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Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 History Chapter 9 Kings and Chronicles: The Mughal Courts with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 History with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Kings and Chronicles Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Kings and Chronicles Class 12 Objective Questions.

Kings and Chronicles Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Who was the author of Humayun Nama?
(a) Abu’l Fazl
(b) Humayun
(c) Abdul Hamid Lahori
(d) Gulbadan Begum

Answer

Answer: (d) Gulbadan Begum

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Question 2.
In which year did Babur come to India?
(a) 1523
(b) 1524
(c) 1525
(d) 1526

Answer

Answer: (d) 1526

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Question 3.
Which Mughal ruler made Persian the language of the court?
(a) Babur
(b) Humayun
(c) Akbar
(d) Shah Jahan

Answer

Answer: (c) Akbar

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Question 4.
Which of the following statements related to the art of painting is incorrect?
(i) The Safavid kings of Iran patronised the finest artists.
(ii) The depiction of living beings in the form of painting or sculpture was greatly promoted in Islam.
(iii) Abu’l Fazl described the painting as a ‘magical art’.
(iv) Mir Sayyed Ali and Abdus Samad accompanied Emperor Babur to Delhi.
(a) ‘i’ and ‘iv’
(b) ‘ii’ and ‘iv’
(c) ‘ii’ only
(d) ‘i’ only

Answer

Answer: (b) ‘ii’ and ‘iv’

---

Question 5.
What is the meaning of sulh-i-kul?
(a) Absolute peace
(b) Enlightened rule
(c) State is all-powerful
(d) Divine guidance

Answer

Answer: (a) Absolute peace

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Question 6.
Buland Darwaza was built to commemorate which Mughal victory?
(a) Mughal victory in Lahore
(b) Mughal victory in Qandahar
(c) Mughal victory in Gujarat
(d) Mughal victory in Golconda

Answer

Answer: (c) Mughal victory in Gujarat

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Question 7.
Shah Jahan’s jewelled throne is described in which Mughal chronicle?
(a) Badshah Nama
(b) Ain-i-Akbari
(c) Akbar Nama
(d) Humayun Nama

Answer

Answer: (a) Badshah Nama

---

Question 8.
Which Mughal ruler commissioned the construction of a white marble tomb for Shaikh Salim Chisti?
(a) Babur
(b) Humayun
(c) Akbar
(d) Jahangir

Answer

Answer: (c) Akbar

---

Question 9.
Which of the following practices related to the Mughal court is incorrect?
(a) Once the emperor sat on the throne, none was permitted to move from his position or to leave without permission.
(b) The forms of salutation to the ruler indicated the person’s status in the hierarchy.
(c) Jharoka darshan was introduced by Akbar with the objective of broadening the acceptance of the imperial authority as part of popular faith.
(d) Under Akbar sijda or complete prostration was replaced with Chahar taslim and zaminbos.

Answer

Answer: (d) Under Akbar sijda or complete prostration was replaced with Chahar taslim and zaminbos.

---

Question 10.
Which of the following statements related to the imperial household is incorrect?
(a) In the Mughal household, wives who came from royal families were called begems.
(b) in the Mughal household wives who were not of noble birth were called aghas.
(c) The concubines occupied the lowest position.
(d) The lineage-based family structure was entirely static.

Answer

Answer: (d) The lineage-based family structure was entirely static.

---

Question 11.
What is calligraphy?

Answer

Answer: Calligraphy means the art of handwriting.

---

Question 12.
What was tainat-i-rakab?

Answer

Answer: Tainat-i-rakab was a reserve force of nobles stationed at the court.

---

Question 13.
________ was the centre of manuscript production.

Answer

Answer: Kitabkhana

---

Question 14.
Humayun Nama was written by __________

Answer

Answer: Gulbadan Begum

---

Question 15.
Indicate which of the following statements is NOT correct.
(a) The forms of salutation to the ruler indicated the person’s status in the hierarchy.
(b) The highest form of submission was sijda or complete prostration.
(c) Akbar replaced sijda with Chahar taslim and zaminbos.
(d) Jharoka darshan was introduced by Akbar with the objective of broadening the acceptance of the imperial authority.

Answer

Answer: (c) Akbar replaced sijda with chahar taslim and zaminbos.

---

Question 16.
Match the following.

(i) Akbar Nama	(a) Abdul Hamid Lahori
(ii) Humayun Nama	(b) Chandrabhan Barahman
(iii) Badshah Nama	(c) Gulbadan Begum
(iv) Char Chman	(d) Abu’l Fazl

Choose the correct option
(a) i – b, ii – c, iii – a, iv – d
(b) i – d, ii – c, iii – a, iv – b
(c) i – c, ii – d, iii – b, iv – a
(d) i – d, ii – a, iii – b, iv – c

Answer

Answer: (b) i – d, ii – c, iii – a, iv – b

---

Question 17.
Identify the image and write its name.

Answer

Answer: This is a Mughal turban box.

---

Question 18.
Look at the given painting and describe it.

Answer

Answer: This is a painting done by Abu’l Hasan. This painting shows Jahangir shooting the figure of poverty, which is shown as a dark cloud.

---

Question 19.
Arrange the following Mughal emperors in chronological order:
1. Nasiruddin Humayun
2. Aurangzeb
3. Zahiruddin Babur
4. Jahangir
Choose the correct option:
(a) 4, 3, 1 and 2
(b) 4, 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3, 1, 4, and 2
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer

Answer: (c) 3, 1, 4, and 2

---

Question 20.
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other la¬belled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Akbar was interested to spread Christianity in India and invite Jesuit Priests for the same.
Reason (R): The first Jesuit mission reached the Mughal court at Fatehpur Sikri in 1580 and stayed for about two years.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(d) (R) is correct but (A) is not correct.

Answer

Answer: (d) (R) is correct but (A) is not correct.

---

Question 21.
Consider the following statements regarding the classification of lands under Akbar:
(i) In sulh-i kul some religions and schools of thought had freedom of expression.
(ii) The ideal of sulh-I Kul was implemented through state policies.
(iii) Shahjahan abolished the tax on pilgrimage in 1563 and jizya in 1564 as the two were based on religious discrimination.
Which of the following statement (s) is/are correct?
(a) I and III
(b) II and III
(c) III only
(d) II only

Answer

Answer: (d) II only

---

Question 22.
Read the information given below:
Identify and name the style of writing.

It is Akbar’s favourite style of writing. It is a fluid style with long horizontal strokes. It is written using a piece of trimmed reed with a tip of five to 10 mm called qalam, dipped in carbon ink.

Answer

Answer: Nastaliq style

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Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 History Chapter 9 Kings and Chronicles: The Mughal Courts with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 12 History Kings and Chronicles MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 History Chapter 10 Colonialism and the Countryside: Exploring Official Archives with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 History with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Colonialism and the Countryside Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Colonialism and the Countryside Class 12 Objective Questions.

Colonialism and the Countryside Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Which revenue system was introduced in Bombay Deccan?
(a) Permanent Settlement
(b) Kankut
(c) Batai
(d) Ryotwari

Answer

Answer: (d) Ryotwari

---

Question 2.
By which name were the jotedars called?
(a) Zamindars
(b) Ryots
(c) Haoldars
(d) Paharias

Answer

Answer: (c) Haoldars

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Question 3.
Who introduced the Permanent Settlement in Bengal?
(a) Lord Charles Cornwallis
(b) Francis Buchanan
(c) David Ricardo
(d) Thomas Munro

Answer

Answer: (a) Lord Charles Cornwallis

---

Question 4.
Which of the following statements related to Santhals is incorrect?
(a) They lived on the peripheries of Rajmahal hills.
(b) They cleared forests and ploughed the land.
(c) They borrowed money from dikus.
(d) They practiced shifting cultivation.

Answer

Answer: (d) They practiced shifting cultivation.

---

Question 5.
Which of the following were the features of the Permanent Settlement introduced in Bengal?
(i) Land revenue was fixed.
(ii) Ownership of lands was non-transferable.
(iii) Ryots were reduced to the status of tenants.
Select the correct answer.
(a) i and ii only
(b) i and iii only
(c) ii and iii only
(d) i, ii, and iii

Answer

Answer: (b) i and iii only

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Question 6.
Which of the following is not a feature of shifting cultivation?
(a) Patches of forest are cut and burnt in rotation.
(b) Seeds are sown in the ashes.
(c) Plots cleared are cultivated for a few years and then left fallow.
(d) These patches were enriched by nitrogen from the ash.

Answer

Answer: (d) These patches were enriched by nitrogen from the ash.

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Question 7.
Which of the following was true under colonial rule?
(a) Forest people retained the customary right to hunt.
(b) Forest people were considered savage, primitive, and difficult.
(c) British officials encouraged shifting cultivation.
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Forest people were considered savage, primitive, and difficult.

---

Question 8.
Who among the following was the leader of the Santhal rebellion?
(a) Siddhu Manjhi
(b) Birsa Munda
(c) Kanu
(d) Paharias

Answer

Answer: (a) Siddhu Manjhi

---

Question 9.
In which year did the American Civil War break out?
(a) 1857
(b) 1859
(c) 1861
(d) 1872

Answer

Answer: (c) 1861

---

Question 10.
What were the hill folks known as?
(a) Dikus
(b) Ryots
(c) Santhals
(d) Paharias

Answer

Answer: (d) Paharias

---

Question 11.
When and who introduced the Permanent Settlement in India?

Answer

Answer: Permanent Settlement was introduced in India by Lord Cornwallis in 1793.

---

Question 12.
What was the Sunset Law?

Answer

Answer: According to the Sunset Law, if the payment did not come in by sunset of the specified date the zamindari was liable to be auctioned.

---

Question 13.
Which of the following statement is not appropriate about Ryotwari Settlement?
(a) The revenue was directly settled with the ryot.
(b) The lands were resurveyed every 30 years and the revenue rates increased.
(c) The revenue demand was not permanent.
(d) It was imposed in the 1790s when the prices of agricultural produce were depressed.

Answer

Answer: (d) It was imposed in the 1790s when the prices of agricultural produce were depressed.

---

Question 14.
Read the information given below:
Identify and name the commission of enquiry to investigate into causes of the riots.

The commission produced a report that was presented to the British Parliament in 1878. The commission held enquiries in the districts where the riots spread, recorded statements of ryots, sahukars and eyewitnesses, compiled statistical data on revenue rates, prices, and interest rates in different regions, and collated the reports sent by district collectors.

Answer

Answer: Deccan Riots Commission

---

Question 15.
Consider the following statements regarding the Limitation Law.
(i) This law was passed by the British in 1859.
(ii) This law stated that the loan bonds signed between the moneylenders and ryots would have validity for only two years.
(iii) This law was implemented to check the accumulation of interest over time.
Which of the following statement (s) is/are correct?
(a) I and III
(b) II and III
(c) I and II
(d) II only

Answer

Answer: (a) I and III

---

Question 16.
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Government of India
pressurised the Government of Bombay to set up a commission of inquiry to investigate the causes of the Deccan riots.
Reason (R): The government of India was worried by the memory of 1857.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(d) (R) is correct but (A) is not correct.

Answer

Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

---

Question 17.
Arrange the following events in chronological order:
1. Santhal Rebellion
2. American Civil War
3. Permanent Settlement
4. First Revenue Settlement in Bombay Deccan
Choose the correct option:
(a) 4, 3, 1 and 2
(b) 4, 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3, 1, 4, and 2
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer

Answer: (c) 3, 1, 4, and 2

---

Question 18.
Identify the image and describe it.

Answer

Answer: This painting depicts the Santhals fighting the sepoys of the British Raj.

---

Question 19.
Match the following.

(i) cutcheries	(a) peasant
(ii) Jumma	(b) moneylender
(iii) Sahukar	(c) court
(iv) ryot	(d) assessment

Choose the correct option
(a) i – b, ii – c, iii – a, iv – d
(b) i – d, ii – c, iii – a, iv – b
(c) i – c, ii – d, iii – b, iv – a
(d) i – a, ii – d, iii – b, iv – c

Answer

Answer: (d) i – a, ii – d, iii – b, iv – c

---

Question 20.
________ was declared as the land of the Santhals.

Answer

Answer: Damin-i-Koh

---

Question 21.
________ is a term used for the transaction made in the name of a fictitious or relatively insignificant person, whereas the real beneficiary remains unnamed.

Answer

Answer: Benami

---

Question 22.
What were the different names jotedars were known by?

Answer

Answer: Jotedars were known in different areas as haoladars, gantidars, and mandals.

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Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 History Chapter 10 Colonialism and the Countryside: Exploring Official Archives with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 12 History Colonialism and the Countryside MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

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Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production Multiple Choice Questions of Class 12 Biology Chapter 9 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production Class 12 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 9 Biology Class 12 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Select the correct answer

Question 1.
The chances of contracting bird flu from a properly cooked (above 100°C) chicken and egg are:
(a) very high
(b) high
(c) moderate
(d) none.

Answer

Answer: (d) none.

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Question 2.
A group of animals which are related by descent and share many similarities are referred to as:
(a) breed
(b) race
(c) variety
(d) species.

Answer

Answer: (a) breed

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Question 3.
Inbreeding is carried out in animal husbandry because it:
(a) increases vigour
(b) improves the breed
(c) increases heterozygosity
(d) increases homozygosity.

Answer

Answer: (d) increases homozygosity.

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Question 4.
Which one of the following is a marine fish?
(a) Rohu
(b) Hilsa
(c) Catla
(d) Common carp.

Answer

Answer: (b) Hilsa

---

Question 5.
Which one of the following products of apiculture is used in cosmetics and polishes?
(a) Honey
(b) Oil
(c) Wax
(d) Royal jelly.

Answer

Answer: (c) Wax

---

Question 6.
More than 70 percent of livestock population is in:
(a) Denmark
(b) India
(c) China
(d) India and China.

Answer

Answer: (d) India and China.

---

Question 7.
The agriculture sector of India employs:
(a) 60 per cent of the population
(b) 70 per cent of the population
(c) 30 per cent of the population
(d) 62 per cent of the population

Answer

Answer: (d) 62 per cent of the population

---

Question 8.
33 per cent of India’s Gross Domestic Product comes from
(a) industry
(b) agriculture
(c) export
(d) small-scale cottage industries.

Answer

Answer: (b) agriculture

---

Question 9.
Sonalika and Kalyan Sona are varieties of:
(a) wheat
(b) rice
(c) millet
(d) tobacco.

Answer

Answer: (a) wheat

---

Question 10.
Which one of the following is not a fungal disease?
(a) Rust of wheat
(b) Smut of Bajra
(c) Black rot of crucifers
(d) Red rot of sugarcane.

Answer

Answer: (c) Black rot of crucifers

---

Question 11.
In virus-infected plants the meristematic tissues in both apical and axillary buds are free of virus because:
(a) the dividing cells are virus resistant
(b) meristems have anti-viral compounds
(c) the cell division of meristems is faster than the rate of viral multiplication
(d) viruses cannot multiply within meristem cell (s).

Answer

Answer: (c) the cell division of meristems is faster than the rate of viral multiplication

---

Question 12.
Several South Indian states raise 2-3 crops of rice annually. The agronomic feature that makes this possible is because of:
(a) shorter rice plant
(b) better irrigation facilities
(c) early yielding rice variety
(d) disease-resistant rice variety.

Answer

Answer: (c) early yielding rice variety

---

Question 13.
Which one of the following combinations would a sugarcane farmer look for in the sugarcane crop?
(a) Thick stem, long internodes, high sugar content and disease resistant
(b) Thick stem, high sugar content and profuse flowering
(c) Thick stem, short internodes, high sugar content, disease resistant
(d) Thick stem, low sugar, content, disease resistant.

Answer

Answer: (a) Thick stem, long internodes, high sugar content and disease resistant

---

Question 14.
Fungicides and antibiotics are chemicals that:
(a) enhance yield and disease resistance
(b) kill pathogenic fungi and bacteria, respectively
(c) kill all pathogenic microbes
(d) kill pathogenic bacteria and fungi respectively.

Answer

Answer: (b) kill pathogenic fungi and bacteria, respectively

---

Question 15.
Use of certain chemicals and radiation to change the base sequences of genes of crop plants is termed:
(a) recombinant DNA technology
(b) transgenic mechanism
(c) mutation breeding
(d) gene therapy.

Answer

Answer: (c) mutation breeding

---

Question 16.
The scientific process by which crop plants are enriched with certain desirable nutrients is called:
(a) crop protection
(b) breeding
(c) biofortification
(d) bio-remediation.

Answer

Answer: (c) biofortification

---

Question 17.
The term ‘totipotency’ refers to the capacity of a:
(a) cell to generate whole plant
(b) bud to generate whole plant
(c) seed to germinate
(d) cell to enlarge in size.

Answer

Answer: (a) cell to generate whole plant

---

Question 18.
Given below are a few statements regarding somatic hybridisation. Choose the correct statements.
(i) Protoplasts of different cells of the same plant are fused
(ii) Protoplasts from cells of different species can be fused
(iii) Treatment of cells with cellulase and pectinase is mandatory
(iv) The hybrid protoplast contains characters of only one parental protoplast.
(a) ii and iii
(b) i and ii
(c) iii and ii
(d) ii and iv.

Answer

Answer: (c) iii and ii

---

Question 19.
An explant is:
(a) dead plant
(b) part of the plant
(c) part of the plant used in tissue culture
(d) part of the plant that expresses a specific gene.

Answer

Answer: (c) part of the plant used in tissue culture

---

Question 20.
The biggest constraint of plant breeding is:
(a) availability of desirable gene in the crop and its wild relatives
(b) infrastructure
(c) trained manpower
(d) transfer of genes from unrelated sources.

Answer

Answer: (d) transfer of genes from unrelated sources.

---

Assertion and Reason Type Questions

These questions consist of two statements each, printed as Assertion and Reason.
While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
Question 21.
Assertion: Fish meal is rich source of proteins for cattle and poultry.
Reason: Fish meal is produced from non-edible parts of fish like fins, gills, etc.

Answer

Answer: (c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

---

Question 22.
Assertion: Cattle breeds can be improved by superovulation and embryo transfer.
Reason: Superovulation in high milk- yielding cows is induced by hormonal injections.

Answer

Answer: (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

---

Question 23.
Assertion: Apis mellifera species of honey bees is commonly used for apiculture.
Reason: Apis mellifera is very docile, high- yielding and less swarming.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

---

Question 24.
Assertion: Poultry farming is helping in raising the nutritional standards.
Reason: Poultry supplies both meat and eggs.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

---

Question 25.
Assertion: The owners of Indian dairy farms prefer to have buffaloes than the cows.
Reason: Buffaloes yield more milk than the cows and their milk contains more fats.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

---

Question 26.
Assertion: Catfishes are best culturable fishes.
Reason: Catfishes survive even at high temperature and low oxygen.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

---

Question 27.
Assertion: Cattle feed should contain both roughage and concentrate.
Reason: Roughage of feed provides nutrients, while concentrate of food contains fibres.

Answer

Answer: (c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

---

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Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 History Chapter 11 Rebels and the Raj: The Revolt of 1857 and its Representations with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 History with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Rebels and the Raj Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Rebels and the Raj Class 12 Objective Questions.

Rebels and the Raj Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
What is a Bell of arms?
(a) Storeroom of weapons
(b) Storeroom of clothes
(c) Storeroom of grains
(d) Storeroom of bells

Answer

Answer: (a) Storeroom of weapons

---

Question 2.
Where did the Mutiny begin?
(a) Delhi
(b) Jhansi
(c) Lucknow
(d) Meerut

Answer

Answer: (d) Meerut

---

Question 3.
What do you understand by the term ‘Firangi’?
(a) Outcaste
(b) A type of drink
(c) Foreigner
(d) Mirror work

Answer

Answer: (c) Foreigner

---

Question 4.
Who led the revolt in Bihar?
(a) Birjis Qadr
(b) Kunwar Singh
(c) Nana Saheb
(d) Shah Mai

Answer

Answer: (b) Kunwar Singh

---

Question 5.
Who was also called as ‘Danka Shah’?
(a) Maullavi Ahmadullah Shah
(b) Shah Mai
(c) Birjis Qadr
(d) Bahadur Shah

Answer

Answer: (a) Maullavi Ahmadullah Shah

---

Question 6.
Which of the following was not one of the rumours and prophecies during the 19 century?
(a) New cartridges of the Enfield rifle were greased with the fat of cows and pigs.
(b) British had mixed the bone dust of dogs into the salt.
(c) There was a prophecy that the British rule would come to an end on the centenary of the Battle of Plassey on 23 June 1857.
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) British had mixed the bone dust of dogs into the salt.

---

Question 7.
Which of the following is an incorrect match for the Centre of the revolt and their leaders?
(a) Gonoo-Kol tribals
(b) Kanpur-Nana Sahib
(c) Jhansi-Rani Lakshmi Bai
(d) Awadh-Shah Mai

Answer

Answer: (d) Awadh-Shah Mai

---

Question 8.
Which of the following was the immediate cause of the Revolt of 1857?
(a) Mixing of bone dust of cow in the atta
(b) Banning the practice of Sati
(c) Cartridges of Enfield rifle
(d) Allowing widow remarriage

Answer

Answer: (c) Cartridges of Enfield rifle

---

Question 9.
Why were the sepoys discontented with the British?
(a) Abuse and physical violence
(b) Racial discrimination
(c) Less pay as compared to the British counterpart
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above

---

Question 10.
Which of the following was not one of the terms accepted by the Indian ruler entering Subsidiary Alliance?
(a) The ruler had to disband his military force.
(b) The ruler had to allow the British to station their troops within his kingdom.
(c) The ruler had to act in accordance with the advice of the British.
(d) The British would not protect the ruler in case of foreign attack.

Answer

Answer: (d) The British would not protect the ruler in case of foreign attack.

---

Question 11.
Who among the following mobilised the villages of Pargana Barout in Uttar Pradesh in the Revolt of 1857?
(a) Maulvi Ahmadullh Shah
(b) Kunwar Singh
(c) Shah Mai
(d) Manvant Singh

Answer

Answer: (c) Shah Mai

---

Question 12.
Which of the following statements was not a justified reason for the annexation of Awadh by the British in 1857?
(a) Wajid Ali was the unpopular ruler.
(b) Subsidiary Alliance system was accepted by Wajid Ali Shah at ease.
(c) Mangal Pandey initiated the revolt from Awadh.
(d) Material benefits were given to the taluqdars by the British.

Answer

Answer: (c) Mangal Pandey initiated the revolt from Awadh.

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Question 13.
When and by whom was the Subsidiary Alliance devised?

Answer

Answer: The Subsidiary Alliance was devised by Lord Wellesley in 1798.

---

Question 14.
When and where did the Mutiny begin?

Answer

Answer: The mutiny began in Meerut on 10 May 1857.

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Question 15.
Match the following.

(i) Rani Lakshmi Bai	(a) Kanpur
(ii) Nana Sahib	(b) Singhbhum
(iii) Kunwar Singh	(iv) Gonoo
(c) Jhansi	(d) Arrah

Choose the correct option
(a) i – b, ii – c, iii – a, iv – d
(b) i – d, ii – c, iii – a, iv – b
(c) i – c, ii – d, iii – b, iv – a
(d) i – c, ii – a, iii – d, iv – b

Answer

Answer: (d) i – c, ii – a, iii – d, iv – b

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Question 16.
________ was one of the many maulvis who played an important part in the revolt of 1857.

Answer

Answer: Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah

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Question 17.
Governor General ______ described the kingdom of Awadh as “a cherry that will drop into our mouth one day”.

Answer

Answer: Lord Dalhousie

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Question 18.
Consider the following statements regarding the Subsidiary Alliance.
(i) The British would be responsible for protecting their ally from external and internal threats to their power.
(ii) In the territory of the ally, a British armed contingent would be stationed.
(iii) The British would provide the resources for maintaining this contingent.
(iv) The ally could enter into agreements with other rulers or engage in warfare only with the permission of the British. Which of the following statement (s) is/are correct?
(a) I, II and III
(b) I, II and IV
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I, III and IV

Answer

Answer: (b) I, II, and IV

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Question 19.
Identify the painting and its painter.

Answer

Answer: This painting is “Relief of Lucknow”, painted by Thomas Jones Barker.

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Question 20.
Arrange the following events in chronological order:
1. Introduction of Summary Revenue Settlement
2. Subsidiary Alliance introduced in Awadh
3. Rani Jhansi killed in the battle
4. Delhi captured by the British June
Choose the correct option:
(a) 4, 3, 1 and 2
(b) 4, 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 1, 4, and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer

Answer: (c) 2, 1, 4, and 3

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Question 21.
Identify the painting and its painter.

Answer

Answer: This painting is “In Memoriam”, painted by Joseph Noel Paton.

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Question 22.
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In towns and cantonments, sepoys and the common people refused to touch the atta.
Reason (R): There were rumours that the British had mixed the bone dust of cows and pigs into the flour that was sold in the market.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(d) (R) is correct but (A) is not correct.

Answer

Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

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Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 10 Microbes in Human Welfare with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Microbes in Human Welfare Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Microbes in Human Welfare Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Microbes in Human Welfare Multiple Choice Questions of Class 12 Biology Chapter 10 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Microbes in Human Welfare Class 12 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 10 Biology Class 12 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Select the correct answer

Question 1.
The vitamin whose content increases following the conversion of milk into curd by lactic acid bacteria is:
(a) Vitamin C
(b) Vitamin D
(c) Vitamin B12
(d) Vitamin E.

Answer

Answer: (c) Vitamin B12

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Question 2.
Waste water treatment generates a large quantity of sludge, which can be treated by:
(a) digesters
(b) activated sludge
(c) chemicals
(d) oxidation pond.

Answer

Answer: (d) oxidation pond.

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Question 3.
Methanogenic bacteria are not found in:
(a) rumen of cattle
(b) gobar gas plant
(c) bottom of water logged paddy fields
(d) activated sludge.

Answer

Answer: (d) activated sludge.

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Question 4.
Match the following list of bacteria and their commercially important products:

Column I	Column II
(i) Aspergillus niger	(a) Lactic acid
(ii) Acetobacter aceti	(b) Butyric acid
(iii) Clostridium butylicum	(c) Acetic acid
(iv) Lactobacillus	(d) Citric acid

Choose the correct match:
(a) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
(b) i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a
(c) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
(d) i-d, ii-a, iii-c, iv-b.

Answer

Answer: (c) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a

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Question 5.
Match the following list substances and their roles:

Column I	Column II
(i) Statin	(a) Removal of oil stains
(ii) Cyclosporin A	(b) removal of clots from blood vessels
(iii) Streptokinase	(c) Lowering of blood cholesterol
(iv) Lipase	(d) Immuno-suppressive agent

Choose the correct match :
(a) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d
(b) i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv-c
(c) i-d, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
(d) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a.

Answer

Answer: (d) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a.

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Question 6.
The primary treatment of waste water involves the removal of:
(a) dissolved impurities
(b) stable particles
(c) toxic substances
(d) harmful bacteria.

Answer

Answer: (b) stable particles

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Question 7.
BOD of waste water is estimated by measuring the amount of:
(a) total organic matter
(b) biodegradable organic matter
(c) oxygen evolution
(d) oxygen consumption.

Answer

Answer: (d) oxygen consumption.

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Question 8.
Which one of the following alcoholic drinks is produced without distillation?
(a) Wine
(b) Whisky
(c) Rum
(d) Brandy.

Answer

Answer: (a) Wine

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Question 9.
The technology of biogas production from cow dung was developed in India largely due to the efforts of:
(a) Gas Authority of India
(b) Oil and Natural Gas Commission
(c) Indian Agricultural Research Institute and Khadi & Village Industries Commission
(d) Indian Oil Corporation.

Answer

Answer: (c) Indian Agricultural Research Institute and Khadi & Village Industries Commission

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Question 10.
The free-living fungus Trichoderma can be used for:
(a) killing insects
(b) biological control of plant diseases
(c) controlling butterfly caterpillars
(d) producing antibiotics.

Answer

Answer: (b) biological control of plant diseases

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Question 11.
What would happen if oxygen availability to activated sludge floes is reduced?
(a) It will slowdown the rate of degradation of organic matter.
(b) The centre of floes will become anoxic, which would cause death of bacteria and eventually breakage of floes.
(c) Floes would increase in size as anaerobic bacteria would grow around floes.
(d) Protozoa would grow in large numbers.

Answer

Answer: (b) The centre of floes will become anoxic, which would cause death of bacteria and eventually breakage of floes.

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Question 12.
Mycorrhiza does not help the host plant in:
(a) Enhancing its phosphorus uptake capacity
(b) Increasing its tolerance to drought
(c) Enhancing its resistance to root pathogens
(d) Increasing its resistance to insects.

Answer

Answer: (d) Increasing its resistance to insects.

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Question 13.
Which one of the following is not a nitrogen-fixing organism?
(a) Anabaem
(b) Nostoc
(c) Azotobacter
(d) Pseudomonas.

Answer

Answer: (d) Pseudomonas.

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Question 14.
Big holes in Swiss cheese are made by a:
(a) machine
(b) bacterium that produces methane gas
(c) bacterium producing a large amount of carbon dioxide
(d) fungus that releases a lot of gases during its metabolic activities.

Answer

Answer: (c) bacterium producing a large amount of carbon dioxide

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Question 15.
The residue left after methane production from cattle dung is:
(a) burnt
(b) buried in land-fills
(c) used as manure
(d) used in civil construction.

Answer

Answer: (c) used as manure

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Question 16.
Methanogens do not produce:
(a) oxygen
(b) methane
(c) hydrogen sulphide
(d) carbon dioxide.

Answer

Answer: (a) oxygen

---

Question 17.
Activated sludge should have the ability to settle quickly so that it can:
(a) be rapidly pumped back from sedimentation tank to aeration tank
(b) absorb pathogenic bacteria present in waste water while sinking to the bottom of the settling tank
(c) be discarded and anaerobically digested
(d) absorb colloidal organic matter

Answer

Answer: (a) be rapidly pumped back from sedimentation tank to aeration tank

---

Question 18.
Match the items in Column ‘A’ and Column ‘B’ and choose correct answer.

Column I	Column II
(i) Lady bird beetle	(a) Methano bacterium
(ii) Mycorrhiza	(b) Trichoderma
(iii) Biological control	(c) Aphids
(iv) Biogas	(d) Glomus

Choose the correct match:
(a) i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a
(b) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a
(c) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c
(d) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d.

Answer

Answer: (b) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a

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Assertion and Reason Type Questions

These questions consist of two statements each, printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
Question 19.
Assertion: Nitrogen-fixing bacteria of legume nodules live in O₂-depleted cells.
Reason: Leghaemoglobin completely removes O₂ from the nodule cells.

Answer

Answer: (c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.

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Question 20.
Assertion: Nitrogen-fixing enzyme in legume root nodules functions at low oxygen concentration.
Reason: Low oxygen concentration is provided by leghaemoglobin.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

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Question 21.
Assertion: Organochlorine pesticides are organic compounds that have been chlorinated.
Reason: Fenitrothion is one of the organochlorine pesticides.

Answer

Answer: (c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.

---

Question 22.
Assertion: Insulin is a type of antibiotic.
Reason: Insulin is synthesised by microbes by the process of fermentation.

Answer

Answer: (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

---

Question 23.
Assertion: Only Lactobacillus lactis causes curdling of milk.
Reason: Only these bacteria can produce lactic acid.

Answer

Answer: (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

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Question 24.
Assertion: Anabaena is commonly called a symbiotic biofertiliser.
Reason: Anabaena is found as endosymbiont in the thallus of Anthoceros.

Answer

Answer: (c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.

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Question 25.
Assertion: Discovery of penicillin by Alexander Fleming was a serendipity.
Reason: Fleming was working on Penicillium notatum along with Staphylococcus bacteria.

Answer

Answer: (c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.

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Colonial Cities Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
What was the importance of Delhi, Agra, and Lahore during the Mughal period?
(a) Important trade centres
(b) Important religious towns
(c) Important centres of imperial administration
(d) Important port towns

Answer

Answer: (c) Important centres of imperial administration

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Question 2.
When did the East India Company settle in Madras?
(a) 1639
(b) 1661
(c) 1690
(d) 1699

Answer

Answer: (a) 1639

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Question 3.
When did the East India Company settle in Calcutta?
(a) 1639
(b) 1661
(c) 1690
(d) 1699

Answer

Answer: (c) 1690

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Question 4.
When did the all India Census become a regular feature?
(o) 1872
(b) 1881
(c) 1891
(d) 1911

Answer

Answer: (b) 1881

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Question 5.
Which Viceroy officially moved his council to Simla?
(a) John Lawrence
(b) Lord Wellesley
(c) Robert Clive
(d) Henry Lawrence

Answer

Answer: (a) John Lawrence

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Question 6.
What do you understand by the term ‘dubashes’?
(a) Indians weavers
(b) Indians living in ‘White towns’
(c) Villagers living in cities
(d) Indians who could speak two languages

Answer

Answer: (d) Indians who could speak two languages

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Question 7.
Who donated money for the construction of University Hall?
(a) Sir Cowasjee Jehangir Readymoney
(b) Premchand Roychand
(c) Rajabai Roychand
(d) Jamsetji Tata

Answer

Answer: (a) Sir Cowasjee Jehangir Readymoney

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Question 8.
Why were hill stations important for the colonial economy?
Due to setting up of:
(a) tea and coffee plantations
(b) tea and jute plantations
(c) banana and coffee plantations
(d) jute and banana plantations

Answer

Answer: (a) tea and coffee plantations

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Question 9.
Why did paupers from rural areas flock to the cities?
(a) education
(b) entertainment
(c) employment
(d) agriculture

Answer

Answer: (c) employment

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Question 10.
High-pitched roofs, pointed arches and detailed decorations are features of which style of architecture?
(a) Indian style
(b) Neo-classical
(c) Neo-Gothic
(d) Indo-Saracenic style

Answer

Answer: (c) Neo-Gothic

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Question 11.
What is a pitched roof?

Answer

Answer: The pitched roof is a term used by architects to describe a sloping roof.

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Question 12.
When was the all-India census attempted?

Answer

Answer: The first all India Census was attempted in the year 1872.

---

Question 13.
Given below are the two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): British built European architectural style buildings in Bombay.
Reason (R): Familiar landscape in an alien country.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(d) (R) is correct but (A) is not correct.

Answer

Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

---

Question 14.
Which of the following is not a justified reason for the increase in the population of Bombay, Calcutta, and Madras during the colonial period?
(a) They were centres of colonial administration and political power.
(b) They had ample opportunities for new jobs and occupations.
(c) They were centres of imperial administration and control.
(d) They emerged as the new economic capitals.

Answer

Answer: (c) They were centres of imperial administration and control.

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Question 15.
Match the European trading companies with their bases in India.

(i) Portuguese	(a) Madras
(ii) Dutch	(b) Panaji
(iii) British	(c) Masulipatnam
(iv) French	(d) Pondicherry

Choose the correct option
(a) i – b, ii – c, iii – a, iv – d
(b) i – d, ii – c, iii – a, iv – b
(c) i – c, ii – d, iii – b, iv – a
(d) i – c, ii – d, iii – b, iv – c

Answer

Answer: (a) i – b, ii – c, iii – a, iv – d

---

Question 16.
Consider the following statements regarding the importance of hill stations.
(i) The founding and settling of hill stations were initially connected with the needs of British trade.
(ii) They had tea and coffee plantations in their vicinity.
(iii) There was an influx of immigrant labourers from the plains as these hill stations provided many opportunities for jobs.
Which of the following statement (s) is/are correct?
(a) I and III
(b) II and III
(c) I and II
(d) II only

Answer

Answer: (b) II and III

---

Question 17.
Read the information given below:
Identity and name the Fort.

It became the nucleus of the White Town where most of the Europeans lived. Walls and bastions made this a distinct enclave.

Answer

Answer: Fort St George

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Question 18.
Arrange the following events in chronological order:
1. First spinning and weaving mill set up in Bombay
2. Asiatic Society founded by Sir William Jones
3. Supreme Court set up in Calcutta by EIC
4. Transfer of capital from Calcutta to Delhi
Choose the correct option:
(a) 4, 3, 1 and 2
(b) 3, 2, 1 and 4
(c) 3, 1, 4, and 2
(d) 1,2, 3 and 4

Answer

Answer: (b) 3, 2, 1 and 4

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Question 19.
Look at the given painting and describe it.

Answer

Answer: This is a Kalighat painting depicting male anxiety about female power. Female power was often expressed through the figure of a woman as a charmer who transformed men into sheep.

---

Question 20.
Identify the image and describe it.

Answer

Answer: It is the picture of the Town Hall in Bombay, which now houses the Asiatic Society of Bombay.

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Question 21.
Find out from the following pairs which one is correctly matched:
(a) Swang : folk theatre
(b) Pet : Settlement
(c) Puram : Village

Answer

Answer: (a) Swans : folk theatre

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Question 22.
In 1757, Nawab ______ was defeated in the Battle of Plassey by the East India Company.

Answer

Answer: Sirajudaula

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Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 History Chapter 12 Colonial Cities: Urbanisation, Planning and Architecture with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 12 History Colonial Cities MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.