Author name: Prasanna

MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 13 Motion and Time

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 13 Motion and Time with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Motion and Time Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Motion and Time Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Motion and Time Multiple Choice Questions of Class 7 Science Chapter 13 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Motion and Time Class 7 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 13 Science Class 7 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
The speed of a car is 40 km/h. What is time taken to reach from one city to another city if the distance between the two cities is 480 km:
(a) 10 hours
(b) 11 hours
(c) 14 hours
(d) 12 hours

Answer

(d) 12 hours
The time is taken by a car is 12 hours.


Question 2.
72 km/h m/s:
(a) 72 m/s
(b) 20 m/s
(c) 36 m/s
(d) 12 m/s

Answer

(b) 20 m/s
72 km/h – 20m/s


Question 3.
The standard unit of time is:
(a) hour
(b) minute
(c) second
(d) all of these

Answer

(c) second
The standard unit of time is second.


Question 4.
The clock used now a days are:
(a) quartz
(b) minute
(c) second
(d) all of these

Answer

(a) quartz
The quartz clock is used now-a-days.


Question 5.
When weight of bob in a pendulum is increased then the oscillation period of a pendulum is:
(a) increased
(b) decreased
(c) no change
(d) can’t say

Answer

(b) decreased
When weight of bob in pendulum is increased, the oscillation period of pendulum is decreased.


Question 6.
The standard unit of length is:
(a) metre (‘m’)
(b) kilometre
(c) m/s
(d) km/h

Answer

(a) metre (‘m’)
The standard unit of length is meter (‘m’).


Question 7.
The standard unit of mass is:
(a) ‘kg’
(b) mg
(c) g
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) ‘kg’
(‘Kg’) is the unit of mass.


Question 8.
The standard unit of temperature is:
(a) ‘Kg’
(b) F
(c) °C
(d) can’t say

Answer

(a) ‘Kg’
(‘K’) is the unit of temperature.


Question 9.
Distance:
(a) D = S x T
(b) D = \(\frac { T }{ s }\)
(c) D = \(\frac { s }{ T }\)
(d) D = \(\frac { 1 }{ T\times S }\)

Answer

(a) D = S x T
D = S x T


Question 10.
Time:
(a) t = d x s
(b) t = \(\frac { s }{ d }\)
(c) t = \(\frac { d}{ s }\)
(d) t = \(\frac { 1 }{ s\times d }\)

Answer

(c) t = \(\frac { d}{ s }\)
t = \(\frac { d}{ s }\)


Question 11.
The distance moved by the object in a unit time is:
(a) time
(b) distance
(c) speed
(d) can’t say

Answer

(c) speed
The distance moved by the object in a unit time is speed.


Question 12.
The pictorial representation of two variables inter dependent of one another is known as:
(a) motion
(b) graph
(c) speed
(d) time

Answer

(b) graph
Graph is pictorial representation of two objects.


Question 13.
If an object covers equal distance in equal intervals of time, then the object is said to have:
(a) non-uniform motion
(b) uniform motion
(c) oscillation
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) uniform motion
A staight line covers equal distance in equal intervals of time is uniform motion.


Question 14.
A device used to measure the speed of vehicles is:
(a) odometer
(b) graph
(c) speedometer
(d) none of these

Answer

(c) speedometer
Speedometer measure the speed of vehicles.


Question 15.
The to and fro motion of the particle about its mean position is called:
(a) intervals
(b) vibration
(c) pendulum
(d) can’t say

Answer

(b) vibration
To and fro motion is vibration.


Question 16.
The most common example of periodic motion or oscillatory motion is:
(a) interval
(b) pendulum
(c) simple pendulum
(d) speedometer

Answer

(c) simple pendulum
Simple pendulum is periodic or oscillatory motion.


Question 17.
The time interval between one sunrise and next sunrise is called a:
(a) year
(b) month
(c) day
(d) week

Answer

(c) day
The time interval between one sunrise to next sunrise is a day.


Question 18.
Which of the following motion is circular motion:
(a) motion of a child over see saw
(b) motion of a car running on a straight road
(c) motion of an electric bell hammer
(d) motion of a child in a merry go round

Answer

(d) motion of a child in a merry go round
A child in a merry-go-round is circular motion.


Question 19.
A simple pendulum takes 32 S complete 20 oscillations. What is the time period of pendulum:
(a) 640
(b) 0.625
(c) 1.60
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) 0.625
The time period of pendulum is 0.625.


Question 20.
Distance between two cities is measured in:
(a) metres
(b) kilometres
(c) second
(d) kilogram

Answer

(b) kilometres
Distance between two cities is measrued by kilometers.


Question 21.
Motion of a train on a straight
(a) oscillatory motion
(b) circular motion
(c) uniform motion
(d) straight line motion

Answer

(d) straight line motion
A train on a straight bridge is straight line motion.


Question 22.
A device used to measure the distance moved by a vehicle:
(a) odometer
(b) speedometer
(c) both
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) odometer
An odometer measured the distance moved by a vehicle.


Question 23.
The time taken by the earth to make one revolution around the sun is called a:
(a) day
(b) week
(c) month
(d) year

Answer

(d) year
The earth make one revolution around the sun in a year.


Question 24.
The motion of a vibrating particle from one extreme position to another extreme position about its mean position is:
(a) speed
(b) circulation
(c) oscillation
(d) none of these

Answer

(c) oscillation
The motion of vibrating particle is circulation.


Question 25.
The time taken by a vibrating body to complete one vibration is:
(a) speed
(b) time of period
(c) distance
(d) all of these

Answer

(b) time of period
The time taken by a vibrating body to complete one vibration is time period.


Question 26.
A horse pulling a cart has:
(a) oscillatory motion
(b) circular motion
(c) linear motion
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) oscillatory motion
A horse pulling a cart has oscillatory motions.


Question 27.
If the speed of a body moving in a straight line changes then the speed of the body is:
(a) uniform
(b) non-uniform
(c) some times uniform and non-uniform
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) non-uniform
If the speed of a body moving in a straight line changes then the speed of the body is non-uniform.


Question 28.
An earth completes one revolution around the sun in:
(a) 1 day
(b) 1 year
(c) 1 hour
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) 1 year
An earth complete one revolution around the sun in a year.


Question 29.
A simple pendulum is an example of:
(a) periodic motion
(b) circular motion
(c) linear motion
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) periodic motion
Periodic motion is an example of a simple pendulum.


Question 30.
An odometer is used to measure:
(a) speed
(b) distance
(c) motion
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) distance
Distance is measured by an odometer.


Question 31.
The hammer of an electric bell has motion:
(a) circular motion
(b) vibratory motion
(c) linear motion
(d) periodic motion

Answer

(b) vibratory motion
The hammer of an electric bell has vibratory motion.


Question 32.
The unit of speed of train is:
(a) meter per hour
(b) meter per second
(c) kilometer per hour
(d) mile per second

Answer

(c) kilometer per hour
The unit of speed of train is kilometer per hour.


Question 33.
The times taken by a pendulum to complete one oscillation is:
(a) oscillation period
(b) 1 second
(c) time period
(d) frequency

Answer

(c) time period
The time taken by a pendulum to complete one oscillation is time period.


Question 34.
The correct relation for speed is:
MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 13 Motion and Time img-1

Answer

MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 13 Motion and Time img-2
MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 13 Motion and Time img-3


Question 35.
The speed of a train is 60 km/h. The distance covered by the train is 4 hours would be:
(a) 15 km
(b) 240 km
(c) \(\frac { 1 }{ 15 }\) km
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) 240 km
The distance covered by a train would be 240 km.


Question 36.
Classify the following as motions is oscillatory motion:
(a) motion of your hands while runnning
(b) motion of a horse pulling a cart on a straight road
(c) motion of a child in a merry go round
(d) motion of a train on a straight line

Answer

(a) motion of your hands while runnning
Motion your hands while running is oscillatory motion.


Question 37.
Which of the following is correct statements:
(a) the basic unit of time is second
(b) every object moves with a constant speed
(c) distance between two cities is measured in metres
(d) the time period of a given pendulum is not constant

Answer

(a) the basic unit of time is second
The basic unit of time is second.


Question 38.
The graph between distance, time for a body at rest is a:
(a) straight line parallel to a distance axis
(b) straight line parallel to time axis
(c) curve line
(d) straight line

Answer

(b) straight line parallel to time axis
Straight line parallel to time axis.


Question 39.
A car covers a distance of 220 km in 4 hours what is its speed:
(a) 50 km/h
(b) 55 km/h
(c) 224 km/h
(d) 880 km/h

Answer

(b) 55 km/h
The speed of a car is 55 km/h.


Question 40.
The graph between distance and time for a non uniform motion is a:
(a) curve line
(b) can’t say
(c) straight line
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) curve line
The graph between distance and time is curve line for non¬uniform motion.


Question 41.
A car covers 40 km in first hour, 115 km in next two hours and 45 km in next one hours. Find out its averages speed:
(a) 100 km/h
(b) 66.6 km/h
(c) 50 km/h
(d) none of these

Answer

(c) 50 km/h
The total averages speed of a car is 50 km/h.


Question 42.
The S.I. unit of speed is:
(a) m/s
(b) km/min
(c) km/h
(d) km/s

Answer

(a) m/s
The S.I. unit of speed is m/s.


Match the column A with column B:

Question 1.

Column-AColumn-B
(a) Merry go round(i) straight line
(b) Over see-saw(ii) circular motion
(c) Your hands while running(iii) linear motion
(d) Train on a straight line(iv) oscillatory motion
(e) Horse pulling a cart(v) oscillatory motion
Answer
Column-AColumn-B
(a) Merry go round(ii) circular motion
(b) Over see-saw(iv) oscillatory motion
(c) Your hands while running(v) oscillatory motion
(d) Train on a straight line(i) straight line
(e) Horse pulling a cart(iii) linear motion

Question 2.

Column-AColumn-B
(a) 365 days(i) 1 millennium = 1000 years
(b) 10 years(ii) 1 century = 100 years
(c) 10 decades(iii) 1 decade
(d) 10 centuries(iv) 1 year
Answer
Column-AColumn-B
(a) 365 days(iv) 1 year
(b) 10 years(iii) 1 decade
(c) 10 decades(ii) 1 century = 100 years
(d) 10 centuries(i) 1 millennium = 1000 years

State the following statements are True or False:

Question 1.
The basic unit of time is second.

Answer

True


Question 2.
Every object moves with a constant speed.

Answer

False


Question 3.
The time period of a given pendulum is not constant.

Answer

True


Question 4.
The speed of a train is expressed in m/h.

Answer

False


Question 5.
Distance between two cities is measrued in kilometers.

Answer

True


Question 6.
Motion of your hands while running is oscillatory motion.

Answer

True


Question 7.
A simple pedulum is an example of linear motion.

Answer

False


Question 8.
A speedometer is used to measure distance.

Answer

False


Question 9.
Minute is the basic unit of time.

Answer

False


Question 10.
Second is the larger unit of time.

Answer

False


Question 11.
Working of clock depends on periodic motion.

Answer

True


Question 12.
When an object covers equal distances in equal intervals of time, however small be the intervals, then we say that it is in uniform motion.

Answer

True


Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
The motion of vehicles on a straight road is in …………………

Answer

straight line


Question 2.
Revolving of earth around the sun is ………………… motion.

Answer

uniform motion


Question 3.
Running athlete is the example of ………………… motion.

Answer

non-uniform motion


Question 4.
The weight should swing freely on being moved some distance to one side and released is …………………

Answer

oscillation


Question 5.
The time taken by a pendulum to complete an oscillation is called the period of …………………

Answer

oscillation


Question 6.
On increasing the length of the pendulum the oscillation period also …………………

Answer

increases


Question 7.
………………… measures the distance moved by vehicle.

Answer

odometer


Question 8.
………………… records speed directly in km/h.

Answer

speedometer


Question 9.
A horse pulling a cart has …………………

Answer

linear motions


Question 10.
………………… is metallic ball of a pendulum.

Answer

Bob of pendulum


Question 11.
The basic unit of speed is …………………

Answer

m/s


Question 12.
Speed = …………………

Answer

distance lime


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MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Electric Current and Its Effects Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Electric Current and Its Effects Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Electric Current and Its Effects Multiple Choice Questions of Class 7 Science Chapter 14 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Electric Current and Its Effects Class 7 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 14 Science Class 7 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
Bulbs, wires, cells and switches are known as the of a circuit.
(a) element
(b) switch
(c) filament
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) element
Wires, cells, switches, bulbs are element of a circuit.


Question 2.
An element measure the flowing an electric current is:
(a) voltmeter
(b) filament
(c) circuit
(d) ammeter

Answer

(d) ammeter
An ammeter measure the flowing electric current.


Question 3.
An element measure the potential difference between two points in an electric circuit is:
(a) voltmeter
(b) filament
(c) circuit
(d) ammeter

Answer

(a) voltmeter
Voltmeter measure the difference of two points.


Question 4.
Electric current has energy called:
(a) voltmeter
(b) filament
(c) electrical energy
(d) none of these

Answer

(c) electrical energy
Electric current has electric energy.


Question 5.
The magnetic material around the coil is wound is called:
(a) magnetic substance
(b) core
(c) soft iron
(d) none

Answer

(b) core
The magnetic material around the coil is wound is core.


Question 6.
Very strong electromagnets are used for lifting:
(a) fans
(b) washing machines
(c) heavy iron pieces
(d) none of these

Answer

(c) heavy iron pieces
Very strong electromagnet is used for lifting iron pieces.


Question 7.
A safety device that cuts off the current in a circuit if a sudden heavy current starts flowing in it is:
(a) fuse
(b) ammeter
(c) solenoid
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) fuse
Fuse is a safety device that cuts off the current.


Question 8.
A cylindrical coil of current carrying wire is:
(a) voltmeter
(b) ammeter
(c) fuse
(d) solenoid

Answer

(d) solenoid
A solenoid is a cylindrical coil of wire.


Question 9.
A coil of insulated currrent- carrying wire wound around a piece of a magnetic substance is:
(a) voltmeter
(b) magnetic coil
(c) electromagnet
(d) none of these

Answer

(c) electromagnet
An electromagnet is a coil of insulated wire.


Question 10.
Which of these is not circuit element ?
(a) potential difference
(b) voltmeter
(c) resistor
(d) battery

Answer

(c) resistor
Resistor is not a circuit element.


Question 11.
Which of these appliances does not use on electro magnet?
(a) washing
(b) refrigerator
(c) room heater
(d) electric bell

Answer

(c) room heater
Room heater does not use an electro magnet.


Question 12.
The fuse wire:
(a) never breaks
(b) breaks on shorting of wire
(c) breaks on flowing of excessive current
(d) both (b) and (c)

Answer

(d) both (b) and (c)
Always fuse breaks on shorting of wire and flowing exessive current.


Question 13.
Which of the following liquid is bad conductor of electricity:
(a) salted water
(b) orange juice
(c) lemon juice
(d) none of these

Answer

(d) none of these
None of these Liquid is bad conductor of electricity.
A circuit diagram represent on electrical circuit.


Question 14.
Which of the following substance is conductor of electricity:
(a) rubber
(b) paper
(c) nails
(d) plastic

Answer

(c) nails
Nails is conductor of electricity.


Question 15.
The electric current which is broken at some point is called:
(a) open circuit
(b) closed circuit
(c) short circuit
(d) long circuit

Answer

(a) open circuit
Open circuit is broken at some point.


Question 16.
MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects img-1 symbol represents:
(a) cell
(b) battery
(c) closed circuit
(d) open key

Answer

(c) closed circuit
MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects img-2 This symbol represents closed key.


Question 17.
A circuit diagram represent on:
(a) switch
(b) electrical circuit
(c) cells
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) switch
A circuit diagram represent on electrical circuit.


Question 18.
A control consisting of a electrical device for making or breaking or changing the connections in a circuit is:
(a) a switch
(b) a key
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

(c) both (a) and (b)
Both (a) and (b) are control consisting device of electricsl.


Question 19.
MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects img-3 symbol represents:
(a) electric bulb
(b) electric cell
(c) battery
(d) wire

Answer

(b) electric cell
Electrical cell represents MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects img-4 symbol.


Question 20.
MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects img-5 symbol represents:
(a) wire
(b) battery
(c) cell
(d) switch in ‘ON’ position

Answer

(d) switch in ‘ON’ position
MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects img-6 symbol represents switch in ‘ON’ position.


Question 21.
MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects img-6 symbol represents:
(a) wire
(b) cell
(c) bulb
(d) battery

Answer

(a) wire
MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects img-7 symbol represents wire.


Question 22.
Such a combination of two or more cells is called :
(a) wire
(b) cell
(c) bulb
(d) battery

Answer

(d) battery
Combination of two or more cells is called battery.


Question 23.
The batteries used in tractors, trucks and inverter are also made from:
(a) cells
(b) wire
(c) battery
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) cells
The batteries used in tractors, trucks are also made from cells.


Question 24.
The positive terminal of one cell is connected to the:
(a) positive terminal
(b) negative terminal
(c) wire
(d) bulb

Answer

(b) negative terminal
The positive terminal of one cell is connected to the negative terminal.


Question 25.
The bulb glows as soon as the switch is moved to the:
(a) ‘ON’ position
(b) ‘OFF’ position
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) ‘ON’ position
The bulb glows as soon as the switch is ‘ON’ position.


Question 26.
The electric current flows from the end of cell marked ‘+’ called the:
(a) negative terminal
(b) positive terminal
(c) electric current
(d) none of these

Answer

(d) none of these
The cell marked ‘+’ is called positive terminal.


Question 27.
Through the metal wires to the end marked ‘ — ’ called the:
(a) bulb
(b) positive terminal
(c) battery
(d) negative terminal

Answer

(d) negative terminal
The marked ‘ is called the negative terminal.


Question 28.
The bulb has a thin wire called:
(a) battery
(b) cell
(c) filament
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) cell
The bulb has thin wire called filament.


Question 29.
A fan used electric current to rotate to blow:
(a) air
(b) current
(c) wire
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) air
A fan uses electric current to rotate to blow air.


Match the column A with column B:

Question 1.

Column-AColumn-B
(a) Ordinary magnet(i) U-shaped iron rod
(b) Hammer(ii) Soft iron rod
(c) Electriomagnet(iii) Steel and armature
(d) Armature(iv) Permanent magnetism
Answer
Column-AColumn-B
(a) Ordinary magnet(iv) Permanent magnetism
(b) Hammer(iii) Steel and armature
(c) Electromagnet(i) U-shaped iron rod
(d) Armature(ii) Soft iron rod

Question 2.

Column-AColumn-B
(a) MCB(i) Battery
(b) Battery(ii) The bulb will not glow
(c) Two or more cells(iii) Tractors, trucks
(d) ‘OFF’ position(iv) Miniature Circuit Breaker
Answer
Column-AColumn-B
(a) MCB(iv) Miniature Circuit Breaker
(b) Battery(iii) Tractors, trucks
(c) Two or more cells(i) Battery
(d) ‘OFF’ position(ii) The bulb will not glow

Question 3.

Column-AColumn-B
(a) Electromagnet(i) Battery
(b) Electric bell(ii) Attracted piece of iron
(c) Longer Line(iii) Electromagnet
(d) MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects img-7(iv) Positive terminal
Answer
Column-AColumn-B
(a) Electromagnet(ii) Attracted piece of iron
(b) Electric bell(iii) Electromagnet
(c) Longer Line(iv) Positive terminal
(d) MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects img-8(i) Battery

State the following statements are True or False:

Question 1.
The fuse wire never breaks.

Answer

False


Question 2.
Longer line in the symbol for a cell represents its negative terminals.

Answer

False


Question 3.
To make a battery of two cells, the negative terminal of one cell is connected to the negative terminal of other cell.

Answer

False


Question 4.
An electromagnet attracted a table of wood.

Answer

False


Question 5.
An electric bell has not an electromagnet.

Answer

False


Question 6.
When the electric current through the fuse exceeds a certain limit, the fuse wire melts and break.

Answer

True


Question 7.
Plastic is not a magnetic substances.

Answer

True


Question 8.
A key or an electric switch is a control consisting of an electrical device for changing the connections.

Answer

True


Question 9.
The amount of heat depends on its length, thickness, length in a wire.

Answer

True


Question 10.
Mans Christian was the first person to notice the deflection of compass needle.

Answer

True


Question 11.
The electrical circuit which is broken at some point is called short circuit.

Answer

False


Question 12.
Plastic is the best conductor of electricity.

Answer

False


Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
The depostion of a layer of metal on some other metal is called ……………………..

Answer

electroplating


Question 2.
A combination of two or more cells is called ……………………..

Answer

battery


Question 3.
The …………………….. terminal of one cell is connected to the negative terminal of the next cell.

Answer

positive


Question 4.
Bulb …………………….. when the circuit is complte.

Answer

glows


Question 5.
…………………….. is a device used to prevent any change being caused to circuit and electric appliances.

Answer

Fuse


Question 6.
…………………….. is a coil of wire which gets heated up when electric current is passed through it.

Answer

Element


Question 7.
Electromagnet is a …………………….. magnetism.

Answer

temporary


Question 8.
The wastage of electricity by a bulb can be reduced by using …………………….. tube lights.

Answer

fluorescent


Hope the information shared regarding the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects with Answers Pdf free download is true and genuine as far as our knowledge is concerned. If you feel any information regarding CBSE Class 7 Science Electric Current and Its Effects MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers is missing do reach us and we will look into it and add it accordingly.

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MCQ Questions for Class 7 Geography Chapter 10 Life in the Deserts with Answers

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Life in the Deserts Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers

Appearing Students of Class 7 Exams can download MCQ on Life in the Deserts Class 7 with Answers from here. By practicing Class 7 Geography Chapter 10 MCQ with Answers, you can score well in the exam. Download Class 7 SST Geography Chapter 10 MCQ in PDF format from the below access links and start practicing on a regular basis for better subject knowledge.

Question 1.
Which of the following mineral is not found in the Sahara desert among the following?
(a) Gold
(b) Phosphate
(c) Manganese

Answer

Answer: (a) Gold


Question 2.
Which of the following country is not touched by the Sahara desert?
(a) Egypt
(b) Libya
(c) Saudi Arabia

Answer

Answer: (c) Saudi Arabia


Question 3.
Ladakh is located in the:
(а) Western side of the Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Eastern side of the Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Northern side of Jammu and Kashmir

Answer

Answer: (b) Eastern side of the Jammu and Kashmir


Question 4.
An animal found in Sahara is:
(a) Jackal
(b) Ostrich
(c) Lion

Answer

Answer: (a) Jackal


Question 5.
The altitude in Ladakh varies from 3000 m in Kargil to more than ………….. m in Karakoram.
(a) 7,000
(b) 8,000
(c) 9,000

Answer

Answer: (b) 8,000


Question 6.
Sahara desert touches how many countries?
(a) 12
(b) 11
(c) 9

Answer

Answer: (b) 11


Question 7.
The world’s largest desert is:
(a) Sahara
(b) Thar
(c) Ladakh

Answer

Answer: (a) Sahara


Question 8.
One animal whose hair is not used to make woollen clothes is:
(a) Sheep
(b) Goat
(c) Lion

Answer

Answer: (c) Lion


Question 9.
The cold desert is:
(a) Ladakh
(b) Sahara
(c) Thar

Answer

Answer: (a) Ladakh


Question 10.
Nile valley is located in:
(a) Egypt
(b) Ghana
(c) Mali

Answer

Answer: (a) Egypt


Question 11.
What is another name of Khapa-chan?
(a) Sahara
(b) Ladakh
(c) Egypt
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Ladakh
Ladakh is also known as Khapa-chan that means snow lan(d)


Question 12.
Where is Drass located?
(a) In Ladakh
(b) In Sahara
(c) In Egypt
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) In Ladakh
Drass one of the coldest inhabited places on earth is located in Ladakh.


Question 13.
What do you mean by the Gangri?
(a) River
(b) Glacier
(c) Pond
(d) Waterfall

Answer

Answer: (b) Glacier
The rivers form deep valleys and gorges. Several glaciers are found in Ladakh, for example the Gangri glacier.


Question 14.
How many countries touch Sahara desert?
(a) 11
(b) 12
(c) 20
(d) 17

Answer

Answer: (a) 11
The Sahara desert touches eleven countries. These are Algeria, Chad, Egypt, Libya, Mali, Mauritania, Morocco, Niger, Sudan, Tunisia and Western Sahar(a)


Question 15.
Sahara is located in which part of Africa?
(a) Eastern
(b) Northern
(c) Western
(d) Southern

Answer

Answer: (b) Northern
Sahara desert covering a large part of North Afric(a) It is the world’s largest desert. It has an area of around 8.54 million sq. k m.


Question 16.
Where is the highest temperature recorded?
(a) 67.7°C
(b) 47.7°C
(c) 57.7°C
(d) 37.7°C

Answer

Answer: (c) 57.7°C
Al Azizia in the Sahara desert, south of Tripoli, Libya recorded the highest temperature of 57.7°C in 1922.


Question 17.
What is the climatic conditions of desert?
(a) Low rainfall
(b) Scanty vegetation
(c) Extreme temperature
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above
Climatic conditions of desert are low rainfall, scanty vegetation and extreme temperatures.


Question 18.
What are the types of deserts found in the world?
(a) Cold
(b) Hot
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both a and b
The two types of the deserts found in the world are the cold deserts and the hot deserts.


Question 19.
Egypt is famous for growing what?
(a) Wheat
(b) Maize
(c) Cotton
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Cotton
Egyptian cotton is famous worldwide is grown in Egypt. Crops such as rice, wheat, barley and beans are also grown.


Question 20.
What are the mainly inhabited of the Ladakh desert?
(a) Christians and Muslims
(b) Buddhists and Muslims
(c) Christians and Buddhists
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Buddhists and Muslims
The mainly inhabited of the Ladakh desert were Buddhists and Muslims.


Match the following

1.

Column IColumn II
1. Sahara desert(a) Africa
2. Lion(b) Egypt
3. Nile valley(c) Willow trees
4. Cricket bats(d) Shahtoosh
5. Tibetan antelope(e) Ladakh
Answer

Answer:

Column IColumn II
1. Sahara desert(a) Africa
2. Lion(e) Ladakh
3. Nile valley(b) Egypt
4. Cricket bats(c) Willow trees
5. Tibetan antelope(d) Shahtoosh

Fill in the blanks

1. Cactus is found in ……………. desert.

Answer

Answer: Sahara


2. Gravel plains are found in ……………. .

Answer

Answer: Sahara


3. ……………. is the capital of Ladakh.

Answer

Answer: Leh


4. Khapa-chan means ……………. .

Answer

Answer: snow land


5. Lamayuru is a famous ……………. monastery.

Answer

Answer: Buddhist


6. People get water from the ……………. in the Sahara desert.

Answer

Answer: oasis


7. Drass is located in ……………. .

Answer

Answer: Ladakh


8. The finest cricket bat is made from the wood of the ……………. trees.

Answer

Answer: willow


9. The night temperature in Sahara desert is nearing ……………. degrees.

Answer

Answer: zero


10. Ladakh desert lies in the rain shadow of the ……………. .

Answer

Answer: Himalayas


11. Vegetation is ……………. in Ladakh desert.

Answer

Answer: scanty


12. The countries associated with oil are ……………., ……………. and ……………. .

Answer

Answer: Algeria, Libya and Egypt


13. The Sahara desert experience ……………. and ……………. climate.

Answer

Answer: scorching hot and parch dry


14. Depressions are formed when the ……………. blows away the san(d)

Answer

Answer: wind


15. Tafilalet oasis in morocco is a large oasis with an area of about ……………. sq km.

Answer

Answer: 13,000


Picture Based Questions

1. On an outline map of India, show Ladakh desert.

Answer

Answer:
MCQ Questions for Class 7 Geography Chapter 10


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MCQ Questions for Class 7 Civics Chapter 1 On Equality with Answers

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Civics Chapter 1 On Equality with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 7 Social Science with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided On Equality Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ of Chapter 1 Civics Objective Questions.

On Equality Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers

Appearing Students of Class 7 Exams can download MCQ on On Equality Class 7 with Answers from here. By practicing Class 7 Civics Chapter 1 MCQ with Answers, you can score well in the exam. Download Class 7 SST Civics Chapter 1 MCQ in PDF format from the below access links and start practicing on a regular basis for better subject knowledge.

Question 1.
Universal adult franchise provides:
(a) Right to vote to citizens above 18 years
(b) Right to study
(c) Right to stand in election

Answer

Answer: (a) Right to vote to citizens above 18 years


Question 2.
In the late 1950s, a movement took place in USA for the equal rights of African-American. It was:
(a) Civil movements
(b) Rights movement
(c) Civil rights movement

Answer

Answer: (c) Civil rights movement


Question 3.
Dalit means:
(a) Low
(b) High
(c) Broken

Answer

Answer: (c) Broken


Question 4.
Universal Adult Franchise gives:
(a) Political equality
(b) Social equality
(c) Economic equality

Answer

Answer: (a) Political equality


Question 5.
In the late 1950s Civil Right Movement takes place in
(a) USA
(b) Canada
(c) India

Answer

Answer: (b) Canada


Question 6.
In the United States of America …………….. were discriminated.
(a) Indian-American
(b) African-American
(c) American

Answer

Answer: (b) African-American


Question 7.
When was the Civil Rights Act was passed?
(a) 1965
(b) 1963
(c) 1964
(d) 1967

Answer

Answer: (c) 1964
The Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibited discrimination on the basis of race, religion or national origin.


Question 8.
what was the benefits of the mid-day meal programs?
(a) Attendance
(b) Enrolment
(c) Entertainment
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)
The mid-day meal program has helped in increasing the attendance and enrolment both. Tamil Nadu was the first state in India to introduce this scheme in 2001.


Question 9.
when was the Mid-day meal scheme was started?
(a) 1999
(b) 2003
(c) 2001
(d) 2000

Answer

Answer: (c) 2001
Tamil Nadu was the first state in India to introduce this scheme, and in 2001, the Supreme Court asked all state governments to begin this program in their schools within six months.


Question 10.
when persons are treated unequally what is violated for them?
(a) Caste
(b) Religion
(c) Dignity
(d) Practice

Answer

Answer: (c) Dignity
When persons are treated unequally, their dignity is violated Law recognizes every person as equal. This means that every individual in the country, including male and female persons from all castes, are recognized as equal.


Question 11.
what does democracy mean?
(a) Unequal right to vote
(b) Equal right to vote
(c) Discrimination
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Equal right to vote
Equality is a key feature of democracy and influences all aspects of its functioning. Equal right to vote is considered under democracy.


Question 12.
what do you mean by Civil Rights Movement?
(a) African American demanded equal rights
(b) Indian freedom struggle
(c) British war with Mughals
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) African American demanded equal rights
Civil Rights Movement took place in USA in 1950, in which the African American demanded equal rights and an end to racial discrimination.


Question 13.
what is the mid-day meal programs?
(a) Program to provide children with raw food
(b) Program to provide rations to parents
(c) Program to provide children with cooked lunch
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Program to provide children with cooked lunch
Mid-day meal programs refer to the programs introduced in all the government elementary schools to provide children with cooked lunch.


Question 14.
what are the ways in which the Government has tried to implement the equality that guaranteed in the constitution?
(a) Through laws
(b) Through government schemes
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both a and b
Through laws and through Government programs or schemes government has tried to implement the equality that guaranteed in the constitution.


Question 15.
what is Joothan about?
(a) Rich girl
(b) Dalit boy
(c) upper caste boy
d .None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Dalit boy
Omprakash Valmiki is a famous Dalit writer. He wrote his autobiography Joothan. It is about the bitter experiences of growing up of a dalit boy.


Question 16.
what are the key features of democracy?
(a) Equality
(b) High wages
(c) Job security
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Equality
Equality is the key feature of democracy. It influences all aspects of its functioning.


Match the following

1.

Column IColumn II
1. Civil Rights Movement(a) Mid-day meal scheme
2. Joothan(b) 1950
3. Tamil Nadu(c) Omprakash Valmiki
4. Rosa Parks(d) Right to vote
5. Universal Adult Franchise(e) Changed the course of American history
Answer

Answer:

Column IColumn II
1. Civil Rights Movement(b) 1950
2. Joothan(c) Omprakash Valmiki
3. Tamil Nadu(a) Mid-day meal scheme
4. Rosa Parks(e) Changed the course of American history
5. Universal Adult Franchise(d) Right to vote

Fill in the blanks

1. ……………. is the soul of Indian democracy.

Answer

Answer: Equality


2. The ……………. caste people and Dalits are exploited the most.

Answer

Answer: lower


3. The Civil Rights Movement was started in the late 1950s for equal rights for ……………. .

Answer

Answer: African-American


4. Joothan is an autobiography by ……………. .

Answer

Answer: Omprakash Valmiki


5. Rosa parks was an ……………. woman.

Answer

Answer: African-American


6. ……………. is the first state in India to introduce the midday meal scheme.

Answer

Answer: Tamil Nadu


7. Kanta borrows money from her ……………. .

Answer

Answer: employer


8. ……………. means thinking of oneself and others as worthy of self-respect.

Answer

Answer: Dignity


9. The civil rights movement took place in ……………. .

Answer

Answer: United states of America


10. One common form of inequality in India is ……………. .

Answer

Answer: caste system


11. Mid-day meals like programs have been launched to improve the ……………. and ……………. ratio of children in schools.

Answer

Answer: attendance, enrollment


12. ……………. is a condition in which adequate opportunities are given to all.

Answer

Answer: Equality


13. ……………. said that it is graceful to live at cost of one’s self-respect.

Answer

Answer: Dr. Ambedkar


14. ……………. is a document that lays down the basic rules and regulations for people and the government in the country to follow.

Answer

Answer: Constitution


15. Several ……………. have been made by the government to treat every personal equally.

Answer

Answer: laws


Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Civics Chapter 1 On Equality with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals of real numbers topic. Need any support from our end during the preparation of On Equality Class 7 MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

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MCQ Questions for Class 6 Geography Chapter 2 Globe Latitudes and Longitudes with Answers

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Geography Chapter 2 Globe Latitudes and Longitudes with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 6 Social Science with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Globe Latitudes and Longitudes Class 6 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ of Chapter 2 Geography Objective Questions.

Globe Latitudes and Longitudes Class 6 MCQs Questions with Answers

Appearing Students of Class 6 Exams can download MCQ on Globe Latitudes and Longitudes Class 6 with Answers from here. By practicing Class 6 Geography Chapter 2 MCQ with Answers, you can score well in the exam. Download Class 6 SST Geography Chapter 2 MCQ in PDF format from the below access links and start practicing on a regular basis for better subject knowledge.

Question 1.
Parallel of latitude of 66 ½° north is known as:
(a) Arctic circle
(b) Antarctic circle
(c) Longitude

Answer

Answer: (a) Arctic circle


Question 2.
Movement of a heavenly body on its axis is called:
(a) Rotation
(b) Longitude
(c) Axis movement

Answer

Answer: (a) Rotation


Question 3.
The number of parallels of latitude are:
(a) 80
(b) 180
(c) 360

Answer

Answer: (b) 180


Question 4.
The number of meridians of latitude are:
(a) 90
(b) 180
(c) 360

Answer

Answer: (c) 360


Question 5.
What divides the earth into the eastern and western hemisphere?
(a) prime meridian
(b) north pole
(c) Equator

Answer

Answer: (a) prime meridian


Question 6.
The globe is true model of the:
(a) Universe
(b) Earth
(c) Solar system

Answer

Answer: (b) Earth


Question 7.
A globe doesn’t show the:
(a) Countries
(b) Continents
(c) Trees

Answer

Answer: (c) Trees


Question 8.
The number of time zone in Russia are:
(a) 5
(b) 2
(c) 1

Answer

Answer: (a) 5


Question 9.
The equator lies at the __________ degree latitude
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 0

Answer

Answer: (c) 0


Question 10.
The northern most end of the axis is the:
(a) South Pole
(b) North Pole
(c) Tropic of Cancer

Answer

Answer: (b) North Pole


Question 11.
The Arctic Circle is located in the
(a) Western hemisphere
(b) Southern hemisphere
(c) Northern hemisphere
(d) Eastern hemisphere

Answer

Answer: (c) Northern hemisphere


Question 12.
Describe the shape of the Earth?
(a) A sphere which bulges at the poles and flattens at the centre
(b) A sphere which flattens at the poles and bulges at the centre
(c) A sphere which bulges at the poles and at the centre
(d) A perfect sphere

Answer

Answer: (b) A sphere which flattens at the poles and bulges at the centre


Question 13.
What are latitude and longitude lines?
(a) Thick and thin line that divide the Earth
(b) An imaginary line that divide the Earth
(c) A real line that divides the Earth
(d) Long and short line that divide the Earth

Answer

Answer: (b) An imaginary line that divide the Earth


Question 14.
The Prime Meridian passes through
(a) Greenwood
(b) Greenfield
(c) Greenwhich
(d) Greenwich

Answer

Answer: (d) Greenwich


Question 15.
What are meridian of longitude?
(a) The lines running from north pole to the south poles
(b) The lines running from north pole to the east poles
(c) The lines running from north pole to the west poles
(d) The lines running from east pole to the south poles

Answer

Answer: (a) The lines running from north pole to the south poles


Question 16.
IST stands for
(a) Internal Specific Time
(b) Internal Standard Temperate
(c) Indian Standard Time
(d) Indian Specific Time

Answer

Answer: (c) Indian Standard Time


Question 17.
The tropic of cancer and tropic of Capricorn are of
(a) Equal length
(b) Capricorn is shorter than the Cancer
(c) Capricorn is bigger than the Cancer
(d) Vey big difference between these two

Answer

Answer: (a) Equal length


Question 18.
Equator is an
(a) Imaginary rectangular line
(b) Imaginary circular line
(c) Imaginary straight line
(d) Imaginary triangular line

Answer

Answer: (b) Imaginary circular line


Question 19.
Dibrugarh is located in
(a) Assam
(b) Nagaland
(c) Arunanchal Pradesh
(d) Mizoram

Answer

Answer: (a) Assam


Question 20.
The total number of meridians across the globe is
(a) 180
(b) 360
(c) 90
(d) 181

Answer

Answer: (b) 360


Match the following

1.

Column-IColumn-II
1. Globe(a) 66 ½° North of the equator
2. Arctic circle(b) 23 ½° N in the northern hemisphere
3. Antarctic circle(c) 180
4. Tropic of Cancer(d) Model of Earth
5. Tropic of Capricorn(e) 66 ½° South of the equator
6. Parallels of Latitude(f) 23 ½° S in the southern hemisphere
7. Meridians of Longitude(g) 360
8. North Pole(h) 90° South of the equator
9. South Pole(i) 90° North of the equator
Answer

Answer:

Column-IColumn-II
1. Globe(d) Model of Earth
2. Arctic circle(a) 66 ½° North of the equator
3. Antarctic circle(e) 66 ½° South of the equator
4. Tropic of Cancer(b) 23 ½° N in the northern hemisphere
5. Tropic of Capricorn(f) 23 ½° S in the southern hemisphere
6. Parallels of Latitude(g) 360
7. Meridians of Longitude(c) 180
8. North Pole(i) 90° North of the equator
9. South Pole(h) 90° South of the equator

Fill in the blanks

1. ……………………… times zone are in Russia.

Answer

Answer: 11


2. The Equator lies on ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: 0°


3. The area lying between the Arctic Circle and the Tropic of Cancer is called ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: north temperate zone


4. The line of 23 ½° S is called ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: Tropic of Capricorn


5. The Earth rotates on its ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: axis


6. An imaginary line running east to west and divided globe into two equal parts is called ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: equator


7. All the parallel circles from the equator up to the poles are called ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: parallels of latitudes


8. The temperature of Temperate zone is ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: moderate


9. In India, the longitude of 82 ½ 0 E is treated as ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: standard meridian


10. Each time zone covers ……………………… of longitude.

Answer

Answer: 15°


Picture Based Questions

1. Draw important parallels of latitudes.

Answer

Answer:
MCQ Questions for Class 6 Geography Chapter 2


2. Draw Important Latitudes and Heat Zones.

Answer

Answer:
MCQ Questions for Class 6 Geography Chapter 2


Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Geography Chapter 2 Globe Latitudes and Longitudes with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals of real numbers topic. Need any support from our end during the preparation of Globe Latitudes and Longitudes Class 6 MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

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MCQ Questions for Class 6 Geography Chapter 3 Motions of the Earth with Answers

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Geography Chapter 3 Motions of the Earth with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 6 Social Science with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Motions of the Earth Class 6 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ of Chapter 3 Geography Objective Questions.

Motions of the Earth Class 6 MCQs Questions with Answers

Appearing Students of Class 6 Exams can download MCQ on Motions of the Earth Class 6 with Answers from here. By practicing Class 6 Geography Chapter 3 MCQ with Answers, you can score well in the exam. Download Class 6 SST Geography Chapter 3 MCQ in PDF format from the below access links and start practicing on a regular basis for better subject knowledge.

Question 1.
In Australia Christmas is celebrated in the season:
(i) Winter
(ii) Summer
(iii) Spring
(iv) Autumn

Answer

Answer: (ii) Summer


Question 2.
In the revolution, motion of the Earth around the Sun in its orbit completed in :
(i) 365 days
(ii) 366 days
(iii) 365 ¼days
(iv) 367 days

Answer

Answer: (iii) 365 ¼days


Question 3.
The axis of Earth is inclined:
(i) 23 ½°
(ii) 66 ½°
(iii) 22 ½°
(iv) 10°

Answer

Answer: (ii) 66 ½°


Question 4.
In the leap year excess one day is added in the month of:
(i) January
(ii) February
(iii) March
(iv) April

Answer

Answer: (ii) February


Question 5.
Direct rays of the Sun fall on the equator on:
(i) 21 March
(ii) 21 June
(iii) 22 December
(iv) 21 September

Answer

Answer: (ii) 21 June


Question 6.
An equinox happens each year
(a) Thrice
(b) Four times
(c) Twice
(d) Once

Answer

Answer: (c) Twice


Question 7.
The sun’s rays fall vertically on the ________________ on 21st. June
(a) Arctic Circle
(b) Tropic of Cancer
(c) Tropic of Capricorn
(d) Antarctic Circle

Answer

Answer: (b) Tropic of Cancer


Question 8.
In perihelion, Helios means
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Light
(c) Hemisphere
(d) Sun

Answer

Answer: (d) Sun


Question 9.
How much time does the earth take time to complete its rotation?
(a) 22
(b) 23
(c) 24
(d) 20

Answer

Answer: (c) 24


Question 10.
Earth receive light from the
(a) Moon
(b) Mars
(c) Sun
(d) Venus

Answer

Answer: (c) Sun


Question 11.
In leap year, the month of February has
(a) 31 days
(b) 29 days
(c) 30 days
(d) 28 days

Answer

Answer: (b) 29 days


Question 12.
Earth’s movement around sun is called
(a) Rotation
(b) Revolution
(c) Solstice
(d) Equinox

Answer

Answer: (b) Revolution


Question 13.
The earth takes _____________________ to complete one revolution
(a) 365 days and 9 hours
(b) 365 days and 8 hours
(c) 365 days and 7 hours
(d) 365 days and 6 hours

Answer

Answer: (d) 365 days and 6 hours


Question 14.
How many Solstices are there in every year
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 4

Answer

Answer: (a) 2


Question 15.
The sun rays are vertical over the ____________ during _____________
(a) Tropic of Capricorn, equinox
(b) Tropic of cancer, winter solstice
(c) Tropic of Capricorn, summer solstice
(d) Tropic of cancer, summer solstice

Answer

Answer: (d) Tropic of cancer, summer solstice


Match the following

1.

Column-IColumn-II
1. Leap year(a) 24 Hrs.
2. One Rotation time(b) 366 days
3. One Revolution time(c) 21st June365
4. Equinox(d) 22 December
5. Winter solstice(e) 21 March & 23 Sept
6. Summer Solstice(f) 365 days
Answer

Answer:

Column-IColumn-II
1. Leap year(b) 366 days
2. One Rotation time(a) 24 Hrs.
3. One Revolution time(f) 365 days
4. Equinox(e) 21 March & 23 Sept
5. Winter solstice(d) 22 December
6. Summer Solstice(c) 21st June 365

Fill in the blanks

1. ……………………… is the daily motion of the Earth.

Answer

Answer: Rotation


2. The Earth moves around the Sun in an ……………………… during its revolution motion.

Answer

Answer: elliptical orbit


3. Summer Solstice falls on ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: 21 June


4. Winter Solstice falls on ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: 22 December


5. Equinox fall on ……………………… and ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: 21 March & 23 September


6. A leap year has ……………………… days.

Answer

Answer: 366


7. Movement of Earth on the axis is called ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: Rotation


8. The Earth receives light from the ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: Sun


9. Axis of the earth makes an angle of ……………………… with its orbit plane.

Answer

Answer: 66 ½°


10. When whole Earth experience equal days and equal nights it is known as ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: equinox


11. The two movements of the Earth are ……………………… and ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: Rotation and revolution


Picture Based Questions

1. Indicate through picture: inclination of the Earth’s axis and the orbital plane

Answer

Answer:
MCQ Questions for Class 6 Geography Chapter 3


2. Indicate through picture: day and night on the Earth due to rotation.

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Answer:
MCQ Questions for Class 6 Geography Chapter 3


Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Geography Chapter 3 Motions of the Earth with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals of real numbers topic. Need any support from our end during the preparation of Motions of the Earth Class 6 MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

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