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MCQ Questions for Class 12 History Chapter 13 Mahatma Gandhi and the Nationalist Movement with Answers

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Chapter 13 Mahatma Gandhi and the Nationalist Movement: Civil Disobedience and Beyond with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 History with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Mahatma Gandhi and the Nationalist Movement Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Mahatma Gandhi and the Nationalist Movement Class 12 Objective Questions.

Mahatma Gandhi and the Nationalist Movement Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following statements regarding Mahatma Gandhi is/are correct?
(i) He attended the Second Round Table Conference.
(ii) He opposed the demand for separate electorates for lower castes.
(iii) He returned to India in 1917 after two decades.
(iv) He acknowledged Lala Lajpat Rai as his political mentor.
Choose the correct option.
(a) Only ii
(b) ii and iv
(c) iii and iv
(d) i and ii

Answer

Answer: (d) i and ii


Question 2.
When did Mahatma Gandhi make his major public appearance?
(a) 1915
(b) 1916
(c) 1917
(d) 1918

Answer

Answer: (b) 1916


Question 3.
A series of ‘Praja Mandals’ was established to promote nationalist creed in
(a) Middle classes
(b) Princely states
(c) Merchant community
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Princely states


Question 4.
In which year was the First Round Table Conference held?
(a) 1928
(b) 1929
(c) 1930
(b) 1931

Answer

Answer: (c) 1930


Question 5.
Which of the following was the first mass movement against the British in India?
(a) Quit India Movement
(b) Khilafat Movement
(c) Civil Disobedience Movement
(d) Swadeshi Movement

Answer

Answer: (d) Swadeshi Movement


Question 6.
In which year did Mahatma Gandhi give a call for the Quit India movement?
(a) 1930
(b) 1936
(c) 1942
(d) 1945

Answer

Answer: (c) 1942


Question 7.
Who led the Khilafat Movement in India?
(a) Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali
(b) Mohammad Ali Jinnah and Shamsuddin Hussain
(c) Maulana Azad and Hasrat AAohini
(d) Qutubuddin Ahmad and Maulana Azad

Answer

Answer: (a) Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali


Question 8.
Who called for the ‘Direct Action Day’ hartal?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel

Answer

Answer: (b) Mohammad Ali Jinnah


Question 9.
In which year did the Muslim League pass a resolution for a separate nation Pakistan?
(a) 1940
(b) 1942
(c) 1944
(d) 1945

Answer

Answer: (a) 1940


Question 10.
Where was Gandhi’s Ashram located?
(a) Dandi
(b) Champaran
(c) Kheda
(d) Sabarmati

Answer

Answer: (d) Sabarmati


Question 11.
Explain one point of difference between the Civil disobedience Movement and the Non-Cooperation Movement.

Answer

Answer: In the Non-Cooperation Movement people were asked not to cooperate with the British government in any way. On the other hand, the Civil Disobedience Movement asked the people to break colonial laws and not to pay taxes to the government.


Question 12.
In which year did Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi return to his homeland?

Answer

Answer: In January 1915, Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi returned to his homeland.


Question 13.
The ________ was a movement of Indian Muslims, led by Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali.

Answer

Answer: Khilafat Movement


Question 14.
What does this picture depict?
MCQ Questions for Class 12 History Chapter 13 Mahatma Gandhi and the Nationalist Movement with Answers Q14

Answer

Answer: In this picture within the tree of nationalism, Mahatma Gandhi is shown as the central figure surrounded by small pictures of other leaders and sages.


Question 15.
Nehru edited a collection of letters written to him during the national movement and published ________

Answer

Answer: A Bunch of Old Letters


Question 16.
Identify and name the personalities shown in the picture.
MCQ Questions for Class 12 History Chapter 13 Mahatma Gandhi and the Nationalist Movement with Answers Q16

Answer

Answer: Personalities shown in the picture are Jawaharlal Nehru, Mahatma Gandhi, and Vallabh Bhai Patel.


Question 17.
Indicate which of the following statements is NOT correct.
(a) Quit India was genuinely a mass movement.
(b) The Simon Commission was opposed as it had all British members.
(c) In its session held in 1930 in Lahore, the Indian National Congress passed a resolution for the complete independence of India.
(d) On the 16th of August, 1946, the Muslim League called for a “Direct Action Day”.

Answer

Answer: (c) In its session held in 1930 in Lahore, the Indian National Congress passed a resolution for the complete independence of India.


Question 18.
Arrange the following events of the National Movement in chronological order:
1. Gandhi-Irwin Pact
2. Champaran Movement
3. Mahatma Gandhi visits Noakhali
4. Peasant Movement in Bardoli Choose the correct option:
(a) 1, 3, 4 and 2
(b) 2, 4, 1 and 3
(c) 1, 4, 3 and 2
(d) 4, 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (b) 2, 4, 1 and 3


Question 19.
Read the information given below:

This Act authorised the Government to imprison any person without trial and convict him in court. It was considered as ‘Black Law’ by all Indians.

Identify and name the Act passed by the British.

Answer

Answer: RowlattAct


Question 20.
Match the following.

(i) Jallianwala Massacre(a) 1918
(ii) Peasant movement in Kheda(b) April 1919
(iii) Second Round Table conference(c) 1939
(iv) Second World War started(d) 1931

Choose the correct option.
(a) i – c, ii – d, iii – a, iv – b
(b) i – a, ii – b, iii – d, iv – c
(c) i – b, ii – a, iii – d, iv – c
(d) i – d, ii – a, iii – b, iv – c

Answer

Answer: (c) i – b, ii – a, iii – d, iv – c


Question 21.
Consider the follow g statements regarding the events of the National Movement.
(i) On 12 March 1930, Gandhiji began his march from Sabarmati Ashram towards Dandi.
(ii) In 1919, Gandhiji called for a countrywide campaign against the Rowlatt Act.
(iii) After the failure of the Cabinet Mission, Mahatma Gandhi decided to launch Quit India Movement.
Which of the following statement (s) is/are correct?
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) II only

Answer

Answer: (a) I and II


Question 22.
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): We need to be careful while interpreting government reports of the colonial period.
Reason (R): They often reflect the fears and anxieties of officials who were unable to control a movement and were anxious about its spread.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(d) (R) is correct but (A) is not correct.

Answer

Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).


Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 History Chapter 13 Mahatma Gandhi and the Nationalist Movement: Civil Disobedience and Beyond with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 12 History Mahatma Gandhi and the Nationalist Movement MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

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MCQ Questions for Class 12 History Chapter 14 Understanding Partition with Answers

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Chapter 14 Understanding Partition: Politics, Memories, Experiences with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 History with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Understanding Partition Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Understanding Partition Class 12 Objective Questions.

Understanding Partition Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
When was Hindu Mahasabha founded?
(a) 1915
(b) 1916
(c) 1917
(d) 1918

Answer

Answer: (a) 1915


Question 2.
When were separate electorates granted to the Muslims by the colonial rulers?
(a) 1905
(b) 1907
(c) 1908
(d) 1909

Answer

Answer: (d) 1909


Question 3.
When was the Lucknow Pact signed?
(a) 1915
(b) 1916
(c) 1919
(d) 1921

Answer

Answer: (b) 1916


Question 4.
In which of the following year, elections to the provincial legislatures were held for the first time?
(a) 1906
(b) 1918
(c) 1937
(d) 1947

Answer

Answer: (c) 1937


Question 5.
Who gave the ‘Two-Nation’ theory?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
(c) Shaukat Ali
(d) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel

Answer

Answer: (b) Mohammad Ali Jinnah


Question 6.
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the Partition of India?
(a) People were rendered homeless.
(b) People lost all of their immovable and movable assets.
(c) Boundary dispute was the main issue of this Partition.
(d) Women were mistreated.

Answer

Answer: (c) Boundary dispute was the main issue of this Partition.


Question 7.
Which of the following is not one of the advantages of oral history?
(a) It broadens the scope of history.
(b) It is in chronological order.
(c) It provides information other than the government policy and official records.
(d) It explores the experiences of the ignored people.

Answer

Answer: (b) It is in chronological order.


Question 8.
Who is the writer of the song ‘Sare Jahan Se Achha Hindustan Hamara’?
(a) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Sarojini Naidu
(d) Mohammad Iqbal

Answer

Answer: (d) Mohammad Iqbal


Question 9.
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the term ‘Communalism’?
(a) Communalism nurtures brotherhood and tolerance among different communities.
(b) Communalism refers to a politics that seeks to unify one community around a religious identity in hostile opposition to another community.
(c) Communalism defines communal identity as fundamental and fixed.
(d) Communalism is a particular kind of politicisation of religious identity.

Answer

Answer: (a) Communalism nurtures brotherhood and tolerance among different communities.


Question 10.
On which day the Muslim League announced, ‘Direct Action Day’?
(a) 15th August 1945
(b) 16th August 1945
(c) 15th August 1946
(d) 16th August 1946

Answer

Answer: (d) 16th August 1946


Question 11.
When were the separate electorates granted to the Muslims by the colonial government?

Answer

Answer: Separate electorates were granted to the Muslims by the colonial government in 1909 by Morley-Minto reforms.


Question 12.
What words have been used by the people and survivors for partition?

Answer

Answer: Maashal-la (Martial law), mara-Mari (killings), and raula or huller (disturbance, tumult, uproar)


Question 13.
______ came to be known as Frontier Gandhi.

Answer

Answer: Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan


Question 14.
Hindu Mahasabha was founded in the year _________

Answer

Answer: 1915


Question 15.
Look at the image and describe it.
MCQ Questions for Class 12 History Chapter 14 Understanding Partition with Answers Q15

Answer

Answer: This picture shows a massive refugee camp that was set up in Purana Qila in 1947 as migrants came pouring in from different places.


Question 16.
Look at the image and describe it.
MCQ Questions for Class 12 History Chapter 14 Understanding Partition with Answers Q16

Answer

Answer: This picture shows uprooted families migrating to a new homeland after the violent partition of British India in 1947.


Question 17.
Indicate which of the following statements is NOT correct.
(a) The Cabinet Mission recommended a loose three-tier confederation.
(b) In 1939, elections to the provincial legislatures were held for the first time.
(c) The Unionist Party represented the interests of landholders-Hindu, Muslim and Sikh in Punjab.
(d) On the 16th of August, 1946, the Muslim League called for a “Direct Action Day”.

Answer

Answer: (b) In 1939, elections to the provincial legislatures were held for the first time.


Question 18.
Arrange the following events in chronological order:
1. Pakistan demand was formalised in 1940
2. Second World War came to an end in 1945
3. Cabinet Mission came to India in 1946
4. Separate Electorates granted to Muslims
Choose the correct option:
(a) 1, 3, 4 and 2
(b) 4, 2, 1 and 3
(c) 1, 4, 3 and 2
(d) 4, 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (d) 4, 1, 2 and 3


Question 19.
Read the information given below:

We know about the grueling relief work of this doctor from a memoir entitled Love is Stronger than Hate: A Remembrance of 1947.

Identify and name the doctor who helped people during the partition.

Answer

Answer: Khushdeva Singh


Question 20.
Match the following.

(i) Lucknow Pact(a) 1909
(ii) Separate Electorates(b) 1937
(iii) Hindu Mahasabha founded(c) 1915
(iv) Provincial Elections held(d) 1916

Choose the correct option.
(a) i – c, ii – d, iii – a, iv – b
(b) i – a, ii – b, iii – d, iv – c
(c) i – d, ii – a, iii – c, iv – b
(d) i – d, ii – a, iii – b, iv – c

Answer

Answer: (c) i – d, ii – a, iii – c, iv – b


Question 21.
Consider the following statements regarding the events of the National Movement.
(i) Oral testimonies serve as a better source of information than the official documents regarding the political aspects.
(ii) Oral history has a wider scope to acquaint us with any historic or general event.
(iii) Oral history gives wider access to the experiences of the people who have been considered as the common masses in history.
Which of the following statement (s) is/are correct?
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) II only

Answer

Answer: (b) II and III


Question 22.
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Oral data on Partition are not automatically or easily available.
Reason (R): The oral historian faces the daunting task of having to sift the “actual” experiences of Partition from a web of “constructed” memories.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(d) (R) is correct but (A) is not correct.

Answer

Answer: (a) oth (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).


Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 History Chapter 14 Understanding Partition: Politics, Memories, Experiences with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 12 History Understanding Partition MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

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MCQ Questions for Class 12 History Chapter 15 Framing the Constitution with Answers

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Chapter 15 Framing the Constitution: The Beginning of a New Era with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 History with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Framing the Constitution Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Framing the Constitution Class 12 Objective Questions.

Framing the Constitution Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
When did the Indian Constitution come into effect?
(a) 26 January 1948
(b) 26 January 1949
(c) 26 January 1950
(d) 26 January 1951

Answer

Answer: (c) 26 January 1950


Question 2.
Which two civil servants gave vital assistance in preparing the Constitution?
(a) BN Rau and SN Mukherjee
(b) Somnath Lahiri and GB Pant
(c) TA Ramalingam Chettiar and RV Dhulekar
(d) Ms G Durgabai and K Santhanam

Answer

Answer: (a) BN Rau and SN Mukherjee


Question 3.
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the making of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) The members of the Constituent Assembly were elected on the basis of the provincial elections of 1946.
(b) The Assembly had representatives of the princely states.
(c) The Muslim League and the Congress had equal representatives in the Constituent Assembly.
(d) The total membership of the Constituent Assembly was 300.

Answer

Answer: (c) The Muslim League and the Congress had equal representatives in the Constituent Assembly.


Question 4.
Which of the following leaders introduced the ‘Objective Resolution’?
(a) DrBRAmbedkar
(b) Vallabh Bhai Patel
(c) Dr Rajendra Prasad
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru

Answer

Answer: (d) Jawaharlal Nehru


Question 5.
Which of the following was the President of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Dr Rajendra Prasad
(b) DrBRAmbedkar
(c) Vallabh Bhai Patel
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru

Answer

Answer: (a) Dr Rajendra Prasad


Question 6.
Who proposed that the National Flag of India be a ‘horizontal tricolour of saffron, white and dark green in equal proportion’, with a wheel in navy blue at the centre?
(a) Dr BR Ambedkar
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) RV Dhulekar
(d) Vallabh Bhai Patel

Answer

Answer: (b) Jawaharlal Nehru


Question 7.
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution?
(a) Vallabh Bhai Patel
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) KM Munshi
(d) Dr BR Ambedkar

Answer

Answer: (d) Dr BR Ambedkar


Question 8.
Who among the following made a powerful plea for continuing separate electorates?
(a) B Pocker
(b) BN Rao
(c) SN Mukherjee
(d) Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar

Answer

Answer: (a) B Pocker


Question 9.
Who among the following made an aggressive plea that Hindi be used as the language of constitution-making?
(a) Ms G Durgabai
(b) Shankarrao Deo
(c) RV Dhulekar
(d) TA Ramalingam Chettiar

Answer

Answer: (c) RV Dhulekar


Question 10.
Who among the following was the Chief Draughtsman of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) BN Rau
(b) Dr BR Ambedkar
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) SN Mukherjee

Answer

Answer: (d) SN Mukherjee


Question 11.
Who presented the Objective Resolution in the Constituent Assembly?

Answer

Answer: The Objective Resolution was presented in the Constituent Assembly by Pt Jawaharlal Nehru.


Question 12.
The Indian Constitution came into effect on _________

Answer

Answer: 26 January 1950


Question 13.
Indicate which of the following statements is NOT correct.
(a) The discussions within the Constituent Assembly were also influenced by the opinions expressed by the public.
(b) The Constituent Assembly was dominated by one party- the Congress.
(c) The members of the Constituent Assembly were elected on the basis of universal franchise.
(d) The Constituent Assembly had 300 members.

Answer

Answer: (c) The members of the Constituent Assembly were elected on the basis of universal franchise.


Question 14.
Why did Begum Aizaas Rasul consider separate electorates as self-destructive?

Answer

Answer: Begum Aizaas Rasul felt that separate electorates were self-destructive since they isolated the minorities from the majority.


Question 15.
Mahatma Gandhi thought that ________ would be the ideal language of communication between diverse communities.

Answer

Answer: Hindustani


Question 16.
Find out from the following pairs which one is not correctly matched:
(a) Quit India Movement: 1942
(b) Objectives Resolution introduced: December 1945
(c) Rising of the ratings of the Royal Indian Navy in Bombay: 1946
(d) Indian Constitution is signed: 1949

Answer

Answer: (b) Objectives Resolution introduced: December 1945


Question 17.
Match the following.

(i) B R Ambedkar(a) President of the Constituent Assembly
(ii) S N Mukherjee(b) Chairman of Drafting Committee
(iii) Rajendra Prasad(c) Chief Draughtsman of Constituent Assembly
(iv) Jawaharlal Nehru(d) Introduced Objectives Resolution

Choose the correct option
(a) i – b, ii – c, iii – a, iv – d
(b) i – c, ii – a, iii – b, iv – d
(c) i – c, ii – d, iii – b, iv – a
(d) i – d, ii – a, iii – b, iv – c

Answer

Answer: (a) i – b, ii – c, iii – a, iv – d


Question 18.
Consider the following statements regarding the demand for separate electorates.
(i) B R Ambedkar made a powerful plea for continuing separate electorates after partition.
(ii) Govind Ballabh Pant declared that demand for separate electorates was not only harmful for the nation but also for the minorities.
(iii) Begum Aizaas Rasul, for instance, felt that separate electorates were self-destructive since they isolated the minorities from the majority.
Which of the following statement (s) is/are correct?
(a) I and III
(b) II and III
(c) I and II
(d) III only

Answer

Answer: (b) II and III


Question 19.
Read the information given below:
Identify the speaker of these lines.

When told that not everyone in the Assembly knew the language, he retorted: “People who are present in this House to fashion a constitution for India and do not know Hindustani are not worthy to be members of this Assembly. They better leave.”
Answer

Answer: R V Dhulekar


Question 20.
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Granting of the right to vote to every adult Indian was one of the central features of the Indian Constitution.
Reason (R): In countries such as the United States and the United Kingdom women got the right to vote after a long drawn struggle.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(d) (R) is correct but (A) is not correct.

Answer

Answer: (b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).


Question 21.
Look at the image. Identify the personality and the event.
MCQ Questions for Class 12 History Chapter 15 Framing the Constitution with Answers Q21

Answer

Answer: In this image, Jawaharlal Nehru is speaking in the Constituent Assembly at midnight on 14 August 1947


Question 22.
Look at the image. Identify and write the name of the two personalities shown in the image.
MCQ Questions for Class 12 History Chapter 15 Framing the Constitution with Answers Q22

Answer

Answer: B R Ambedkar and Rajendra Prasad


Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 History Chapter 15 Framing the Constitution: The Beginning of a New Era with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 12 History Framing the Constitution MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 11 Biotechnology: Principles and Processes with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 11 Biotechnology: Principles and Processes with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Biotechnology: Principles and Processes Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Biotechnology: Principles and Processes Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Biotechnology: Principles and Processes Multiple Choice Questions of Class 12 Biology Chapter 11 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Biotechnology: Principles and Processes Class 12 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 11 Biology Class 12 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Select the correct answer

Question 1.
Rising of dough is due to
(a) Multiplication of yeast
(b) Production of CO2
(c) Emulsification
(d) Hydrolysis of wheat flour starch into sugars.

Answer

Answer: (b) Production of CO2


Question 2.
An enzyme catalysing the removal of nucleotides from the ends of DNA is:
(a) endonuclease
(b) exonuclease
(c) DNAligase
(d) Hind-ll.

Answer

Answer: (b) exonuclease


Question 3.
The transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another through the mediation of a vector-like virus is termed as:
(a) Transduction
(b) Conjugation
(c) Transformation
(d) Translation.

Answer

Answer: (a) Transduction


Question 4.
Which of the given statement is correct in the context of observing DNA separated by agarose gel electrophoresis?
(a) DNA can be seen in visible light
(b) DNA can be seen without staining in visible light
(c) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen in visible light
(d) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen under exposure to UV light.

Answer

Answer: (d) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen under exposure to UV light.


Question 5.
‘Restriction’ in Restriction enzyme refers to:
(a) Cleaving of phosphodiester bond in DNA by the enzyme
(b) Cutting of DNA at specific position only
(c) Prevention of the multiplication of bacteriophage in bacteria
(d) All of the above.

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above.


Question 6.
A recombinant DNA molecule can be produced in the absence of the following:
(a) Restriction endonuclease
(b) DNA ligase
(c) DNA fragments
(d) E. coli.

Answer

Answer: (d) E. coli.


Question 7.
In agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA molecules are separated on the basis of their:
(a) Charge only
(b) Size only
(c) Charge to size ratio
(d) All of the above.

Answer

Answer: (b) Size only


Question 8.
The most important feature in a plasmid to be used as a vector is:
(a) Origin of replication (ori)
(b) Presence of a selectable marker
(c) Presence of sites for restriction endonuclease
(d) Its size.

Answer

Answer: (a) Origin of replication (ori)


Question 9.
While isolating DNA from bacteria, which of the following enzymes is not used?
(a) Lyozyme
(b) Ribonuclease
(c) Deoxyribonuclease
(d) Protease.

Answer

Answer: (c) Deoxyribonuclease


Question 10.
Which of the following has popularised the PCR (polymerase chain reactions)?
(a) Easy availability of DNA template
(b) Availability of synthetic primers
(c) Availability of cheap deoxyribonucleotides
(d) Availability of ‘Thermostable’ DNA polymerase.

Answer

Answer: (d) Availability of ‘Thermostable’ DNA polymerase.


Question 11.
An antibiotic resistance gene in a vector usually helps in the selection of:
(a) Competent cells
(b) Transformed cells
(c) Recombinant cells
(d) None of the above.

Answer

Answer: (b) Transformed cells


Question 12.
Significance of ‘heat shock’ method in bacterial transformation is to facilitate:
(a) Binding of DNA to the cell wall
(b) Uptake of DNA through membrane transport proteins
(c) Uptake of DNA through transisent pores in the bacterial cell wall and plasma membrane
(d) Expression of antibiotic resistance gene.

Answer

Answer: (c) Uptake of DNA through transisent pores in the bacterial cell wall and plasma membrane


Question 13.
Name the enzymes ‘P’ and ‘Q’ that are involved in the processes given below.
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 11 Biotechnology Principles and Processes with Answers 1
(a) Enzyme P-Exonuclease and Enzyme Q-Permease
(b) Enzyme P-Exonuclease and Enzyme Q-Ligase
(c) Enzyme P-Endonuclease and Enzyme Q-Permease
(d) Enzyme P-Restriction endonuclease and Enzyme Q-Ligase

Answer

Answer: (d) Enzyme P-Restriction endonuclease and Enzyme Q-Ligase


Question 14.
A biotechnologist wanted to create a colony of E.coli possessing the plasmid pBR322, sensitive to Tetracycline. Which one of the following restriction sites would he use to ligate a foreign DNA?
(a) Sal I
(b) Pvu I
(c) EcoRI
(d) Hind III

Answer

Answer: (a) Sal I


Question 15.
Which of the following steps are catalysed by Taq polymerase in a PCR reaction?
(a) Denaturation of template DNA
(b) Annealing of primers to template DNA
(c) Extension of primer end on the template DNA
(d) All of the above.

Answer

Answer: (c) Extension of primer end on the template DNA


Question 16.
A bacterial cell was transformed with a recombinant DNA that was generated using a human gene. However, the transformed cells did not produce the desired protein. Reasons could be:
(a) Human gene may have intron which bacteria cannot process
(b) Amino acid codon for humans and bacteria are different
(c) Human protein is formed but degraded by bacteria
(d) All of the above.

Answer

Answer: (a) Human gene may have intron which bacteria cannot process


Question 17.
Which of the following should be chosen for best yield if one were to produce a recombinnt protein in large amount?
(a) Laboratory flask of largest capacity
(b) A stirred-tank bioreactor without in-lets and outlets
(c) A continuous culture system
(d) Any of the above.

Answer

Answer: (c) A continuous culture system


Question 18.
Who among the following was awarded the Nobel Prize for the development of PCR technique?
(a) Herbert Boyer
(b) Hargobind Khorana
(c) KaryMullis
(d) Arthur Kornberg.

Answer

Answer: (c) KaryMullis


Question 19.
Which of the following statements does not hold true for restriction enzyme?
(a) It recognises a palindromic nucleotide sequence.
(b) It is an endonuclease.
(c) It is isolated from viruses.
(d) It produes the same kind of sticky ends in different DNA molecules.

Answer

Answer: (c) It is isolated from viruses.


Assertion and Reason Type Questions

These questions consist of two statements each, printed as Assertion and Reason.
While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is a correct explanation of the As-sertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
Question 20.
Assertion: Recognition site should be preferably single and responsive to commonly used restriction enzyme.
Reason: In pBR 322 alien DNA is ligated generally in the area of Bam-HI site of tetracycline resistance gene.

Answer

Answer: (c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.


Question 21.
Assertion: Selection of recombinants due to inactivation of antibiotics is a cumbersome procedure.
Reason: It requires simultaneous planting on two plates having different antibiotics.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is a correct explanation of the As-sertion.


Question 22.
Assertion: Genetic engineering is basically the alteration of the genetic make up of cells by deliberate and artificial means.
Reason: It involves transfer or replacement of genes to create recombinant DNA.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is a correct explanation of the As-sertion.


Question 23.
Assertion: Three main types of restriction endonucleases, i.e. Type I, Type II and Type III are known with slightly different mode of action.
Reason: In palindromes with rotational symmetry second half of complementary strand in DNA double helix is the mirror image of base sequence in the first half of another strand.

Answer

Answer: (c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.


Question 24.
Assertion: Genetic engineering is also called recombinant DNA technology.
Reason: It brings about improvement of genetic make up of an organism.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is a correct explanation of the As-sertion.


Question 25.
Assertion: DNA segments can be excised by ‘molecular scissors or chemical scalpals’ what biotechnologists call restriction enzymes.
Reason: Restriction enzymes synthesised by microbes as a defence mechanism are specific endonucleases which can cleave double-stranded DNA.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is a correct explanation of the As-sertion.


Question 26.
Assertion: Antibodies have proved effective in lowering mortality rate.
Reason: Antibodies are used as preservation of food like fresh meat, fish and poultry feed.

Answer

Answer: (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.


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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 1 Accounting for Not for Profit Organisation with Answers

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Chapter 1 Accounting for Not for Profit Organisation with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Accounting for Not for Profit Organisation Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Accounting for Not for Profit Organisation Class 12 Objective Questions.

Accounting for Not for Profit Organisation Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

I. State which of the following is correct.

Question 1.
Receipts and Payments A/c is the summary of a:
(a) Cash Book
(b) Sales Book
(c) Purchases Book
(d) Journal

Answer

Answer: (a) Cash Book


Question 2.
Subscriptions received in advance during the accounting year is:
(a) An Income
(b) An Expense
(c) An Asset
(d) A Liability

Answer

Answer: (d) A Liability


Question 3.
Income and Expenditure A/c is of the nature of:
(a) Trial Balance
(b) Deficit A/c
(c) P & L A/c
(d) Balance Sheet

Answer

Answer: (c) P & L A/c


Question 4.
Cash received by converting an asset into cash is reflected in:
(a) Conversion A/c
(b) Receipts and Payments A/c
(c) Contract A/c
(d) Suspense A/c

Answer

Answer: (b) Receipts and Payments A/c


Question 5.
If the credit side of Receipts and Payments A/c exceeds the debit side, the balance represents:
(a) Bank charges
(b) Commission
(c) Bank overdraft
(d) Interest

Answer

Answer: (c) Bank overdraft


Question 6.
No cash transaction will be excluded from:
(a) Balance Sheet
(b) Profit & Loss A/c
(c) Receipts and Payments
(d) Income and Expenditure A/c

Answer

Answer: (c) Receipts and Payments


Question 7.
In Receipts and Payments A/c, cash in hand or at the bank is put on:
(a) Credit side
(b) Left-hand side
(c) Right-hand side
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Left-hand side


Question 8.
The task of preparing Income and Expenditure A/c and the Balance Sheet commences after the preparation of the:
(a) Trial Balance
(b) Profit and loss A/c
(c) Trading A/c
(d) Cash A/c

Answer

Answer: (d) Cash A/c


Question 9.
In Income and Expenditure A/c all revenue expenses are entered on:
(a) Assets side
(b) Left-hand side
(c) Liabilities side
(d) Right-hand side

Answer

Answer: (b) Left-hand side


Question 10.
In the Income and Expenditure Account all revenue receipts are entered on:
(a) Assets side
(b) Left-hand side
(c) Right-hand side
(d) Liabilities side

Answer

Answer: (c) Right-hand side


II. Fill in the blanks with the correct word.

Question 11.
Excess of incomes over expenditure is known as _________

Answer

Answer: Surplus


Question 12.
The difference in the balance sheet at the beginning of the year is known as _________

Answer

Answer: Capital fund


Question 13.
Entrance fee should be taken as ________ receipt.

Answer

Answer: Revenue


Question 14.
The main source of income for a not for profit is ____________

Answer

Answer: Subscription


Question 15.
Financial statements in case of NPO consists of receipts & payments account, _______, and balance sheet.

Answer

Answer: Income and Expenditure account


Question 16.
Receipts and payments account is prepared on _________ basis whereas cash book is prepared on the _______ basis.

Answer

Answer: Yearly, daily


Question 17.
Income and expenditure account is prepared on the basis of _______ incomes and _________ expenditures.

Answer

Answer: Revenue, revenue


Question 18.
Legacy is a ______ receipt.

Answer

Answer: Capital


III. State whether the following statements are True or False:

Question 19.
Not-for-profit organisations are organisations that serve not only their members but also the general public.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 20.
Not for profit organisations do not enjoy separate legal entity.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 21.
Profit earned by a, not for profit organisation is known as surplus.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 22.
General donations are capital in nature whereas specific donations are capital in nature.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 23.
Receipts and payments account records capital receipts and capital payments only.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 24.
Income & expenditure account is prepared on the same principles as we prepare profit and loss account.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 25.
Specific funds are shown on the liabilities side whereas expenses on specific funds are shown on the assets side.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 26.
Cashbook and receipts & payments account is prepared on the basis of cash basis of accounting.

Answer

Answer: True


IV. One word Questions.

Question 27.
How are specific donations treated while preparing final accounts of a ‘Not-For-Profit Organisation’?

Answer

Answer: Specific donation is treated as capital receipt & it is shown on the liabilities side of the Balance Sheet.


Question 28.
State the basis of accounting of preparing ‘Income and Expenditure Account’ of a ‘Not-For-Profit
Organisation.

Answer

Answer: Accrual basis.


Question 29.
Differentiate between ‘Receipts and Payments Account’ and ‘Income and Expenditure Account’ on the basis of ‘Period’.

Answer

Answer:

BasicReceipts & Payments A/cIncome & Expenditure A/c
PeriodMay relate to preceding and succeeding periodsRelate to the current period

Question 30.
What is meant by ‘Life membership fees’?

Answer

Answer: Membership fee paid in lump stun to become a life member of a not-for-profit organisation.


Question 31.
How are the following items presented in the financial statements of a Not-for-Profit organisation:
(a) Tournament Fund – 80,000
(b) Tournament expenses – 14,000

Answer

Answer:
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 1 Accounting for Not for Profit Organisation with Answers Q5


Question 32.
How are general donations treated while preparing financial statements of a not-for-profit organisation?

Answer

Answer: General donations are treated as revenue receipts


Or
How are general donations treated while preparing financial statements of a not-for-profit organisation?

Answer

Answer: Life membership fee is the membership fee paid by some members as a lump sum amount instead of a periodic subscription


Question 33.
State the basis of accounting on which ‘Receipt and Payment Account’ is prepared in case of Not-for Profit Organisation.

Answer

Answer: Cash basis of accounting


Question 34.
Where will you show the ‘Subscription received in advance’ during the current year in the Balance Sheet of a Not-For-Profit Organisation?

Answer

Answer: Liability side of current year’s balance sheet


Question 35.
A not-for-profit organisation sold its old furniture. State whether it will be treated as revenue receipt or capital receipt.

Answer

Answer: Revenue


Question 36.
Mention a fund who are specific in nature.

Answer

Answer: Sports fund


Question 37.
Income and Expenditure Account of a not-for-profit organisation has shown credit balance of ₹ 1,20,000 during 2012-13. When will you show it?

Answer

Answer: It will be added in the capital fund on the liability side


Question 38.
Do not for profit organisation maintain proper system of accounts?

Answer

Answer: No


Question 39.
Name any one account prepared by not for profit organisations.

Answer

Answer: Receipts and Payment Account, Income and Expenditure Account and Balance Sheet


Question 40.
Give one example of not for profit organisations.

Answer

Answer: Charitable dispensaries, schools, educational institutions, trusts, societies etc


Question 41.
State one source of not for profit organisations.

Answer

Answer: Subscriptions, donations, legacies, government grant etc


Question 42.
State the receipts relating to non-recurring in nature.

Answer

Answer: Capital receipts


Question 43.
State the payments relating to non-recurring in nature.

Answer

Answer: The payments can be classified into capital payment and revenue payment


Question 44.
Give an example of revenue receipt.

Answer

Answer: Subscription


Question 45.
Give an example of capital receipt.

Answer

Answer: Government grant


Question 46.
Give an example of capital payments.

Answer

Answer: Purchase of assets


Question 47.
What name is used for the cash book in case of not for profit organisations?

Answer

Answer: Receipts and Payments Account


Question 48.
Which side the revenue receipts are transferred in the income and enpenditure account?

Answer

Answer: Credit side


Question 49.
When the capital receipts are shown?

Answer

Answer: Liabilities side


Question 50.
Where the capital payments are shown?

Answer

Answer: Assets side


Question 51.
In which account the funds are transferred in case of not for profit organisation?

Answer

Answer: Capital Fund


Question 52.
What is the major source of income for not for profit organisations?

Answer

Answer: Subscription


Question 53.
What name is used for profit in case of not for profit organisations?

Answer

Answer: Surplus


Question 54.
What name is used for loss in case of not for profit organisations?

Answer

Answer: Deficit


Question 55.
Is the surplus or deficit in case of not for profit organisations distributed among members?

Answer

Answer: No


Question 56.
What type of rec eipts are recorded in the income and expenditure account?

Answer

Answer: Revenue Receipts


Question 57.
What type of payments are recorded in the income and expenditure account?

Answer

Answer: Revenue Payments


Question 58.
Which system of accountancy is followed to prepare receipts and payments account?

Answer

Answer: Cash system of accounting


Question 59.
Which system of account is followed to prepare income and expenditure account.

Answer

Answer: Accrual system of accounting


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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 2 Accounting for Partnership: Basic Concepts with Answers

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Chapter 2 Accounting for Partnership: Basic Concepts with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Accounting for Partnership: Basic Concepts Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Accounting for Partnership: Basic Concepts Class 12 Objective Questions.

Accounting for Partnership: Basic Concepts Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

I. State which of the following is correct:

Question 1.
Partnership deed may be _______
(a) oral
(b) written
(c) duplicate
(d) either written or oral

Answer

Answer: (d) either written or oral


Question 2.
If no agreement is made by partners then interest on loan will be given @ _________
(a) 5% p.a.
(b) 6% p.a.
(c) no interest
(d) 7% p.a

Answer

Answer: (b) 6% p.a.


Question 3.
Profit will be divided in ________ in the absence of partnership deed.
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 1 : 2
(d) equal ratio

Answer

Answer: (d) equal ratio


Question 4.
In a partnership, liability of all partners is _________
(a) unlimited
(b) limited
(c) according to capital
(d) decided by company act

Answer

Answer: (a) unlimited


Question 5.
Maximum number of partners in a partnership firm can be ________
(a) 50
(b) 20
(c) 100
(d) no limit

Answer

Answer: (d) no limit


Question 6.
When there is no partnership deed then provisions of partnership act ________ willbe applicable.
(a) 1956
(b) 1912
(c) 1932
(d) 1949

Answer

Answer: (c) 1932


Question 7.
Liability of a partner in LLP is ________
(a) limited
(b) unlimited
(c) not defined in the law
(d) limited to the capital only

Answer

Answer: (a) limited


Question 8.
Provisions of Table _______ are applicable in the absence of partnership deed.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

Answer

Answer: (a) A


Question 9.
In the absence of any provision interest on capital will be calculated for _________
(a) 6 months
(b) 1 year
(c) 1 month
(d) no interest

Answer

Answer: (d) no interest


Question 10.
Minimum number of partners in a partnership are ________
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 2
(d) 10

Answer

Answer: (c) 2


Question 11.
Maximum number of partners in a normal partnership are ________
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 2
(d) 20

Answer

Answer: (d) 20


Question 12.
Maximum number of partners in a banking partnership are _________
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 2
(d) 10

Answer

Answer: (d) 10


Question 13.
Current accounts are opened if capital is __________
(a) fixed
(b) fluctuating
(c) not contributed
(d) fixed or fluctuating

Answer

Answer: (a) fixed


Question 14.
Balance of capital (fix) accounts may be _________
(a) Dr.
(b) Cr.
(c) Dr. or Cr.
(d) Cr. and Dr.

Answer

Answer: (b) Cr.


Question 15.
Salary to partners will be shown in _________
(a) Profit and loss account
(b) Profit and loss adjustment account
(c) Trading account
(d) Manufacturing account

Answer

Answer: (b) Profit and loss adjustment account


Question 16.
Interest on capital will be shown in ________
(a) Capital account
(b) Profit and loss adjustment account
(c) Trading account
(d) Both of capital account and profit and loss adjustment account

Answer

Answer: (d) Both of capital account and profit and loss adjustment account


Question 17.
Drawings of partners will be shown in ________
(a) Capital account
(b) Profit and loss adjustment account
(c) Profit and loss account
(d) Trading account

Answer

Answer: (a) Capital account


Question 18.
In the absence of partnership deed partners are entitled to receive __________
(a) Interest on Capital
(b) Interest on Loan
(c) Salary
(d) Commission

Answer

Answer: (b) Interest on Loan


Question 19.
When question is silent about the date of withdrawal of drawing then Interest will becalculated for ________
(a) 6 months
(b) 1 month
(c) 6½ months
(d) 1 year

Answer

Answer: (a) 6 months


Question 20.
If partnership deed mention that interest will be given 6% p.a. interest will be given _________
(a) out of profits only
(b) definitely
(c) out of losses
(d) with the permission of all partners

Answer

Answer: (a) out of profits only


Question 21.
Partners Current Account have _________
(a) debit balance
(b) credit balance
(c) debit or credit
(d) debit and credit

Answer

Answer: (c) debit or credit


Question 22.
In the absence of partnership deed how much interest will be given on capital?
(a) 5% p.a.
(b) 6% p.a.
(c) 7% p.a.
(d) No interest

Answer

Answer: (d) No interest


II. Fill in the blanks with correct word.

Question 23.
In the absence of deed, ______ salary will be given to partners.

Answer

Answer: No


Question 24.
In the absence of deed, profit will be shared in _______ ratio.

Answer

Answer: equal


Question 25.
________ accounts are opened, while capital is fixed.

Answer

Answer: current


Question 26.
________ accounts is opened, while capital is fluctuating.

Answer

Answer: capital


Question 27.
Liability of partners is ________ in a general partnership firm.

Answer

Answer: Unlimited


Question 28.
Liability of partners is ________ in LLP.

Answer

Answer: limtied


Question 29.
The business of the firm can be conducted even by ________ partner.

Answer

Answer: One


Question 30.
There must be atleast two ________ partners in LLP.

Answer

Answer: designated


Question 31.
A partnership can be formed only for a _________ business.

Answer

Answer: legal


Question 32.
Partners are mutual _______ of each other in a partnership firm/business.

Answer

Answer: agents


Question 33.
Money advanced to the firm in addition to the capital is called __________

Answer

Answer: loan


Question 34.
Partnership is the result of an between _________ two or more person.

Answer

Answer: Agreement


Question 35.
General Partnership is governed by Partnership Act ________ where LLP is govern by LLP Act _______

Answer

Answer: 1932, 2008


Question 36.
In order to form partnership there should be atleast _______ persons.

Answer

Answer: two


Question 37.
The business of _________ concern may be carried on by all the partners or any of them acting for all.

Answer

Answer: partnership


Question 38.
________ interest is to be charged on the drawings made by the partners, if there is nothing mentioned in the deed.

Answer

Answer: No


Question 39.
Maximum number of partners in a partnership firm can be ________

Answer

Answer: 50


Question 40.
Interest on partners _________ to the firm shall be paid even if there are losses.

Answer

Answer: loan


III. State whether the following statements are True or False.

Question 41.
Minimum number of partners in a partnership firms are two.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 42.
In the absence of partnership deed, no interest will be charged on drawings.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 43.
In the absence of partnership deed, profit will be distributed equally between all partners.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 44.
If majority of partners decide to close the LLP business, they can do so by giving notice in writing.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 45.
In the absence of partnership deed, interest @ 6% p.a. will be allowed on partner’s Loan.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 46.
In the absence of partnership deed, interest on capital will be given @ 6% p.a.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 47.
In case of LLP business in partnership, maximum number of partners are limited.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 48.
Partnership deed must be in written form.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 49.
A minor can never become a partner in a partnership firm.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 50.
Liability of partners in general partnership is unlimited.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 51.
If partnership deed is silent then remuneration can be given to partners.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 52.
If any partner remain absent from the business, share of profit will automatically reduce.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 53.
If time of drawings is not given then interest will be calculated for half of the time period.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 54.
In case of fixed capital accounts, balance of capital always fluctuate.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 55.
Partners Current Account always have credit balance.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 56.
Every partner is an agent of the firm.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 57.
Expenses as charge in nature are shown in profit and loss appropriation account whereas expenses as appropriation in nature are shown in profit and loss account.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 58.
A partnership Act 1932 does not differentiate kind of businesses whereas LLP Act 2008 permits only legal business to run.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 59.
Under fixed capital, any provision of salary, interest etc., are shown incurrentaccount.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 60.
LLP business is similar to company form of business.

Answer

Answer: True


IV. One word Questions

Question 61.
Chhavi and Neha were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses equally. Chhavi withdrew a fixed amount at the beginning of each quarter. Interest on drawings is charged @ 6% p.a. At the end of the year, interest on Chhavi’s drawings amounted to ₹ 900. Pass necessary journal entry for charging interest on drawings.

Answer

Answer:
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 2 Accounting for Partnership Basic Concepts with Answers Q1


Question 62.
Dev withdrew ₹ 10,000 on 15th day of every month. Interest on drawings was to be charged @ 12% per annum. Calculate interest on Dev’s drawings.

Answer

Answer: Interest On Drawings = 1,20,000 × 12/100 × 6 × 12 = 7,200


Question 63.
Amit, a partner in a partnership firm withdrew ₹ 7,000 at the beginning of each quarter. For how many months would interest on drawings be charged?

Answer

Answer: 7½ months


Question 64.
Raj and Seema started a partnership firm on 1st July 2018. They agreed that Seema was entitled to a commission of 10% of the net profit after charging Raj’s salary of ₹ 2,500 per quarter and Seema’s commission. The net profit before charging Raj’s salary and Seema’s commission for the year ended 31st March 2019 was ₹ 2,27,500. Calculate Seema’s commission.

Answer

Answer: Net profit before salary and commission = ₹ 2,27,500
Net Raj’s salary ₹ 2,500 × 3 = ₹ 7,500
Net profit after Raj’s salary but before Seema’s commission = ₹ 2,20,000
Seema’s commission = 10/110 of ₹ 2,20,000 = ₹ 20,000


Question 65.
A and B are partners in firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 7 : 3. Their fixed capitals were: A ₹ 9,00,000 and B ₹ 4,00,000. The partnership deed provided the following:
(i) Interest on capital @ 10% p.a.
(ii) A’s salary ₹ 50,000 per year and B’s salary ₹ 3,000 per month.
Profit for the year ended 31st March 2019 ₹ 2,78,000 was distributed without providing for interest on capital and partner’s salary. Showing your work clearly, pass the necessary adjustment entry for the above omissions.

Answer

Answer:
Journal:
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 2 Accounting for Partnership Basic Concepts with Answers Q5
Table showing Past Adjustments:
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 2 Accounting for Partnership Basic Concepts with Answers Q5.1


Question 66.
Partners of ABC Corporation have agreed that D, a minor, should be admitted as a partner in the firm. What will be the liability of D?

Answer

Answer: Limited


Question 67.
X, Y, and Z are partners in a firm. The firm had adopted the fixed capital method. Mention the account in which the interest on capital will be recorded:

Answer

Answer: Capital Account


Question 68.
A partnership deed provides for the payment of interest on capital but there was a loss instead of profits during the year 2010-11. Will the interest on capital be allowed?

Answer

Answer: No


Question 69.
Where is interest on a partner’s loan debited to Profit and Loss Account or Profit and Loss Appropriation Account?

Answer

Answer: Profit and loss Account


Question 70.
Is interest on a partner’s loan is payable even in case of loss to the firm?

Answer

Answer: Yes


Question 71.
Net profit of a firm is ₹ 30,000, partners’ salary is ₹ 12,000, and interest on capital is ₹ 20,000. Mention the amount of partners’ salary and interest on capital which should be debited to the Profit and Loss Appropriation Account if both items are treated as appropriation.

Answer

Answer: Partners’ salary ₹ 11,250, Interest on capital ₹ 18,750.
Note: In the ratio of salary and interest on capital i.e. 12,000 : 20,000 = 3 : 5.


Question 72.
Ram and Shyam are partners sharing profits/losses equally. Ram withdrew ₹ 1,000 p.m. regularly on the first day of every month during the year 2013-14 for personal expenses. If interest on drawings is charged @ 5% p.a. Calculate interest on the drawings of Ram.

Answer

Answer: Interest on Drawings = \(12,000 \times \frac{5}{100} \times \frac{6.5}{12}\) = ₹ 325


Question 73.
Verma and Kaul are partners in a firm. The partnership agreement provides that interest on drawings should be charged @ 6% p.a. Verma withdraws ₹ 2,000 per month starting from April 01, 2013 to March 31, 2014. Kaul withdraw ₹ 3,000 per quarter, starting from April 01, 2013. Calculate interest on partner’s drawings.

Answer

Answer: Interest on Verma’s Drawings = \(24,000 \times \frac{6}{100} \times \frac{6.5}{12}\) = ₹ 780
Interest on Kaul’s Drawings = \(12,000 \times \frac{6}{100} \times \frac{7.5}{12}\) = ₹ 450


Question 74.
Himanshu withdraws ₹ 2,500 at the end of each month. The partnership deed provides for charging the interest on drawings @ 12% p.a. Calculate interest on Himanshu’s drawings for the year ending 31st December 2013.

Answer

Answer: Interest on Drawings = \(30,000 \times \frac{12}{100} \times \frac{5.5}{12}\) = ₹ 1650


Question 75.
Bharam is a partner in a firm. He withdraws ₹ 3,000 at the starting of each month for 12 months. The books . of the firm closes on March 31 every year. Calculate interest on drawings if the rate of interest is 10% p.a.

Answer

Answer: Bharam withdraws ₹ 3,000 at the starting of each month.
Therefore, Drawings = ₹ 3,000 × 12 = 36,000
Interest on Drawings = \(36,000 \times \frac{10}{100} \times \frac{6.5}{12}\) = ₹ 1,950


Question 76.
Amit and Bhola are partners in a firm. They share profits in the ratio of 3 : 2. As per their partnership agreement, interest on drawings is to be charged @ 10% p.a. Their drawings during 2013 were ₹ 24,000 and ₹ 16,000, respectively. Calculate interest on drawings based on the assumption that the amounts were withdrawn evenly, throughout the year.

Answer

Answer: Amit’s Drawings = ₹ 24,000
Interest on Drawings @ 10% p.a = \(24,000 \times \frac{10}{100} \times \frac{6}{12}\) = ₹ 1,200
Bhola’s Drawings = ₹ 16,000
Interest on Bhola’s Drawings = \(16,000 \times \frac{10}{100} \times \frac{6}{12}\) = ₹ 800
Note: In the absence of the date of drawings, it is assumed drawings have been made in the middle of each month/period.


Question 77.
A, B, and C were partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1. B was guaranteed a profit of ₹ 2,00,000. During the year the firm earned a profit of ₹ 84,000. Calculate the net amount of Profit/Loss transferred to the capital accounts of A and C.

Answer

Answer: Net Amount of Loss transferred to:
A’s Capital Account: ₹ 87,000
C’s Capital Account: ₹ 29,000


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