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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 9 Recent Developments in Indian Politics with Answers

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 9 Recent Developments in Indian Politics with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Recent Developments in Indian Politics Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Recent Developments in Indian Politics Class 12 Objective Questions.

Recent Developments in Indian Politics Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Who was the chairperson of the Mandal Commission?
(a) Bindeshwari Prasad Mandal
(b) Nandeshwari Prasad Mandal
(c) Chandeshwari Prasad Mandal
(d) None of the Above

Answer

Answer: (a) Bindeshwari Prasad Mandal


Question 2.
Which alliance formed the government at the center in 1989?
(a) National Front
(b) United Front
(c) Super Front
(d) Real Front

Answer

Answer: (a) National Front


Question 3.
Who headed the central government in India after the 1998 parliamentary elections?
(a) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(b) P.V. Narsimha Rao
(c) H. D. Deve Gowda
(d) I. K. Gujral

Answer

Answer: (a) Atal Bihari Vajpayee


Question 4.
The recommendations of the Mandal Commission were implemented in the year
(a) 1990
(b) 1991
(c) 1992
(d) 1993

Answer

Answer: (a) 1990


Question 5.
Choose the correct term for coming together of two or more political parties to form a government.
(a) United Government
(b) Coalition Government
(c) National Government
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Coalition Government


Question 6.
The General Elections of 2004 resulted in
(a) dominance of Congress
(b) coalition government
(c) convincing victory of BJP
(d) the emergence of Akali Dal

Answer

Answer: (b) coalition government


Question 7.
The reason for the 2002 Gujarat riots is
(a) earthquake relief was not provided by the Centre
(b) A bogey of a train returning from Ayodhya carrying Karsevaks was set on fire
(c) demolition of Babri masjid
(d) state emergency

Answer

Answer: (b) A bogey of a train returning from Ayodhya carrying Karsevaks was set on fire


Question 8.
The single largest party in the 1996 parliamentary elections was
(a) Bhartiya Janta Party
(b) Janta Dal
(c) CPI
(d) Congress

Answer

Answer: (a) Bhartiya Janta Party


Question 9.
Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi was assassinated in the year
(a) 1989
(b) 1990
(c) 1991
(d) 1992

Answer

Answer: (c) 1991


Question 10.
The political developments after the 1990s reveal the emergence of
(a) coalition government
(b) consolidation of BJP
(c) congress dominance
(d) regional politics

Answer

Answer: (a) coalition government


Question 11.
Which party pursued the politics of ‘Hindutva’ and adopted the strategy of mobilising the Hindus?
(a) Bhartiya Janata Party
(b) Congress
(c) Communist Party of India
(d) Bahujan Samaj Party

Answer

Answer: (a) Bhartiya Janata Party


Question 12.
In February and March 2002, large scale violence against Muslims took place in
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Gujarat
(c) Punjab
(d) Uttar Pradesh

Answer

Answer: (b) Gujarat


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MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 1 Matter in Our Surroundings

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 1 Matter in Our Surroundings with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Matter in Our Surroundings Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Matter in Our Surroundings Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Matter in Our Surroundings Multiple Choice Questions of Class 9 Science Chapter 1 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Matter in Our Surroundings Class 9 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 1 Science Class 9 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The mass per unit volume of a substance is:
(a) acceleration
(b) density
(c) velocity
(d) weight

Answer

Answer: (b) density


Question 2.
The melting point of ice is:
(a) 273.16 K
(b) 723.16 K
(c) 263.16 K
(d) 373 K

Answer

Answer: (a) 273.16 K


Question 3.
What is dry ice?
(a) Solid carbon dioxide
(b) Nitrogen oxide
(c) Carbon mono oxide
(d) None of them

Answer

Answer: (a) Solid carbon dioxide


Question 4.
Which of the following state is responsible for the glow in the sun and stars?
(a) Solid
(b) Liquid
(c) Plasma
(d) Gas

Answer

Answer: (c) Plasma


Question 5.
Which of the following phenomenon takes place when we add a drop of Dettol into the water?
(a) osmosis
(b) diffusion
(c) sublimation
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (b) diffusion


Question 6.
During summer, water kept in an earthen pot becomes cool because of the phenomenon of:
(a) diffusion
(b) transpiration
(c) osmosis
(d) evaporation

Answer

Answer: (d) evaporation


Question 7.
Which condition out of the following will increase the evaporation of water?
(a) Increase in temperature of the water
(b) Decrease in temperature of the water
(c) Less exposed surface area of water
(d) Adding common salt to the water

Answer

Answer: (a) Increase in temperature of the water


Fill in the Blanks.

Question 8.
Early Indian philosophers classified matter into _______ basic forms or elements.

Answer

Answer: five


Question 9.
The common unit of measuring volume is ________

Answer

Answer: litre


Question 10.
With increase in temperature the kinetic energy of the particles _________

Answer

Answer: increases


Question 11.
The rate of diffusion of liquids is _______ than that of solids.

Answer

Answer: higher


Question 12.
To change a temperature on the Kelvin scale to the Celsius scale you have to subtract ________ from the given temperature.

Answer

Answer: 273


Question 13.
______ is the amount of water vapour present in the air.

Answer

Answer: Humidity


True/False.

Question 14.
Gases are highly compressible as compared to solids and liquids.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 15.
Liquids have fixed volume and shape.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 16.
Compressed natural gas (CNG) is used as fuel these days in vehicles.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 17.
The state of matter cannot be changed by changing temperature or pressure.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 18.
The states of matter are inter-convertible.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 19.
In solids, the space between the particles is maximum.

Answer

Answer: False


Match the Column.

Question 20.

AB
1. Unit of temperature(i) Kilogram (kg)
2. S.I. unit of mass(ii) Kilogram per cubic metre
3. S.I. unit of pressure(iii) Newton
4. Unit of weight(iv) Kelvin
5. Unit of density(v) Pascal
Answer

Answer:

AB
1. Unit of temperature(iv) Kelvin
2. S.I. unit of mass(i) Kilogram (kg)
3. S.I. unit of pressure(v) Pascal
4. Unit of weight(iii) Newton
5. Unit of density(ii) Kilogram per cubic metre

Answer in one Word/Sentence.

Question 21.
What is that process known as in which a solid is converted directly into the gaseous state without coming to a liquid state?

Answer

Answer: Sublimation


Question 22.
How many states of matter exist normally in nature?

Answer

Answer: Three states


Question 23.
What is that temperature called at which solid melts to become a liquid at the atmospheric pressure?

Answer

Answer: Melting point


Question 24.
What is the state of matter which has maximum compressibility?

Answer

Answer: Gaseous state


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MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Atoms and Molecules Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Atoms and Molecules Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Atoms and Molecules Multiple Choice Questions of Class 9 Science Chapter 3 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Atoms and Molecules Class 9 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 3 Science Class 9 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Who coined the term ‘Parmanu’ for the smallest indivisible particles?
(a) Leucippus
(b) L. Lavoisier
(c) Kanad
(d) None of them

Answer

Answer: (c) Kanad


Question 2.
The radius of a hydrogen atom is:
(a) 10-2
(b) 10-4
(c) 10-9
(d) 10-10

Answer

Answer: (d) 10-10


Question 3.
The most remarkable concept that Dalton’s atomic theory proposed was that of the:
(a) atomic weight
(b) atomic mass
(c) molar mass
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (b) atomic mass


Question 4.
The atomic mass of carbon is:
(a) 12
(b) 14
(c) 16
(d) 23

Answer

Answer: (a) 12


Question 5.
Compounds composed of metals and non-metals contain:
(a) non-charged species
(b) charged species
(c) both of them
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (b) charged species


Question 6.
The formula of ammonium sulphate is:
(a) NHSO4
(b) NH4SO2
(c) NHSO3
(d) (NH4)2SO4

Answer

Answer: (d) (NH4)2SO4


Question 7.
The word “mole” was introduced around 1896 by:
(a) Wilhelm Ostwald
(b) John Dalton
(c) Avogadro
(d) Vergilious

Answer

Answer: (a) Wilhem Ostwald


Question 8.
The chemical symbol for sodium is:
(a) So
(b) Sd
(c) NA
(d) Na

Answer

Answer: (d) Na


Question 9.
Which of the following has a maximum number of atoms?
(a) 18 g of H2O
(b) 18 g of O2
(c) 18 g of CO2
(d) 18 g of CH4

Answer

Answer: (d) 18 g of CH4


Question 10.
Which of the following contains a maximum number of molecules?
(a) 1g CO2
(b) 1g N2
(c) 1g H2
(d) 1g CH4

Answer

Answer: (c) 1g H2


Fill in the Blanks.

Question 11.
In a compound such as water, the ratio of the mass of hydrogen to the mass of oxygen is always ______

Answer

Answer: 1 : 8


Question 12.
Atomic radius is measured in ________

Answer

Answer: nanometre


Question 13.
The symbol of iron is Fe from its Latin name _________

Answer

Answer: Ferrum


Question 14.
One atomic mass unit is a mass unit equal to exactly ________ the mass of one atom of carbon-12.

Answer

Answer: \(\frac{1}{12}\)th


Question 15.
The formula unit mass of a substance is a sum of the atomic ______ of all its constituent atoms.

Answer

Answer: masses


Question 16.
Avogadro number is represented by ________

Answer

Answer: N0


Question 17.
The relative mass of atoms of all elements is obtained by comparing them with the mass of a _______ atom.

Answer

Answer: Carbon-12


Question 18.
The Avogadro constant 6.022 × 1023 is defined as the number of atoms in exactly ______ of carbon-12.

Answer

Answer: 12 g


True/False.

Question 19.
An atom is the smallest particle of the element that cannot usually exist independently and retains all its chemical properties.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 20.
The Law of conservation of mass states that mass can neither be created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 21.
The mass of 1 mole of a substance is equal to its relative atomic or molecular mass in grams.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 22.
16u oxygen has 16 atoms of oxygen.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 23.
The atomic mass of calcium is 40.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 24.
Aluminium is diatomic.

Answer

Answer: False


Match the Column.

Question 25.

AB
1. 1 mole of carbon atoms(i) 1 g of H atoms
2. 1 mole of molecules(ii) Molecular mass in gram
3. 1 mole of hydrogen atoms(iii) Relative mass of those particles in gram
4. 1 mole of any particle (atoms, molecules, ions)(iv) 12-gram carbon atoms
Answer

Answer:

AB
1. 1 mole of carbon atoms(iv) 12-gram carbon atoms
2. 1 mole of molecules(ii) Molecular mass in gram
3. 1 mole of hydrogen atoms(i) 1 g of H atoms
4. 1 mole of any particle (atoms, molecules, ions)(iii) Relative mass of those particles in gram

Answer in one Word/Sentence.

Question 26.
What is the value of the Avogadro number?

Answer

Answer: 6.022 × 1023


Question 27.
How many atoms of hydrogen are there in 1g of hydrogen?

Answer

Answer: 6.022 × 1023


Question 28.
What name is given to a group of atoms carrying a charge?

Answer

Answer: Polyatomic ions


Question 29.
What term is given to the mass of one-mole atoms of a substance?

Answer

Answer: Molar mass


Question 30.
Write the chemical formula of calcium hydroxide.

Answer

Answer: Ca(OH)2


Question 31.
Write the chemical formula of sulphuric acid?

Answer

Answer: H2SO4


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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 14 Respiration in Plants with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 14 Respiration in Plants with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Respiration in Plants Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Respiration in Plants Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Respiration in Plants Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Biology Chapter 14 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Respiration in Plants Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 14 Biology Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

I. Select the correct answer from the following questions:

Question 1.
Major fraction of CO2 released during cellular respiration is transported in blood through the lungs in the form of
(a) Free CO2
(b) HCO3
(c) H2 CO3
(d) In combination with Hb CO2

Answer

Answer: (c) H2 CO3


Question 2.
Sudden deep inspiration is due to
(a) Increase in concentration of CO2
(b) Increase in concentration of O2
(c) Either increase in cone, of CO2 or decrease in concentration of O2
(d) Decrease in concertration of CO2

Answer

Answer: (a) Increase in concentration of CO2


Question 3.
Fixing of CO2 and liberation of oxygen in light is done with the help of
(a) chioroplast
(b) Mesophyll cells
(c) Mitocondria
(d) Chromatophores

Answer

Answer: (a) Chioroplast


Question 4.
AH vegetation is only due to
(a) CO2
(b) Water
(c) Oxygen
(d) Hydrogen

Answer

Answer: (b) Water


Question 5.
Chioroplast DNA or ct DNA is
(a) Naked
(b) Circular
(c) Single stranded
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 6.
During synthesis of a glucose molecule, ATP and NADPH consumed are respectively
(a) 15 and 12
(b) 12 and 8
(c) 30 and 20
(d) 18 and 12

Answer

Answer: (d) 18 and 12


Question 7.
Photorespiration takes place in
(a) Lvsosomes
(b) Peroxisomes
(c) Ribosomes
(d) Mitochondria

Answer

Answer: (b) Peroxisomes


Question 8.
Chlorophyll ‘a’ is found in all
(a) Oxygen liberation photosvnthetic organisms
(b) Autotrophs
(c) Higher plants
(d) Algae

Answer

Answer: (a) Oxygen liberation photosynthetic organisms


Question 9.
The atmosphere contains CO2 by volume
(a) 0.1%
(b) 0.5%
(c) 0.03%
(d) 0.3%

Answer

Answer: (c) 0.03 %


Question 10.
Green plants convert solar energy into chemical energy of organic matter was proved by
(a) Van Mayer
(b) Lavoisier
(c) Joseph Priestly
(d) Semebier

Answer

Answer: (a) Van Mayer


Question 11.
Wastage of energy is associated with
(a) Glycolysis
(b) Photosynthesis
(c) Krebs cycle
(d) Photorespiration

Answer

Answer: (d) Photorespiration


Question 12.
If a photosvnthesising plant releases oxygen containing more amount of lsO, it is concluded that the plant has been supplied with
(a) 18O from 18 CO2
(b) 18O from 18CO2
(c) 18O from H2 18O
(d) .None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) 18 O from H2 18O


Question 13.
Carbon dioxide acceptor in C3 plants is:
(a) RuBP
(b) RMP
(c) PGA
(d) PEP

Answer

Answer: (a) RuBP


Question 14.
Photosynthetic process is completed in
(a) Chloroplasts
(b) Chlorophyll
(c) Chromatophores
(d) Mitochondria

Answer

Answer: (a) Chloroplasts.


Question 15.
During synthesis of a glucose molecule, ATP and NADPH consumed are respectively
(a) 12 and 8
(b) 30 and 20
(c) 15 and 12
(d) 18 and 12

Answer

Answer: (d) 18 and 12


Question 16.
First product of photorespiration is
(a) Glycolate
(b) Glycine
(c) Glvceine
(d) Phosphoglycolate

Answer

Answer: (d) Phosphoglycolate


Question 17.
The breaking of the C-C bonds of complex compounds through oxidation within the cells, leading to release of considerable amount of energy is called
(a) respiration
(b) respiratory substrates
(c) Cellular respiration
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Respiration


Question 18.
The TCA cycle starts with the condensation of acetyl group with
(a) Oxaloacetic acid
(b) Water to yield citric acid
(c) (a) and (b) Both
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) (a) and (b) Both


Question 19.
The metabolic pathway through which the electron passes from one carrier to another, is called the
(a) Electron transport system
(b) Complex I
(c) Complex II
(d) Complex IV

Answer

Answer: (a) Electron transport system


Question 20.
NADH produced in the mitochondrial matrix during citric acid cycle are oxidised by an NADH dehydrogenase
(a) Complex I
(b) Complex II
(c) Complex III
(d) Complex IV

Answer

Answer: (a) Complex I


Question 21.
The energy released during the electron transport system is utilised in synthesising ATP with the help of ATP synthase
(a) Complex III
(b) Complex IV
(c) Complex V
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Complex V


Question 22.
The ratio of the volume of CO2 evolved to the volume of O2 consumed in respiration is called the
(a) respiratory quotient
(b) amphibolic pathway
(c) catabolism
(d) anabolism

Answer

Answer: (a) Respiratory quotient.


II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
All the energy required for ‘life’ processes is obtained by oxidation of some macromolecules that we call ……………

Answer

Answer: Food


Question 2.
Green plants trap light energy and convert it into chemical energy that is stored in the bonds of carbohydrates like ………., ………… and ………….

Answer

Answer: glucose, sucrose, starch


Question 3.
Animals are …………… i.e. they obtain food form plants directly (herbivores) or indirectly (carnivores).

Answer

Answer: heterotrophic


Question 4.
The compounds that are oxidised during this process are known as …………….

Answer

Answer: respiratory substrates


Question 5.
………., ………… and …………. respire at rates far lower than are characteristic for animals.

Answer

Answer: Root, stems, leaves


Question 6.
In stems, the ‘…………..’ cells are organised in thin layers in and beneath the bark.

Answer

Answer: living


Question 7.
The complete ……………. of glucose, which produces CO2 and H2O as end products, yields energy most of which is given out as heat.

Answer

Answer: combustion


Question 8.
The scheme of glycolysis was given by …………….. and J.Pamas, and is often referred to as the …………. pathway.

Answer

Answer: Gustav Embden, Otto Meyerhof, EMP


Question 9.
……………. are phosphorylated to give rise to glucose- 6-phosphate by the activity of the enzyme hexokinase.

Answer

Answer: Glucose and fructose


Question 10.
ATP is utilised at two steps: first in the conversion of ………… into glucose 6-phosphate and second in the conversion of ………….. 6- phosphate to fructose 1, 6-diphosphate.

Answer

Answer: glucose, fructose


Question 11.
These are ………….. major ways in which different cells handle Pyruvic acid produced by glycolysis.

Answer

Answer: three,


Question 12.
In fermentation, say by yeast, the incomplete oxidation of glucose is achieved under anaerobic conditions by sets of reactions where ………… is converted to CO2 and ethanol.

Answer

Answer: Irrational


Question 13.
In a coupled reaction GTP is converted to GDP with the stimultaneous synthesis of ……….. from …………

Answer

Answer: ATP, ADP


Question 14.
When the electrons pass from one carrier to another via complex I to IV in the electron transport chain, they are coupled to ATP synthase (complex V) for the production of …………. from …………… and ……………..

Answer

Answer: ATP, ADP, inorganic phosphate


Question 15.
………… is favoured substrate for respiration.

Answer

Answer: Glucose


III. Mark the statement True (T) or False (F)

Question 1.
Saprophytes like fungi are dependent on green plant.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 2.
Usually carbohydrates are oxidised to release energy, but proteins, fats and even organic acids can be used as respiratory substances in some plants, under certain conditions.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 3.
Only during photosynthesis are large volumes of gases exchanged and each leaf is well adapted to take care of its own needs during these periods.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 4.
In stems, the ‘living’ cells are organised in thin layers in and beneath the bark. They also have openings called lenticels.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 5.
The combustion reaction requires carbon.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 6.
Sucrose is converted into glucose and fructose by the enzyme invertase, and these two monosaccharides can readily enter the glycolytic pathway.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 7.
For the complete oxidation of glucose to O2 and CO2, however, organisms adopt Kreb’s cycle which is also called as aerobic respiration. This requires CO2 supply.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 8.
Yeasts poison themselves to death when the concentration of alcohol reaches about 25 percent.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 9.
The complete oxidation of pyruvate by the stepwise removel of all the hydrogen atoms, leaving three molecules of CO2.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 10.
In the remaining steps of citric acid cycle, succinyl-CoA is oxidised to OAA allowing the cycle to continue.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 11.
The reduced ubiquinone (Ubiquinol) is than oxidised with the transfer of electrons to cytochrome C via cytochrome be complex (complex III).

Answer

Answer: True


Question 12.
The F1 headpiece is a peripheral membrane protein complex and contains the site for synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 13.
NADH is oxidised to NAD rather slowly in fermentation, however the reaction is very vigorous in case of aerobic respiration.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 14.
Glycerol would enter the pathway after being conveted to PGAL.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 15.
Pure proteins or fats are never used as respiratory substrates.

Answer

Answer: True


IV. Match the items of column I with the items of column II

Column IColumn II
(a) Plants require O2 for respiration to occur1. TCA
(b) Breakdown of glucose to Dyruvic acid is2. Converted into DPGA.
(c) PGAL is oxidised and with inorganic phosphate to get3. inadequate for cellular respiration pyruvic acid is reduced to lactic acid by locate dehydrogenase.
(d) Pyruvic acid is then the key product4. and they also give out CO2
(e) In animal cells also, like muscles during exercise, when oxygen is5. NADH + H+ and FADH2
(f) Aerobic respiration6. called glycolysis
(g) Pyruvate is transported from the cytoplasm into the mitochondria.7. oxidative phosphorylation.
(h) Tricarboxylic acid cycle8. of glycolysis.
(i) Citrate is then isomerised to isocitrate9. through which protons cross the inner membrane
(j) In the respiratory process are to release and utilise the energy stored in10. The NADH synthesised in glycolysis is transferred into the mitochondria and under-goes oxidative phosphorylation.
(k) In respiration it is the energy of oxidation-reduction utilised for the same process.11. Aerobic respiration
(l) F0 is an integral membrane protein complex that form the channel12. is the process that leads to a complete oxidation of organic sub-stances in the presence of oxygen, and releases CO2
(m) The respiratory balance sheet13. It is followed by two successive steps of decarboxylation, leading to the formation of α -ketoglutaric acid then succinvI-CoA
(n) Glycerol would enter the pathway after being converted to14. PGAL
(o) RQ +15. Volume of CO2 evolved
Answer

Answer:

Column IColumn II
(a) Plants require O<sub>2</sub> for respiration to occur4. and they also give out CO<sub>2</sub>
(b) Breakdown of glucose to Dyruvic acid is6. called glycolysis
(c) PGAL is oxidised and with inorganic phosphate to get2. Converted into DPGA.
(d) Pyruvic acid is then the key product8. of glycolysis.
(e) In animal cells also, like muscles during exercise, when oxygen is3. inadequate for cellular respiration pyruvic acid is reduced to lactic acid by locate dehydrogenase.
(f) Aerobic respiration12. is the process that leads to a complete oxidation of organic sub-stances in the presence of oxygen, and releases CO2
(g) Pyruvate is transported from the cytoplasm into the mitochondria.11. Aerobic respiration
(h) Tricarboxylic acid cycle1. TCA
(i) Citrate is then isomerised to isocitrate13. It is followed by two successive steps of decarboxylation, leading to the formation of α -ketoglutaric acid then succinvI-CoA
(j) In the respiratory process are to release and utilise the energy stored in5. NADH + H+ and FADH2
(k) In respiration it is the energy of oxidation-reduction utilised for the same process.7. oxidative phosphorylation.
(l) F0 is an integral membrane protein complex that form the channel9. through which protons cross the inner membrane
(m) The respiratory balance sheet10. The NADH synthesised in glycolysis is transferred into the mitochondria and under-goes oxidative phosphorylation.
(n) Glycerol would enter the pathway after being converted to14. PGAL
(o) RQ +15. Volume of CO2 evolved

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MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Structure of the Atom Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Structure of the Atom Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Structure of the Atom Multiple Choice Questions of Class 9 Science Chapter 4 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Structure of the Atom Class 9 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 4 Science Class 9 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
In 1906, J.J. Thomson was awarded the Nobel prize for his discovery of:
(a) Electron
(b) Proton
(c) Neutron
(d) Positron

Answer

Answer: (a) Electron


Question 2.
Who discovered the nucleus of an atom?
(a) J.J. Thomson
(b) Neils Bohr
(c) Rutherford
(d) J. Chadwick

Answer

Answer: (c) Rutherford


Question 3.
Who is known as the ‘Father of nuclear Physics’?
(a) J. J. Thomson
(b) E. Rutherford
(c) Neils Bohr
(d) J. Chadwick

Answer

Answer: (b) E. Rutherford


Question 4.
An atomic number of an element equals to what present in the nucleus of its atom?
(a) Protons
(b) Electrons
(c) Both of them
(d) None of them

Answer

Answer: (a) Protons


Question 5.
Rutherford’s alpha-particle scattering experiment was responsible for the discovery of:
(a) Atomic nucleus
(b) Electron
(c) Proton
(d) Neutron

Answer

Answer: (a) Atomic nucleus


Question 6.
Isotopes of an element have:
(a) the same physical properties
(b) different chemical properties
(c) different number of neutrons
(d) different atomic numbers

Answer

Answer: (c) different number of neutrons


Question 7.
Number of valence electrons in CP ion are:
(a) 16
(b) 8
(c) 17
(d) 18

Answer

Answer: (b) 8


Question 8.
Which one of the following is a correct electronic configuration of sodium?
(a) 2, 8
(b) 8, 2, 1
(c) 2, 1, 8
(d) 2, 8, 1

Answer

Answer: (d) 2, 8, 1


Question 9.
Who used the term ‘ATOM’ for the first time?
(a) Rutherford
(b) John Dalton
(c) Chadwick
(d) Bohr

Answer

Answer: (b) John Dalton


Question 10.
Which of the following are called nucleon?
(a) Protons
(b) Neutrons
(c) Electrons
(d) Both, Protons and Neutrons

Answer

Answer: (d) Both, Protons and Neutrons


Question 11.
Which of the following particles was discovered first?
(a) Neutron
(b) Electron
(c) Proton
(d) Meson

Answer

Answer: (b) Electron


Question 12.
Which of the following atom does not have the neutron?
(a) Carbon
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Helium

Answer

Answer: (c) Hydrogen


Question 13.
Who gave the name ‘Proton’ the positively charged particles of an atom?
(a) Chadwick
(b) Goldstein
(c) Rutherford
(d) John Dalton

Answer

Answer: (c) Rutherford


Question 14.
The maximum number of electrons in any shell of an atom is:
(a) n2
(b) 2n2
(c) (n – 1)2
(d) 3n2

Answer

Answer: (b) 2n2


Question 15.
Which of the following rays have the maximum penetration power?
(a) α-rays
(b) X-rays
(c) γ-rays
(d) Cathod rays

Answer

Answer: (c) γ-rays


Question 16.
Who gave the first model of the atom?
(a) J.J. Thomson
(b) Chadwick
(c) Goldstein
(d) Neils Bohr

Answer

Answer: (a) J.J. Thomson


Fill in the Blanks.

Question 17.
______ are atoms of the same element, which have different mass numbers.

Answer

Answer: Isotopes


Question 18.
_______ are atoms having the same mass number but different atomic numbers.

Answer

Answer: Isobars


Question 19.
Neutrons are present in the nucleus of all atoms, except ________

Answer

Answer: hydrogen


Question 20.
α-particles are doubly-charged _________ ions.

Answer

Answer: helium


Question 21.
Neutron was discovered by _______

Answer

Answer: Chadwick


Question 22.
The neutral particle in the nucleus of an atom is ________

Answer

Answer: neutron


Question 23.
Atomic number of sodium is _________

Answer

Answer: 11


Question 24.
The mass of an electron is about _________ times, the mass of a hydrogen atom.

Answer

Answer: \(\frac{1}{2000}\)


True/False.

Question 25.
Sir J.J. Thomson discovered the anode rays.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 26.
According to Rutherford, the positive charge of an atom is concentrated in its center.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 27.
Elements are defined by the number of protons they possess.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 28.
Valency is the combining capacity of an atom.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 29.
α-particles have a mass of 2u.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 30.
The mass of electrons is considered to be negligible and its charge is plus one.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 31.
According to Thomson, an atom consists of a positively charged sphere and the electrons are embedded in it.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 32.
The negative and positive charges are equal in magnitude. So, the atom as a whole is electrically neutral.

Answer

Answer: True


Match the Column.

Question 33.

AB
1. Discovery of Proton(i) Deuterium
2. Hydrogen(ii) 4
3. Valency of Magnesium(iii) Positive charge
4. Valency of Carbon(iv) He
5. Symbol of Helium(v) H
6. Symbol of Hydrogen(vi) 2
7. Electron(vii) E. Goldstein
8. Proton(viii) Negative charge
Answer

Answer:

AB
1. Discovery of Proton(vii) E. Goldstein
2. Hydrogen(i) Deuterium
3. Valency of Magnesium(vi) 2
4. Valency of Carbon(ii) 4
5. Symbol of Helium(iv) He
6. Symbol of Hydrogen(v) H
7. Electron(viii) Negative charge
8. Proton(iii) Positive charge

Answer in Word/Sentence.

Question 34.
What is the value of charge on a proton?

Answer

Answer: 1.6 × 10-19 coulomb positive charge


Question 35.
What is the value of charge on an electron?

Answer

Answer: 1.6 × 10-19 coulomb negative charge


Question 36.
What is the value of charge on a neutron?

Answer

Answer: Zero (0) or no charge


Question 37.
According to Neils Bohr, electrons can revolve only in certain orbits. What name was given by him to these certain orbits?

Answer

Answer: Discrete orbits of electrons


Question 38.
According to Bohr-Burry rules, which formula is used to express the maximum number of electrons in an orbit of an atom?

Answer

Answer: 2n2


Question 39.
What is the maximum number of electrons in the outermost shell, according to Bohr-Burry?

Answer

Answer: 8


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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 15 Plant Growth and Development with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 15 Plant Growth and Development with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Plant Growth and Development Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Plant Growth and Development Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Plant Growth and Development Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Biology Chapter 15 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Plant Growth and Development Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 15 Biology Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

I. Select the correct answer from the following questions:

Question 1.
Three important growth promotor hormones in plants are
(a) Auxins, gibberellins and ethylene
(b) Auxins, gibberellins and cytokinins
(c) Ethylene, abscisic acid and cytokinins
(d) Gibberellins, cytokinins and abscisic acid

Answer

Answer: (b) Auxins, gibberellins and cytokinins


Question 2.
First hormone isolated from human urine suffering from pellagra disease was
(a) Gibberelins
(b) Auxins
(c) Cytokinins
(d) Abscisic acid

Answer

Answer: (b) Auxins


Question 3.
Indole 3 acetic acid (IAA) is a naturally occuring plant hormone called
(a) Gibberellins
(b) Auxins
(c) Cytokinins
(d) Abscisic acid

Answer

Answer: (b) Auxins


Question 4.
Auxins hormone was first discoverd by
(a) Kogletal
(b) Went
(c) Darwin
(d) Boysen Jenson

Answer

Answer: (b) Went


Question 5.
Auxin is synthesised in the apical meristems from amino acid
(a) Isoleucine
(b) Methionine
(c) Niacin
(d) Tryptophan

Answer

Answer: (d) Tryptophan


Question 6.
Growth regulator which is known to promote cell division in vascular cambium is
(a) IAA
(b) ABA
(c) Cytokinins
(d) Ethylene

Answer

Answer: (a) IAA


Question 7.
Growth regultor which is known to induce parthenocarphy is plants is called
(a) Gibberellins
(b) ABA
(c) Ethylene
(d) Cytokinins

Answer

Answer: (a) Gibberellins


Question 8.
The formation of seedless fruits without the act of fertilization is known as
(a) Parthenocarpy
(b) Pseudocarpy
(c) Apomixis
(d) Parthenogenesis

Answer

Answer: (a) Parthenocarpy.


Question 9.
The major sites of gibberellin production in plants are
(a) Embryos
(b) Roots
(c) Young leaves
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 10.
Gibberellin was isolated in pure form by
(a) Brian et al
(b) Went
(c) Yabuta
(d) Kurosava

Answer

Answer: (a) Brian et al


Question 11.
Internodal elongation of genetically dwarf plants in known as
(a) Bolting
(b) Elongation
(c) Etiolation
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Bolting


Question 12.
Cytokinins are in nature
(a) Acidic
(b) Neutral
(c) Basic
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Basic


Question 13.
Cytokinins help in promoting
(a) Cell division
(b) Stem elongation
(c) Cell enlargement
(d) Parthenocarpy

Answer

Answer: (a) Cell division


Question 14.
The first natural cytokinins obtained from unripe maize grains is known as
(a) Indole 3-acetic acid
(b) ABA
(c) Zeatin
(d) Kinetin

Answer

Answer: (c) Zeatin


Question 15.
Two important growth inhibitors in plants are
(a) Ethylene and abscisic acid
(b) Auxins and abscisic acid
(c) Gibberellins and abscisic acid
(d) Cytokinins and ethylene

Answer

Answer: (a) Ethylene and abscisic acid


Question 16.
Name the plant hormone which hastens ripening of fruits and colour development is citrus, apple, mango, banana, etc.
(a) Gibberellin
(b) Ethylene
(c) ABA
(d) IAA

Answer

Answer: (b) Ethylene


Question 17.
Abscisic acid (ABA) was first isolated from cotton balls by
(a) Addicot et al
(b) Letham et al
(c) Brian et al
(d) Kurosava

Answer

Answer: (a) Addicot et al


Question 18.
Seeds which are influenced by light for germination are known as
(a) Neoblastic
(b) Hoioblastic
(c) Photoblastic
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Photoblastic


Question 19.
The cold induced stimulus used in vernalization is
(a) Vernalin
(b) Carotene
(c) Ethylene
(d) Florigen

Answer

Answer: (a) Vemalin


Question 20.
When dark period of short day plants is interrupted by a brief exposure to light the plant will-
(a) flower immediately
(b) give more flowers
(c) not flower at all
(d) change into long day plant

Answer

Answer: (c) Not flower at all


Question 21.
W’hich is a long day plant
(a) Xanthium
(b) Wheat
(c) Soyabean
(d) Tobacco

Answer

Answer: (b) Wheat


Question 22.
Which can replace the requirement of vernalisation
(a) Gibberellins
(b) Auxin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Ethylene

Answer

Answer: (a) Gibberellins


Question 23.
Artificial ripening of fruit of accomplished by treatment with
(a) Zeatin
(b) NaCl
(c) IAA
(d) Ethylene gas

Answer

Answer: (d) Ethylene gas


Question 24.
Which is a short day plant?
(a) Glycine max
(b) Triticum aestivum
(c) Raphanus sativus
(d) Daucus carota

Answer

Answer: (a) Glycine max


Question 25.
The period of growth is generally divided into
(a) Meristematic phase
(b) Elongation phase
(c) Maturation phase
(d) All of these phases

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these phases


II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
…………. is regarded as one of the most fundamental and conspicuous characteristics of a living being.

Answer

Answer: Growth


Question 2.
Plant growth is ……………. because plants retain die capacity for unlimited growth throughout their life.

Answer

Answer: Unique


Question 3.
This form of growth wherein new cells are always being added to the plant body by the activity of the meristem is called the …………….

Answer

Answer: open form of growth


Question 4.
Growth is, therefore, measured by a variety of parameters some o,r which are ……………… dry weight; length; area volume and cell number.

Answer

Answer: increase in fresh weight


Question 5.
The period of growth is generally divided into three phases, namely, ……………, ………….. and …………….

Answer

Answer: meristematic, elongation, maturation


Question 6.
The increased growth per unit time is termed as ……………

Answer

Answer: growth rate


Question 7.
In arithmetic growth, following ………….. cell division, only one ………….. continues to divide while the other differentiates and matures.

Answer

Answer: mitoic, daughter cell


Question 8.
Measurement and comparison of total growth per unit time is called the …………….

Answer

Answer: absolute growth rate


Question 9.
The growth of the given system per unit initial parameter is called the ……………..

Answer

Answer: relative growth rate


Question 10.
………….. helps in releasing metabolic energy essential for growth activities.

Answer

Answer: Oxygen


Question 11.
…………….. is a term that includes all changes that an organism goes through during its life cycle from germination of the seed to senescence.

Answer

Answer: Development


Question 12.
…………., ………. and …………….. are very closely related events in the life of a plant.

Answer

Answer: Growth, differentiation, development


Question 13.
The plant growth regulators are …………., …………….. of diverse chemical composition.

Answer

Answer: small, simple molecules


Question 14.
……………. is used to speed up the malting process in brewing industry.

Answer

Answer: GA3


Question 15.
…………… is highly effective in fruit ripening.

Answer

Answer: Ethylene


III. Mark the statement True (T) or False (F):

Question 1.
Ethylene also promotes root growth and root hair formation, thus helping the plants to increase their absorption surface.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 2.
Abscisic acid (ABA) was discovered for its, role in regulating abscission and dormancy.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 3.
The former group of plants are long day plants while the later ones are termed short day plants.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 4.
Flowering in certain plants depends not only on a combination of light and dark exposures but also their relative durations. This is termed photoperiodism.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 5.
Biennials are monocarpic plants that normally flower and die in the second season.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 6.
Vernalisation refers specially to the promotion of flowering by a period of low temperatures.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 7.
Environmental signals such as light and gravity also affect certain phases/stages of growth.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 8.
An S-shaped curve is a characteristic of the living organism growing in a natural environment. It is typical for all cells, tissues and organs of a plant.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 9.
In arithmetic growth, following mitoic cell division, only one daughter cell continues to divide while the other differentiates and matures.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 10.
Wherein new cells are always being added to the plant body by the activity of the meristem is called the close form of growth.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 11.
Development is the sum of two processes: growth and differentiation.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 12.
AH plant organs are made up of a variety of tissues.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 13.
The plant cells grow in size by cell enlargement which in turn requires water.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 14.
Cells positioned away from shoot apical meristems differentiate as shoot-cap cells, while those pushed to the periphery mature as epidermis

Answer

Answer: False


Question 15.
PGRs could be indole compounds (indole-3-acetic acid, IAA); adenine derivatives (N6- furfurylamino purine, kinetin), derivatives of carotenoids and fatty acids (abscisic acid, ABA); terpenes (gibberellic acid, GA3) or gases (ethylene, C2H4)

Answer

Answer: True


IV. Match the items of column I with the items of column II

Column IColumn II
(a) Terpenes1. for example, root apices, developing shoot buds, young fruits etc.
(b) Plant growth promoters e.g.,2. a phenomenon called apical dominance.
(c) This ability is called plasticity e.g.3. malting process in brewing industry.
(d) The ‘bakane’, (foolish seedling) a disease or rice seedling was caused by4. gibberellic acid, GA3
(e) Skoog and Miller5. Kinetin
(f) Auxins, like IAA and indole butyric acid (IBA) have been6. heterophylly in cotton, coriander and darkspur.
(g) In most higher plants, the growing apical bud inhibits the growth of lateral (axillary) buds,7. auxins, gibberellins and cytokinins.
(h) GA3 is used to speed up the8. isolated from plant.
(i) Natural cytokinins9. a fungal pathogen Gibberalla fujikuroi
(j) ABA stimulates the closure of stomata in the epidermis and in-creases the tolerance of plants to various kinds of stresses.10. Stress hormone.
(k) Short day plant11. Vernalisation
(l) Long day plant12. Those plants which flower when the day length is more than a critical photoperiod.
(m) The chilling treatment given to shoot tips or seeds is called13. in biennial plants
(n) Example of vernalistion is seen14. Those plants which flower when the day length is less than a critical photoperiod.
(o) Flowering in certain plants depends not only on a combination of light and dark exposures15. but also their relative durations. This is termed photoperiodism.
Answer

Answer:

Column IColumn II
(a) Terpenes4. gibberellic acid, GA3
(b) Plant growth promoters e.g.,7. auxins, gibberellins and cytokinins.
(c) This ability is called plasticity e.g.6. heterophylly in cotton, coriander and darkspur.
(d) The ‘bakane’, (foolish seedling) a disease or rice seedling was caused by9. a fungal pathogen Gibberalla fujikuroi
(e) Skoog and Miller5. Kinetin
(f) Auxins, like IAA and indole butyric acid (IBA) have been8. isolated from plant.
(g) In most higher plants, the growing apical bud inhibits the growth of lateral (axillary) buds,2. a phenomenon called apical dominance.
(h) GA3 is used to speed up the3. malting process in brewing industry.
(i) Natural cytokinins1. for example, root apices, developing shoot buds, young fruits etc.
(j) ABA stimulates the closure of stomata in the epidermis and in-creases the tolerance of plants to various kinds of stresses.10. Stress hormone.
(k) Short day plant14. Those plants which flower when the day length is less than a critical photoperiod.
(l) Long day plant12. Those plants which flower when the day length is more than a critical photoperiod.
(m) The chilling treatment given to shoot tips or seeds is called11. Vernalisation
(n) Example of vernalistion is seen13. in biennial plants
(o) Flowering in certain plants depends not only on a combination of light and dark exposures15. but also their relative durations. This is termed photoperiodism.

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