Author name: Prasanna

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 3 Interior of the Earth with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Interior of the Earth Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Interior of the Earth Class 11 Objective Questions.

Interior of the Earth of the Earth Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
What are constantly shaping the landscape?
(a) exogenic processes
(b) endogenic processes
(c) both of them
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (c) both of them.

---

Question 2.
What is the radius of earth?
(a) 6370 km
(b) 6360 km
(c) 6380 km
(d) 636 km

Answer

Answer: (a) 6370 km.

---

Question 3.
Which one is the direct source of providing information about the interior of the earth?
(a) Deep Ocean Drilling Project
(b) Volcanic eruptions
(c) Integrated Ocean Drilling Project
(d) all of them

Answer

Answer: (d) all of them.

---

Question 4.
Which one is the indirect source of providing information about the interior of the earth?
(a) volcanic eruption
(b) gravitational force
(c) drilling projects
(d) Ocean Integrated Drilling Project

Answer

Answer: (b) gravitational force.

---

Question 5.
The temperature and pressure increases through
(a) mining
(b) drilling
(c) volcanic
(d) gravitational

Answer

Answer: (a) mining.

---

Question 6.
The gravitation force (g) at different latitudes on the surface is
(a) same
(b) different
(c) decreases towards the poles
(d) increases towards the equator

Answer

Answer: (b) different.

---

Question 7.
Earthquake is
(a) shaking of the earth
(b) release of heat
(c) evolution of gases
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (a) shaking of the earth.

---

Question 8.
Name the point from which energy is released?
(a) core
(b) mantle
(c) focus
(d) body

Answer

Answer: (c) focus.

---

Question 9.
What is called the point on the surface?
(a) Hypocentre
(b) Focus
(c) Epicentre
(d) Body centre

Answer

Answer: (c) Epicentre.

---

Question 10.
Which instrument records the waves reaching the surface?
(a) Seismograph
(b) Richter scale
(c) Demograph
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Seismograph.

---

Question 11.
Earthquake waves are of types
(a) two
(b) three
(c) five
(d) four

Answer

Answer: (a) two

---

Question 12.
How many types of Body waves are there?
(a) two
(b) five
(c) four
(d) six

Answer

Answer: (a) two.

---

Question 13.
Which wave moves faster to arrive at the surface?
(a) ‘P’
(b) ‘S’
(c) ‘P’ and ‘S’
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) ‘P’.

---

Question 14.
Which wave moves slowly to arrive at the surface?
(a) P
(b) S
(c) surface waves
(d) body waves

Answer

Answer: (b) S.

---

Question 15.
In w hat form the seismograph gives the record of the waves?
(a) frequency
(b) amplitude
(c) both of them
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (c) both of them.

---

Question 16.
Which waves are most destructive?
(a) body waves
(b) surface waves
(c) P-waves
(d) S-waves

Answer

Answer: (b) surface waves.

---

Question 17.
Surface waves are classified into
(a) Love
(b) Rayleigh
(c) both
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) both

---

Question 18.
What type of earthquake is generated due to sliding of rocks?
(a) Reservoir induced
(b) Tectonic
(c) Explosion
(d) Collapse

Answer

Answer: (b) Tectonic.

---

Question 19.
The tremors which occur due to the explosion of chemical or nuclear devices are called
(a) Collapse
(b) Explosion
(c) Volcanic
(d) Tectonic

Answer

Answer: (b) Explosion.

---

Question 20.
The magnitude of an earthquake is measured on
(a) Seismograph
(b) Richter scale
(c) none of these
(d) both of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Richter scale.

---

Question 21.
The magnitude is expressed in absolute number
(a) 0 to 10
(b) 1 to 12
(c) 0 to 12
(d) 1 to 10

Answer

Answer: (a) 0 to 10.

---

Question 22.
What generates the tsunami waves?
(a) earthquake
(b) tremors
(c) volcanic eruption
(d) meteor

Answer

Answer: (b) tremors.

---

Question 23.
What is the velocity of ‘P’ waves?
(a) 5-6 km/s
(b) 10-20 km/s
(c) 1-3 km/s
(d) 8-10 km/s

Answer

Answer: (a) 5-6 km/s.

---

Question 24.
The outermost part of the solid earth is known as
(a) core
(b) crust
(c) mantle
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) crust.

---

Question 25.
What is the mean density of material in oceanic crust?
(a) 3 g/cm³
(b) 2.7 g/cm³
(c) 1 g/cm³
(d) 3.8 g/cm³

Answer

Answer: (b) 2.7 g/cm³

---

Question 26.
Which material reaches the ground during volcanic eruptions?
(a) gases
(b) sulphur compounds
(c) nitrogen compounds
(d) all of them

Answer

Answer: (d) all of them.

---

II. Fill up the blanks with suitable words

Question 1.
…………. from South Africa are as deep as 3-4 km.

Answer

Answer: Gold mines

---

Question 2.
………….. are the solid bodies developed out of the materials.

Answer

Answer: Meteors

---

Question 3.
The other indirect sources include ………………. and ……………

Answer

Answer: gravitation, magnetic field, seismic activity

---

Question 4.
The point where the energy is released is called ………….

Answer

Answer: focus

---

Question 5.
………….. are generated due to the release of energy at the focus.

Answer

Answer: Body waves

---

Question 6.
……………. are also called primary waves.

Answer

Answer: ‘P’ waves

---

Question 7.
…………… gives the record of the waves in the form of frequency and amplitude of incoming waves.

Answer

Answer: Seismograph

---

Question 8.
The region where earthquake waves are not recorded is known as ……………

Answer

Answer: shadow zone

---

Question 9.
A special tectonic earthquake is recognised as …………….

Answer

Answer: volcanic earthquake

---

Question 10.
Oceanic crust is …………… as compared to the ……………. crust.

Answer

Answer: thinner, continental

---

Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 3 Interior of the Earth with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 11 Geography Interior of the Earth MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 4 Distribution of Oceans and Continents with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Distribution of Oceans and Continents Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Distribution of Oceans and Continents Class 11 Objective Questions.

Distribution of Oceans and Continents Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Wegner’s theory was proposed in
(a) 1912
(b) 1755
(c) 1862
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (a) 1912.

---

Question 2.
The super-continent from which all landmasses of the world have formed is
(a) Volcanoes
(b) Pangaea
(c) Continents
(d) Oceans

Answer

Answer: (b) Pangaea.

---

Question 3.
The volcanic centres are called
(a) volcanoes
(b) hotspots
(c) crustal plates
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (b) hot spots.

---

Question 4.
Periodical change in the position of magnetic pole is
(a) Polar wandering
(b) Subduction
(c) Geological process
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (a) Polar wandering.

---

Question 5.
The process in which one plate over-rides the other and the over-riden plate slips down into the mantle and is absorbed is called
(a) Subduction
(b) Abduction
(c) Polar wandering
(d) Geological process

Answer

Answer: (a) Subduction.

---

Question 6.
The northern continent broken from pangaea is
(a) Laurasia
(b) Pacific plate
(c) Pangaea
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (a) Laurasia.

---

Question 7.
The southern continent broken from pangaea is
(a) Laurasia
(b) Gondwanaland
(c) Pacific ocean
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (b) Gondwanaland.

---

Question 8.
Who presented a map using computer programme to find best fit of Atlantic margin?
(a) Alfred Wegner
(b) Bullard
(c) Abraham Ortelius
(d) Antonio

Answer

Answer: (b) Bullard.

---

Question 9.
The earliest marine deposits along the coastline of either S.America or Africa are of
(a) Jurassic age
(b) Pangaea
(c) Laurasia
(d) Gondwanaland

Answer

Answer: (a) Jurassic age.

---

Question 10.
Rich placer deposits of gold occur in
(a) Australia
(b) America
(c) Madagascar
(d) Ghana coast

Answer

Answer: (d) Ghana coast.

---

Question 11.
Which one is the force for drifting?
(a) Pole fleeing
(b) Tidal
(c) both of them
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (c) both of them.

---

Question 12.
When was the possibility of convection currents in the mantle portion discussed?
(a) 1912
(b) 1596
(c) 1950
(d) 1956

Answer

Answer: (c) 1950.

---

Question 13.
The ocean floor may be divided into how many divisions?
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 6

Answer

Answer: (a) 3.

---

Question 14.
Which one is the major division based on the depth as well as on the forms of relief?
(a) Continental margins
(b) Deep sea basins
(c) Mid-ocean ridges
(d) all of them

Answer

Answer: (d) all of them.

---

Question 15.
Which division lies between continental shores and deep sea basins?
(a) Continental margin
(b) Deep sea basin
(c) none of these
(d) both of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Continental margin.

---

Question 16.
The second group of deep sea basin lying between the continental margins and mid-ocean ridges is known as
(a) Continental margin
(b) Abyssal plains
(c) Gondwanaland
(d) Mid-ocean ridges

Answer

Answer: (b) Abyssal plains.

---

Question 17.
An interconnected chain of mountain system is formed by
(a) Mid-oceanic ridges
(b) Abyssal plains
(c) Continental margin
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (a) Mid-oceanic ridges.

---

Question 18.
Who collected the ideas about plate tectonics?
(a) Mackenzie
(b) Parker
(c) Morgan
(d) all of them

Answer

Answer: (d) all of them

---

Question 19.
A plate is a portion of
(a) Lithosphere
(b) Asthenosphere
(c) Oceans
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (a) Lithosphere.

---

Question 20.
The earth’s lithosphere is divided into major plates:
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 3
(d) 2

Answer

Answer: (a) 6.

---

Question 21.
Which one is the minor plate?
(a) Arabian
(b) Fuji plate
(c) Cocos
(d) all of them

Answer

Answer: (d) all of them.

---

Question 22.
The spreading boundaries are termed as
(a) Constructive
(b) Accerting
(c) Diverging
(d) all of them

Answer

Answer: (d) all of them

---

Question 23.
The collision boundaries are the result of
(a) subduction
(b) Collision
(c) transform
(d) spreading

Answer

Answer: (b) Collision.

---

Question 24.
How many types of forces work on a moving plate?
(a) two
(b) three
(c) five
(d) four

Answer

Answer: (a) two

---

Question 25.
The driving force includes
(a) ridge push
(b) basal drive
(c) slab pull
(d) all of them

Answer

Answer: (d) all of them.

---

II. Fill up the blanks with suitable words

Question 1.
In 1912, Alfred Wegner put forth the ………………

Answer

Answer: continental drift theory

---

Question 2.
All the continents formed a single continental mass ………………

Answer

Answer: Protocontinent

---

Question 3.
The protocontinent mass was named …………….

Answer

Answer: Pangaea

---

Question 4.
Pangaea broke into …………… and ……………

Answer

Answer: Laurasia, Gondwanaland

---

Question 5.
……………. are the sedimentary rocks formed out of deposits of glaciers.

Answer

Answer: Tillite

---

Question 6.
……………. was a small reptile who adapted to shallow brackish water.

Answer

Answer: Mesosaurus

---

Question 7.
………………. and tidal force are the two forces for drifting.

Answer

Answer: Pole fleeing

---

Question 8.
The second group of deep sea basins lie between the ………………. and …………….

Answer

Answer: continental margin, ridges

---

Question 9.
……………. forms an interconnected chain of mountain system ridges.

Answer

Answer: Mid-oceanic ridge

---

Question 10.
The study of the magnetic properties of the earth and that of rocks is known as ………………

Answer

Answer: palaeomagnetism

---

Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 4 Distribution of Oceans and Continents with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 11 Geography Distribution of Oceans and Continents MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Rocks with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Minerals and Rocks Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Minerals and Rocks Class 11 Objective Questions.

Minerals and Rocks Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
What is the percentage of oxygen in the earth’s crust by weight?
(a) 46.60%
(b) 27.72%
(c) 8.13%
(d) 5.00%

Answer

Answer: (a) 46.60%.

---

Question 2.
What is the basic source of all minerals in the earth’s crust?
(a) upper surface
(b) magma
(c) crust
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (b) magma.

---

Question 3.
Which one is the most important component of Quartz?
(a) sand
(b) granite
(c) both of them
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (c) both of them.

---

Question 4.
Which one is not the component of pyroxenes?
(a) calcium
(b) magnesium
(c) iron
(d) granite

Answer

Answer: (d) granite.

---

Question 5.
Which are the major elements of Olivine?
(a) iron
(b) silica
(c) magnesium
(d) all of them

Answer

Answer: (d) all of them.

---

Question 6.
Which one is the metallic mineral?
(a) silica
(b) carbon
(c) oxygen
(d) gold

Answer

Answer: (d) gold.

---

Question 7.
Out of these which do not contain the metal content?
(a) sulphur
(b) nitrates
(c) phosphates
(d) all of them

Answer

Answer: (d) all of them.

---

Question 8.
The science of rocks is known as
(a) Geology
(b) Zoology
(c) Petrology
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (c) Petrology.

---

Question 9.
The rocks which are formed from solidified magma and lava are known as
(a) Sedimentary
(b) Igneous
(c) Sand rocks
(d) Metamorphic

Answer

Answer: (b) Igneous.

---

Question 10.
What kind of rocks are formed by the deposition/cementation of the fragments?
(a) Sedimentary
(b) Igneous
(c) Pegmatitic
(d) Metamorphic

Answer

Answer: (a) Sedimentary.

---

Question 11.
Which are the hoarse grained rocks with wide range of composition?
(a) Pegmatitic granite
(b) Pegmatitic diorite
(c) both of them
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (c) both of them.

---

Question 12.
Granite is a type of rock:
(a) Granetoid
(b) Pegmatitic
(c) Glassy
(d) Aphantic

Answer

Answer: (a) Granetoid.

---

Question 13.
Which one is the type of extrusive rock?
(a) Granetoid
(b) Glassy
(c) Fragmental
(d) Aphantic

Answer

Answer: (c) Fragmental

---

Question 14.
Deposition cementation of the fragments by external agencies is known as
(a) Sedimentation
(b) Metamorphism
(c) Lithification
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Sedimentation.

---

Question 15.
Which kind of rocks are formed by the active participation of animals and plant secretions?
(a) Siliceous rocks
(b) Sand rocks
(c) Fragmental rocks
(d) Glassy rocks

Answer

Answer: (a) Siliceous rocks.

---

Question 16.
Which kind of rocks are formed by the compressed and altered vegetable matters containing large amount of carbon?
(a) Peat
(b) Sand rocks
(c) Fragment
(d) Glassy

Answer

Answer: (a) Peat.

---

Question 17.
What is formed by the deposition from concentrated solution of brines?
(a) Salts
(b) Peat
(c) Limestone
(d) Sand

Answer

Answer: (a) Salts.

---

Question 18.
Name the type of rocks in which original grains get rearranged into more or less perfect bands or layers.
(a) Salts
(b) Foliated
(c) Calcareous
(d) Granite

Answer

Answer: (b) Foliated.

---

Question 19.
Which one is the example of salt rock?
(a) Halite
(b) Gypsum
(c) Potash
(d) all of them

Answer

Answer: (d) all of them.

---

Question 20.
When rocks are forced down to lower levels by tectonic processes, the process is known as
(a) Sedimentation
(b) Metamorphism
(c) none of them
(d) both of them

Answer

Answer: (b) Metamorphism.

---

Question 21.
Metamorphic rocks are classified in…………. major groups.
(a) two
(b) three
(c) five
(d) six

Answer

Answer: (a) two.

---

Question 22.
Which group belongs to metamorphic rocks?
(fl) Foliated
(b) Non-foliated
(c) both of them
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (c) both of them.

---

Question 23.
Salts and phyllites are……………. rocks.
(a) Foliated
(b) Non-foliated
(c) none of them
(d) both of them

Answer

Answer: (a) Foliated.

---

Question 24.
Which one is the example of Non-foliated rocks?
(a) Marble
(b) Schists
(c) Salts
(d) Phyllites

Answer

Answer: (a) Marble.

---

Question 25.
Serpentine is a type of rocks.
(a) Foliated
(b) Non-foliated
(c) Salts
(d) Aphantic

Answer

Answer: (b) Non-foliated.

---

Question 26.
The process through which the rocks are transformed into new ones is known as?
(a) Rock cycle
(b) Metamorphism
(c) Sedimentation
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (a) Rock cycle.

---

II. Fill up the blanks with suitable words

Question 1.
India is the first among the world countries which produce …………….

Answer

Answer: mica

---

Question 2.
Main poducers of mica are …………, …………….. and Rajasthan.

Answer

Answer: Bihar, Andhra Pradesh

---

Question 3.
…………… is used in fertiliser, cement and sulphuric acid industries.

Answer

Answer: Gypsum

---

Question 4.
The basic source of all minerals is the ……………. in the interior of the earth.

Answer

Answer: hot magma

---

Question 5.
Aluminium, calcium, silica, iron, magnesium are the major elements of ……………..

Answer

Answer: amphiboles

---

Question 6.
………….., ……………. and …………….. are examples of non metals.

Answer

Answer: Sulphur, phosphates, nitrates

---

Question 7.
………….. solidified from magma and lava.

Answer

Answer: Igneous rocks

---

Question 8.
Granetoid or phaneretic rocks are ……………. in origin.

Answer

Answer: plutonic

---

Question 9.
Fragmental are mainly ……………. rocks.

Answer

Answer: extrusive

---

Question 10.
………….. is basically composed of remains of micro-organisms of …………….

Answer

Answer: Chalk, foraminera

---

Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Rocks with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 11 Geography Minerals and Rocks MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Chapter 7 Issue and Redemption of Debentures with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Issue and Redemption of Debentures Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Issue and Redemption of Debentures Class 12 Objective Questions.

Issue and Redemption of Debentures Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

State which of the following is correct:

Question 1.
Wellness Co. Ltd. has issued 20,000, 9% Debentures of ₹ 100 each at a premium of 10% on 1st April, 2018 redeemable as follows:
31st March, 2021 – 10,000 debentures 31st March, 2022 – 4,000 debentures 31 st March, 2023 – balance debentures.
It transferred to Debentures Redemption Reserve the required amount as applicable rules of the Companies Act and Rules, 2014 on due date. How much amount will be transferred to General Reserve on 31st March, 2021
(a) ₹ 1,00,000
(b) ₹ 2,50,000
(c) ₹ 5,00,000
(d) ₹ 20,00,000

Answer

Answer: (b) ₹ 2,50,000

---

Question 2.
Debenture holders are the _______ of company.
(a) Owner
(b) Creditors
(c) Money lender
(d) All of these.

Answer

Answer: (b) Creditors

---

Question 3.
Public Limited company can issue:
(a) Equity Share
(b) Preference Share
(c) Debenture
(d) All of these.

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these.

---

Question 4.
______ is written acknowledgment of debt.
(a) Equity share
(b) Preference share
(c) Debenture
(d) All of these.

Answer

Answer: (c) Debenture

---

Question 5.
_____ debentures have to be redeemed within a fixed period of time.
(a) Convertible
(b) Redeemable
(c) Participating
(d) Naked.

Answer

Answer: (b) Redeemable

---

Question 6.
Debentures may be issued at _______.
(a) par
(b) premium
(c) Discount
(d) All of these.

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these.

---

Question 7.
When the number of debenture applied for is less than the number of debenture offered, is called ________ subscription.
(a) over
(b) under
(c) minimum
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (b) under

---

Question 8.
The provisions of Companies Act 2013 with respect to redemption to debentures are to protect the interest of
(a) debenture holders
(b) creditors
(c) shareholders
(d) Banks

Answer

Answer: (a) debenture holders

---

Question 9.
Discount on issue of debenture is ________.
(a) capitalised profit
(b) capitalised loss
(c) normal profit
(d) normal loss.

Answer

Answer: (b) capitalised loss

---

Question 10.
Discount on issue of debentures is ________ asset.
(a) Current profit
(b) fixed
(c) fictitious
(d) intangible.

Answer

Answer: (c) fictitious

---

Question 11.
Premium on issue of debenture is ________.
(a) capital profit
(b) capitalised loss
(c) normal profit
(d) normal loss.

Answer

Answer: (a) capital profit

---

Question 12.
Loss on redemption of debenture is _______.
(a) capitalised profit
(b) capitalised loss
(c) normal profit
(d) normal loss.

Answer

Answer: (b) capitalised loss

---

Question 13.
Loss on issue of debenture is ______.
(a) capitalised profit
(b) capitalised loss
(c) normal profit
(d) normal loss

Answer

Answer: (b) capitalised loss

---

Question 14.
Debentures are usually ________.
(a) secured
(b) unsecured
(c) assets
(d) loss.

Answer

Answer: (a) secured

---

Question 15.
There are no restrictions on issue of at _______ discount.
(a) equity shares
(b) preference shares
(c) debentures
(d) All of these.

Answer

Answer: (c) debentures

---

Question 16.
Wben debentures are issued then ____________ account is opened.
(a) capital
(b) debenture
(c) loan
(d) All of these.

Answer

Answer: (b) debenture

---

Fill in the blanks with correct word:

Question 17.
Debentures bear a fixed rate of _______.

Answer

Answer: interest

---

Question 18.
Debentures are ________ within a fixed period of time.

Answer

Answer: redeemed

---

Question 19.
Debentures are usually secured by a _______ or _______ charge on the company’s property.

Answer

Answer: fixed, floating

---

Question 20.
The debentures repayable after a stated period of time are known as _______ debentures.

Answer

Answer: Redeemable

---

Question 21.
A __________ debenture is one whose holder is registered in the books of the company.

Answer

Answer: registered

---

Question 22.
A __________ debenture is one which is payable to the bearer thereof.

Answer

Answer: bearer

---

Question 23.
A __________ debenture is one which is not redeemable during the life time of the company.

Answer

Answer: Perpetual

---

Question 24.
When debentures are issued without any security are termed as _________ debentures.

Answer

Answer: unsecured

---

Question 25.
When debentures are convertible into equity shares are called as ________ debentures.

Answer

Answer: convertible

---

Question 26.
Debentures are usually ________.

Answer

Answer: secured

---

Question 27.
Debentures canot be ______.

Answer

Answer: forfeited.

---

State whether the following statements are true or false:

Question 28.
Debenture holders are the creditor of company.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 29.
Company may buy its own debenture in open market.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 30.
Debentures cannot be issued at discount.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 31.
Company cannot forfeit its debenture.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 32.
Interest on debentures carry fixed charge on profits.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 33.
Own Debentures not cancelled as yet are shown in the liability side of a company’s Balance sheet.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 34.
Debentures can be issued as collateral security.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 35.
Debentures suspense account is created when the debentures are issued to promoters.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 36.
Company can issue debentures to its vendor.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 37.
Interest on debentures is subject to tax deductible at source.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 38.
Company cannot issue necked debentures.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 39.
Debentures have floating change on the fixed assets of company.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 40.
Debenture Redemption Reserve is created @ 50 % of the face value of the debentures as per new rules.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 41.
It is necessary to create Debenture Redemption Investment before debentures are redeemed.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 42.
A company must have created Debenture Redemption Reserve before converting the debentures into new shares or new debentures.

Answer

Answer: False

---

One word Questions:

Question 43.
What is meant by ‘Issue of Debentures as Collateral Security’ ? (CBSE Outside Delhi 2019)

Answer

Answer: Debenture issued as secondary security/additional security over and above the primary security is known as Issue of Debentures as Collateral Security.

---

Question 44.
State the provision of the Companies Act, 2013 for the creation of Debenture Redemption Reserve. (CBSE Outside Delhi 2019)

Answer

Answer: Where a company has issued Debentures, it shall create a DRR equivalent to at least 25% of the nominal value of debentures outstanding for the redemption of such debentures.

---

Question 45.
Profit arisen on account of buying an existing business at profit is transferred to which account?

Answer

Answer: Capital Reserve.

---

Question 46.
Name the debentures which continue till the continuity of the company.

Answer

Answer: Irredeemable.

---

Question 47.
Name the debenture which may be converted into equity shares at specified time.

Answer

Answer: Convertible debentures.

---

Question 48.
Name the debentures which have charge on the company’s assets.

Answer

Answer: Secured debentures (also known as mortgaged debentures).

---

Question 49.
When a debenture is issued at a price less than its face value or nominal value, what does such difference represent?

Answer

Answer: Discount.

---

Question 50.
When debentures are redeemed more than the face value of debenture, What does the difference between face value of debenture and redeemed value of debenture is called?

Answer

Answer: Premium on redemption of debentures.

---

Question 51.
Name the head under which ‘discount on issue of debentures’ appears in the Balance Sheet of a company. Head ‘Current Assets’ and sub-head ‘Other Current Assets’.
What does the repayment or discharge of liability on account of debentures is called?

Answer

Answer: Redemption of debentures.

---

Question 52.
Under which head is the ‘Debenture Redemption Reserve’ shown in the Balance Sheet?

Answer

Answer: ‘Reserve & Surplus’.

---

Question 53.
When the company issues debentures to the lenders as an additional/secondary security, in addition to other assets already pledged/ some primary security. What does such issue of debentures is called? (CBSE 2018)

Answer

Answer: Issue of dedentures as collateral security.

---

Question 54.
It is a written instrument acknowledging a debt under the common seal of the company, name the term. Debenture.
State an exception to the creation of Debenture Redemption Reserve as per Companies (Share Capital and Debentures) Rules 18(7). (CBSE Sample Paper 2014 Modified)

Answer

Answer: Banking Companies

---

Question 55.
Mention the type of debentures whose ownership passes on mere delivery of debenture certificates.

Answer

Answer: Bearer debentures.

---

Question 56.
Can ‘Securities Premium’ be used as working capital?

Answer

Answer: No.

---

Question 57.
A company purchased net assets of another company worth ₹ 20,00,000 and issued debentures worth ₹ 19,00,000. What type of profit has the buying company made?

Answer

Answer: Capital Profit.

---

Question 58.
Vikas Infrastructure Ltd. has issued 50,000, 10% debentures of ₹ 100 each at par redeemable after the end of 7th year. Mention the amount by which the company should create Debenture Redemption Reserve as per Companies (Share Capital and Debentures) Rules 2014 before starting redemption of debenture. Answer with giving reason.

Answer

Answer: ₹ 12,50,000.

---

Question 59.
Axis Ltd. has issued 8,000, 10% debentures of₹ 100 at a premium of ₹ 5 per debenture redeemable at the end of 5 years. The company has created Debenture Redemption Reserve with ₹ 4,00,000. After 5 years, the company redeemed all the debentures ? Where should the company transfer the amount of Debenture Redemption Reserve?

Answer

Answer: General Reserve.

---

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Geomorphic Processes Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The branch of science which deals with the study of soil is
(a) Geology
(b) Pedology
(c) Zoology
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (b) Pedology

---

Question 2.
Enrichment of water with nutrients, primarily phosphorus, causing abundant aquatic plant growth is known as
(a) Humification
(b) Diastrophism
(c) Eutrophication
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Eutrophication.

---

Question 3.
Vertical section of the soil through all its horizons and extending into the parent material is called
(a) Soil profile
(b) Rock profile
(c) Mantle
(d) Crustle

Answer

Answer: (a) Soil profile.

---

Question 4.
The mineral which makes the saline soil useful for crops
(a) calcium
(b) potassium
(c) gypsum
(d) silica

Answer

Answer: (c) gypsum.

---

Question 5.
Which soil layer is approximately parallel to the soil surface
(a) Soil horizon
(b) Mantle
(c) both of them
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (a) Soil horizon.

---

Question 6.
Name the process by which clay or other fine particles go down the soil profile
(a) Eluviation
(b) illuviation
(c) Leaching
(d) Salinisation

Answer

Answer: (a) Eluviation.

---

Question 7.
Name the process by which the material is washed down in . the lower horizon of the soil profile :
(a) Eluviation
(b) Illuviation
(c) Leaching
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Illuviation.

---

Question 8.
What process causes the removal and downward movement of material from horizon in solution?
(a) Leaching
(b) Illuviation
(c) Eluviation
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Leaching.

---

Question 9.
The earth has moved and moves
(a) Horizontally
(b) Vertically
(c) both of them
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (c) both of them.

---

Question 10.
The earth’s surface receives energy from
(a) sun
(b) moon
(c) stars
(d) interior gases

Answer

Answer: (a) sun.

---

Question 11.
Which forces results in the wearing down/degradation of relief?
(a) Endogenetic forces
(b) Exogenetic forces
(c) both of them
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (b) Exogenetic forces.

---

Question 12.
Name the forces which build up parts of the earth’s surface
(a) Endogenetic forces
(b) Exogenetic forces
(c) Gravitation force
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Endogenetic forces.

---

Question 13.
Which force helps in the geomorphic processes?
(a) Endogenetic force
(b) Exogenetic force
(c) both of them
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (c) both of them.

---

Question 14.
Which is the exogenetic element?
(a) water
(b) ice
(c) wind
(d) all of them

Answer

Answer: (d) all of them.

---

Question 15.
Which one is known as mobile medium?
(a) running water
(b) moving ice
(c) wind
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these.

---

Question 16.
Name the force which causes stress on the earth materials?
(a) Endogenetic force
(b) Gravity force
(c) Exogenetic force
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Gravity force.

---

Question 17.
Which one is known as geomorphic agent?
(a) ground water
(b) glaciers
(c) waves
(d) all of them

Answer

Answer: (d) all of them

---

Question 18.
The movement of molten rock toward the earth’s surface is known as:
(a) Diastrophism
(b) Geomorphism
(c) Volcanism
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Volcanism

---

Question 19.
Denudation is:
(a) weathering
(b) mass wasting
(c) erosion
(d) all of them

Answer

Answer: (d) all of them

---

Question 20.
Weathering is an process
(a) Exogenetic
(b) Endogenetic
(c) Volcanism
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Exogenetic

---

Question 21.
In which process chemical addition of water takes place?
(a) Solution
(b) Hydration
(c) Oxidation
(d) Carbonation

Answer

Answer: (b) Hydration

---

Question 22.
Exfoliation can occur due to
(a) Expansion
(b) contraction
(c) none of these
(d) both of these

Answer

Answer: (d) both of these

---

Question 23.
By which force is the mass movement aided?
(a) gravity
(A) running water
(c) wind
(d) waves

Answer

Answer: (a) gravity

---

Question 24.
How many groups are there for mass movements?
(a) three
(A) four
(c) six
(d) two

Answer

Answer: (a) three

---

Question 25.
In our country, where the debris avalanche and landslides occur frequently?
(a) Northern plains
(A) Western Ghats
(c) Deccan Plateau
(d) Himalayas

Answer

Answer: (d) Himalayas

---

II. Fill up the blanks with suitable words

Question 1.
The external forces are known as …………….. and the internal forces are known as ………….. forces.

Answer

Answer: exogenetic, endogenetic

---

Question 2.
…………., …………, …………. are exogenetic demerits.

Answer

Answer: Water, ice, wind

---

Question 3.
………….. is a directional force causing stresses on the earth materials.

Answer

Answer: Gravity

---

Question 4.
…………… is a mountain building process whereas …………… is a continental building process.

Answer

Answer: Orogeny, epeirogeny

---

Question 5.
Denudation means to ……………

Answer

Answer: strip off

---

Question 6.
Weathering is an important …………….. process.

Answer

Answer: exogenetic

---

Question 7.
…………….. is the reaction of carbonates and bicarbonates with minerals.

Answer

Answer: Carbonation

---

Question 8.
Red colour of iron on oxidation turns to ……………. or …………….

Answer

Answer: brown, yellow

---

Question 9.
Salts in rocks expand due to ……………., …………….. and …………….

Answer

Answer: hydration, thermal action, crystallisation

---

Question 10.
…………….. are aided by gravity and not by geomorphic agents.

Answer

Answer: Mass movements

---

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Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Chapter 8 Financial Statements of a Company with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Financial Statements of a Company Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Financial Statements of a Company Class 12 Objective Questions.

Financial Statements of a Company Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs):

Question 1.
Preliminary expense are required to be written off within _______ from the date of incurring.
(a) one year
(b) five years
(c) same year
(d) three years

Answer

Answer: (c) same year

---

Question 2.
In the notes to accounts, share capital in which company has not called the entire face value of shares is shown under the notes to accounts.
(a) Subscribed and fully paid up capital
(b) Subscribed but not fully paid up capital
(c) Reserve Capital
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Subscribed but not fully paid up capital

---

Question 3.
The debentures to be redeemed within 12 months from the date of balance sheet is shown under
(a) short term borrowings
(b) long term borrowings
(c) other current liabilities
(d) long term liabilities

Answer

Answer: (c) other current liabilities

---

Question 4.
Which of the following item will not appear under short term provisions
(a) Provision for tax
(b) Proposed Dividend
(c) Provision for retirement benefits
(d) Provision for doubtful debts

Answer

Answer: (c) Provision for retirement benefits

---

Question 5.
Capital Reserve will be shown under
(a) current liabilities
(b) share capital
(c) reserves and surplus
(d) deferred tax liabilities

Answer

Answer: (c) reserves and surplus

---

Question 6.
Dividend is paid on
(a) authorised capital
(b) issued capital
(c) called up capital
(d) paid up capital

Answer

Answer: (d) paid up capital

---

Question 7.
Which of the following is not required to be prepared under companies act
(a) Statement of Profit and Loss
(b) Balanc Sheet
(c) Cash Flow Statement
(d) Funds Flow Statement

Answer

Answer: (d) Funds Flow Statement

---

Question 8.
Goodwill appears in a company’s balance sheet under
(a) Unamortised assets
(b) Non-current investments
(c) Intangible assets
(d) Tangible assets

Answer

Answer: (c) Intangible assets

---

Question 9.
Which of the following is not required to be prepared under companies act
(a) Statement of Profit and Loss
(b) Balance Sheet
(c) Cash Flow Statement
(d) Funds Flow Statement

Answer

Answer: (d) Funds Flow Statement

---

Question 10.
Claims against the company not acknowledged as debts is shown under
(a) current liabilities
(b) non-current liabilities
(c) commitments
(d) contintent liabilities

Answer

Answer: (d) contintent liabilities

---

Fill in the Blanks with correct word:

Question 11.
The balance sheet of company is prepared under schedule _______ part __________.

Answer

Answer: III,I

---

Question 12.
The financial statements are prepared under the provisions of Companies Act, ______.

Answer

Answer: 2013

---

Question 13.
Schedule VI has been replaced with schedule _______ in the new company law.

Answer

Answer: III

---

Question 14.
Balance sheet of a company can be prepared only in ______ form.

Answer

Answer: Vertical

---

Question 15.
The new Companies Act has replaced the concept of ______ with ________ to Accounts.

Answer

Answer: Schedules,notes

---

Question 16.
Cash and Cash Equivalents will be shown under ________.

Answer

Answer: Current assests

---

Question 17.
Dr. balance of Statement of Profit and Loss is shown under _______ as ________ item.

Answer

Answer: Reserves and surplus,Negative

---

Question 18.
Discount on issue of debentures to be written off after 12 months from the reporting date of balance sheet are shown under ________.

Answer

Answer: Non current assests

---

Question 19.
Share capital consist of _________ share capital and ________ share capital.

Answer

Answer: Equity,preference

---

Question 20.
Long term provisions are expected to be settled _________ 12 months after the reporting date of balance
sheet.

Answer

Answer: Beyond

---

State whether the following statements are true or false:

Question 21.
Bank charges are shown under finance costs.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 22.
Share forfeiture account is shown under subscribed capital but fully paid up.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 23.
Money received against share warrants is shown under the heading reserves and surplus.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 24.
Statement of profit and loss carrying positive value or negative value, is always shown under Reserves and Surplus.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 25.
Trade payables does not include sundry creditors.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 26.
Interest received by non-finance Company is shown under revenue from operations.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 27.
Sale of scrap in case of manufacturing company is a part of revenue from operations.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 28.
Calls in advance is shown under other current liabilities.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 29.
Discount allowed to receivables is shown under the heading finance costs.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 30.
Call in arrears are shown as other current assets as it is the amount receivable.

Answer

Answer: False

---

One word Questions:

Question 31.
State the importance of financial analysis for labour unions. (CBSE SP 2019-20)

Answer

Answer: Labor unions analyse the financial statements to assess whether an enterprise can increase their pay.

---

Question 32.
If operating is not given, what is the time for the operating cycle assumed?

Answer

Answer: 12 months.

---

Question 33.
If the operating cycle is given for 12 months and the payment cycle for trade payables is 15 months, how will you classify the liability?

Answer

Answer: Non-current Liability.

---

Question 34.
Name any one line item that can be shown under the major heading ‘Equity and Liabilities’ in a company’s Balance Sheet.

Answer

Answer: Shareholders’Funds

---

Question 35.
Name any one item that can be disclosed under ‘Short Term Provisions’.

Answer

Answer: Provision for Doubtful debts.

---

Question 36.
How would you treat preliminary expenses?

Answer

Answer: Preliminary expenses are written off in the year in which they are incurred.

---

Question 37.
Give one example of unamortised expenses.

Answer

Answer: Discount on issue of shares / debentures.

---

Question 38.
State any one component of shareholders’ funds.

Answer

Answer: Reserves & Surplus.

---

Question 39.
How would you treat share forfeiture account?

Answer

Answer: Added in the subscribed.

---

Question 40.
Mention one component of Reserves and Surplus.

Answer

Answer: Securities Premium Reserves.

---

Question 41.
Pratiksha Cartons Limited has given guarantee of ? 75,00,000 to a bank for raising loans from the bank by its subsidiary’ company. Where will this be shown in books of the company?

Answer

Answer: This will be mentioned in Notes to Accounts.

---

Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 8 Financial Statements of a Company with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 12 Accountancy Financial Statements of a Company MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.