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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Business Studies Chapter 9 Small Business with Answers

MCQ Questions /

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Business Studies Chapter 9 Small Business with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 11 Business Studies with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Small Business Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Small Business Class 11 Objective Questions.

Small Business Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Expand EOUs
(a) Essential Operating units
(b) Export Oriented units
(c) Export Order Units
(d) Essential order units

Answer

Answer: (b) Export Oriented units

Question 2.
The District Industries Centers Programme was launched on
(a) On 15 August 1978
(b) On May 1, 1978
(c) On September 1, 1978
(d) On July 1, 1978

Answer

Answer: (b) On May 1, 1978

Question 3.
The small scale industry can enjoy the status of ________ if it supplies not less than 50% of its production to another industry, referred to as the parent unit.
(a) Micro Business industry
(b) Export oriented unit
(c) Ancillary small industry
(d) Village industries

Answer

Answer: (c) Ancillary small industry

Question 4.
ISO 9000 is concerned with
(a) Export
(b) Quantity
(c) Quality
(d) Import

Answer

Answer: (c) Quality

Question 5.
Which of the following comes under the Modern Small Industries?
(a) Coir
(b) Powerlooms
(c) Handicrafts
(d) Khadi

Answer

Answer: (b) Powerlooms

Question 6.
Small industries contribute _______ of gross industrial value.
(a) 49 percent
(b) 45 percent
(c) 48 percent
(d) 40 percent

Answer

Answer: (d) 40 percent

Question 7.
The small scale industry can enjoy the status of _______ unit if it exports more than 50% of its production.
(a) Import oriented units
(b) Export Oriented units
(c) Small scale unit
(d) Domestic unit

Answer

Answer: (b) Export Oriented units

Question 8.
NSIC was setup in
(a) 1982
(b) 1975
(c) 1965
(d) 1955

Answer

Answer: (d) 1955

Question 9.
______ are also known as Rural industries or Traditional industries
(a) Agricultural industry
(b) Food industry
(c) Cottage Industries
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Cottage Industries

Question 10.
Small scale industries owned and managed by women entrepreneurs have a share capital of not less than __________
(a) 20 percent
(b) 51 percent
(c) 25 percent
(d) 50 percent

Answer

Answer: (b) 51 percent

Question 11.
Expand DIC
(a) Directorate of Industry corporation
(b) Directorate of Indian Corporation
(c) District Industries Centers
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) District Industries Centers

Question 12.
Which of the following is part of the small-scale sector?
(a) Paper Products and Printing
(b) Food Products
(c) Cotton Textiles
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above

Question 13.
Exemption from paying taxes for 5 ot 10 years is known as _________
(a) Tax Deduction
(b) TDS
(c) Value Added Tax
(d) Tax Holiday

Answer

Answer: (d) Tax Holiday

Question 14.
_____ is defined as one in which the investment in fixed assets of plant and machinery does not exceed rupees one crore.
(a) Small Scale Industry
(b) Limited Companies
(c) Large Scale industry
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Small Scale Industry

Question 15.
In India, the ‘Village and Small Industries’ Sector consists of both traditional and modern small industries. This sector has ___________subgroups.
(a) Eleven
(b) Ten
(c) Five
(d) Eight

Answer

Answer: (d) Eight

Question 16.
Expand KVIC
(a) Khadi and Village Industries Commission
(b) Khadi and Village industries core
(c) King of Village Industries Commission
(d) King of Village Investment culture

Answer

Answer: (a) Khadi and Village Industries Commission

Question 17.
A tiny unit is defined as an industrial or business enterprise whose investment in plant and machinery is not more than ___________
(a) Rs.35 Lakhs
(b) Rs.50 Lakhs
(c) Rs.30 Lakhs
(d) Rs. 25 Lakhs

Answer

Answer: (d) Rs. 25 Lakhs

Question 18.
Which of the following is the main problem for small businesses?
(a) Raw material
(b) Finance
(c) Managerial skill
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above

Question 19.
Expand SIDBI
(a) Society Industrial development bank of India
(b) Small Industries development bank of India
(c) Super Industrial development bank of India
(d) Small Indian Development bank of India

Answer

Answer: (b) Small industries development bank of India

Question 20.
Which of the following is organised by individuals?
(a) Cottage Industries
(b) Chemical industry
(c) Railway industry
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Cottage Industries

Question 21.
Any industry located in a rural area which produces any goods renders any service with or without the use of power is known as ________
(a) City Industry
(b) Town Industry
(c) Village Industry
(d) District Industry

Answer

Answer: (c) Village Industry

Question 22.
Limit of investment in small scale industry is _________
(a) One crore
(b) Ten crore
(c) Two crore
(d) Five crore

Answer

Answer: (a) One crore

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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 9 Biomolecules with Answers

MCQ Questions /

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 9 Biomolecules with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Biomolecules Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Biomolecules Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Biomolecules Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Biology Chapter 9 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Biomolecules Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 9 Biology Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

I. Select the correct answer from the following questions:

Question 1.
Glucose is a
(a) Ketose hexose sugar
(b) Pyronose pentose sugar
(c) Aldose hexose sugar
(d) Furanose pentose sugar.

Answer

Answer: (c) Aldose hexose sugar.

Question 2.
Lactose molecule is composed of
(a) Fructose+Fructose
(b) Glucose+Fructose
(c) Glucose+Glucose
(d) Glucose+Galactose.

Answer

Answer: (d) Glucose+ Galactose.

Question 3.
Which group contains all polysaccharides?
(a) Glycogen, sucrose and maltose
(b) Maltose, lactose and sucrose
(c) Glycogen, glucose and sucrose
(d) Glycogen, cellulose and starch.

Answer

Answer: (d) Glycogen, cellulose and starch.

Question 4.
Amino acids are formed from
(a) Proteins
(b) Fatty acids
(c) Volatile acid
(d) α < -keto acids.

Answer

Answer: (d) α < -keto acids.

Question 5.
A nucleoside is formed of
(a) Phosphate and nitrogen base
(b) Pentose sugar and phosphate
(c) Pentose sugar, phosphate and nitrogen base
(d) Pentose sugar and nitrogen base.

Answer

Answer: (d) Pentose sugar and nitrogen base.

Question 6.
The most abundant component of a cell is
(a) Lipid
(b) Protein
(c) Water
(d) Cellulose

Answer

Answer: (c) Water.

Question 7.
Maximum amount of iron occures in
(a) Proteins
(b) Bone cells
(c) Leucocytes
(d) Erythrocytes.

Answer

Answer: (d) Erythrocytes.

Question 8.
Calcium is required for
(a) Blood clotting
(b) Bone formation
(c) Muscle contraction
(d) All of these.

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 9.
Immediate source of energy is
(a) ATP
(b) Glucose
(c) NADH
(d) Pyruvic acid.

Answer

Answer: (a) ATP.

Question 10.
An amino acid without an asymetrical carbon atoms
(a) Glycine
(b) Threonine.
(c) Proline
(d) Histidine.

Answer

Answer: (a) Glycine.

Question 11.
The most abundant protein is
(a) Glycine
(b) Valine
(c) Arginine
(d) Collagen

Answer

Answer: (d) Collagen.

Question 12.
Basic unit of nucleic acid is
(a) Pentose sugar
(b) Nucleotide
(c) Phosphoric acid
(d) Nitrogen base.

Answer

Answer: (b) Nucleotide.

Question 13.
The amino acids which are not synthesized in our body are called
(a) Deaminated
(b) Non-essential
(c) Essential
(d) Proteinaceous.

Answer

Answer: (c) Essential.

Question 14.
Which of the following is a non-reducing sugar?
(a) Lactose
(b) Glucose
(c) Maltose
(d) Sucrose.

Answer

Answer: (d) Sucrose.

Question 15.
The primary structure of a protein is due to
(a) ionic bonds
(b) hydrogen
(c) Peptide bonds
(d) S-S linkage

Answer

Answer: (c) Peptide bonds.

Question 16.
A source of maximum energy in a cell is
(a) proteins
(b) Vitamins
(c) Fats
(d) Carbohydrates.

Answer

Answer: (d) Carbohydrates.

Question 17.
Starch is a polymer of a basic unit of starch is
(a) Maltose
(b) Sucrose
(c) Glucose
(d) Fructose.

Answer

Answer: (c) Glucose.

Question 18.
Glycogen is a polymer of
(a) Galactose
(b) Glucose
(c) Sucrose
(d) Fructose.

Answer

Answer: (b) Glucose.

Question 19.
Cellulose occurs in
(a) Cell wall
(b) Cell membrane
(c) Cell interior
(d) Tunicates.

Answer

Answer: (a) Cell wall.

Question 20.
Protein/enzyme is formed by chemically bonding together of
(a) Lipases
(b) Carbohydrates
(c) Amino acids
(d) CO2

Answer

Answer: (c) Amino acids.

Question 21.
The most diverse molecules in a cell are
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) Proteins
(c) Lipids
(d) Mineral salts.

Answer

Answer: (b) Proteins.

Question 22.
Besides having, C,H,O which of the following also contains S and P?
(a) Fats
(b) Vitamins
(c) Carbohydrates
(d) Proteins.

Answer

Answer: (d) Proteins.

Question 23.
Natural silk fibre is
(a) Polyester
(b) Polysaccharide
(c) Polyamide
(d) Polyacid.

Answer

Answer: (c) Polyamide.

Question 24.
The enzymes having slightly different molecular structure but similar catalytic reaction are called
(a) Coenzyme
(b) Holoenzyme
(c) Proenzyme
(d) Isoenzyme.

Answer

Answer: (d) Isoenzyme.

Question 25.
Enzyme that functions at pH = 2.0 is
(a) Lipase
(b) Ptyalin
(c) Pepsin
(d) Trypsin.

Answer

Answer: (c) Pepsin.

Question 26.
Enzymes are polymers of
(a) Fatty acids
(b) Chromosomes
(c) Amino acids
(d) Nucleus and ribosomes.

Answer

Answer: (c) Amino acids.

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
All the elements present in a sample of ………….. are also present in a sample of living tissue.

Answer

Answer: earth’s crust

Question 2.
One is called the filtrate or more technically, the acid soluble, peol, and the second, the retentate or the acid insoluble ………..

Answer

Answer: fraction.

Question 3.
One ………… and ………… a compound.

Answer

Answer: isolates, purifies

Question 4.
Amino acids are ……………… containing an amino group and an acidic group as substituents on the some carbon i.e., the α < -carbon

Answer

Answer: organic compounds

Question 5.
The …………… and ………… properties of amino acids are essentially of the amino, carboxyl and the ‘R’ functional groups.

Answer

Answer: chemical, physical

Question 6.
………… are generally water insoluble.

Answer

Answer: Lipids

Question 7.
Some lipids have ……………. and a ………….. organic compound in them.

Answer

Answer: Phosphorous, Phosphorylated

Question 8.
When found attached to a sugar, they are called …………..

Answer

Answer: nucleosides.

Question 9.
………….. are not strictly macromolecules.

Answer

Answer: Lipids

Question 10.
Proteins are ……………

Answer

Answer: polypeptides

Question 11.
………….. are long chains of sugars.

Answer

Answer: Polysaccharides

Question 12.
…………, is a polymer of fructose.

Answer

Answer: Insulin

Question 13.
Allmost all ………….. are positive.

Answer

Answer: enzymes

Question 14.
The most important form of energy currency in living systems is the bond energy in a chemical called ……………. .

Answer

Answer: adenosine triphosphate(ATP)

Question 15.
The living state is a ……………. steady state to be able to perform work.

Answer

Answer: non-equilibrium

III. Mark the statement true (T) or false (F)

Question 1.
Biomacromolecules are polymers. They are made of building blocks which are different.

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 2.
Proteins are heteropolymers made of starch acids.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 3.
Nucleic acids (RNA and DNA) are composed of nucleotides.

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 4.
Enzyme, are composed of one or several polypeptide chains.

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 5.
When the binding of the chemical shuts off enzyme activity, the process is called inhibition and the chemical is called an inhibitor.

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 6.
When the inhibitor closely resembles the substrate in its mo-lecular structure and inhibits the activity of the enzyme, it is known as competitive inhibitor.

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 7.
Almost all enzymes are proteins. There are some nucleic acids that behave like enzymes. These are called ribozymes.

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 8.
The latter constitute degradation and hence are called catabolic pathways.

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 9.
The most important form of energy currency in living systems is the bond energy in a chemical called adenosine triphosphate (ATP).

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 10.
Together all these chemical reactions are called metabolism.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 11.
The pitch would be 34Å. The rise perbase pair would be 3.4Å. This form of DNA with the above mentioned salient features is called B-DNA.

Answer

Answer: True

.
Question 12.
In a polysaccharide the individual mono saccharides are linked by a glycosidic bond. This bond is also formed by dehydration.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 13.
In addition, the long protein chain is also folded upon itself like a hollow wollen ball, giving rise to the secondary structure.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 14.
Other regions of the protein thread are folded into other forms in what is called the tertiary structure.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 15.
We can take any living tissue (a vegetable or a piece of liver etc.) and grind it in trichloroacetic acid (CI13 CCOOH) using a mortar and a pestle.

Answer

Answer: True

IV. Match the items of column I with the items of column II

Column IColumn II
(a) Trichloroacetic acid1. Consist of nucleotides only.
(b) Inorganic compounds like2. Uridine and cytidine are nucleotides.
(c) Inorganic elements like3. Polypeptides.
(d) Nucleic acid like DNA and RNA4. CL13 CCOOH
(e) Adenosine, guanosine, thymidine5. Cellulose
(f) In addition, the long protein chain is also folded upon itself like a hollow6. Wollen ball, giving rise to the tertiary structure.
(g) Together all these chemical reactions are called7. is the bond energy in a chemical called adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
(h) Proteins are8. sulphate, phosphate.
(i) Plant cell walls are made of9. calcium, magnesium.
(j) Cotton fibre is10. Includes all enzmes catalysing inter-conversion of optical, geometric or positional isomers.
(k) The most important form of energy currency in living systems11. molecular structure and inhibits the activity of the enzyme, it is known as competitive inhibitor.
(l) Adult human haemoglobin12. meta bolism
(m) The chemical which is13. Cellulose.
(n) Isomerares14. Consists of 4 subunits.
(o) When the inhibitor closely resembles the substrate in its15. converted into a product called a ‘substrate’
Answer

Answer:

Column IColumn II
(a) Trichloroacetic acid4. CL13 CCOOH
(b) Inorganic compounds like8. sulphate, phosphate.
(c) Inorganic elements like9. calcium, magnesium.
(d) Nucleic acid like DNA and RNA1. Consist of nucleotides only.
(e) Adenosine, guanosine, thymidine2. Uridine and cytidine are nucleotides.
(f) In addition, the long protein chain is also folded upon itself like a hollow6. Wollen ball, giving rise to the tertiary structure.
(g) Together all these chemical reactions are called12. metabolism
(h) Proteins are3. Polypeptides.
(i) Plant cell walls are made of5. Cellulose
(j) Cotton fibre is13. Cellulose.
(k) The most important form of energy currency in living systems7. is the bond energy in a chemical called adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
(l) Adult human haemoglobin14. Consists of 4 subunits.
(m) The chemical which is15. converted into a product called a ‘substrate’
(n) Isomerares10. Includes all enzmes catalysing inter-conversion of optical, geomet ric or positional isomers.
(o) When the inhibitor closely resembles the substrate in its11. molecular structure and inhibits the activity of the enzyme, it is known as competitive inhibitor.

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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Business Studies Chapter 11 International Business 1 with Answers

MCQ Questions /

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Business Studies Chapter 11 International Business 1 with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 11 Business Studies with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided International Business 1 Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on International Business 1 Class 11 Objective Questions.

International Business 1 Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
The degree of mobility of factors of production like labour and capital is relatively more within in _________
(a) Domestic Business
(b) International business
(c) Both Domestic and International business
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Domestic Business

Question 2.
Foreign investment can be of two types
(a) Domestic and International investment
(b) Direct and Portfolio
(c) Licencing and Franchising
(d) Direct and Franchising

Answer

Answer: (b) Direct and Portfolio

Question 3.
Which of the following document is prepared by the exporter and includes details of the cargo in terms of the shipper’s name, the number of packages, the shipping bill, port of destination, name of the vehicle carrying the cargo?
(a) Shipping bill
(b) Mate’s receipt
(c) Packaging list
(d) Bill of exchange

Answer

Answer: (a) Shipping bill

Question 4.
Which one of the following modes of entry requires a higher level of risks?
(a) Licensing
(b) Contract manufacturing
(c) Franchising
(d) Joint venture

Answer

Answer: (d) Joint venture

Question 5.
The method of obtaining payment from the importer is:
(a) By getting a bill of exchange
(b) By getting a Letter of Credit
(c) By Foreign Draft
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above

Question 6.
Which of the following documents are not required for obtaining an export license?
(a) IEC number
(b) Registration cum membership certificate
(c) Letter of credit
(d) Bank account number

Answer

Answer: (c) Letter of credit

Question 7.
Which of the following documents is not required in connection with an import transaction?
(a) Certificate of origin
(b) Bill of lading
(c) Shipping bill
(d) Shipment advice

Answer

Answer: (c) Shipping bill

Question 8.
W.T.O is the only organization dealing with the:
(a) Home trade rules
(b) Entrepot trade rules
(c) Global trade rules
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Global trade rules

Question 9.
Import trade procedure starts with
(a) Obtaining quota
(b) Arranging L.C
(c) Trade enquiry
(d) Placing Indent

Answer

Answer: (b) Trade enquiry

Question 10.
When two or more firms come together to create a new business entity that is legally separate and distinct from its parents it is known as
(a) Franchising
(b) Contract manufacturing
(c) Joint Ventures
(d) Licensing

Answer

Answer: (c) Joint Ventures

Question 11.
Which one of the following is not amongst India’s major trading partners?
(a) Germany
(b) New Zealand
(c) the UK
(d) the USA

Answer

Answer: (b) New Zealand

Question 12.
A receipt issued by the commanding officer of the ship when the cargo is loaded on the ship is known as
(a) Cargo receipt
(b) Mate receipt
(c) Shipping receipt
(d) Charter receipt

Answer

Answer: (b) Mate receipt

Question 13.
Which one of the following is not a document related to fulfilling the customs formalities
(a) Letter of insurance
(b) Shipping bill
(c) Export license
(d) Proforma invoice

Answer

Answer: (d) Proforma invoice

Question 14.
Which one of the following is not a part of export documents?
(a) Commercial invoice
(b) Mate’s receipt
(c) Certificate of origin
(d) Bill of entry

Answer

Answer: (d) Bill of entry

Question 15.
The document containing the guarantee of a bank to honour drafts drawn on it by an exporter is
(a) Letter of hypothecation
(b) Letter of credit
(c) Bill of exchange
(d) Bill of lading

Answer

Answer: (b) Letter of credit

Question 16.
In which of the following modes of entry, does the domestic manufacturer give the right to use intellectual property such as patent and trademark to a manufacturer in a foreign country for a fee
(a) Joint venture
(b) Licensing
(c) Contract manufacturing
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Licensing

Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Business Studies Chapter 11 International Business 1 with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 11 Business Studies International Business 1 MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 1 The Cold War Era with Answers

MCQ Questions /

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 1 The Cold War Era with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided The Cold War Era Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on The Cold War Era Class 12 Objective Questions.

The Cold War Era Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Which two ideologies were involved in a conflict during the Cold War era?
(a) Communism and Capitalism
(b) Monarchism and Capitalism
(c) Communalism and Capitalism
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Communism and Capitalism

Question 2.
Which organisation came into existence in April 1949?
(a) SEATO
(b) CENTO
(c) NATO
(d) Warsaw Pact

Answer

Answer: (c) NATO

Question 3.
The Warsaw pact was led by _________
(a) Japan
(b) Britain
(c) Italy
(d) the Soviet Union

Answer

Answer: (d) the Soviet Union

Question 4.
Which of the following countries was not a NATO member?
(a) Germany
(b) the Czech Republic
(c) France
(d) India

Answer

Answer: (d) India

Question 5.
The Western Alliance was headed by
(a) the United States
(b) Brazil
(c) the Soviet Union
(d) Balkan countries

Answer

Answer: (a) the United States

Question 6.
The island country that received both diplomatic and financial aid from the Soviet Union was
(a) Japan
(b) Cuba
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Norway

Answer

Answer: (b) Cuba

Question 7.
Which one of the following is an agreement signed between the two superpowers starting in the 1960s?
(a) Berlin Pact
(b) Limited Test Ban Treaty
(c) Moscow Agreement
(d) Warsaw Pact

Answer

Answer: (b) Limited Test Ban Treaty

Question 8.
The rivalry between USA & USSR during the post-second world war period is known as _____________
(a) Apartheid
(b) Cold War
(c) Policy of Non-Alignment
(d) Hot war

Answer

Answer: (b) Cold War

Question 9.
The event that took place in 1961 was
(a) The construction of the Berlin wall
(b) Soviet intervention in Afghanistan
(c) Vietnamese Intervention in Cambodia
(d) The unification of Germany

Answer

Answer: (a) The construction of the Berlin wall

Question 10.
When USSR placed nuclear missiles in Cuba?
(a) 1960
(b) 1961
(c) 1962
(d) 1963

Answer

Answer: (c) 1962

Question 11.
What is the full form of ‘SEATO’?
(a) South-East Asian Task Organisation
(b) South-East Asian Treaty Organisation
(c) South-East Asian Tally Organisation
(d) South-East Asian Team Organisation

Answer

Answer: (b) South-East Asian Treaty Organisation

Question 12.
What is the full form of ‘CENTO’?
(a) The Central Task Organisation
(b) The Central Treaty Organisation
(c) The Central Tally Organisation
(d) The Central Team Organisation

Answer

Answer: (b) The Central Treaty Organisation

Question 13.
After the second World War, the world was divided into the blocks of
(a) U.S.A and U.K.
(b) USSR and China
(c) Japan and Korea
(d) U.S.A and USSR

Answer

Answer: (d) U.S.A and USSR

Question 14.
The person that opposed neo-colonialism was
(a) Churchill
(b) Brezhnev
(c) Khrushchev
(d) Kwame Nkrumah

Answer

Answer: (d) Kwame Nkrumah

Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 1 The Cold War Era with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 12 Political Science The Cold War Era MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 2 The End of Bipolarity with Answers

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Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 2 The End of Bipolarity with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided The End of Bipolarity Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on The End of Bipolarity Class 12 Objective Questions.

The End of Bipolarity Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
The Soviet Union invaded Afghanistan in the year
(a) 1975
(b) 1977
(c) 1979
(d) 1981

Answer

Answer: (c) 1979

Question 2.
Who became General Secretary of the Communist Party of the Soviet Union in 1985?
(a) Joseph Stalin
(b) Nikita Khrushchev
(c) Mikhail Gorbachev
(d) Vladimir Ilyich Lenin

Answer

Answer: (b) Nikita Khrushchev

Question 3.
The most severe conflict took place in the Balkan republics of:
(a) Bulgaria
(b) Greece
(c) Yugoslavia
(d) Macedonia

Answer

Answer: (c) Yugoslavia

Question 4.
The Berlin wall fall in _________
(a) November 1989
(b) December 1989
(c) January 1990
(d) February 1990

Answer

Answer: (a) November 1989

Question 5.
Which country in Central Asia witnessed a civil war that went on for ten years?
(a) Azerbaijan
(b) Tajikistan
(c) Uzbekistan
(d) Turkmenistan

Answer

Answer: (b) Tajikistan

Question 6.
When did the Soviet Union collapse?
(a) 1989
(b) 1990
(c) 1991
(d) 1992

Answer

Answer: (c) 1991

Question 7.
Which was the first Soviet Republic to declare its independence from Soviet Russia?
(a) Lithuania
(b) Moldova
(c) Armenia
(d) Georgia

Answer

Answer: (a) Lithuania

Question 8.
Bolshevik Communist party was founded by
(a) Vladimir Lenin
(b) Stalin
(c) Nikita Khrushchev
(d) Leonid Brezhnev

Answer

Answer: (a) Vladimir Lenin

Question 9.
The Russian Revolution in 1917 was led by
(a) Joseph Stalin
(b) Nikita Khrushchev
(c) Mikhail Gorbachev
(d) Vladimir Ilyich Lenin

Answer

Answer: (d) Vladimir Ilyich Lenin

Question 10.
The Chechens are
(a) Buddhist group
(b) Christain ethnic group
(c) Jewish ethnic group
(d) Muslim ethnic group

Answer

Answer: (d) Muslim ethnic group

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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 10 Cell Cycle and Cell Division with Answers

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Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 10 Cell Cycle and Cell Division with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Cell Cycle and Cell Division Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Cell Cycle and Cell Division Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Cell Cycle and Cell Division Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Biology Chapter 10 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Cell Cycle and Cell Division Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 10 Biology Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

I. Select the correct answer from the following Questions:

Question 1.
Life starts from a single cell in plants and animals called
(a) Cell
(b) Zygote
(c) Tissue
(d) Growth

Answer

Answer: (b) zygote

Question 2.
A typical eukaryotic cell cycle is illustrated by human cells in culture, which divide approximately every:
(a) 12 hours
(b) 10 hours
(c) 24 hours
(d) 6 hours

Answer

Answer: (c) 24 hours

Question 3.
Yeast cell can progress through all the four stages of the cell cycle in only about:
(a) 60 minutes
(b) 90 minutes
(c) 30 minutes
(d) 45 minutes.

Answer

Answer: (b) 90 minutes.

Question 4.
The interphase is divided into.
(a) G1 phase (Gap1)
(b) S phase (Synthesis)
(c) G2 phase (Gap2)
(d) ail of these stages.

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these stages.

Question 5.
The S phase marks the period during which replication of DNA takes place. It is during this time that the content of DNA doubles, from
(a) 2C to 4C
(b) 4C to 2C
(c) (1n or 2n)
(d) (2n or 1n)

Answer

Answer: (a) 2C to 4C.

Question 6.
The centrioles, in animal cells, initiate their replication in the cytoplasm during.
(a) G1 phase
(b) G2 phase
(c) S phase
(d) None of these phases.

Answer

Answer: (b) G2 phase.

Question 7.
In plants apical cells and the cambium tissue continue to divide all their life, they are called.
(a) Meristemic tissue
(b) cambium tissue
(c) equational division
(d) syneytium

Answer

Answer: (a) Meristemic tissue.

Question 8.
Mitosis is divided into
(a) Prophase
(b) Metaphase
(c) Anaphase
(d) Telophase
(e) All of these phases.

Answer

Answer: (e) All of these phases.

Question 9.
The small disc shaped structure at the surface of centromeres is called.
(a) Kinetochores
(b) sister chromatids
(c) microtubule
(d) Golgi complex

Answer

Answer: (a) Kinetochores.

Question 10.
Mitosis accomplishes the segregation of duplicated chromosomes into daughter nuclei (karyokinesis), but the cell itself is divided into two daughter cells by a separate process called.
(a) Cytokinesis
(b) Karyokinesis
(c) Nucleolous
(d) Chromosome clusters.

Answer

Answer: (a) Cytokinesis

Question 11.
In some organisms karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis as a result of which multinucleate condition arises which is called:
(a) Syncytium
(b) Meiosis I
(c) Cell-plate
(d) Meiosis II

Answer

Answer: (a) Syncytium.

Question 12.
The cells having more than two complete sets of chromosomes are called
(a) Diploid
(b) Haploid
(c) Polyhybrid
(d) Polyploid.

Answer

Answer: (d) Polyploid.

Question 13.
In Meiosis, the chromatids separate during
(a) Metaphase I
(b) Anaphase I
(c) Anaphase II
(d) Metaphase II

Answer

Answer: (c) Anaphase II.

Question 14.
In the meiotic cell division four daughter ceils are produced by two successive division in which
(a) First division is reductional and second is equationai.
(b) First division is equationai, second is reductional.
(c) Both division are equationai.
(d) Both division are reductional.

Answer

Answer: (a) First division is reductional and second is equationai.

Question 15.
Meosis is
(a) Reductional division
(b) Equationai division
(c) Multiplicational division
(d) Disjunctional division.

Answer

Answer: (a) Reductional division.

Question 16.
The term meiosis was coined by
(a) Blackman
(b) Flemming
(c) Robertson
(d) Former and Moore.

Answer

Answer: (d) Former and Moore.

Question 17.
Chromosomes counting is best done during
(a) Metaphase
(b) Telophase
(c) Late prophase
(d) Late anaphase.

Answer

Answer: (a) Metaphase.

Question 18.
Meisosis II bring about
(a) Sepration of chromatids
(b) Separation of homologous chromosomes.
(c) Synthesis of DNA and centromere
(d) Separation of sex chromosomes.

Answer

Answer: (a) Sepration of chromatids

Question 19.
In which stage the chromosomes appear as thin long thread?
(a) Leptotene
(b) Zygotene
(c) Prophase
(d) Pachytene.

Answer

Answer: (a) Leptotene.

Question 20.
Anastral mitosis is found in
(a) All living organisms
(b) Lower animals.
(c) Higher plants
(d) Higher animals.

Answer

Answer: (c) Higher plants.

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Meiosis ends with telophase II, in which the …………… are once again enclosed by a nuclear envelope, cytokinesis follows, resulting in the formation of tetrad of cells i.e., four haploid ……………

Answer

Answer: chromosomes, daughter cells

Question 2.
Anaphase begins with the simultaneous splitting of the ………….. which hold the sister chromatids together, allowing them to move toward …………….

Answer

Answer: centromeres, opposite poles of the cell

Question 3.
Metaphase II the chromosomes align on the equator with micro¬tubules from opposite poles of the spindle get attached to the …………. of sister chromatids.

Answer

Answer: kinetochores

Question 4.
Prophase II meiosis II initiates immediately after ………….. usually before the …………. have fully elongated.

Answer

Answer: cytokinesis, chromosomes

Question 5.
The stage between the two meiotic divisions is called ………….. and is generally short lived.

Answer

Answer: interkinesis

Question 6.
Diplotene X-shaped structures are called ……………

Answer

Answer: chsiamata

Question 7.
The complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes is called a …………. or a tetrad.

Answer

Answer: bivalent

Question 8.
Zygotene is the second stage of prophase I during which certain chromosomes start pairing together and this process of association is called ……………

Answer

Answer: synapsis

Question 9.
Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of nuclear and cell division, called ………… and ………….. but only a single cycle of DNA replication.

Answer

Answer: meiosis I, Meiosis II

Question 10.
M phase is the most dramatic period of the cell cycle, involing a major recoganization of virtually all cell components. Since the chromosome number (ploidy) of parent and progeny cell is the same it is also called as ………….

Answer

Answer: equational division

III. Mark the statement true (T) or false (F)

Question 1.
All organisms, even the largest, start their life from a single cell.

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 2.
Growth and reproduction are characteristic of cells, indeed of all living organisms.

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 3.
Cell division is a very important process in all organisms.

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 4.
The requence of events by which a cell duplicates its genome, synthesies the other constituent of the cell and eventually divides into two daughter cells is termed cell cycle.

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 5.
Yeast for example, can progress through the cell cycle in only about 24 hours.

Answer

Answer: False.

Question 6.
The cell cycle is divided into two basic phases:
(1) M phase (mitosis phase)
(2) Interphase.

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 7.
The 24 hour overage duration of cell cycle of a human cell, cell division proper lasts only about an hour. Hence, 95% of the progression of cell cycle is spent in interphase the period between two successive mitosis or cell division.

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 8.
Interphase though called resting phase, is the time during which the cell is preparing for division by undergoing both cell growth and DNA replication in an orderly manner.

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 9.
Prophase which is the second stage of mitosis follows the S and G2 phases of interphase.

Answer

Answer: False.

Question 10.
In an animal cell this is achieved by the appearance of a furrow in the plasma membrane. The furrow gradually deepens and ultimately joins in the centre dividing the cell cytoplasm into two.

Answer

Answer: True.

IV. Match the item of column I with the items of column II

Column IColumn II
(a) Mitosis is divided1. Quiescent stage (Gg) of the cell cycle.
(b) Resting phase2. at metaphase is referred to as the metaphase plate.
(c) G1 phase to enter meristematically3. Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase Telophase.
(d) Prophase which is the first stage4. (1) centromeres split and chromatids separate
(2) Chromatids move to opposite poles.
(e) The plane of alignment of the chromosomes5. at the end of meiosis II.
(f) Anaphase stage is characterised by the key events.6. Interphase
(g) Four haploid cells are formed7. called meiosis I and meiosis II
(h) Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of nuclear and cell division,8. of mitosis follows the S and S2 phases of interphase.
(i) Zygotene9. second stage of prophase I.
(j) Crossing over is also an enzyme mediated process and the enzyme involved10. is called recombinase.
(k) Diakinesis11. This is the final stage of meiotic prophasel, marked by terminalisation of chaismata.
(l) Metaphase I12. Meiosis ends with telophase II, in which the two groups of chromosomes once again get enclosed.
(m) Telophase I13. It begins with the simultaneous splitting of the centromeres of each chromosome.
(n) Ananaphase II14. The bivalent chromosomes align the equitorial plate.
(o) Telophase II15. The nuclear membrane reap-pears, cytokinesis follows and this is called as diad of cells.
Answer

Answer:

Column IColumn II
(a) Mitosis is divided3. Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase Telophase.
(b) Resting phase6. Interphase
(c) G1 phase to enter meristematically1. Quiescent stage (Gg) of the cell cycle.
(d) Prophase which is the first stage8. of mitosis follows the S and S2 phases of interphase.
(e) The plane of alignment of the chromosomes2. at metaphase is referred to as the metaphase plate.
(f) Anaphase stage is characterised by the key events.4. (1) centromeres split and chromatids separate
(2) Chromatids move to opposite poles.
(g) Four haploid cells are formed5. at the end of meiosis II.
(h) Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of nuclear and cell division,7. called meiosis I and meiosis II
(i) Zygotene9. second stage of prophase I.
(j) Crossing over is also an enzyme mediated process and the enzyme involved10. is called recombinase.
(k) Diakinesis11. This is the final stage of meiotic prophasel, marked by terminalisation of chaismata.
(l) Metaphase I14. The bivalent chromosomes align the equitorial plate.
(m) Telophase I15. The nuclear membrane reap-pears, cytokinesis follows and this is called as diad of cells.
(n) Ananaphase II12. Meiosis ends with telophase II, in which the two groups of chromosomes once again get enclosed.
(o) Telophase II13. It begins with the simultaneous splitting of the centromeres of each chromosome.

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