.
Infrasound can be heard by:
(a) dog
(b) bat
(c) rhinoceros
(d) human beings

Answer

Answer: (c) rhinoceros

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Fill in the blanks.

Question 15.
Sound travels as a _______ wave through a material medium.

Answer

Answer: longitudinal

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Question 16.
The change in density from one maximum value to the minimum value and again to the maximum value makes one complete ________

Answer

Answer: oscillation

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Question 17.
Sound waves with frequencies below the audible range are termed as ________

Answer

Answer: infrasonic

---

Question 18.
Sound waves with frequencies above the audible range are termed as ________

Answer

Answer: ultrasonic

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Question 19.
________ is produced due to reflections of sound from obstacles.

Answer

Answer: Echo

---

Question 20.
Wave velocity = Frequency × ________

Answer

Answer: wavelength

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Question 21.
Sound frequencies greater than 20,000 Hz are known as ________

Answer

Answer: ultrasonic sound

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Question 22.
Echo can be heard clearly if the minimum distance between the source of the sound and the obstacle is ________

Answer

Answer: 17.2 meter

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Question 23.
Echo is produced due to _______ of sound from obstacles.

Answer

Answer: reflection

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True/False.

Question 24.
Sound is produced due to the vibration of different objects.

Answer

Answer: True

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Question 25.
Sound travels as successive compressions and rarefactions in the medium.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 26.
In sound propagation, it is the energy of the sound that travels and not the particles of the medium.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 27.
Sound propagates in a vacuum.

Answer

Answer: False

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Question 28.
The speed of sound does not depend primarily on the nature and the temperature of the transmitting medium.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 29.
Loudness is a physiological response of the ear to the intensity of sound.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 30.
The audible range of hearing for average human beings is in the frequency range of 20Hz – 20kHz.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 31.
Sound frequencies above 20 Hz are known as inaudible sound.

Answer

Answer: False

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Question 32.
Rhino can hear the sound frequency of 5 Hz.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 33.
SONAR is used to determine the depth of the sea.

Answer

Answer: True

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Question 34.
The transverse and longitudinal waves are called progressive waves.

Answer

Answer: True

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Match the Column.

Question 35.

A	B
1. Frequency below 20 Hz	(i) 120 dB
2. Heartbeat	(ii) Audible sounds
3. Maximum tolerable sound	(iii) Infrasonic sounds
4. Frequency of 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz	(iv) Stethoscope
5. Uses of SONAR	(v) Decibel
6. The unit of intensity of sound	(vi) Depth of sea

Answer

Answer:

A	B
1. Frequency below 20 Hz	(iii) Infrasonic sounds
2. Heartbeat	(iv) Stethoscope
3. Maximum tolerable sound	(i) 120 dB
4. Frequency of 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz	(ii) Audible sounds
5. Uses of SONAR	(vi) Depth of sea
6. The unit of intensity of sound	(v) Decibel

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Answer in Word/Sentence.

Question 36.
What is the term given to the distance between two consecutive compression or two consecutive rarefactions?

Answer

Answer: Wavelength (λ)

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Question 37.
What is the term given to the time taken by the wave for one complete oscillation of the density of the medium?

Answer

Answer: Time Period (T)

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Question 38.
What is the amount of sound energy passing each second through the unit area?

Answer

Answer: The intensity of sound

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Question 39.
Which technique is used to locate underwater hills, valleys, submarines, icebergs, sunken ships, etc.?

Answer

Answer: The SONAR

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Question 40.
What type of mechanical waves are produced in the air (gases)?

Answer

Answer: Longitudinal waves

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Question 41.
What type of mechanical waves are produced on the surface of the water?

Answer

Answer: Transverse waves

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Question 42.
What type of waves are sound waves?

Answer

Answer: Longitudinal mechanical waves

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Question 43.
What type of waves are produced by the bats while flying?

Answer

Answer: Ultrasound waves

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Hope the information shared regarding the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Sound with Answers Pdf free download is true and genuine as far as our knowledge is concerned. If you feel any information regarding CBSE Class 9 Science Sound MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers is missing do reach us and we will look into it and add it accordingly.