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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Admission of a Partner with Answers

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Admission of a Partner with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Admission of a Partner Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Admission of a Partner Class 12 Objective Questions.

Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Admission of a Partner Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

I. State which of the following is correct:

Question 1.
A and B are partners in a firm having a capital of ₹ 54,000 and ₹ 36,000 respectively. They admitted C for 1/3rd share in the profits C brought proportionate amount of capital. The Capital brought in by C would be:
(a) ₹ 90,000
(b) ₹ 45,000
(c) ₹ 5,400
(d) ₹ 36,00

Answer

Answer: (b) ₹ 45,000


Question 2.
Any change in the relationship of existing partners which results at an end of the existing agreement and enforces making of a new agreement is called
(a) Revaluation of partnership
(b) Reconstitution of partnership
(c) Realisation of partnership
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Reconstitution of partnership


Question 3.
When the new partner brings cash for goodwill, the amount is credited to:
(a) Realisation Account
(b) Cash Account
(c) Premium for Goodwill Account
(d) Revaluation Account

Answer

Answer: (c) Premium for Goodwill Account


Question 4.
Goodwill is an _______ Assets.
(a) fixed
(b) intangible
(c) current
(d) fictitious

Answer

Answer: (b) intangible


Question 5.
Value of reputation of the firm is:
(a) Royalty
(b) Assets
(c) Goodwill
(d) Patents

Answer

Answer: (c) Goodwill


Question 6.
________ profit is excess of actual profits over normal profits.
(a) Net
(b) Average
(c) Super
(d) Appropriated

Answer

Answer: (c) Super


Question 7.
Sacrifice Ratio = _______
(a) New Ratio – Old Ratio
(b) Old Ratio – New Ratio
(c) New Ratio + Old Ratio
(d) Old Ratio + New Ratio

Answer

Answer: (b) Old Ratio – New Ratio


Question 8.
Gaining Ratio = ________
(a) New Ratio – Old Ratio
(b) Old Ratio – New Ratio
(c) New Ratio + Old Ratio
(d) Old Ratio + New Ratio

Answer

Answer: (a) New Ratio – Old Ratio


Question 9.
Share of old Partners will ________ if new partner admit in the firm.
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remains same
(d) not changed

Answer

Answer: (b) decrease


Question 10.
Unrecorded liabilities will be ______ in Revaluation Account.
(a) debited
(b) credited
(c) not shown
(d) shown

Answer

Answer: (a) debited


Question 11.
Unrecorded Assets will be _______ in Revaluation Account.
(a) debited
(b) credited
(c) not shown
(d) shown

Answer

Answer: (b) credited


Question 12.
New Partner can be admitted in the firm with the consent of ________ old partners.
(a) anyone
(b) all
(c) 3/4
(d) 1/2

Answer

Answer: (b) all


Question 13.
Old Partnership will dissolve if
(a) profit sharing ratio changes
(b) new partner admits
(c) any partner retires
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these


Question 14.
If new partner brings goodwill in cash then ________ Account will be debited.
(a) cash
(b) premium for goodwill
(c) goodwill
(d) capital

Answer

Answer: (a) cash


Question 15.
If new partner brings goodwill in cash then Account will be credited.
(a) cash
(b) premium for goodwill
(c) goodwill
(d) capital

Answer

Answer: (b) premium for goodwill


Question 16.
Profit or loss represented by Revaluation Account will be transferred to capital accounts of ______ partners.
(a) all
(b) new
(c) old
(d) remaining

Answer

Answer: (c) old


Question 17.
Goodwill brought in cash by new partners will be transferred in old partners capital account in _______ Ratio.
(a) new
(b) old
(c) sacrificing
(d) gaining

Answer

Answer: (c) sacrificing


Question 18.
Amount of old goodwill already appearing in the books will be written off:
(a) in old ratio
(b) in new ratio
(c) in sacrifice ratio
(d) in gaining ratio

Answer

Answer: (a) in old ratio


Question 19.
An increase in the value of an assets will be recorded in the _______ side of revaluation account.
(a) debit
(b) credit
(c) either debit or credit
(d) debit and credit both

Answer

Answer: (b) credit


Question 20.
An increase in the value of a liability will be recorded on the ________ side of revaluation account.
(a) debit
(b) credit
(c) either debit or credit
(d) debit and credit both

Answer

Answer: (a) debit


Question 21.
A decrease in the value of a liability will be recorded on the ________ side of revaluation account.
(a) debit
(b) either debit or credit
(c) credit
(d) debit and credit both

Answer

Answer: (c) credit


Question 22.
An increase in the value of a liability will be recorded on the ________ side of revaluation account.
(a) debit
(b) either debit or credit
(c) credit
(d) debit and credit both

Answer

Answer: (a) debit


Question 23.
At the time of admission of a partner, new ratio will be calculated by:
(a) Old Ratio – New Ratio
(b) New Ratio – Old Ratio
(c) Old Ratio – Sacrifice Ratio
(d) Old Ratio + Sacrifice Ratio

Answer

Answer: (c) Old Ratio – Sacrifice Ratio


II. Fill in the blanks with correct word.

Question 24.
Old Ratio – New Ratio = _________

Answer

Answer: Sacrifice Ratio


Question 25.
New Ratio – Old Ratio = __________

Answer

Answer: Gaining Ratio


Question 26.
Old Ratio – Sacrifice Ratio = __________

Answer

Answer: New Ratio


Question 27.
Old Ratio + Gaining Ratio = __________

Answer

Answer: New Ratio


Question 28.
A new Partner can be admitted in partnership firm with the ________ of all partners.

Answer

Answer: Consent


Question 29.
Old Partnership will dissolve if profit share ratio is _________

Answer

Answer: Changed


Question 30.
Amount of goodwill paid by new partner will be shared by old partners in _______ ratio.

Answer

Answer: Sacrifice


Question 31.
Amount of goodwill already shown in the balance sheet will be written off in ________ ratio.

Answer

Answer: Old


Question 32.
Old partners sacrifice their shares in favour of new partner in ______ ratio.

Answer

Answer: Sacrifice


Question 33.
If business is located at the central place of city then value of goodwill will be ________

Answer

Answer: High


Question 34.
Old businesses have _________ goodwill in comparison to newly established business.

Answer

Answer: More


Question 35.
If average profit method is adopted for valuation of goodwill then ________ profits are used for this propose.

Answer

Answer: Average


Question 36.
If super profit method is adopted for valuation of goodwill then _______ profits are used for this purpose.

Answer

Answer: Super


Question 37.
Super profits are the excess of actual profits over __________ profits.

Answer

Answer: Normal


Question 38.
Normal profits are those profits which are earned by __________ organisations of the industry.

Answer

Answer: Other


III. State whether the following statements are True or False.

Question 39.
Amount of goodwill may be given personally to the old Partners by new partner.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 40.
It is compulsory to pay goodwill in cash by new partner to the old partners.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 41.
It is compulsory to revalue assets and liabilities at the time of reconstitution of partnership in a firm.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 42.
Resulted profit or Loss out of Revaluation Account is shared by all partners including new partner.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 43.
A minor could be the partner of a partnership firm.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 44.
Premium method of goodwill is followed when new partner brings goodwill in cash.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 45.
Goodwill account appearing in the balance sheet of old firm need not to be written off at the time of admission of a partner.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 46.
Revaluation Account is a Real Account.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 47.
Capital Accounts are nominal Account.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 48.
After the admission of a new partner, it is compulsory that old ratio gets changed.

Answer

Answer: True


IV. One word Questions.

Question 49.
What is meant by ‘Issued Capital’?

Answer

Answer: Issued capital means such capital as the company issues from time to time for subscription-section 2(50) of the companies Act 2013.


Question 50.
What is meant by ‘Employees Stock Option Plan’?

Answer

Answer: ESOP means option granted by the company to its employees & employee directors to subscribe the share at a price that is lower than the market price i.e., fair value. It is an option granted by the company but it is not an obligation on the employee to subscribe it.


Question 51.
A and B were partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 2. C and D were admitted as new partners. A sacrificed \(\frac{1}{4}\)th of his share in favour of C and B sacrificed 50% of his share in favour of D. Calculate the new profit sharing ratio of A, B, C and D.

Answer

Answer: Old ratio = 3 : 2
A’s Sacrifice (in favour of C) = 1/4 × 3/5 = 3/20
B’s Sacrifice (in favour of D) = 1/2 × 2/5 = 2/10
A’s New Share = 3/5 – 3/20 = 9/20
B’s New Share = 2/5 – 2/10 = 2/10


Question 52.
Ankit, Unnati and Aryan are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 2. They decided to share future profits in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 5 with effect from 1st April, 2018. They had the following balance in their balance sheet, passing necessary Journal Entry:
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner with Answers Q4

Answer

Answer:
Journal
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner with Answers Q4.1


Question 53.
A and B are partners in a firm. They admit C as a partner with 1/5th share in the profits of the firm. C brings ₹ 4,00,000 as his share of capital. Calculate the value of C’s share of Goodwill on the basis of his capital, given that the combined capital of A and B after all adjustments is ₹ 10,00,000.

Answer

Answer: Total Capital as per C’s Share = (4,00,000 × (5/1)) = ₹ 20,00,000
Less Actual capital of A, B, C = (10,00,000 + 4,00,000) = ₹ 14,00,000
Value of firm’s Goodwill = ₹ 6,00,000
C’s share of Goodwill = 6,00,000 × (1/5) = ₹ 1,20,000


Question 54.
A and B are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2. On 1st April, 2019 they decided to admit C their new ratio is decided to be equal. Pass the necessary journal entry to distribute Investment Fluctuation Reserve of ₹ 60,000 at the time of C’s admission, when Investment appear in the books at ₹ 2,10,000 and its market value is ₹ 1,90,000.

Answer

Answer:
Journal
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner with Answers Q6


Question 55.
A and B are in partnership sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2. They admit C into partnership with 1/5th share which he acquires equally from A and B. Accountant has calculated new profit sharing ratio as 5 : 3 : 2. Is accountant correct?

Answer

Answer: C’s Share acquired from A and B each = \(\frac{1}{5} \times \frac{1}{2}=\frac{1}{10}\)
A’s Share = \(\frac{3}{5}-\frac{1}{10}=\frac{5}{10}\)
B’s Share = \(\frac{2}{5}-\frac{1}{10}=\frac{3}{10}\)
New Profit Sharing ratio of A : B : C is 5 : 3 : 2
Yes, new profit sharing ratio is 5 : 3 : 2


Question 56.
A, B and C were partners sharing profits in the ratio of 5 : 4 : 3. They decided to change their profit sharing ratio to 2 : 2 : 1 w.e.f. 1st April, 2019. On that date, there was a balance of ₹ 3,00,000 in General Reserve and a debit balance of ₹ 4,80,000 in the Profit and Loss Account.
Pass necessary journal entries for the above on account of change in the profit sharing ratio.

Answer

Answer:
Journal
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner with Answers Q8


Question 57.
At the time of admission of a partner, who decides the share of profit of the new partner out of the firm’s profit?

Answer

Answer: It is decided mutually between the old partners and the new partner.


Question 58.
Hari and Krishan were partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2 : 1. They admitted Shyam as a partner for 1/5th share in the profit. For this purpose, the Goodwill of the firm was to be valued on the basis of three years’ purchase of last five years average profits. The profits for the last five years were:
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner with Answers Q10
Calculate the Goodwill of the firm after adjusting the following:
The profit of 2014-15 was calculated after charging ₹ 10,000 for abnormal loss of goods by fire.

Answer

Answer:
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner with Answers Q10.1
Average profits = ₹ 2,00,000/5 = ₹ 40,000
Goodwill = Average Profits × Number of years purchase
= ₹ 40,000 × 3
= ₹ 1,20,000


Question 59.
Amit and Beena were partners in the firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 1. Chaman was admitted as a new partner for 1/6th share in the profits. Chaman acquired 2/5th of his share from Amit. How many shares did Chaman acquire from Beena?

Answer

Answer: Chaman acquired 1/6 – (1/6 × 2/5) = 3/30 from Beena.


Question 60.
Ritesh and Hitesh are childhood friends. Ritesh is a consultant whereas Hitesh is an architect. They contributed an equal amount and purchased a building for ₹ 2 crores. After 10 years they sold it for ₹ 3 crores and shared the profit equally. Are they doing the business in the partnership?

Answer

Answer: No


Question 61.
Pawan and Jayshree are partners. Bindu is admitted for 1/4th share. State the ratio in which Pawan and Jayshree will sacrifice their share in favour of Bindu?

Answer

Answer: Old ratio i.e. 1 : 1


Question 62.
X and Y are partners. Y wants to admit his son K into the business. Can K become the partner of the firm?

Answer

Answer: Yes, if X agrees to it otherwise not


Question 63.
Name any one factor responsible which affect the value of goodwill.

Answer

Answer: Location of a business


Question 64.
Vishal & Co. is involved in developing computer software which is a high value added product and Tiny & Co. is involved in manufacturing sugar which is a low value item. If capital employed of both the firms is same, value of goodwill of which firm will be higher?

Answer

Answer: Vishal & Co.


Question 65.
State a reason for the preparation of ‘Revaluation Account’ at time of admission of a partner.

Answer

Answer: To record the effect of revaluation of assets and liabilities.


Question 66.
In which ratio is the profit or loss due to revaluation of assets and liabilities transferred to capital accounts?

Answer

Answer: Old Ratio of existing partners


Question 67.
Change in Profit Sharing Ratio amounts to dissolution of partnership or partnership firm?

Answer

Answer: Dissolution of partnership


Question 68.
State one occasion on which a firm can be reconstituted.

Answer

Answer: Change of profit sharing ratio among the existing partners


Question 69.
What is the formula of calculating sacrificing ratio?

Answer

Answer: Sacrificing Ratio = Old Ratio – New Ratio


Question 70.
By which name the profit sharing ratio in which all partners, including the new partner, will share fixture profits?

Answer

Answer: New profit sharing ratio


Question 71.
If the new partner acquires his share in profits from all the old partners in their old profit sharing ratio, by which ratio will the old partners sacrifice their profit sharing ratio?

Answer

Answer: Old profit sharing ratio


Question 72.
Name the accounting standard, issued by the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India, which deals with treatment goodwill.

Answer

Answer: AS26


Question 73.
When the new partner brings amount of premium for goodwill, by which ratio is this amount credited to old partners’ Capital Accounts?

Answer

Answer: Sacrificing ratio


Question 74.
What is the formula for calculating inferred goodwill?

Answer

Answer: Net worth of business on the basis of new partner’s capital minus net worth of business in new firm


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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 12 Biotechnology and its Applications with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 12 Biotechnology and its Applications with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Biotechnology and its Applications Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Biotechnology and its Applications Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Biotechnology and its Applications Multiple Choice Questions of Class 12 Biology Chapter 12 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Biotechnology and its Applications Class 12 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 12 Biology Class 12 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Select the correct answer:

Question 1.
Bt cotton is not:
(a) A GM plant
(b) Insect resistant
(c) a bacterial gene expression system
(d) Resistant to all pesticides.

Answer

Answer: (c) a bacterial gene expression system


Question 2.
C-peptide of human insulin is:
(a) A part of mature insulin molecule
(b) Responsible for formation of disulphide bridges
(c) Removed during maturation of pro-insulin to insulin
(d) Responsible for its biological activity.

Answer

Answer: (c) Removed during maturation of pro-insulin to insulin


Question 3.
GEAC stands for:
(a) Genome Engineering Action Committee
(b) Ground Environment Action Committee
(c) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
(d) Genetic and Environment Approval committee.

Answer

Answer: (c) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee


Question 4.
a-1 antitrypsin as:
(a) An antacid
(b) An enzyme
(c) Used to treat arthritis
(d) Used to treat emphysema.

Answer

Answer: (d) Used to treat emphysema.


Question 5.
A probe which is a molecule used to locate specific sequences in a mixture of DNA or RNA molecules could be:
(a) A single-stranded RNA
(b) A single-stranded DNA
(c) Either RNA or DNA
(d) Can be ss DNA but not ss RNA.

Answer

Answer: (c) Either RNA or DNA


Question 6.
Choose the correct option regarding Retrovirus.
(a) An RNA virus that can synthesise DNA during infection
(b) A DNA virus that can synthesise RNA during infection
(c) An ssDNA virus
(d) AdsRNA virus.

Answer

Answer: (a) An RNA virus that can synthesise DNA during infection


Question 7.
The site of production of ADA in the body is:
(a) Bone marrow
(b) Lymphocytes
(c) Blood plasma
(d) Monocytes.

Answer

Answer: (a) Bone marrow


Question 8.
A protoxin is:
(a) A primitive toxin
(b) A denatured toxin
(c) Toxin produced by protozoa
(d) Inactive toxin.

Answer

Answer: (d) Inactive toxin.


Question 9.
Pathophysiology is the:
(a) Study of physiology of pathogen
(b) Study of normal physiology of host
(c) Study of altered physiology of host
(d) None of the above.

Answer

Answer: (c) Study of altered physiology of host


Question 10.
The trigger for activation of toxin of Bacillus thuringiensis is:
(a) Acidic pH of stomach
(b) High temperature
(c) Alkaline pH of gut
(d) Mechanical action in the insect gut.

Answer

Answer: (c) Alkaline pH of gut


Question 11.
Golden rice is:
(a) A variey of rice grown along the yellow river in China
(b) Long stored rice having yellow colour tint
(c) A transgenic rice having gene for p-carotene
(d) Wild variety of rice with yellow coloured grains.

Answer

Answer: (c) A transgenic rice having gene for p-carotene


Question 12.
In RNAi, genes are silenced using:
(o) ssDNA
(b) dsDNA
(c) dsRNA
(d) ssRNA.

Answer

Answer: (c) dsRNA


Question 13.
The first clinical gene therapy was done for the treatment of:
(a) AIDS
(b) Cancer
(c) Cystic fibrosis
(d) SCID.

Answer

Answer: (d) SCID.


Question 14.
ADA is an enzyme which is deficient in a genetic disorder SCID. What is the full form of ADA?
(a) Adenosine deoxy aminase
(b) Adenosine deaminase
(c) Aspartate deaminase
(d) Arginine deaminase.

Answer

Answer: (b) Adenosine deaminase


Question 15.
Silencing of a gene could be achieved through the use of:
(a) Short interfering RNA (RNAi)
(b) Antisense RNA
(c) By Both
(d) None of the above.

Answer

Answer: (c) By Both


Assertion and Reason Type Questions

These questions consist of two statements each, printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
Question 16.
Assertion: Indian Government has set up organisations such as GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval Committee), which will make decisions regarding the validity of GM research and the safety of introducing GM-organisms for public services.
Reason: Genetic modification of organisms can have unpredicatable results when such organisms are introduced into the ecosystem.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.


Question 17.
Assertion: Gene therapy is a collection of methods that allows correction of a gene defect that has been diagnosed in a child/ embryo.
Reason: In gene therapy genes are inserted into a person’s cells and tissues to treat a disease.

Answer

Answer: (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.


Question 18.
Assertion: ELISA is widely used for the detection of infectious diseases like AIDS.
Reason: ELISA is very sensitive and selective test and needs very small amount of reagents.

Answer

Answer: (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.


Question 19.
Assertion: Vaccination is also called preventive inoculation.
Reason: A vaccine prevents the formation of antibodies inside the body.

Answer

Answer: (c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.


Question 20.
Assertion: Humulin is more effective than the insulin produced by conventional methods.
Reason: Humulin is absorbed rapidly in the blood than the conventionally produced insulin.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.


Question 21.
Assertion: Interferons are a type of antibodies produced by cells infected by bacteria.
Reason: Interferons stimulate inflammation at the site of injury.

Answer

Answer: (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.


Question 22.
Assertion: Agrobacterium tumefaciens is popular in genetic engineering because this bacterium is associated with roots of all cereals and pulse crops.
Reason: A gene incorporated in the bacterial chromosomal genome gets automatically transferred to the crop with which the bacterium is associated.

Answer

Answer: (c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.


Question 23.
Assertion: DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence.
Reason: In repetitive DNA sequences, a small stretch of DNA is repeated many times.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.


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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 13 Organisms and Populations with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 13 Organisms and Populations with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Organisms and Populations Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Organisms and Populations Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Organisms and Populations Multiple Choice Questions of Class 12 Biology Chapter 13 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Organisms and Populations Class 12 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 13 Biology Class 12 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Select the correct answer

Question 1.
Autecology is the
(a) relation of a population to its environment
(b) relation of an individual to its environment
(c) relation of a community to its environment
(d) relation of a biome to its environment.

Answer

Answer: (b) relation of an individual to its environment


Question 2.
Ecotone is:
(a) A polluted area
(b) The bottom of a lake
(c) A zone of transition between two communities
(d) A zone of developing community.

Answer

Answer: (c) A zone of transition between two communities


Question 3.
Biosphere is:
(a) A component in the ecosystem
(b) Composed of the plants present in the soil
(c) Life in the outer space
(d) Composed of all living organisms present on the earth which interact with the physical environment.

Answer

Answer: (d) Composed of all living organisms present on the earth which interact with the physical environment.


Question 4.
Ecological niche is:
(a) the surface area of the ocean
(b) a an ecologically adapted zone
(c) the physical position and functional role of a species within the community
(d) formed of all plants and animals living at the bottom of a lake.

Answer

Answer: (c) the physical position and functional role of a species within the community


Question 5.
According to Allen’s Rule, the mammals from colder climates have:
(a) shorter ears and longer limbs
(b) longer ears and shorter limbs
(c) longer ears and longer limbs
(d) shorter ears and shorter limbs.

Answer

Answer: (d) shorter ears and shorter limbs.


Question 6.
Salt concentration (salinity) of the sea measured in parts per thousand is:
(a) 10-15
(b) 30-70
(c) 0-5
(d) 30-35.

Answer

Answer: (d) 30-35.


Question 7.
Formation of tropical forests needs mean annual temperature and mean annual precipitation as:
(a) 18-25°C and 150-400 cm
(b) 5-15°C and 50-100 cm
(c) 30-50°C and 100-150 cm
(d) 5-15°C and 100-200 cm.

Answer

Answer: (a) 18-25°C and 150-400 cm


Question 8.
Which of the following forest plants controls the light conditions at the ground?
(a) Lianas and climbers
(b) Shrubs
(c) Tall trees
(d) Herbs.

Answer

Answer: (c) Tall trees


Question 9.
What will happen to a well growing herbaceous plant in the forest if it is transplanted outside the forest in a park?
(a) It will grow normally
(b) It will grow well because it is planted in the same locality
(c) It may not survive because of change in its microclimate
(d) It grows very well because the plant gets more sunlight.

Answer

Answer: (c) It may not survive because of change in its microclimate


Question 10.
If a population of 50 Paramoecium present in a pool increases to 150 after an hour, what would be the growth rate of population?
(a) 50 per hour
(b) 200 per hour
(c) 5 per hour
(d) 100 per hour.

Answer

Answer: (d) 100 per hour.


Question 11.
What would be the per cent growth or birth rate per individual per hour for the same population mentioned in the previous question?
(a) 100
(b) 200
(c) 50
(d) 150.

Answer

Answer: (b) 200


Question 12.
A population has more young individuals compared to the older individuals. What would be the status of the population after some years?
(a) It will decline.
(b) It will stabilise.
(c) It will increase.
(d) It will first decline and then stabilise.

Answer

Answer: (c) It will increase.


Question 13.
What parameters are used for tiger census in our country’s national parks and sanctuaries?
(a) Pugmarks only
(b) Pug marks and faecal pellets
(c) Faecal pellets only
(d) Actual head counts.

Answer

Answer: (b) Pug marks and faecal pellets


Question 14.
Which of the following would necessarily decrease the density of a population in a given habitat?
(a) Natality > mortality
(b) Immigration > emigration
(c) Mortality and emigration
(d) Natality and immigration.

Answer

Answer: (c) Mortality and emigration


Question 15.
A protozoan reproduces by binary fission. What will be the number of protozoans in its population after six generations?
(a) 128
(b) 24
(c) 64
(d) 32.

Answer

Answer: (c) 64


Question 16.
In 2005, for each of the 14 million people present in a country, 0.028 were born and 0.008 died during the year. Using exponential equation, the number of people present in 2015 is predicted as:
(a) 25 millions
(b) 17 millions
(c) 20 millions
(d) 18 millions.

Answer

Answer: (b) 17 millions


Question 17.
Amensalism is an association between two species where :
(a) one species is harmed and other is benefitted
(b) one species is harmed and other is unaffected
(c) one species is benefitted and other is unaffected
(d) both the species are harmed.

Answer

Answer: (b) one species is harmed and other is unaffected


Question 18.
Lichens are the associations of:
(a) bacteria and fungus
(b) algae and bacterium
(c) fungus and algae
(d) fungus and virus.

Answer

Answer: (c) fungus and algae


Question 19.
Which of the following is a partial root parasite?
(a) Sandal wood
(b) Mistletoe
(c) Orobanche
(d) Ganoderma.

Answer

Answer: (b) Mistletoe


Question 20.
Which one of the following organisms reproduces sexually only once in its life time?
(a) Banana plant
(b) Mango
(c) Tomato
(d) Eucalyptus.

Answer

Answer: (a) Banana plant


Assertion and Reason Type Questions

The questions given below consist of an assertion and a reason. Use the following key to choose the appropriate answer.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Question 21.
Assertion: In India, the human population is currently undergoing the lag phase.
Reason: 90% portion of Indian population is still below poverty line.

Answer

Answer: (d) Both assertion and reason are false.


Question 22.
Assertion: Gene flow increases genetic variations.
Reason: The random introduction of new alleles into recipient population and their removal from the donor population affect allele frequency.

Answer

Answer: (b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.


Question 23.
Assertion: Smaller the organism, the higher is the rate of metabolism per gram weight.
Reason: The heart rate of a six-month baby is much higher than that of an old person.

Answer

Answer: (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.


Question 24.
Assertion: Allelopathy is a form of ammensalism that occurs in plants.
Reason: Association of rooting plants with fungal hyphae, is an important example of ammensalism.

Answer

Answer: (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.


Question 25.
Assertion: Animals adopt different strategies to survive in hostile environment.
Reason: Praying mantis is green in colour which merges with plant foliage.

Answer

Answer: (b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.


Question 26.
Assertion: Age-sex structure of human population in France and Sweden forms a steep pyramid.
Reason: In countries like Sudan and India, the population is increasing at a rapid rate.

Answer

Answer: (b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.


Question 27.
Assertion: Cold-blooded animals have no fat layer.
Reason: Cold-blooded animals use their fat for metabolic processes during hibernation.

Answer

Answer: (b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.


Question 28.
Assertion: Migration is an important factor which determines both population size and population density.
Reason: In migration, a major part of population goes from one area to another area.

Answer

Answer: (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.


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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 14 Ecosystem with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 14 Ecosystem with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Ecosystem Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Ecosystem Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Ecosystem Multiple Choice Questions of Class 12 Biology Chapter 14 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Ecosystem Class 12 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 14 Biology Class 12 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Select the correct answer

Question 1.
Decomposers like fungi and bacteria are:
(i) autotrophs
(ii) heterotrophs
(iii) saprotrophs
(iv) chemo-autotrophs
Choose the correct answer:
(a) i and iii
(b) i and iv
(c) ii and iii
(d) i and ii.

Answer

Answer: (c) ii and iii


Question 2.
The process of mineralisation by micro organisms helps in the release of:
(a) inorganic nutrients from humus
(b) both organic and inorganic nutrients from detritus
(c) organic nutrients from humus
(d) inorganic nutrients from detritus and formation of humus.

Answer

Answer: (a) inorganic nutrients from humus


Question 3.
Productivity is the rate of production of biomass expressed in terms of:
(i) (kcal m-1) yr-1
(ii) g-2yr-1
(iii) g-1 yr-1
(iv) (kcal m-2 yr-1
(a) ii
(b) iii
(c) ii and iv
(d) i and iii.

Answer

Answer: (c) ii and iv


Question 4.
An inverted pyramid of biomass can be found in which ecosystem?
(a) Forest
(b) Marine
(c) Grassland
(d) Tundra.

Answer

Answer: (b) Marine


Question 5.
Which of the following is not a producer?
(a) Spirogyra
(b) Agaricus
(c) Volvox
(d) Nostoc.

Answer

Answer: (b) Agaricus


Question 6.
Which of the following ecosystems is most productive in terms of net primary production?
(a) Deserts
(b) Tropical rainforests
(c) Oceans
(d) Estuaries.

Answer

Answer: (b) Tropical rainforests


Question 7.
Pyramid of numbers is:
(a) Always upright
(b) Always inverted
(c) Either upright or inverted
(d) Neither upright nor inverted.

Answer

Answer: (c) Either upright or inverted


Question 8.
Approximately how much of the solar energy that falls on the leaves of a plant is converted to chemical energy by photosynthesis?
(a) Less than 1%
(b) 2-10%
(c) 30%
(d) 50%.

Answer

Answer: (b) 2-10%


Question 9.
Among the following, where do you think the process of decomposition would be the fastest?
(a) Tropical rainforest
(b) Antarctic
(c) Dry arid region
(d) Alpine region.

Answer

Answer: (a) Tropical rainforest


Question 10.
How much of the net primary productivity of a terrestrial ecosystem is eaten and digested by herbivores?
(a) 1%
(b) 10%
(c) 40%
(d) 90%.

Answer

Answer: (b) 10%


Question 11.
During the process of ecological succession the changes that take place in communities are :
(a) Orderly and sequential
(b) Random
(c) Very quick.
(d) Not influenced by the physical environment

Answer

Answer: (a) Orderly and sequential


Question 12.
Climax community is in a state of:
(a) non-equilibrium
(b) equilibrium
(c) disorder
(d) constant change.

Answer

Answer: (b) equilibrium


Question 13.
Among the following biogeochemical cycles which one does not have losses due to respiration?
(a) Phosphorus
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Sulphur
(d) All of the above.

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above.


Question 14.
The sequence of communities of primary succession in water is:
(a) phytoplankton, sedges, free-floating hydrophytes, rooted hydrophytes, grasses and trees.
(b) phytoplankton, free-floating hydrophytes, rooted hydrophytes, sedges, grasses and trees.
(c) free-floating hydrophytes, sedges, phytoplankton, rooted hydrophytes, grasses and trees.
(d) phytoplankton, rooted submerged hydrophytes, floating hydrophytes, reed swamp, sedges, meadow and trees.

Answer

Answer: (b) phytoplankton, free-floating hydrophytes, rooted hydrophytes, sedges, grasses and trees.


Question 15.
The reservoir for the gaseous type of bio-geochemical cycle exists in
(a) stratosphere
(b) atmosphere
(c) ionosphere
(d) lithosphere.

Answer

Answer: (b) atmosphere


Question 16.
If the carbon atoms fixed by producers already have passed through three species, the trophic level of the last species would be
(a) scavenger
(b) tertiary producer
(c) tertiary consumer
(d) secondary consumer.

Answer

Answer: (c) tertiary consumer


Question 17.
Which of the following types of ecosystem is expected in an area where evaporation exceeds precipitation, and mean annual rainfall is below 100 mm.
(a) Grassland
(b) Shrubby forest
(c) Desert
(d) Mangrove.

Answer

Answer: (c) Desert


Question 18.
The zone at the edge of a lake or ocean which is alternatively exposed to air and immersed in water is called:
(a) Pelagic zone
(b) Benthic zone
(c) Lentic one
(d) Littoral zone.

Answer

Answer: (d) Littoral zone.


Question 19.
Edaphic factor refers to:
(a) Water
(b) Soil
(c) Relative humidity
(d) Altitude.

Answer

Answer: (b) Soil


Question 20.
Which of the following is an ecosystem service provided by a natural ecosystem?
(a) Cycling of nutrients
(b) Prevention of soil erosion
(c) Pollutant absorption and reduction of the threat of global warming
(d) All of the above.

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above.


Assertion and Reason Type Questions

The questions given below consist of an assertion and a reason. Use the following key to choose the appropriate answer.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
Question 21.
Assertion: Energy pyramid is slopping.
Reason: The energy of one trophic level is lower than the preceding trophic level.

Answer

Answer: (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.


Question 22.
Assertion: Alpine forests consist of dwarf shrubs mainly of junipers, silver firs and Rhododendrons.
Reason: Alpine forests occur in the Himalayas above the altitude of 3500 metres.

Answer

Answer: (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.


Question 23.
Assertion: In a food chain, members of successive higher levels are fewer in number.
Reason: Number of organisms at any trophic level depends upon the availability of organisms which serve as food at the lower level.

Answer

Answer: (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.


Question 24.
Assertion: Tropical rainforests are disappearing fast from developing countries such as India.
Reason: No value is attached to these forests because these are poor in biodiversity.

Answer

Answer: (c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.


Question 25.
Assertion: No two species within a given community can have exactly the same niche.
Reason: The hahitat of a species together with the functions forms its niche.

Answer

Answer: (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.


Question 26.
Assertion: Red algae contribute in producing coral reefs.
Reason: Some red algae secrete and deposit calcium carbonate over their walls.

Answer

Answer: (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.


Question 27.
Assertion: A network of food chains existing together in an ecosystem is known as a food web.
Reason: An animal like kite cannot be a part of a food web.

Answer

Answer: (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.


Question 28.
Assertion: Animals adapt different strategies to survive in hostile environment.
Reason: Praying mantis is green in colour which merges with plant foliage.

Answer

Answer: (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.


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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 15 Biodiversity and Conservation with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 15 Biodiversity and Conservation with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Biodiversity and Conservation Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Biodiversity and Conservation Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Biodiversity and Conservation Multiple Choice Questions of Class 12 Biology Chapter 15 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Biodiversity and Conservation Class 12 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 15 Biology Class 12 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Select the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which of the following countries has the highest biodiversity?
(a) Brazil
(b) South Africa
(c) Russia
(d) India.

Answer

Answer: (a) Brazil


Question 2.
Which of the following is not a cause for loss of biodiversity?
(a) Destruction of habitat
(b) Invasion by alien species
(c) Keeping animals in zoological parks
(d) Over-exploitation of natural resources.

Answer

Answer: (c) Keeping animals in zoological parks


Question 3.
Which of the following is not an invasive alien species in the Indian context?
(a) Lantana
(b) Cynodon
(c) Parthenium
(d) Eichhornia.

Answer

Answer: (b) Cynodon


Question 4.
Where among the following will you find pitcher plant?
(a) Rain forest of North-East India
(b) Sunderbans
(c) Thar Desert
(d) Western Ghats.

Answer

Answer: (a) Rain forest of North-East India


Question 5.
Which one of the following is not a major characteristic feature of biodiversity hotspots?
(a) Large number of species
(b) Abundance of endemic species
(c) Large number of exotic species
(d) Destruction of habitat.

Answer

Answer: (d) Destruction of habitat.


Question 6.
Match the animals given in column A with their location in column B:

Column IColumn II
(i) Dodo(a) Africa
(ii) Quagga(b) Russia
(iii) Thylacine(c) Mauritius
(iv) Stellar’s sea cow(d) Australia

Choose the correct match from the following:
(a) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d
(b) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b
(c) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d
(d) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b.

Answer

Answer: (d) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b.


Question 7.
What is common to the following plants: Nepenthes, Psilotum, Rauwolfia and Acontium?
(a) All are ornamental plants
(b) All are phylogenic link species
(c) All are prone to over-exploitation
(d) All are exclusively present in the Eastern Himalayas.

Answer

Answer: (c) All are prone to over-exploitation


Question 8.
The most important cause of biodiversity loss is:
(a) Over exploitation of economic species
(b) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(c) Invasive species
(d) Breakdown of plant-pollinator relationships

Answer

Answer: (b) Habitat loss and fragmentation


Question 9.
Amongst the animal groups given below, which one has the highest percentage of endangered species?
(a) Insects
(b) Mammals
(c) Amphibians
(d) Reptiles.

Answer

Answer: (c) Amphibians


Question 10.
Which one of the following is an endangered plant species of India?
(a) Rauwolfia serpentina
(b) Santalum album (Sandal wood)
(c) Cycas beddonei
(d) All of the above.

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above.


Question 11.
What is common to Lantana, Eichhornia and African catfish?
(a) All are endangered species of India
(b) All are key stone species
(c) All are mammals found in India
(d) All the species are neither threatened nor indigenous species of India.

Answer

Answer: (d) All the species are neither threatened nor indigenous species of India.


Question 12.
The extinction of passenger pigeon was due to:
(a) Increased number of predatory birds.
(b) Over-exploitation by humans
(c) Non-availability of the food
(d) Bird flu virus infection

Answer

Answer: (b) Over-exploitation by humans


Question 13.
Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Parthenium is an endemic species of our country.
(b) African catfish is not a threat to indigenous catfishes.
(c) Steller’s sea cow is an extinct animal.
(d) Lantana is popularly known as carrot grass.

Answer

Answer: (b) African catfish is not a threat to indigenous catfishes.


Question 14.
Among the ecosystem mentioned below, where can one find maximum biodiversity?
(a) Mangroves
(b) Desert
(c) Coral reefs
(d) Alpine meadows

Answer

Answer: (c) Coral reefs


Question 15.
Which of the following forests is known as the ‘lungs of the planet Earth’?
(a) Tiaga forest
(b) Tundra forest
(c) Amazon rain forest
(d) Rain forests of North East India

Answer

Answer: (c) Amazon rain forest


Question 16.
The active chemical drug reserpine is obtained from:
(a) Datura
(b) Rauwolfia
(c) Atropa
(d) Papaver

Answer

Answer: (b) Rauwolfia


Question 17.
Which of the following groups of plants exhibit more species diversity?
(a) Angiosperms
(b) Algae
(c) Bryophytes
(d) Fungi

Answer

Answer: (d) Fungi


Question 18.
Which of the below-mentioned regions exhibit less seasonal variations?
(a) Tropics
(b) Temperates
(c) Alpines
(d) Both (a) & (b).

Answer

Answer: (a) Tropics


Question 19.
The historic convention on Biological Diversity held in Rio Janeiro in 1992 is known as:
(a) CITES Convention
(b) The Earth Summit
(c) G-16 Summit
(d) AAAB Programme

Answer

Answer: (b) The Earth Summit


Question 20.
What is common to the techniques
(i) in-vitro fertilisation
(ii) cryopreservation and
(iii) tissue culture?
(a) All are in situ conservation methods.
(b) All are ex situ conservation methods
(c) All require ultra modern equipment and large space
(d) All are methods of conservation of extinct organisms

Answer

Answer: (b) All are ex situ conservation methods


Question 21.
Select the incorrect statement.
(a) Species diversity increases as we move away from the equator towards the poles.
(b) Stellar’s sea cow and passenger pigeon got extinct due to over-exploitation by man.
(c) Lantana and Eichhornia are invasive weed species in India.
(d) Among animals, insects are the most species-rich taxonomic group.

Answer

Answer: (a) Species diversity increases as we move away from the equator towards the poles.


Assertion and Reason Type Questions

In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) followed by statement of Reason(R) is given. Choose the correct option out of the choices given below each question.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
Question 22.
Assertion: With few exceptions, tropics harbour more species than temperate or polar areas.
Reason: Species diversity decreases as we move away from the equator towards the poles.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.


Question 23.
Assertion: In wildlife conservation, micro-organisms are not considered to be conserved.
Reason: Micro-organisms are not of much importance to mankind.

Answer

Answer: (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.


Question 24.
Assertion: Rate of extinction of wildlife has become rapid in the last one hundred years.
Reason: Unplanned human activities have destroyed the natural habitats of many species of wildlife.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.


Question 25.
Assertion: Golden langur is a vulnerable species.
Reason: Number of Golden langur has reduced and their natural habitat is also affected.

Answer

Answer: (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.


Question 26.
Assertion: In India many national parks have been set up to protect wildlife.
Reason: Biosphere reserves have greater importance than the national parks.

Answer

Answer: (c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.


Question 27.
Assertion: Cotton and jute are fibre-yielding plants.
Reason: Cotton is obtained from seed hair (lint) and jute fibres are obtained from stalks of retted jute.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.


Question 28.
Assertion: For the management of wildlife, environmental pollution must be checked.
Reason: Environment provides the life-supporting systems to wildlife.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.


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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 16 Environmental Issues with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 16 Environmental Issues with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Environmental Issues Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Environmental Issues Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Environmental Issues Multiple Choice Questions of Class 12 Biology Chapter 16 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Environmental Issues Class 12 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 16 Biology Class 12 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Non-biodegradable pollutants are created by:
(a) nature
(b) excessive use of resources
(c) humans
(d) natural disasters.

Answer

Answer: (c) humans


Question 2.
According to the Central Pollution Control Board, particles that are responsible for causing great harm to human health are of diameter:
(a) 2.50 micrometres
(b) 5.00 micrometres
(c) 10.00 micrometres
(d) 7.5 micrometres.

Answer

Answer: (a) 2.50 micrometres


Question 3.
The material generally used for sound proofing of rooms like a recording studio and auditorium, etc. is:
(a) cotton
(b) coir
(c) wood
(d) styro foam.

Answer

Answer: (d) styro foam.


Question 4.
Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) is:
(a) propane
(b) methane
(c) ethane
(d) butane.

Answer

Answer: (b) methane


Question 5.
World’s most problematic aquatic weed is:
(a) Azolla
(b) Woiffia
(c) Eichhomia
(d) Trapa.

Answer

Answer: (c) Eichhomia


Question 6.
Which of the following causes biomagnification?
(a) SO2
(b) Mercury
(c) DDT
(d) Both B and C.

Answer

Answer: (d) Both B and C.


Question 7.
The expanded form of DDT is:
(a) dichloro diphenyl trichloroethane
(b) dichloro diethyl trichloroethane
(c) dichloro dipyrydyl trichloroethane
(d) dichloro diphenyl tetrachloroacetate.

Answer

Answer: (a) dichloro diphenyl trichloroethane


Question 8.
Which of the following material takes the longest time for biodegradations ?
(a) Cotton
(b) Paper
(c) Bone
(d) Jute.

Answer

Answer: (c) Bone


Question 9.
Choose the incorrect statement.
(a) The Montreal protocol is associated with the control of emission of ozone depleting substances.
(b) Methane and carbon dioxide are greenhouse gases.
(c) Dobson units are used to measure oxygen content.
(d) Use of incinerators is crucial to disposal of hospital wastes.

Answer

Answer: (c) Dobson units are used to measure oxygen content.


Question 10.
Among the following which one causes more indoor chemical pollution?
(a) Burning coal
(b) Burning cooking gas
(c) Burning mosquito coil
(d) Room spray.

Answer

Answer: (a) Burning coal


Question 11.
The green scum seen in the fresh water bodies is:
(a) blue green algae
(b) red algae
(c) green algae
(d) Both (a) and (c).

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (c).


Question 12.
The loudness of a sound that a person can withstand without discomfort is about
(a) 150 dB.
(b) 215 dB.
(c) 30 dB.
(d) 80 dB.

Answer

Answer: (d) 80 dB.


Question 13.
The major source of noise pollution world wide is due to:
(a) office equipment
(b) transport system
(c) sugar, textile and paper industries
(d) oil refineries and thermal power plants.

Answer

Answer: (b) transport system


Question 14.
Match correctly the following and choose the correct option.

Column IColumn II
(i) Environment Protection Acta. 1974
(ii) Air Prevention a Control of Pollution Actb. 1987
(iii) Water Actc. 1986
(iv) Amendment of Air Act to include noised. 1981

The correct matches is:
(a) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
(b) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d
(c) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c
(d) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a.

Answer

Answer: (a) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b


Question 15.
Catalytic converters are fitted into automobiles to reduce emission of harmful gases. Catalytic converters change unburnt hydrocarbons into:
(a) carbon dioxide and water
(b) carbon monoxide
(c) methane
(d) carbon dioxide and methane.

Answer

Answer: (a) carbon dioxide and water


Question 16.
Why is it necessary to remove sulphur from petroleum products?
(a) To reduce the emission of sulphur dioxide in exhaust fumes
(b) To increase efficiency of automobiles engines
(c) To use sulphur removed from petroleum for commercial purposes
(d) To increase the life span of engine silencers.

Answer

Answer: (a) To reduce the emission of sulphur dioxide in exhaust fumes


Question 17.
Which one of the following impurities is easiest to remove from waste water?
(o) Bacteria
(b) Colloids
(c) Dissolved solids
(d) Suspended solids.

Answer

Answer: (d) Suspended solids.


Question 18.
Which one of the following diseases is not due to contamination of water ?
(a) Hepatitis-B
(b) Jaundice
(c) Cholera
(d) Typhoid.

Answer

Answer: (a) Hepatitis-B


Question 19.
Nuisance growth of aquatic plants and bloom-forming algae in natural waters is generally due to high concentrations of :
(a) carbon
(b) sulphur
(c) calcium
(d) phosphorus.

Answer

Answer: (d) phosphorus.


Question 20.
Algal blooms impart a distinct colour to water due to:
(a) their pigments
(b) excretion of coloured substances
(c) formation of coloured chemicals in water facilitated by physiological degradation of algae.
(d) absorption of light by algal cell wall.

Answer

Answer: (a) their pigments


Question 21.
Match the items in column I and column II and choose the correct option:

Column IColumn II
(a) UV(i) Biomagnification
(b) Biodegradable Organic matter(ii) Eutrophication
(c) DDT(iii) Snow blindness
(d) Phosphates(iv) BOD

The correct matches is:
(a) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(b) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
(c) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(d) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-i.

Answer

Answer: (c) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii


Question 22.
In the textbook you came across Three Mile Island and Chernobyl disasters associated with accidental leakage of radioactive wastes. In India we had Bhopal gas tragedy. It is associated with which of the following?
(a) CO2
(b) Methyl Iso-Cyanate
(c) CFCs
(d) Methy Cyanate.

Answer

Answer: (b) Methyl Iso-Cyanate


Question 23.
Match the items of column I with column II and select the correct option.

Column IColumn II
(a) Electrostatic precipitator(i) Removes gases like SO2
(b) Scrubber(ii) Reduces automobile emission
(c) Catalytic converter(iii) Removes particulate matter

(a) a -1, b – 3, c – 1
(b) a – 3, b – 2, c – 1.
(c) a – 1, b – 2, c – 3
(d) a – 3, b – 1, c – 2.

Answer

Answer: (d) a – 3, b – 1, c – 2.


Assertion and Reason Type Questions

These questions consist of two statements each, printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
Question 24.
Assertion: Agriculture production increased several times after introduction of DDT.
Reason: DDT was first insecticide used on a wide scale.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.


Question 25.
Assertion: Suspended particulate matter (SPM) is an important pollutant released by diesel vehicles.
Reason: Catalytic converters greatly reduce pollution caused by automobiles.

Answer

Answer: (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.


Question 26.
Assertion: Inhabitants close to busy airports are likely to experience health hazards.
Reason: Sound levels of jet aeroplanes usually exceed 160 dB.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.


Question 27.
Assertion: Deforestation is one main factor contributing to global warming.
Reason: Besides CO2, two other gases methane and CFCs are also included in GHGs.

Answer

Answer: (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.


Question 28.
Assertion: UV radiations cause photodissociation of ozone into O2 and O thus causing damage to stratospheric ozone layer.
Reason: Ozone hole is resulting due to global warming and climatic change.

Answer

Answer: (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.


Question 29.
Assertion: Presently the global atmosphere is warming up.
Reason: The depletion of stratospheric ozone layer has resulted in increase in UV radiations reaching earth.

Answer

Answer: (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.


Question 30.
Assertion: Concentration of methane in atmosphere has more than doubled in the last 250 years.
Reason: Wetlands and rice fields are major sources of methane.

Answer

Answer: (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.


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