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Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Molecular Basis of Inheritance Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Molecular Basis of Inheritance Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Molecular Basis of Inheritance Multiple Choice Questions of Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Molecular Basis of Inheritance Class 12 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 6 Biology Class 12 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Select the correct answer

Question 1.
Who proved semiconservative mode of DNA replication for the first time in E. coli with the help of N¹⁵ heavy nitrogen isotope?
(a) Watson and Crick
(b) Kornberg and Ochova
(c) Messelson and Stahl
(d) Luria and Delbruck

Answer

Answer: (c) Messelson and Stahl

---

Question 2.
A nucleoside differs from a nucleotide. It lacks the :
(a) base
(b) sugar
(c) phosphate group
(d) hydroxyl group.

Answer

Answer: (c) phosphate group

---

Question 3.
Both deoxyribose and ribose belong to a class of sugars called :
(a) trioses
(b) hexoses
(c) pentoses
(d) polysaccharides.

Answer

Answer: (c) pentoses

---

Question 4.
The fact that a purine base always paired through hydrogen bonds with a pyrimidine base leads to, in the DNA double helix :
(a) the antiparallel nature
(b) the semiconservative nature
(c) uniform width throughout DNA
(d) uniform length in all DNA.

Answer

Answer: (c) uniform width throughout DNA

---

Question 5.
The net electric charge on DNA and histones is :
(a) both positive
(b) both negative
(c) negative and positive, respectively
(d) zero

Answer

Answer: (c) negative and positive, respectively

---

Question 6.
The promoter site and the terminator site for transcription are located at:
(a) 3’ (downstream) end and 5’ (upstream) end, respectively of the transcription unit
(b) 5’ (upstream) end and 3’ (downstream) end, respectively of the transcription unit
(c) the 5’ (upstream) end
(d) the 3’ (downstream) end.

Answer

Answer: (b) 5’ (upstream) end and 3’ (downstream) end, respectively of the transcription unit

---

Question 7.
Which of the following statements is the most appropriate for sickle cell anaemia?
(a) It cannot be treated with iron supplements.
(b) It is a molecular disease.
(c) It confers resistance of acquiring malaria.
(d) All of the above.

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above.

---

Question 8.
One of the following is true with respect to AUG
(a) It codes for methionine only.
(b) It is also an initiation codon.
(c) It codes for methionine in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
(d) All of the above.

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above.

---

Question 9.
The first genetic material could be :
(a) protein
(b) carbohydrates
(c) DNA
(d) RNA.

Answer

Answer: (d) RNA.

---

Question 10.
With regard to mature mRNA in eukaryotes:
(a) exons and introns do not appear in the mature RNA
(b) exons appear but introns do not appear in the mature RNA
(c) introns appear but exons do not appear in the mature RNA
(d) both exons and introns appear in the mature RNA.

Answer

Answer: (b) exons appear but introns do not appear in the mature RNA

---

Question 11.
The human chromosome with the highest and least number of genes in them are respectively:
(a) Chromosome 21 and Y
(b) Chromosome 1 and X
(c) Chromosome 1 and Y
(d) Chromosome X and Y.

Answer

Answer: (c) Chromosome 1 and Y

---

Question 12.
Who amongst the following scientists had no contribution in the development of the double helix model for the structure of DNA?
(a) Rosalind Franklin
(b) Maurice Wilkins
(c) Erwin Chargaff
(d) Meselson and Stahl.

Answer

Answer: (d) Meselson and Stahl.

---

Question 13.
DNA is a polymer of nucleotides which are linked to each other by 3’-5’ phosphodiester bond. To prevent polymerisation of nucleotides, which of the following modifications would you choose?
(a) Replace purine with pyrimidines
(b) Remove/Replace 3’ OH group in deoxyribose
(c) Remove/Replace 2’ OH group with some other group in deoxyribose
(d) Both ‘B’ and ‘C’.

Answer

Answer: (b) Remove/Replace 3’ OH group in deoxyribose

---

Question 14.
Which of the following steps in transcription is catalysed by RNA polymerase?
(a) Initiation
(b) Elongation
(c) Termination
(d) All of the above.

Answer

Answer: (b) Elongation

---

Question 15.
Control of gene expression takes place at the level of:
(a) DNA-replication
(b) Transcription
(c) Translation
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Transcription

---

Question 16.
Regulatory proteins are the accessory proteins that interact with RNA polymerase and affect its role in transcription. Which of the following statements is correct about regulatory protein?
(a) They only increase expression.
(b) They only decrease expression.
(c) They interact with RNA polymerase but do not affect the expression.
(d) They can act both as activators and as repressors.

Answer

Answer: (d) They can act both as activators and as repressors.

---

Question 17.
Which was the last human chromosome to be completely sequenced :
(a) Chromosome 1
(b) Chromosome 11
(c) Chromosome 21
(d) Chromosome X.

Answer

Answer: (a) Chromosome 1

---

Question 18.
Which of the following are the functions of RNA ?
(a) It is a carrier of genetic information from DNA to ribosomes synthesising polypeptides.
(b) It carries amino acids to ribosomes.
(c) It is a constituent component of ribosomes.
(d) All of the above.

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above.

---

Question 19.
While analysing the DNA of an organism a total number of 5386 nucleotides were found out of which the proportion of different bases were : Adenine = 29%, Guanine = 17%, Cytosine = 32%, Thymine = 17%. Considering the Chargaff’s rule it can be concluded that:
(a) It is a double-stranded circular DNA.
(b) It is a single-stranded DNA.
(c) It is a double-stranded linear DNA.
(d) No conclusion can be drawn.

Answer

Answer: (b) It is a single-stranded DNA.

---

Assertion and Reason Type Questions

These questions consist of two statements each, printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
Question 20.
Assertion: Replication and transcription occur in the nucleus but translation occurs in the cytoplasm.
Reason: mRNA is transferred from the nucleus into the cytoplasm where ribosomes and amino acids are available for protein synthesis.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

---

Question 21.
Assertion: Amber codon is a termination codon.
Reason: If in an mRNA, a termination codon is present, the protein synthesis stops abruptly whether the protein synthesis is complete or not.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

---

Question 22.
Assertion: The first codon discovered by Nirenberg and Mathaei was UUU.
Reason: Genetic code translates the language of protein into that of RNA.

Answer

Answer: (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

---

Question 23.
Assertion: For DNA replication RNA primer is needed.
Reason: Synthesis of new DNA chain is initiated by DNA polymerase.

Answer

Answer: (c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.

---

Question 24.
Assertion: One of the properties of genetic code is degeneracy.
Reason: Many amino acids can be coded by more than one codon.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

---

Question 25.
Assertion: Genetic code shows code in mRNA not in DNA.
Reason: DNA is present inside the nucleus and code is read from mRNA inside the cell.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

---

Question 26.
Assertion: DNA molecule acts as a template for synthesis of both RNA and DNA.
Reason: DNA duplex has the feature of right-handed coiling and antiparallel.

Answer

Answer: (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

---

Question 27.
Assertion: Plasmids are being widely used as vehicle DNA.
Reason: They can be easily isolated and introduced as viral genome.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

---

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Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 History Chapter 6 Bhakti-Sufi Traditions: Changes in Religious Beliefs and Devotional Texts with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 History with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Bhakti-Sufi Traditions Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Bhakti-Sufi Traditions Class 12 Objective Questions.

Bhakti-Sufi Traditions Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
What is shari’a?
(a) Muslim Sufi saints
(b) Fasting during the month of Ramzan
(c) Laws governing the Muslim community
(d) Giving alms

Answer

Answer: (c) Laws governing the Muslim community

---

Question 2.
Who is Ulama?
(a) Devotees of Shiva
(b) Devotees of Vishnu
(c) Muslim Sufi saints
(d) Scholars of Islamic studies

Answer

Answer: (d) Scholars of Islamic studies

---

Question 3.
What are the devotees of Vishnu called?
(a) Alvars
(b) Nayanars
(c) Lingayats
(d) Chishti

Answer

Answer: (a) Alvars

---

Question 4.
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Karaikkal Ammaiyar?
(a) She was a devotee of Shiva.
(b) She adopted the path of extreme asceticism.
(c) Her compositions were preserved within the Alvar traditions.
(d) Her compositions posed a challenge to patriarchal norms.

Answer

Answer: (c) Her compositions were preserved within the Alvar traditions.

---

Question 5.
Jangama or wandering monks belonged to which community?
(a) Alvars
(b) Lingayats
(c) Kabirpanthis
(d) Jogis

Answer

Answer: (b) Lingayats

---

Question 6.
Which general term was used to refer to the migrant communities?
(a) Shakas
(b) Yavanas
(c) Turks
(d) Mlechchha

Answer

Answer: (d) Mlechchha

---

Question 7.
What is the literal meaning of the term ‘silsila’?
(a) A chain
(b) Disciple
(c) Devotion
(d) Without attributes

Answer

Answer: (a) A chain

---

Question 8.
Which of the following practices in Chishti Khanqah represent attempts to assimilate local traditions?
(i) Bowing before the Shaikh
(ii) Offering water to the visitors
(iii) Shaving the heads of the initiates
(iv) Yogic exercises
(a) ‘i’ and ‘ii’
(b) only ‘i’
(c) ‘iii’ and ‘iv’
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above

---

Question 9.
Who composed the prem-akhyan ‘Padmavat’?
(a) Amir Khusrau
(b) Baba Farid
(c) Malik Muhammad Jayasi
(d) Ratansen

Answer

Answer: (c) Malik Muhammad Jayasi

---

Question 10.
Which of the following statements regarding Sant Kabir is incorrect?
(a) Kabir used terms drawn from Vedantic traditions.
(b) Kabir described the Ultimate reality as Allah, Khuda, Hazrat and Pir.
(c) Many of his compositions are found in Adi Granth Sahib.
(d) Verses attributed to Kabir mention the name of his teacher, Ramanand.

Answer

Answer: (d) Verses attributed to Kabir mention the name of his teacher, Ramanand.

---

Question 11.
Who led the new religious movement in Karnataka?

Answer

Answer: The new religious movement in Karnataka was led by Basavana a Brahman.

---

Question 12.
Name the two women poet-saints of Tamil Nadu.

Answer

Answer: Andal and Karaikkal

---

Question 13.
Match the following.

(i) Nirguna	(a) sound
(ii) Alakh	(b) with attributes
(iii) Shabda	(c) the unseen
(iv) Sasuna	(d) without attributes

Choose the correct option
(a) i – d, ii – c, iii – a, iv – b
(b) i – c, ii – a, iii – b, iv – d
(c) i – c, ii – b, iii – a, iv – d
(d) i – d, ii – a, iii – b, iv – c

Answer

Answer: (a) i – d, ii – c, iii – a, iv – b

---

Question 14.
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Lingayats did not practice funerary rites such as cremation, prescribed in the Dharmashastras.
Reason (R): Lingayats believe that on death the devotee will be united with Shiva and will not return to this world.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(d) (R) is correct but (A) is not correct.

Answer

Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

---

Question 15.
Consider the following statements regarding Kabir.
(i) Kabir organised his followers into a community and set up rules for congregational worship.
(ii) Kabir described the Ultimate Reality using terms drawn from Islam, Vedantic traditions and from yogic traditions.
(iii) Verses ascribed to Kabir have been compiled in three distinct but overlapping traditions.
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) III only
(d) I only

Answer

Answer: (d) I only

---

Question 16.
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Pilgrimage, called ziyarat, to tombs of Sufi saints is prevalent all over the Muslim world.
Reason (R): The khanqah was the centre of social life.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(d) (R) is correct but (A) is not correct.

Answer

Answer: (b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

---

Question 17.
Identify the image and write its name.

Answer

Answer: It is a fifteenth-century stone sculpture depicting Krishna playing the flute.

---

Question 18.
Identify the image and write its name.

Answer

Answer: It is a twelfth-century bronze image of Karaikkal Ammaiyar.

---

Question 19.
Which of the following statements is NOT correct about Baba Guru Nanak?
(a) Guru Nanak advocated a form of nirguna bhakti.
(b) Baba Guru Nanak organised his followers into a community.
(c) He rejected sacrifices, ritual baths, image worship, austerities, and the scriptures of both Hindus and Muslims.
(d) Guru Nanak appointed one of his disciples, Arjan, to succeed him as the preceptor (guru).

Answer

Answer: (d) Guru Nanak appointed one of his disciples, Arjan, to succeed him as the preceptor (guru).

---

Question 20.
________ is the best-known woman poet within the bhakti tradition.

Answer

Answer: Mirabai

---

Question 21.
In the late fifteenth century, _______ emerged as one of the leading proponents of Vaishnavism in Assam.

Answer

Answer: Shankaradeva

---

Question 22.
Find out from the following pairs which one is correctly matched:
(a) Deg : Food
(b) Khanqah : Pilgrimage
(c) Futuh : Charity
(d) Murids : Master

Answer

Answer: (c) Futuh : Charity

---

Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 History Chapter 6 Bhakti-Sufi Traditions: Changes in Religious Beliefs and Devotional Texts with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 12 History Bhakti-Sufi Traditions MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 History Chapter 7 An Imperial Capital: Vijayanagara with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 History with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided An Imperial Capital: Vijayanagara Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on An Imperial Capital: Vijayanagara Class 12 Objective Questions.

An Imperial Capital: Vijayanagara Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Krishnadeva Raya belonged to which dynasty?
(a) Sangam
(b) Tuluva
(c) Saluvas
(d) Aravidu

Answer

Answer: (b) Tuluva

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Question 2.
Which ruler composed the work Amuktamalyada?
(a) Krishnadeva Raya
(b) Sultan of Bijapur
(c) Rama Raya
(d) Harihara

Answer

Answer: (a) Krishnadeva Raya

---

Question 3.
Harihara and Bukka belonged to which dynasty?
(a) Tuluva
(b) Saluvas
(c) Aravidu
(d) Sangam

Answer

Answer: (d) Sangam

---

Question 4.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding Mahanavami Dibba?
(a) It was a high platform with slots for wooden pillars at a dose and regular intervals.
(b) It was a massive platform located on one of the highest points in the city.
(c) It was a place where the king met his advisers.
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) It was a massive platform located on one of the highest points in the city.

---

Question 5.
Which Persian ambassador visited the Vijayanagara Empire?
(a) Domingo Paes
(b) Nicolo de Conti
(c) Abdur Razzaq
(d) Duarte Barbosa

Answer

Answer: (c) Abdur Razzaq

---

Question 6.
The Battle of Talikota between Vijayanagara and the Deccan sultans took place in which year?
(a) 1550
(b) 1565
(c) 1570
(d) 1575

Answer

Answer: (b) 1565

---

Question 7.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Amara-nayaka system?
(a) The Amara-nayakas were traders.
(b) Main features of this system were derived from the mansabdari system.
(c) Kings had no control over the Amara- nayakas.
(d) The Amara-nayakas were military commanders who were given territories to govern by the Raya.

Answer

Answer: (d) The Amara-nayakas were military commanders who were given territories to govern by the Raya.

---

Question 8.
Consider the following statements regarding the Virupaksha temple.
(i) The hall in front of the main shrine was built by Krishnadeva Raya to mark his accession.
(ii) It has a unique shrine designed as a chariot.
(iii) The principal deity of this temple was generally worshipped in Maharashtra.
(a) only ‘i’
(b) ‘i’ and ‘iii’
(c) ‘ii’ and ‘iii’
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) only ‘i’

---

Question 9.
Which traveller called the ‘Mahanavami Dibba’ as the ‘House of Victory’?
(a) Duarte Barbosa
(b) Fernao Nuniz
(c) Domingo Paes
(d) Abdur Razzaq

Answer

Answer: (c) Domingo Paes

---

Question 10.
On which of the following occasions was the ceremony performed at Mahanavami Dibba?
(a) Worship of the state horse
(b) Marriage of the king
(c) Victory over the enemy
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Worship of the state horse

---

Question 11.
Where is the Hazara Rama temple situated?

Answer

Answer: The Hazara Rama temple is situated in the sacred center of Vijayanagara.

---

Question 12.
Which dynasty did Krishnadeva Raya belong to?

Answer

Answer: Krishnadeva Raya belonged to the Tuluva dynasty.

---

Question 13.
Identify the image and write its name.

Answer

Answer: The Mahanavami Dibba

---

Question 14.
Identify the image and write its name.

Answer

Answer: The chariot of the Vitthala temple

---

Question 15.
The ruins at Hampi were brought to light in 1800 by an engineer and antiquarian named _________

Answer

Answer: Colonel Colin Mackenzie

---

Question 16.
Krishnadeva Raya, the most famous ruler of Vijayanagara, composed a work on statecraft in Telugu known as the _______

Answer

Answer: Amuktamalyada

---

Question 17.
Arrange the following dynasties of the Vijayanagara Empire in chronological order:
1. Sangama
2. Aravidu
3. Tuluva
4. Saluva
Choose the correct option:
(a) 1, 3, 4 and 2
(b) 2, 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 4, 3 and 2
(d) 4, 1,2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (c) 1, 4, 3 and 2

---

Question 18.
Read the information given below:
Identify and name this system.

This system was a major political innovation of the Vijayanagara Empire. It is likely that many features of this system were derived from the iqta system of the Delhi Sultanate.

Answer

Answer: Amara-nayaka system

---

Question 19.
Match the following.

(i) Abdur Razzaq	(a) Persia
(ii) Afanasii Nikitin	(b) England
(iii) Fernao Nuniz	(c) Russia
(iv) Colonel Colin Mackenzie	(d) Portugal

Choose the correct option
(a) i – a, ii – d, iii – b, iv – c
(b) i – c, ii – a, iii – b, iv – d
(c) i – a, ii – c, iii – d, iv – b
(d) i – d, ii – a, iii – b, iv – c

Answer

Answer: (c) i – a, ii – c, iii – d, iv – b

---

Question 20.
Consider the following statements regarding the rule of Krishnadeva Raya.
(i) Krishnadeva Raya belonged to the Tuluva dynasty.
(ii) He acquired the land between the Tungabhadra and Krishna rivers and subdued the rulers of Orissa and defeated the Sultan of Bijapur.
(iii) The hall in front of the main shrine of the Vitthala temple was built by Krishnadeva Raya.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) II only

Answer

Answer: (a) I and II

---

Question 21.
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The rayas gave territories to military commanders.
Reason (R): The Amar-nayaka system was a major political innovation of the Mughal Empire.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(d) (R) is correct but (A) is not correct.

Answer

Answer: (c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

---

Question 22.
Who founded the Vijayanagara Empire?

Answer

Answer: Two brothers Harihara and Bukka laid the foundation of Vijayanagara Empire in 1336.

---

Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 History Chapter 7 An Imperial Capital: Vijayanagara with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 12 History An Imperial Capital: Vijayanagara MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 7 Evolution with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Evolution Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Evolution Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Evolution Multiple Choice Questions of Class 12 Biology Chapter 7 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Evolution Class 12 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 7 Biology Class 12 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Select the correct answer

Question 1.
Which of the following is used as an atmospheric pollution indicator?
(a) Lepidoptera
(b) Lichens
(c) Lycopersicon
(d) Lycopodium.

Answer

Answer: (b) Lichens

---

Question 2.
The theory of spontaneous generation stated that
(a) life arose from living forms only
(b) life can arise from both living and non-living
(c) life can arise from non-living things only
(d) life arises spontaneously, neither from living nor from the non-living.

Answer

Answer: (c) life can arise from non-living things only

---

Question 3.
Animal husbandry and plant breeding programmes are the examples of
(a) reverse evolution
(b) artificial selection
(c) mutation
(d) natural selection.

Answer

Answer: (b) artificial selection

---

Question 4.
Palaeontological evidences for evolution refer to the
(a) development of embryo
(b) homologous organs
(c) fossils
(d) analogous organs.

Answer

Answer: (c) fossils

---

Question 5.
The bones of forelimbs of whale, bat, cheetah and man are similar in structure, because
(a) one organism has given rise to another
(b) they share a common ancestor
(c) they perform the same function
(d) the have biochemical similarities.

Answer

Answer: (b) they share a common ancestor

---

Question 6.
Analogous organs arise due to
(a) divergent evolution
(b) artificial selection
(c) genetic drift
(d) convergent evolution.

Answer

Answer: (d) convergent evolution.

---

Question 7.
(p + q)² = p² + 2pq + q² = 1 represents an equation used in
(a) population genetics
(b) Mendelian genetics
(c) biometrics
(d) molecular genetics.

Answer

Answer: (a) population genetics

---

Question 8.
Appearance of antibiotic-resistant bacteria is an example of
(a) adaptive radiation
(b) transduction
(c) pre-existing variation in the population
(d) divergent evolution.

Answer

Answer: (c) pre-existing variation in the population

---

Question 9.
Evolution of life shows that life forms had a trend of moving from
(a) land to water
(b) dry land to wet land
(c) fresh water to sea water
(d) water to land.

Answer

Answer: (d) water to land.

---

Question 10.
Viviparity is considered to be more evolved because
(a) the young ones are left on their own
(b) the young ones are protected by a thick shell
(c) the young ones are protected inside the mother’s body and are looked after they are born leading to more chances of survival
(d) the embryo takes a long time to develop.

Answer

Answer: (c) the young ones are protected inside the mother’s body and are looked after they are born leading to more chances of survival

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Question 11.
Fossils are generally found in
(a) Sedimentary rocks
(b) Igneous rocks
(c) Metamorphic rocks
(d) Any type of rock.

Answer

Answer: (a) Sedimentary rocks

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Question 12.
For the MN-blood group system, the frequencies of M and N alleles are 0.7 and 0.3, respectively. The expected frequency of MN-blood group bearing organisms is likely to be
(a) 42%
(b) 49%
(c) 9%
(d) 58%.

Answer

Answer: (a) 42%

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Question 13.
Which type of selection industrial melanism observed in moth Bistort bitularia?
(a) Stabilising
(b) Directional
(b) Disruptive
(d) Artificial.

Answer

Answer: (b) Directional

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Question 14.
The most accepted line of descent in human evolution is
(a) Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo sapiens → Homo habilis
(b) Homo erectus → Homo habilis Homo sapiens
(c) Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens
(d) Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo erectus → Homo habilis → Homo sapiens.

Answer

Answer: (c) Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens

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Question 15.
Which of the following is an example for connecting link species?
(a) Lobe fish
(b) Dodo bird
(c) Sea weed
(d) Tyrannosaurus rex.

Answer

Answer: (a) Lobe fish

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Question 16.
Match the scientists listed under column ‘A’ with ideas listed under column ‘B’

Column I	Column II
i. Darwin	M. abiogenesis
ii. Oparin	N. use and disuse of organs
iii. Lamarck	O. continental drift theory
iv. Wagner	P. evolution by natural

(a) i-M; ii-P; iii-N; iv-O
(b) i-P; ii-M; iii-N; iv-O
(c) i-N; ii-P; iii-O; iv-M
(d) i-P; ii-O; iii-N; iv-M.

Answer

Answer: (b) i-P; ii-M; iii-N; iv-O

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Question 17.
In 1953 S.L. Miller created primitive earth conditions in the laboratory and gave experimental evidence for origin of first form of life from pre-existing non-living organic molecules. The primitive earth conditions created include
(a) low temperature, volcanic storms, atmosphere rich in oxygen
(b) low temperature, volcanic storms, reducing atmosphere
(c) high temperature, volcanic storms, non-reducing atmosphere
(d) high temperature, volcanic storms, reducing atmosphere containing CH₄, NH₃ etc.

Answer

Answer: (d) high temperature, volcanic storms, reducing atmosphere containing CH₄, NH₃ etc.

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Question 18.
Variations during mutations of meiotic re-combinations are
(a) random and directionless
(b) random and directional
(c) random and small
(d) random, small and directional.

Answer

Answer: (a) random and directionless

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Assertion and Reason Type Questions

These questions consist of two statements each, printed as Assertion and Reason.
While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four responses:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
Question 19.
Assertion: The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes.
Reason: The first autotrophic organisms were the chemo-autotrophs that never released oxygen.

Answer

Answer: (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of Assertion.

---

Question 20.
Assertion: Human ancestors never used their tails and so the tail expressing gene has disappeared in them.
Reason: Lamarck’s theory of evolution is popularly called theory of continuity of germplasm.

Answer

Answer: (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

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Question 21.
Assertion: Coacervates are believed to be the precursors of life.
Reason: Coacervates were self-duplicating aggregates of proteins surrounded by lipid molecules.

Answer

Answer: (c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

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Question 22.
Assertion: Chimpanzee is the closest relative of present-day humans.
Reason: The banding pattern in the auto some numbers 3 and 6 is remarkably similar.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.

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Question 23.
Assertion: King cobra is adaptive to Oriental realm.
Reason: Wallace line prevents interaction of king cobra and kangaroo.

Answer

Answer: (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of Assertion.

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Question 24.
Assertion: Amphibians have evolved from fishes.
Reason: Archaeopteryx is a fossil linking fishes and amphibians.

Answer

Answer: (c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

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Question 25.
Assertion: Continued use of eyes leads to an improvement of eyesight.
Reason: Isolating mechanisms prevent reproduction even between the members of same species.

Answer

Answer: (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

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Question 26.
Assertion: Mutations are basically different from fluctuations.
Reason: Mutations are sudden discontinuous and large variations, while fluctuations are small and continuous variations.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.

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Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 History Chapter 8 Peasants, Zamindars and the State: Agrarian Society and the Mughal Empire with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 History with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Peasants, Zamindars and the State Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Peasants, Zamindars and the State Class 12 Objective Questions.

Peasants, Zamindars and the State Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
What was the basic unit of agricultural society?
(a) State
(b) City
(c) Town
(d) Village

Answer

Answer: (d) Village

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Question 2.
Which of the following crops was introduced into India via Africa and Spain?
(a) Chillies
(b) Maize
(c) Papaya
(d) Tomatoes

Answer

Answer: (b) Maize

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Question 3.
Who was the author of Ain-i-Akbari?
(a) Akbar
(b) Abul Fazl
(c) Ibn Batuta
(d) Abdur Razzaq

Answer

Answer: (b) Abul Fazl

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Question 4.
Which of the following were the duties performed by state officials in the 16th century?
(a) Collection of land revenue
(b) Measuring the land
(c) Keeping the records
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

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Question 5.
Which of the following crops were considered as jins-i-Kamil?
(a) Cotton and sugarcane
(b) Maize and sugarcane
(c) Rice and wheat
(d) Chillies and potatoes

Answer

Answer: (a) Cotton and sugarcane

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Question 6.
Which of the following statements regarding the roles played by women in agrarian society is incorrect?
(a) Women sowed, weeded, threshed, and winnowed the harvest.
(b) Women worked shoulder to shoulder with men in fields.
(c) During some days of the month women were not allowed to touch the plough.
(d) Women took the produce to the overseas markets for trade.

Answer

Answer: (d) Women took the produce to the overseas markets for trade.

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Question 7.
What do you understand by the term Khud-Kashta?
(a) Peasants who were residents of the village
(b) Non-resident cultivators
(c) Revenue collectors
(d) Head of jati panchayat

Answer

Answer: (a) Peasants who were residents of the village

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Question 8.
Which of the following crops was banned by Jahangir?
(a) Betel leaf
(b) Chillies
(c) Tobacco
(d) Maize

Answer

Answer: (c) Tobacco

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Question 9.
What was the village headman called?
(a) Muqaddam
(b) Asarrii
(c) Muzarian
(d) Riaya

Answer

Answer: (a) Muqaddam

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Question 10.
Which of the following Muslim community was considered menial?
(a) Mandal
(b) Halalkhoran
(c) Majur
(d) Jangli

Answer

Answer: (b) Halalkhoran

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Question 11.
Name any two Jins-i-Kamil crops.

Answer

Answer: Cotton and sugarcane are two Jins-i-Kamil crops.

---

Question 12.
Give one point of difference between Khud- Kashta and Pahi-Kashta?

Answer

Answer: Khud-Kashta were the peasants who lived in the village which they cultivated themselves. Pahi-Kashta were the peasants who lived in some other village and cultivated lands elsewhere on a contractual basis.

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Question 13.
Find out from the following pairs which one is not correctly matched:
(a) Kharif : Autumn
(b) Rabi : Spring
(c) Makka : Maize
(d) Muqaddam : Labourer

Answer

Answer: (d) Muqaddam: Labourer

---

Question 14.
Indicate which of the following statements is NOT correct.
(a) Jati Panchayat arbitrated civil disputes between members of different castes.
(b) The state respected the decisions of jati panchayat in matters related to criminal justice.
(c) Jati Panchayat mediated in contested claims on the land.
(d) Milkiyat as the extensive personal lands held by the zamindars.

Answer

Answer: (b) The state respected the decisions of jati panchayat in matters related to criminal justice.

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Question 15.
Match the following.

(i) Headman	(a) Village accountant
(ii) Patwari	(b) Begar
(iii) Labour	(c) Kharbandi
(iv) Scrubland	(d) Mandals

Choose the correct option.
(a) i – b, ii – c, iii – a, iv – d
(b) i – c, ii – a, iii – b, iv – d
(c) i – c, ii – d, iii – b, iv – a
(d) i – d, ii – a, iii – b, iv – c

Answer

Answer: (d) i – d, ii – a, iii – b, iv – c

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Question 16.
Look at the given painting and describe it.

Answer

Answer: It is a seventeenth-century painting depicting textile production.

---

Question 17.
Look at the given painting and describe it.

Answer

Answer: This painting depicts Abu’l Fazl presenting the manuscript of the completed Akbar Nama to his patron.

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Question 18.
An administrative subdivision of a Mughal painting is called _________

Answer

Answer: Pargana

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Question 19.
_________ was a form of tribute collected by the Mughal state.

Answer

Answer: Peshkash

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Question 20.
Consider the following statements regarding the classification of lands under Akbar.
(i) Polaj is land which is annually cultivated for each crop in succession and is never allowed to lie fallow.
(ii) Chachar is land uncultivated for five years and more.
(iii) Parauti is land left out of cultivation for a time that it may recover its strength.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) i and iii
(b) ii and iii
(c) i and ii
(d) iii only

Answer

Answer: (a) i and iii

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Question 21.
Read the information given below:
Identify and name the administrative system.

The Mughal administrative system had at its apex a military-cum-bureaucratic apparatus which was responsible for looking after the civil and military affairs of the state.

Answer

Answer: Mansabdari system

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Question 22.
Arrange the following events in chronological order:
1. Ahmad Shah Abdali defeated the Marathas
2. Bahadur Shah II deposed and exiled to Rangoon
3. Nadir Shah invaded India
4. Humayun regained lost territories
Choose the correct option:
(a) 4, 3, 1, and 2
(b) 4, 1, 2, and 3
(c) 3, 4, 1, and 2
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer

Answer: (a) 4, 3, 1, and 2

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Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 History Chapter 8 Peasants, Zamindars and the State: Agrarian Society and the Mughal Empire with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 12 History Peasants, Zamindars and the State MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 8 Human Health and Disease with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Human Health and Disease Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Human Health and Disease Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Human Health and Disease Multiple Choice Questions of Class 12 Biology Chapter 8 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Human Health and Disease Class 12 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 8 Biology Class 12 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Select the correct answer

Question 1.
The term ‘Health’ is defined in many ways. The most accurate definition of the health would be:
(a) Health is the state of body and mind in a balanced condition
(b) Health is the reflection of a smiling face
(c) Health is a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being
(d) Health is the symbol of economic prosperity.

Answer

Answer: (c) Health is a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being

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Question 2.
The organisms which cause diseases in plants and animals are called:
(a) pathogens
(b) vectors
(c) insects
(d) worms.

Answer

Answer: (a) pathogens

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Question 3.
The chemical test that is used for diagnosis of typhoid is:
(a) ELISA Test
(b) ESR Test
(c) PCR Test
(d) Widal Test.

Answer

Answer: (d) Widal Test.

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Question 4.
Diseases are broadly grouped into infectious and non-infectious diseases. In the list given below, identify the infectious diseases.
(i) Cancer
(ii) Influenza
(iii) Allergy
(iv) Smallpox.
(a) i and ii
(b) ii and iii
(c) iii and iv
(d) ii and iv

Answer

Answer: (d) ii and iv

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Question 5.
The sporozoites that cause infection when a female Anopheles mosquito bites a human being are formed in:
(a) Liver of human
(b) RBCs of mosquito
(c) Salivary glands of mosquito
(d) Intestine of human.

Answer

Answer: (c) Salivary glands of mosquito

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Question 6.
The disease chikungunya is transmitted by:
(a) Houseflies
(b) Aedes mosquitoes
(c) Cockroach
(d) Female Anopheles.

Answer

Answer: (b) Aedes mosquitoes

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Question 7.
Many diseases can be diagnosed by observing the symptoms in the patient. Which group of symptoms are indicative of pneumonia?
(a) Difficulty in respiration, fever, chills, cough, headache
(b) Constipation, abdominal pain, cramps, blood clots
(c) Nasal congestion and discharge, cough, sore throat, headache
(d) High fever, weakness, stomach pain, loss of appetite and constipation.

Answer

Answer: (a) Difficulty in respiration, fever, chills, cough, headache

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Question 8.
Which type of immune response is responsible for the rejection of tissues/ organs in the patient’s body post¬transplantation?
(a) auto-immune response
(b) humoral immune response
(c) physiological immune response
(d) cell-mediated immune response.

Answer

Answer: (d) cell-mediated immune response.

---

Question 9.
In malignant tumours, the cells proliferate, grow rapidly and move to other parts of the body to form new tumours. This stage of disease is called:
(a) metagenesis
(b) metastasis
(c) teratogenesis
(d) mitosis.

Answer

Answer: (b) metastasis

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Question 10.
When an apparently healthy person is diagnosed as unhealthy by a psychiatrist, the reason could be that:
(a) the patient was not efficient at his work
(b) the patient was not economically prosperous
(c) the patient shows behavioural and social maladjustment
(d) he does not take interest in sports.

Answer

Answer: (c) the patient shows behavioural and social maladjustment

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Question 11.
Which of the following are the reason(s) for Rheumatoid arthritis ? Choose the correct option.
(i) Lymphocytes become more active
(ii) Body attacks self cells
(iii) More antibodies are produced in the body
(iv) The ability to differentiate pathogens or foreign molecules from self cells is lost
(a) i and ii
(b) ii and iv
(c) iii and iv
(d) i and iii

Answer

Answer: (b) ii and iv

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Question 12.
AIDS is caused by HIV. Among the following, which one is not a mode of transmission of HIV?
(a) Transfusion of contaminated blood
(b) Sharing the infected needles
(c) Shaking hands with infected persons
(d) Sexual contact with infected persons.

Answer

Answer: (c) Shaking hands with infected persons

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Question 13.
‘Smack’ is a drug obtained from the:
(a) latex of Papaver somniferum
(b) leaves of Cannabis sativa
(c) flowers of Dhatura
(d) fruits of Erythroxylon coca.

Answer

Answer: (a) latex of Papaver somniferum

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Question 14.
The substance produced by a cell in viral infection that can protect other cells from further infection is :
(a) serotonin
(b) colostrum
(c) interferon
(d) histamine.

Answer

Answer: (c) interferon

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Question 15.
Transplantation of tissues/organs to save certain patients often fails due to rejection of such tissues/organs by the patient. Which type of immune response is responsible for such rejections?
(a) auto-immune response
(b) humoral immune response
(c) physiological immune response
(d) cell-mediated immune response.

Answer

Answer: (d) cell-mediated immune response.

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Question 16.
Antibodies present in colostrum which protect the newborn from certain diseases is of:
(a) Ig G type
(b) Ig A type
(c) Ig D type
(d) Ig E type.

Answer

Answer: (b) Ig A type

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Question 17.
Tobacco consumption is known to stimulate secretion of adrenaline and nor-adrenaline. The component causing this could be:
(a) Nicotine
(b) Tannic acid
(c) Curaimin
(d) Catechin.

Answer

Answer: (a) Nicotine

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Assertion and Reason Type Questions

These questions consist of two statements each, printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) if Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
Question 18.
Assertion: There is no chance of transmission of malaria to a man by the bite of a male Anopheles mosquito.
Reason: It carries a non-virulent strain of Plasmodium.

Answer

Answer: (c) if Assertion is true but the Reason is false.

---

Question 19.
Assertion: Mast cells in the human body release excessive amounts of inflammatory chemicals which cause allergic reactions.
Reason: Allergens in the environment on reaching human body stimulate mast cells in certain individuals.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

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Question 20.
Assertion: Dope test is used to estimate the level of blood alcohol by analysing the breath of persons drinking alcohol.
Reason: A drunken person usually feels tense and less talkative.

Answer

Answer: (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

---

Question 21.
Assertion: Interferons are types of antibodies produced by bacteria-infected cells of the body.
Reason: Interferons stimulate inflammation at the site of injury.

Answer

Answer: (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

---

Question 22.
Assertion: LSD and marijuana are clinically used as analgesics.
Reason: Both these drugs suppress brain function.

Answer

Answer: (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

---

Question 23.
Assertion: After drinking, alcohol is changed to glucose in liver.
Reason: Liver cells are able to form glucose from alcohol by reverse fermentation.

Answer

Answer: (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

---

Question 24.
Assertion: Our body contains separate T-cells for every antigen the body encounters.
Reason: Each T-cell recognises a specific antigen.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

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Question 25.
Assertion: A person who has received a cut and is bleeding needs to be given anti-tetanus treatment.
Reason: Anti-tetanus injection provides immunity by producing antibodies for tetanus.

Answer

Answer: (c) if Assertion is true but the Reason is false.

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Hope the information shared regarding the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 8 Human Health and Disease with Answers Pdf free download is true and genuine as far as our knowledge is concerned. If you feel any information regarding CBSE Class 12 Biology Human Health and Disease MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers is missing do reach us and we will look into it and add it accordingly.