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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Maths Chapter 3 Trigonometric Functions with Answers

Students can access the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Maths Chapter 3 Trigonometric Functions with Answers Pdf free download aids in your exam preparation and you can get a good hold of the chapter. Use MCQ Questions for Class 11 Maths with Answers during preparation and score maximum marks in the exam. Students can download the Trigonometric Functions Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers from here and test their problem-solving skills. Clear all the fundamentals and prepare thoroughly for the exam taking help from Class 11 Maths Chapter 3 Trigonometric Functions Objective Questions.

Trigonometric Functions Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Students are advised to solve the Trigonometric Functions Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Maths to know different concepts. Practicing the MCQ Questions on Trigonometric Functions Class 11 with answers will boost your confidence thereby helping you score well in the exam.

Explore numerous MCQ Questions of Trigonometric Functions Class 11 with answers provided with detailed solutions by looking below.

Question 1.
The value of sin 15 + cos 15 is
(a) 1
(b) 1/2
(c) √3/2
(d) √3

Answer

Answer: (c) √3/2
Given, sin 15 + cos 15
= sin 15 + cos(90 – 15)
= sin 15 + sin 15
= 2 × sin 45 × cos 30
= 2 × (1/√2) × (√3/2)
= √3/2


Question 2.
The value of tan A/2 – cot A/2 + 2cot A is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) -1
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) 0
Given, tan A/2 – cot A/2 + 2cot A
= {sin(A/2)/cos(A/2)} – {cos(A/2)/sin(A/2)} + 2cotA
= {sin² (A/2) – cos² (A/2)}/{cos(A/2) × sin(A/2)} + 2cotA
= -{cos² (A/2) – sin² (A/2)}/{cos(A/2) × sin(A/2)} + 2cotA
= -{cosA}/{cos(A/2) × sin(A/2)} + 2cotA (since cos² A – sin² A = cos²A )
= -{cos(2A/2)}/{cos(A/2) × sin(A/2)} + 2cotA
= -{2 × cosA}/{2 × cos(A/2) × sin(A/2)} + 2cotA
= -{2cosA}/{sin(2A/2)} + 2cotA
= {-(2cosA)/(sinA)} + 2cotA (since sin2A = 2 × sinA × cosA)
= -2cotA + 2cotA
= 0


Question 3.
The value of 4 × sin x × sin(x + π/3) × sin(x + 2π/3) is
(a) sin x
(b) sin 2x
(c) sin 3x
(d) sin 4x

Answer

Answer: (c) sin 3x
Given, 4 × sin x × sin(x + π/3) × sin(x + 2π/3)
= 4 × sin x × {sin x × cos π/3 + cos x × sin π/3} × {sin x × cos 2π/3 + cos x × sin 2π/3}
= 4 × sin x × {(sin x)/2 + (√3 × cos x)/2} × {-(sin x)/2 + (√3 × cos x)/2}
= 4 × sin x × {-(sin² x)/4 + (3 × cos² x)/4}
= sin x × {-sin² x + 3 × cos² x}
= sin x × {-sin² x + 3 × (1 – sin² x)}
= sin x × {-sin² x + 3 – 3 × sin² x}
= sin x × {3 – 4 × sin² x}
= 3 × sin x – 4sin³ x
= sin 3x
So, 4 × sin x × sin(x + π/3) × sin(x + 2π/3) = sin 3x


Question 4.
If tan x = (cos 9 + sin 9)/(cos 9 – sin 9), then x =
(a) 45
(b) 54
(c) 36
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) 54
Given, tan x = (cos 9 + sin 9)/(cos 9 – sin 9)
⇒ tan x = {cos 9(1 + sin 9/cos 9)}/{cos 9(1 – sin 9/cos 9)}
⇒ tan x = (1 + tan 9)}/(1 – tan 9)
⇒ tan x = (tan 45 + tan 9)}/(1 – tan 45 × tan 9) {since tan 45 = 1}
⇒ tan x = tan(45 + 9) {Apply tan(A + B) formula}
⇒ tan x = tan(54)
⇒ x = 54


Question 5.
In a triangle ABC, sin A – cos B = cos C, then angle B is
(a) π/2
(b) π/3
(c) π/4
(d) π/6

Answer

Answer: (a) π/2
Given, sin A – cos B = sin C
⇒ sin A = cos B + sin C
⇒ 2 × sin (A/2) × cos (A/2) = 2 × cos {(B + C)/2} × cos {(B – C)/2}
⇒ 2 × sin (A/2) × cos (A/2) = 2 × cos {π/2 – A/2} × cos {(B – C)/2}
⇒ 2 × sin (A/2) × cos (A/2) = 2 × sin (A/2) × cos {(B – C)/2}
⇒ cos (A/2) = cos {(B – C)/2}
⇒ A/2 = (B – C)/2
⇒ A = B – C
⇒ B = A + C
⇒ B = π – B {Since A + B + C = π}
⇒ 2B = π
⇒ B = π/2


Question 6.
The value of cos 420° is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 1/2
(d) √3/2

Answer

Answer: (c) 1/2
cos 420° = cos(360° + 60° ) = cos 60° = 1/2


Question 7.
If in a triangle ABC, tan A + tan B + tan C = 6 then the value of cot A × cot B × cot C is
(a) 1/2
(b) 1/3
(c) 1/4
(d) 1/6

Answer

Answer: (d) 1/6
Given tanA + tanB + tanC = 6
Now tan(A + B + C) = {(tanA + tanB + tanC) – tanA × tanB × tanC}/{1 – (tanA × tanB + tanB × tanC + tanA × tanC)}
We know that,
A + B + C = π
⇒ tan(A + B + C) = tan π
⇒ tan(A + B + C) = 0
Now
0 = {(tanA + tanB + tanC) – tanA × tanB × tanC}/{1 – (tanA × tanB + tanB × tanC + tanA × tanC)}
⇒ tanA + tanB + tanC – tanA × tanB × tanC = 0
⇒ tanA + tanB + tanC = tanA × tanB × tanC
⇒ tanA × tanB × tanC = 6
⇒ (1/cotA) × (1/cotB) × (1/cotC) = 6
⇒ 1/(cot A × cot B × cot C) = 6
⇒ cot A × cot B × cot C = 1/6


Question 8.
If a × cos x + b × cos x = c, then the value of (a × sin x – b × cos x)² is
(a) a² + b² + c²
(b) a² – b² – c²
(c) a² – b² + c²
(d) a² + b² – c²

Answer

Answer: (d) a² + b² – c²
We have
(a × cos x + b × sin x)² + (a × sin x – b × cos x)² = a² + b²
⇒ c² + (a × sin x – b × cos x)² = a² + b²
⇒ (a × sin x – b × cos x)² = a² + b² – c²


Question 9.
When the length of the shadow of a pole is equal to the height of the pole, then the elevation of source of light is
(a) 30°
(b) 60°
(c) 75°
(d) 45°

Answer

Answer: (d) 45°
MCQ Questions for Class 11 Maths Chapter 3 Trigonometric Functions with Answers 1
Let AB is the length of the pole and BC is the shadow of the pole.
Given AB = BC
Now from triangle ABC,
tan θ = AB/BC
⇒ tan θ = 1
⇒ θ = 45°
So, the elevation of source of light is 45°


Question 10.
In any triangle ABC, if cos A/a = cos B/b = cos C/c and the side a = 2, then the area of the triangle is
(a) √3
(b) √3/4
(c) √3/2
(d) 1/√3

Answer

Answer: (a) √3
Given cos A/a = cos B/b = cos C/c
= cos A/k × sin A = cos B/k × sin B = cos C/k × sin C {since sin A/a = sin B/b = sin C/c = k}
= cot A = cot B = cot C
⇒ A = B = C = 60
So, triangle ABS is equilateral.
Now area of the triangle = (√3/4) × a² = (√3/4) × 2² = (√3/4) × 4 = √3


Question 11.
The least values of cos² θ + sec² θ is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) more than 2

Answer

Answer: (c) 2
If a × cos² θ + b × sec² θ is given,
then the least value = 2√ab
Now given, cos² θ + sec² θ
Here, a = 1, b = 1
Now, least value = 2√(1 × 1) = 2 × 1 = 2


Question 12.
The equation (cos p – 1) x² + cos p × x + sin p = 0, where x is a variable, has real roots. Then the interval of p may be any one of the following:
(a) (0, π)
(b) (−π/2, π/2)
(c) (0, π)
(d) (−π, 0)

Answer

Answer: (a) (0, π)
The equation (cos p – 1)
x² + cos p × x + sin p = 0, where x is a variable, has real roots.
Now, for real roots,
Discriminant ≥ 0
⇒ cos² p – 4(cosp – 1)sinp ≥ 0
⇒ (cosp – 2sinp)² – 4sin² p + 4sinp ≥ 0
⇒ (cosp – 2sinp)² + 4sin p(1 – sinp) ≥ 0 ………..1
Now, 1 – sinp ≥ 0
⇒ For all real p such that 0 < p < π
So that 4sin p(1 – sinp) ≥ 0
So, p ∈ (0, π)


Question 13.
The value of (sec 8A – 1)/(sec 4A – 1) is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) tan 8A/tan 2A
(d) tan 2A/tan 8A

Answer

Answer: (c) tan 8A/tan 2A
Given, (sec 8A – 1)/(sec 4A – 1)
= (1/cos 8A – 1)/(1/cos 4A – 1)
= {(1 – cos 8A)/cos 8A}/{(1 – cos 4A)/cos 4A}
= {(1 – cos 8A) × cos 4A}/{(1 – cos 4A) × cos 8A}
= (2sin² 4A × cos 4A}/{2sin² 2A × cos 8A} {since cos 2A = 1 – 2sin² A}
= (2sin 4A × sin 4A × cos 4A}/{2sin 2A × sin 2A × cos 8A}
= (sin 8A × sin 4A}/{2sin 2A × sin 2A × cos 8A} {since sin 2A = 2×sin A × cos A}
= (sin 8A × 2sin 2A × cos 2A}/{2sin 2A × sin 2A × cos 8A}
= (sin 8A × cos 2A}/{sin 2A × cos 8A}
= (sin 8A/cos 8A)/(sin 2A/cos 2A)
= tan 8A/tan 2A
So, (sec 8A – 1)/(sec 4A – 1) = tan 8A/tan 2A


Question 14.
The value of (sin7x + sin5x) /(cos7x + cos5x) + (sin9x + sin3x) / (cos9x + cos3x) is
(a) tan6x
(b) 2 tan6x
(c) 3 tan6x
(d) 4 tan6x

Answer

Answer: (b) 2 tan6x
Given, (sin7x + sin5x) /(cos7x + cos5x) + (sin9x + sin3x) / (cos9x + cos3x)
⇒ [{2×sin(7x + 5x)/2 × cos(7x – 5x)/2}/{2 × cos(7x + 5x)/2 × cos(7x – 5x)/2}] +
[{2×sin(9x + 3x)/2 × cos(9x – 3x)/2}/{2 × cos(9x + 3x)/2 × cos(9x – 3x)/2}]
⇒ [{2 × sin6x × cosx}/{2 × cos6x × cosx}] + [{2 × sin6x × cosx}/{2 × cos6x × cosx}]
⇒ (sin6x/cos6x) + (sin6x/cos6x)
⇒ tan6x + tan6x
⇒ 2 tan6x


Question 15.
If x > 0 then the value of f(x) = -3 × cos√(3 + x + x²) lie in the interval
(a) [-1, 1]
(b) [-2, 2]
(c) [-3, 3]
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) [-3, 3]
Given x > 0 then 3 + x + x² > 0
Now, -1 ≤ cos√(3 + x + x² ) ≤ 1 {Since -1 ≤ cosx ≤ 1}
⇒ 3 ≥ -3 × cos√(3 + x + x² ) ≥ -3 {Multiply by -3}
⇒ -3 ≤ f(x) ≤ 3
⇒ f(x) ∈ [-3, 3]


Question 16.
The value of cos 4A – cos 4B is
(a) (cos A – cos B) × (cos A + cos B) × (cos A – sin B) × (cos A + sin B)
(b) 2(cos A – cos B) × (cos A + cos B) × (cos A – sin B) × (cos A + sin B)
(c) 4(cos A – cos B) × (cos A + cos B) × (cos A – sin B) × (cos A + sin B)
(d) 8(cos A – cos B) × (cos A + cos B) × (cos A – sin B) × (cos A + sin B)

Answer

Answer: (d) 8(cos A – cos B) × (cos A + cos B) × (cos A – sin B) × (cos A + sin B)
Given, cos 4A – cos 4B
= 2cos² 2A – 1 – (2cos2 2B – 1) {since 2cos² x – 1 = cos 2x}
= 2cos² 2A – 1 – 2cos² 2B + 1
= 2cos² 2A – 2cos² 2B
= 2(cos² 2A – cos² 2B)
= 2(cos 2A – cos 2B) × (cos 2A + cos 2B)
= 2{2cos² A – 1 – (2cos² B – 1)} × {2cos² A – 1 + 1 – 2sin² B} {since 1 – 2sin² x = cos 2x}
= 2{2cos² A – 1 – 2cos² B + 1} × {2cos² A – 1 + 1 – 2sin² B}
= 2{2cos² A – 2cos² B} × {2cos² A – 2sin² B}
= 2 × 2 × 2{cos² A – cos² B} × {cos² A – sin² B}
= 8(cos A – cos B) × (cos A + cos B) × (cos A – sin B) × (cos A + sin B)
So, cos 4A – cos 4B = 8(cos A – cos B) × (cos A + cos B) × (cos A – sin B) × (cosA + sin B)


Question 17.
The value of cos 420° is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 1/2
(d) √3/2

Answer

Answer: (c) 1/2
cos 420° = cos(360° + 60° ) = cos 60° = 1/2


Question 18.
In a ΔABC, (b + c) cos A + (c + a) cos B + (a + b) cos C is equal to
(a) a + b + c
(b) 0
(c) none of these
(d) Rr

Answer

Answer: (a) a + b + c
Given (b + c) cos A + (c + a) cos B + (a + b) cos C
= b × cos A + c × cos A + c × cos B + a × cos B + a × cos C + b × cos C
= (b × cos C + c × cos B) + (c × cos A + a × cos C) + (b × cos A + a × cos B)
= a + b + c {since b × cos C + c × cos B = a, c × cos A + a × cos C = b, b × cos A + a × cos B = c}


Question 19.
tan² θ = 1 – a² then the value of sec θ + tan³ θ × cosec θ is
(a) (2 – a²)
(b) (2 – a²)1/2
(c) (2 – a²)3/2
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) (2 – a²)3/2
Given, tan² θ = 1 – a²
⇒ tan θ = √(1 – a²)
MCQ Questions for Class 11 Maths Chapter 3 Trigonometric Functions with Answers 2
From the figure and apply Pythagorus theorem,
AC² = AB² + BC²
⇒ AC² = {√(1 – a²)}² + 12
⇒ AC² = 1 – a² + 1
⇒ AC² = 2 – a²
⇒ AC = √(2 – a²)
Now, sec θ = √(2 – a²)
cosec θ = √(2 – a²)/√(1 – a²)
and tan θ = √(1 – a²)
Given, sec θ + tan³ θ × cosec θ
= √(2 – a²) + {(1 – a²)3/2 × √(2 – a²)/√(1 – a²)}
= √(2 – a²) + {(1 – a²) × (1 – a²) × √(2 – a²)/√(1 – a²)}
= √(2 – a²) + (1 – a²) × √(2 – a²)
= √(2 – a²) × (1 + 1 – a²)
= √(2 – a²) × (2 – a²)
= (2 – a²)3/2
So, sec θ + tan³ θ × cosec θ = (2 – a²)3/2


Question 20.
The value of cos(π/7) × cos(2π/7) × cos(4π/7) is
(a) -1/2
(b) -1/4
(c) -1/6
(d) -1/8

Answer

Answer: (d) -1/8
We know that cos A × cos 2A × cos 2² A × ……………… × cos 2n-1 A = sin (2ⁿ A)/{2ⁿ × sin A} ……………1
Given, cos(π/7) × cos(2π/7) × cos(4π/7)
= cos(π/7) × cos(2π/7) × cos(2² π/7)
= [sin (2³ × π/7) ]/{2³ × sin (π/7)} ……………..from equation 1
= [sin (8π/7) ]/{8 × sin (π/7)}
= [sin (π + π/7) ]/{8 × sin (π/7)}
= -sin (π/7)/{8 × sin (π/7)}
= -1/8
So, cos(π/7) × cos(2π/7) × cos(4π/7) = -1/8


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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Maths Chapter 4 Principle of Mathematical Induction with Answers

Students can access the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Maths Chapter 4 Principle of Mathematical Induction with Answers Pdf free download aids in your exam preparation and you can get a good hold of the chapter. Use MCQ Questions for Class 11 Maths with Answers during preparation and score maximum marks in the exam. Students can download the Principle of Mathematical Induction Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers from here and test their problem-solving skills. Clear all the fundamentals and prepare thoroughly for the exam taking help from Class 11 Maths Chapter 4 Principle of Mathematical Induction Objective Questions.

Principle of Mathematical Induction Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Students are advised to solve the Principle of Mathematical Induction Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Maths to know different concepts. Practicing the MCQ Questions on Principle of Mathematical Induction Class 11 with answers will boost your confidence thereby helping you score well in the exam.

Explore numerous MCQ Questions of Principle of Mathematical Induction Class 11 with answers provided with detailed solutions by looking below.

Question 1.
For all n∈N, 3n5 + 5n³ + 7n is divisible by
(a) 5
(b) 15
(c) 10
(d) 3

Answer

Answer: (b) 15
Given number = 3n5 + 5n² + 7n
Let n = 1, 2, 3, 4, ……..
3n5 + 5n³ + 7n = 3 × 1² + 5 × 1³ + 7 × 1 = 3 + 5 + 7 = 15
3n5 + 5n³ + 7n = 3 × 25 + 5 × 2³ + 7 × 2 = 3 × 32 + 5 × 8 + 7 × 2 = 96 + 40 + 14 = 150 = 15 × 10
3n5 + 5n³ + 7n = 3 × 35 + 5 × 3³ + 7 × 3 = 3 × 243 + 5 × 27 + 7 × 3 = 729 + 135 + 21 = 885 = 15 × 59
Since, all these numbers are divisible by 15 for n = 1, 2, 3, …..
So, the given number is divisible by 15


Question 2.
{1 – (1/2)}{1 – (1/3)}{1 – (1/4)} ……. {1 – 1/(n + 1)} =
(a) 1/(n + 1) for all n ∈ N.
(b) 1/(n + 1) for all n ∈ R
(c) n/(n + 1) for all n ∈ N.
(d) n/(n + 1) for all n ∈ R

Answer

Answer: (a) 1/(n + 1) for all n ∈ N.
Let the given statement be P(n). Then,
P(n): {1 – (1/2)}{1 – (1/3)}{1 – (1/4)} ……. {1 – 1/(n + 1)} = 1/(n + 1).
When n = 1, LHS = {1 – (1/2)} = ½ and RHS = 1/(1 + 1) = ½.
Therefore LHS = RHS.
Thus, P(1) is true.
Let P(k) be true. Then,
P(k): {1 – (1/2)}{1 – (1/3)}{1 – (1/4)} ……. [1 – {1/(k + 1)}] = 1/(k + 1)
Now, [{1 – (1/2)}{1 – (1/3)}{1 – (1/4)} ……. [1 – {1/(k + 1)}] ∙ [1 – {1/(k + 2)}]
= [1/(k + 1)] ∙ [{(k + 2 ) – 1}/(k + 2)}]
= [1/(k + 1)] ∙ [(k + 1)/(k + 2)]
= 1/(k + 2)
Therefore p(k + 1): [{1 – (1/2)}{1 – (1/3)}{1 – (1/4)} ……. [1 – {1/(k + 1)}] = 1/(k + 2)
⇒ P(k + 1) is true, whenever P(k) is true.
Thus, P(1) is true and P(k + 1) is true, whenever P(k) is true.
Hence, by the principle of mathematical induction, P(n) is true for all n ∈ N.


Question 3.
For all n ∈ N, 32n + 7 is divisible by
(a) non of these
(b) 3
(c) 11
(d) 8

Answer

Answer: (d) 8
Given number = 32n + 7
Let n = 1, 2, 3, 4, ……..
32n + 7 = 3² + 7 = 9 + 7 = 16
32n + 7 = 34 + 7 = 81 + 7 = 88
32n + 7 = 36 + 7 = 729 + 7 = 736
Since, all these numbers are divisible by 8 for n = 1, 2, 3, …..
So, the given number is divisible by 8


Question 4.
The sum of the series 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + ………..n is
(a) n(n + 1)
(b) (n + 1)/2
(c) n/2
(d) n(n + 1)/2

Answer

Answer: (d) n(n + 1)/2
Given, series is series 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + ………..n
Sum = n(n + 1)/2


Question 5.
The sum of the series 1² + 2² + 3² + ……….. n² is
(a) n(n + 1) (2n + 1)
(b) n(n + 1) (2n + 1)/2
(c) n(n + 1) (2n + 1)/3
(d) n(n + 1) (2n + 1)/6

Answer

Answer: (d) n(n + 1) (2n + 1)/6
Given, series is 1² + 2² + 3² + ……….. n²
Sum = n(n + 1)(2n + 1)/6


Question 6.
For all positive integers n, the number n(n² − 1) is divisible by:
(a) 36
(b) 24
(c) 6
(d) 16

Answer

Answer: (c) 6
Given,
number = n(n² − 1)
Let n = 1, 2, 3, 4….
n(n² – 1) = 1(1 – 1) = 0
n(n² – 1) = 2(4 – 1) = 2 × 3 = 6
n(n² – 1) = 3(9 – 1) = 3 × 8 = 24
n(n² – 1) = 4(16 – 1) = 4 × 15 = 60
Since all these numbers are divisible by 6 for n = 1, 2, 3,……..
So, the given number is divisible 6


Question 7.
If n is an odd positive integer, then aⁿ + bⁿ is divisible by :
(a) a² + b²
(b) a + b
(c) a – b
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) a + b
Given number = aⁿ + bⁿ
Let n = 1, 3, 5, ……..
aⁿ + bⁿ = a + b
aⁿ + bⁿ = a³ + b³ = (a + b) × (a² + b² + ab) and so on.
Since, all these numbers are divisible by (a + b) for n = 1, 3, 5,…..
So, the given number is divisible by (a + b)


Question 8.
n(n + 1) (n + 5) is a multiple of ____ for all n ∈ N
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 7

Answer

Answer: (b) 3
Let P(n): n(n + 1)(n + 5) is a multiple of 3.
For n = 1, the given expression becomes (1 × 2 × 6) = 12, which is a multiple of 3.
So, the given statement is true for n = 1, i.e. P(1) is true.
Let P(k) be true. Then,
P(k): k(k + 1)(k + 5) is a multiple of 3
⇒ K(k + 1) (k + 5) = 3m for some natural number m, …… (i)
Now, (k + 1) (k + 2) (k + 6) = (k + 1) (k + 2)k + 6(k + 1) (k + 2)
= k(k + 1) (k + 2) + 6(k + 1) (k + 2)
= k(k + 1) (k + 5 – 3) + 6(k + 1) (k + 2)
= k(k + 1) (k + 5) – 3k(k + 1) + 6(k + 1) (k + 2)
= k(k + 1) (k + 5) + 3(k + 1) (k +4) [on simplification]
= 3m + 3(k + 1 ) (k + 4) [using (i)]
= 3[m + (k + 1) (k + 4)], which is a multiple of 3
⇒ P(k + 1) (k + 1 ) (k + 2) (k + 6) is a multiple of 3
⇒ P(k + 1) is true, whenever P(k) is true.
Thus, P(1) is true and P(k + 1) is true, whenever P(k) is true.
Hence, by the principle of mathematical induction, P(n) is true for all n ∈ N.


Question 9.
For any natural number n, 7ⁿ – 2ⁿ is divisible by
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 7

Answer

Answer: (c) 5
Given, 7ⁿ – 2ⁿ
Let n = 1
7ⁿ – 2ⁿ = 71 – 21 = 7 – 2 = 5
which is divisible by 5
Let n = 2
7ⁿ – 2ⁿ = 72 – 22 = 49 – 4 = 45
which is divisible by 5
Let n = 3
7ⁿ – 2ⁿ = 7³ – 2³ = 343 – 8 = 335
which is divisible by 5
Hence, for any natural number n, 7ⁿ – 2ⁿ is divisible by 5


Question 10.
The sum of the series 1³ + 2³ + 3³ + ………..n³ is
(a) {(n + 1)/2}²
(b) {n/2}²
(c) n(n + 1)/2
(d) {n(n + 1)/2}²

Answer

Answer: (d) {n(n + 1)/2}²
Given, series is 1³ + 2³ + 3³ + ……….. n³
Sum = {n(n + 1)/2}²


Question 11.
(1² + 2² + …… + n²) _____ for all values of n ∈ N
(a) = n³/3
(b) < n³/3
(c) > n³/3
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) > n³/3
Let P(n): (1² + 2² + ….. + n²) > n³/3.
When = 1, LHS = 1² = 1 and RHS = 1³/3 = 1/3.
Since 1 > 1/3, it follows that P(1) is true.
Let P(k) be true. Then,
P(k): (1² + 2² + ….. + k² ) > k³/3 …. (i)
Now,
1² + 2² + ….. + k²
+ (k + 1)²
= {1² + 2² + ….. + k² + (k + 1)²
> k³/3 + (k + 1)³ [using (i)]
= 1/3 ∙ (k³ + 3 + (k + 1)²) = 1/3 ∙ {k² + 3k² + 6k + 3}
= 1/3[k³ + 1 + 3k(k + 1) + (3k + 2)]
= 1/3 ∙ [(k + 1)³ + (3k + 2)]
> 1/3(k + 1)³
P(k + 1):
1² + 2² + ….. + k² + (k + 1)²
> 1/3 ∙ (k + 1)³
P(k + 1) is true, whenever P(k) is true.
Thus P(1) is true and P(k + 1) is true whenever p(k) is true.
Hence, by the principle of mathematical induction, P(n) is true for all n ∈ N.


Question 12.
{1/(3 ∙ 5)} + {1/(5 ∙ 7)} + {1/(7 ∙ 9)} + ……. + 1/{(2n + 1) (2n + 3)} =
(a) n/(2n + 3)
(b) n/{2(2n + 3)}
(c) n/{3(2n + 3)}
(d) n/{4(2n + 3)}

Answer

Answer: (c) n/{3(2n + 3)}
Let the given statement be P(n). Then,
P(n): {1/(3 ∙ 5) + 1/(5 ∙ 7) + 1/(7 ∙ 9) + ……. + 1/{(2n + 1)(2n + 3)} = n/{3(2n + 3).
Putting n = 1 in the given statement, we get
and LHS = 1/(3 ∙ 5) = 1/15 and RHS = 1/{3(2 × 1 + 3)} = 1/15.
LHS = RHS
Thus, P(1) is true.
Let P(k) be true. Then,
P(k): {1/(3 ∙ 5) + 1/(5 ∙ 7) + 1/(7 ∙ 9) + …….. + 1/{(2k + 1)(2k + 3)} = k/{3(2k + 3)} ….. (i)
Now, 1/(3 ∙ 5) + 1/(5 ∙ 7) + ..…… + 1/[(2k + 1)(2k + 3)] + 1/[{2(k + 1) + 1}2(k + 1) + 3
= {1/(3 ∙ 5) + 1/(5 ∙ 7) + ……. + [1/(2k + 1)(2k + 3)]} + 1/{(2k + 3)(2k + 5)}
= k/[3(2k + 3)] + 1/[2k + 3)(2k + 5)] [using (i)]
= {k(2k + 5) + 3}/{3(2k + 3)(2k + 5)}
= (2k² + 5k + 3)/[3(2k + 3)(2k + 5)]
= {(k + 1)(2k + 3)}/{3(2k + 3)(2k + 5)}
= (k + 1)/{3(2k + 5)}
= (k + 1)/[3{2(k + 1) + 3}]
= P(k + 1): 1/(3 ∙ 5) + 1/(5 ∙ 7) + …….. + 1/[2k + 1)(2k + 3)] + 1/[{2(k + 1) + 1}{2(k + 1) + 3}]
= (k + 1)/{3{2(k + 1) + 3}]
⇒ P(k + 1) is true, whenever P(k) is true.
Thus, P(1) is true and P(k + 1) is true, whenever P(k) is true.
Hence, by the principle of mathematical induction, P(n) is true for n ∈ N.


Question 13.
If n is an odd positive integer, then aⁿ + bⁿ is divisible by :
(a) a² + b²
(b) a + b
(c) a – b
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) a + b
Given number = aⁿ + bⁿ
Let n = 1, 3, 5, ……..
aⁿ + bⁿ = a + b
aⁿ + bⁿ = a³ + b³ = (a + b) × (a² + b² + ab) and so on.
Since, all these numbers are divisible by (a + b) for n = 1, 3, 5,…..
So, the given number is divisible by (a + b)


Question 14.
(2 ∙ 7N + 3 ∙ 5N – 5) is divisible by ……….. for all N ∈ N
(a) 6
(b) 12
(c) 18
(d) 24

Answer

Answer: (d) 24
Let P(n): (2 ∙ 7ⁿ + 3 ∙ 5ⁿ – 5) is divisible by 24.
For n = 1, the given expression becomes (2 ∙ 71 + 3 ∙ 51 – 5) = 24, which is clearly divisible by 24.
So, the given statement is true for n = 1, i.e., P(1) is true.
Let P(k) be true. Then,
P(k): (2 ∙ 7ⁿ + 3 ∙ 5ⁿ – 5) is divisible by 24.
⇒ (2 ∙ 7ⁿ + 3 ∙ 5ⁿ – 5) = 24m, for m = N
Now, (2 ∙ 7ⁿ + 3 ∙ 5ⁿ – 5)
= (2 ∙ 7k ∙ 7 + 3 ∙ 5k ∙ 5 – 5)
= 7(2 ∙ 7k + 3 ∙ 5k – 5) = 6 ∙ 5k + 30
= (7 × 24m) – 6(5k – 5)
= (24 × 7m) – 6 × 4p, where (5k – 5) = 5(5k-1 – 1) = 4p
[Since (5k-1 – 1) is divisible by (5 – 1)]
= 24 × (7m – p)
= 24r, where r = (7m – p) ∈ N
⇒ P (k + 1): (2 ∙ 7k + 13 ∙ 5k + 1 – 5) is divisible by 24.
⇒ P(k + 1) is true, whenever P(k) is true.
Thus, P(1) is true and P(k + 1) is true, whenever P(k) is true.
Hence, by the principle of mathematical induction, P(n) is true for all n ∈ N.


Question 15.
For all n∈N, 52n − 1 is divisible by
(a) 26
(b) 24
(c) 11
(d) 25

Answer

Answer: (b) 24
Given number = 52n − 1
Let n = 1, 2, 3, 4, ……..
52n − 1 = 5² − 1 = 25 – 1 = 24
52n − 1 = 54 – 1 = 625 – 1 = 624 = 24 × 26
52n − 1 = 56 – 1 = 15625 – 1 = 15624 = 651 × 24
Since, all these numbers are divisible by 24 for n = 1, 2, 3, …..
So, the given number is divisible by 24


Question 16.
1 ∙ 2 + 2 ∙ 3 + 3 ∙ 4 + ….. + n(n + 1) =
(a) n(n + 1)(n + 2)
(b) {n(n + 1)(n + 2)}/2
(c) {n(n + 1)(n + 2)}/3
(d) {n(n + 1)(n + 2)}/4

Answer

Answer: (c) {n(n + 1)(n + 2)}/3
Let the given statement be P(n). Then,
P(n): 1 ∙ 2 + 2 ∙ 3 + 3 ∙ 4 + ….. + n(n + 1) = (1/3){n(n + 1) (n + 2)}
Thus, the given statement is true for n = 1, i.e., P(1) is true.
Let P(k) be true. Then,
P(k): 1 ∙ 2 + 2 ∙ 3 + 3 ∙ 4 + ….. + k(k + 1) = (1/3){k(k + 1) (k + 2)}.
Now, 1 ∙ 2 + 2 ∙ 3 + 3 ∙ 4 +…+ k(k + 1) + (k + 1) (k + 2)
= (1 ∙ 2 + 2 ∙ 3 + 3 ∙ 4 + ……. + k(k + 1)) + (k + 1) (k + 2)
= (1/3) k(k + 1) (k + 2) + (k + 1)(k + 2) [using (i)]
= (1/3) [k(k + 1) (k + 2) + 3(k + 1)(k + 2)
= (1/3){(k + 1) (k + 2)(k + 3)}
⇒ P(k + 1): 1 ∙ 2 + 2 ∙ 3 + 3 ∙ 4 +……+ (k + 1) (k + 2)
= (1/3){k + 1 )(k + 2) (k +3)}
⇒ P(k + 1) is true, whenever P(k) is true.
Thus, P(1) is true and P(k + 1)is true, whenever P(k) is true.
Hence, by the principle of mathematical induction, P(n) is true for all values of ∈ N.


Question 17.
1/(1 ∙ 2 ∙ 3) + 1/(2 ∙ 3 ∙ 4) + …….. + 1/{n(n + 1)(n + 2)} =
(a) {n(n + 3)}/{4(n + 1)(n + 2)}
(b) (n + 3)/{4(n + 1)(n + 2)}
(c) n/{4(n + 1)(n + 2)}
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) {n(n + 3)}/{4(n + 1)(n + 2)}
Let P (n): 1/(1 ∙ 2 ∙ 3) + 1/(2 ∙ 3 ∙ 4) + ……. + 1/{n(n + 1)(n + 2)} = {n(n + 3)}/{4(n + 1)(n + 2)}
Putting n = 1 in the given statement, we get
LHS = 1/(1 ∙ 2 ∙ 3) = 1/6 and RHS = {1 × (1 + 3)}/[4 × (1 + 1)(1 + 2)] = ( 1 × 4)/(4 × 2 × 3) = 1/6.
Therefore LHS = RHS.
Thus, the given statement is true for n = 1, i.e., P(1) is true.
Let P(k) be true. Then,
P(k): 1/(1 ∙ 2 ∙ 3) + 1/(2 ∙ 3 ∙ 4) + ……… + 1/{k(k + 1) (k + 2)} = {k(k + 3)}/{4(k + 1) (k + 2)}. …….(i)
Now, 1/(1 ∙ 2 ∙ 3) + 1/(2 ∙ 3 ∙ 4) + ………….. + 1/{k(k + 1) (k + 2)} + 1/{(k + 1) (k + 2) (k + 3)}
= [1/(1 ∙ 2 ∙ 3) + 1/(2 ∙ 3 ∙ 4) + ………..…. + 1/{ k(k + 1) (k + 2}] + 1/{(k + 1)(k + 2) (k + 3)}
= [{k(k + 3)}/{4(k + 1)(k + 2)} + 1/{(k + 1)(k + 2)(k + 3)}] [using(i)]
= {k(k + 3)² + 4}/{4(k + 1)(k + 2) (k + 3)}
= (k³ + 6k² + 9k + 4)/{4(k + 1) (k + 2) (k + 3)}
= {(k + 1) (k + 1) (k + 4)}/{4 (k + 1) (k + 2) (k + 3)}
= {(k + 1) (k + 4)}/{4(k + 2) (k + 3)
⇒ P(k + 1): 1/(1 ∙ 2 ∙ 3) + 1/(2 ∙ 3 ∙ 4) + ……….….. + 1/{(k + 1) (k + 2) (k + 3)}
= {(k + 1) (k + 2)}/{4(k + 2) (k + 3)}
⇒ P(k + 1) is true, whenever P(k) is true.
Thus, P(1) is true and P(k + 1) is true, whenever P(k) is true.
Hence, by the principle of mathematical induction, P(n) is true for all n ∈ N.


Question 18.
For any natural number n, 7ⁿ – 2ⁿ is divisible by
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 7

Answer

Answer: (c) 5
Given, 7ⁿ – 2ⁿ
Let n = 1
7ⁿ – 2ⁿ = 71 – 21 = 7 – 2 = 5
which is divisible by 5
Let n = 2
7ⁿ – 2ⁿ = 7² – 2² = 49 – 4 = 45
which is divisible by 5
Let n = 3
7ⁿ – 2ⁿ = 7³ – 2³ = 343 – 8 = 335
which is divisible by 5
Hence, for any natural number n, 7ⁿ – 2ⁿ is divisible by 5


Question 19.
The sum of n terms of the series 1² + 3² + 5² +……… is
(a) n(4n² – 1)/3
(b) n²(2n² + 1)/6
(c) none of these.
(d) n²(n² + 1)/3

Answer

Answer: (a) n(4n² – 1)/3
Let S = 1² + 3² + 5² +………(2n – 1)²
⇒ S = {1² + 2² + 3² + 4² ………(2n – 1)² + (2n)²} – {2² + 4² + 6² +………+ (2n)²}
⇒ S = {2n × (2n + 1) × (4n + 1)}/6 – {4n × (n + 1) × (2n + 1)}/6
⇒ S = n(4n² – 1)/3


Question 20.
For all n ∈ N, 3n5 + 5n³ + 7n is divisible by:
(a) 5
(b) 15
(c) 10
(d) 3

Answer

Answer: (b) 15
Given number = 3n5 + 5n³ + 7n
Let n = 1, 2, 3, 4, ……..
3n5 + 5n³ + 7n = 3 × 1² + 5 × 1³ + 7 × 1 = 3 + 5 + 7 = 15
3n5 + 5n³ + 7n = 3 × 25 + 5 × 2³ + 7 × 2 = 3 × 32 + 5 × 8 + 7 × 2 = 96 + 40 + 14 = 150 = 15 × 10
3n5 + 5n³ + 7n = 3 × 35 + 5 × 3³ + 7 × 3 = 3 × 243 + 5 × 27 + 7 × 3 = 729 + 135 + 21 = 885 = 15 × 59
Since, all these numbers are divisible by 15 for n = 1, 2, 3, …..
So, the given number is divisible by 15


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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 2 National Income Accounting with Answers

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 2 National Income Accounting with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided National Income Accounting Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on National Income Accounting Class 12 Objective Questions.

National Income Accounting Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct alternative.

Question 1.
Depreciation of fixed capital assets refers to
(a) Normal wear and tear
(b) Foreseen obsolescence
(c) Normal wear and tear and foreseen obsolescence
(d) Unforeseen obsolescence

Answer

Answer: (c) Normal wear and tear and foreseen obsolescence


Question 2.
National income is the sum of factor income accruing to
(a) Nationals
(b) Economic territory
(c) Residents
(d) Both residents and non-residents

Answer

Answer: (c) Residents


Question 3.
GNP at MP =
(a) GDPMP – Depreciation
(b) GDPMP + Depreciation
(c) GDPMP ÷ Depreciation
(d) GDPMP + Net factor income from abroad

Answer

Answer: (d) GDPMP + Net factor income from abroad


Question 4.
NDPMP =
(a) GDPMP – Depreciation
(b) GDPFC + Net factor income from abroad
(c) NNPFC + Net indirect taxes
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) GDPMP – Depreciation


Question 5.
NNPMP =
(a) GNPMP – Depreciation
(b) NDPMP + Net factor income from abroad
(c) NNPFC + Net indirect taxes
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 6.
GDPFC =
(a) GDPMP – Net indirect taxes
(b) GDPMP + Net indirect taxes
(c) GDPMP + Subsidies
(d) GDPMP – Indirect taxes

Answer

Answer: (a) GDPMP – Net indirect taxes


Question 7.
NDPFC =
(a) GDPFC – Indirect taxes
(b) GDPFC – Depreciation
(c) GDPFC + Economic subsidy
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (b) GDPFC – Depreciation


Question 8.
NNPFC =
(a) GNPFC – Depredation
(b) NNPMP + Economic subsidy – Indirect taxes
(c) NDPMP + Net factor income from abroad
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 9.
Accounting of National Income at constant prices is known as
(a) Money income
(b) Real income
(c) Current income
(d) Domestic income

Answer

Answer: (b) Real income


Question 10.
Which of the following items are excluded from GNP measurement?
(a) Purely financial transactions
(b) Transfer of used goods and non-market goods and services
(c) Illegal activities and the value of leisure
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Fill in the blanks with the correct word.

Question 1.
Real National Income is the value of current income at ______ year prices.

Answer

Answer: base


Question 2.
Flow is a ______ concept.

Answer

Answer: dynamic


Question 3.
______ flow shows the flow of goods and services across different sectors.

Answer

Answer: Real


Question 4.
______ has no time dimension.

Answer

Answer: Stock


Question 5.
_______ has a time dimension.

Answer

Answer: Row


Question 6.
The production method is also known as the _______ method.

Answer

Answer: value-added


Question 7.
The weights are ______ in C.P.I.

Answer

Answer: constant


Question 8.
GDP deflator does not include prices of ______ goods.

Answer

Answer: imported


State whether the following statements are True or False. Give reasons.

Question 1.
Real flow shows the flow of money across different sectors.

Answer

Answer: False.
Real flow shows the flow of goods and services across different sectors.


Question 2.
Stock is a dynamic concept.

Answer

Answer: False.
Stock is a static concept whose magnitude is measured at a particular point in time.


Question 3.
National Income includes only transfer incomes, not the factor incomes.

Answer

Answer: False.
National Income includes factor incomes, not the transfer incomes.


Question 4.
Import is leakage of the circular flow of income.

Answer

Answer: True.
Imports lead to the withdrawal of income from the process circular flow.


Question 5.
The value of intermediate goods is not included in the estimation of value-added.

Answer

Answer: True.
Only the value of output added at each stage of production is included in the estimation of value-added.


Question 6.
A part of the capital gets consumed during the year due to wear and tear is called value-added.

Answer

Answer: False.
A part of the capital that gets consumed during the year due to wear and tear is called depreciation.


Match the alternatives given in Column II with respective terms in Column I.

Question 1.

Column IColumn II
(i) Flow variable(a) Value Added Method
(ii) Stock variable(b) Include in National Income
(iii) Product method(c) Measured over a specific period of time
(iv) NDPFC =(d) Measured at a specific point in time
(v) GDPFC =(e) NDPFC – Indirect Taxes + Subsidies
(vi) Saving(f) Stock Concept
(vii) Wealth(g) NDPFC + Depreciation
(viii) Final expenditure method(h) Flow Concept
(ix) Windfall gains(i) Consumption and Investment Method
(x) Family members working free on the family-owned farm(j) Don’t include in National Income
Answer

Answer:

Column IColumn II
(i) Flow variable(c) Measured over a specific period of time
(ii) Stock variable(d) Measured at a specific point in time
(iii) Product method(a) Value Added Method
(iv) NDPFC =(e) NDPMP – Indirect Taxes + Subsidies
(v) GDPFC =(g) NDPFC + Depreciation
(vi) Saving(h) Flow Concept
(vii) Wealth(f) Stock Concept
(viii) Final expenditure method(i) Consumption and Investment Method
(ix) Windfall gains(j) Don’t include in National Income
(x) Family members working free on the family-owned farm(b) Include in National Income

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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 3 Money and Banking with Answers

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 3 Money and Banking with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Money and Banking Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Money and Banking Class 12 Objective Questions.

Money and Banking Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct alternative.

Question 1.
_______ is the primary function of money.
(a) Transfer of value
(b) Medium of exchange
(c) Standard of deferred payment
(d) Store of value

Answer

Answer: (b) Medium of exchange


Question 2.
Initial deposits made by the people from their own resources are called
(a) time deposits
(b) secondary deposits
(c) primary deposits
(d) term deposits

Answer

Answer: (c) primary deposits


Question 3.
The monetary policy generally targets to ensure _______
(a) Price stability in the economy
(b) employment generation in the country
(c) stable foreign relations
(d) greater tax collections for the government

Answer

Answer: (a) Price stability in the economy


Question 4.
In order to encourage investment in the economy, the Central Bank may ________
(a) Reduce Cash Reserve Ratio
(b) Increase Cash Reserve Ratio
(c) Sell Government securities in the open market
(d) Increase Bank Rate

Answer

Answer: (a) Reduce Cash Reserve Ratio


Question 5.
Banks are able to create credit many times more than initial deposits through
(a) secondary deposits
(b) providing overdraft facilities
(c) accepting deposits
(d) advancing loans

Answer

Answer: (a) secondary deposits


Question 6.
The creation is called credit creation.
(a) time deposits
(b) primary deposits
(c) secondary deposits
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) secondary deposits


Question 7.
The ratio of total deposit that a commercial bank has to keep with the Reserve Bank of India is called
(a) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
(b) Deposit Ratio
(c) Cash Reserve Ratio
(d) Legal Reserve Ratio

Answer

Answer: (c) Cash Reserve Ratio


Question 8.
Credit creation by the commercial bank is determined by
(a) Cash Reserve Ratio
(b) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
(c) Initial Deposits
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) all of the above


Question 9.
______ is the rate of interest charged by the central bank on loans given to the commercial bank.
(a) Bank Rate
(b) Cash Reserve Ratio
(c) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
(d) Reverse Repo Rate

Answer

Answer: (a) Bank Rate


Question 10.
_______ is the main function of Central Bank.
(a) Notes issue
(b) Credit creation
(c) Accepting deposits from the public
(d) Advancing loans to public

Answer

Answer: (a) Notes issue


Fill in the blanks with the correct word.

Question 11.
The exchange of goods for goods is called _______ exchange.

Answer

Answer: barter


Question 12.
Cheque, draft, etc. are _______ money.

Answer

Answer: credit


Question 13.
Bond, insurance, securities, etc. are examples of _______ money.

Answer

Answer: near


Question 14.
Indian monetary system is based on ______ standard.

Answer

Answer: paper currency


Question 15.
Supply of money is a _________ concept.

Answer

Answer: stock


Question 16.
______ is the Central Bank of India.

Answer

Answer: RBI


Question 17.
Commercial banks are an important source of ________ in the economy.

Answer

Answer: money supply


Question 18.
A ________ bank is a financial institution which accepts deposits from the people and gives loans for the purpose of consumption and investment.

Answer

Answer: commercial


Question 19.
Value of money multiplier _______ with an increase in Cash Reserve Ratio.

Answer

Answer: decreases


Question 20.
Quantitative instruments are also known as ______ instruments.

Answer

Answer: general


Question 21.
Qualitative instruments are also known as _______ instruments.

Answer

Answer: selective


Question 22.
The design and control of India’s monetary policy is the main responsibility of the ________

Answer

Answer: central bank


Question 23.
Two essential functions of a bank are accepting deposit and _________

Answer

Answer: advancing loan


Question 24.
_________ means buying and selling of government securities in the market.

Answer

Answer: Open market operations


Question 25.
Bank rate is the ________ instrument of Central Bank.

Answer

Answer: quantitative


State whether the following statements are true or false. Give reasons.

Question 26.
Money as a medium of exchange solves the problem of lack of double coincidence of want.

Answer

Answer: True
Goods can be sold for money to whoever wants it and from whoever wants to sell it.


Question 27.
Legal tender money has a legal sanction behind it by the government.

Answer

Answer: True
No one can refuse to accept it as non-acceptance is an offense.


Question 28.
M1 includes saving deposits of post office savings banks.

Answer

Answer: False
Saving deposits with the post office are a part of M2.


Question 29.
The money supply is a flow variable.

Answer

Answer: False
The money supply is a stock variable as it is measured at a particular point in time.


Question 30.
Commercial Banks play no role in the stock of money supply in the economy.

Answer

Answer: False
Commercial banks add to the stock of money supply by creating credit.


Question 31.
Credit money is money received as credit from banks.

Answer

Answer: False
Credit money is money whose face value is more than its intrinsic (commodity) value.


Question 32.
Commercial banks do not create money.

Answer

Answer: False
Commercial banks add to the money supply by creating demand deposits.


Question 33.
Bank rate is a qualitative method of credit control.

Answer

Answer: False
Bank rate is a quantitative method of credit control as it aims at influencing the volume of credit.


Question 34.
There is an inverse relation between LRR and the size of the money multiplier.

Answer

Answer: True
Higher the LRR, the lower is the money multiplier and vice-versa.


Match the alternatives given in Column II with respective terms in Column I.

Question 35.

Column IColumn II
(i) M1 + Deposit with post office saving bank account(a) Open Market Operations
(ii) M1 + Time deposits with the bank(b) Advancing Loans
(iii) Quantitative Instrument of monetary policy(c) Lender of the Last Resort
(iv) Qualitative Instrument of monetary policy(d) M2
(v) Function of commercial bank(e) M3
(vi) Function of the central bank(f) Margin Requirement
Answer

Answer:

Column IColumn II
(i) M1 + Deposit with post office saving bank account(d) M2
(ii) M1 + Time deposits with bank(e) M3
(iii) Quantitative Instrument of monetary policy(a) Open Market Operations
(iv) Qualitative Instrument of monetary policy(f) Margin Requirement
(v) Function of commercial bank(b) Advancing Loans
(vi) Function of the central bank(c) Lender of the Last Resort

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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 12 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 12 Chemistry Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
Which among the following statement is not true?
(a) In liquid, particles are less regularly arranged and are free to move
(b) Boiling involves breaking up of group of molecules in liquid
(c) Boiling involves separation of oppositely charged ions
(d) Thermal energy of particles overcome cohesive forces that hold them

Answer

Answer: (c) Boiling involves separation of oppositely charged ions
Explanation:
Boiling involves separation of oppositely charged ions and makes them as individual ions.


Question 2.
Identify the chiral molecule among the following:
(a) Isopropyl alcohol
(b) 2-pentanol
(c) 1-bromo 3-butene
(d) Isobutyl alcohol

Answer

Answer: (d) Isobutyl alcohol
Explanation:
Chirality is the condition for a molecule to be optically active and here isobutyl alcohol is the only compound is optically active and hence it is the chiral molecule.


Question 3.
Which element is estimated by Carius method
(a) Carbon
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Halogen
(d) Nitrogen

Answer

Answer: (c) Halogen
Explanation:
Halogen element is estimated by Carius method


Question 4.
A solution of(+) – 2 – chloro – 2 – phenylethane in toluene racemises slowly in the presence of small amounts of SbCl5 due to the formation of
(a) Carbanion
(b) Carbene
(c) Free radical
(d) Carbocation

Answer

Answer: (d) Carbocation
Explanation:
SbCl5 pulls Cl to form SbCl6 leaving behind planar C6H5−C+H−CH3 carbonium ion. It can be attacked from either side leading to racemic mixture.


Question 5.
Which of the following acids has the smallest dissociation constant?
(a) CH3CHFCOOH
(b) FCH2CH2COOH
(c) BrCH2CH2COOH
(d) CH3CHBrCOOH

Answer

Answer: (c) BrCH2CH2COOH
Explanation:
BrCH2CH2COOH is least acidic or has less Ka i.e., dissociation constant. It is A due to lesser -I effect of Br than F and B Br atom further away form −COOH group.


Question 6.
What is the correct IUPAC name of
MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques with Answers 1
(a) 4-methoxy-2-nitrobenzaldehyde
(b) 4-formyl-3-nitro anisole
(c) 4-methoxy-6-nitrobenzaldehyde
(d) 2-formyl-5-methoxy nitrobenzene

Answer

Answer: (a) 4-methoxy-2-nitrobenzaldehyde
Explanation:
IUPAC name is 4-methoxy-2-nitrobenzaldehyde
MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques with Answers 2


Question 7.
0.5 g of hydrocarbon gave 0.9 g water on combustion. The percentage of carbon in hydrocarbon is
(a) 75.8
(b) 80.0
(c) 56.6
(d) 28.6

Answer

Answer: (b) 80.0
Explanation:
Percentage% of H =(2/18) × [(weight of H2O)/(weight of organic compound)] × 100
=(2/18) × [(0.9)/(0.5)] × 100 = 20
Since percentage of hydrogen is 20. Therefore, remaining is carbon i.e. 80 %.


Question 8.
0.92 g of an organic compound was analysed by combustion method. The mass of the U- tube increased by 1.08 g. What is the percentage of hydrogen in the compound?
(a) 13.04%
(b) 52.17%
(c) 65.21%
(d) 11.30%

Answer

Answer: (a) 13.04%
Explanation:
For Percentage % of H,
(Percentage % of H)/(H2O) = (2/18) × [(weight x H2O)/Weight of organic compound)] × 100
= (2/18) × (1.08/0.92) × 100
= 13.04 %


Question 9.
What is the state of hybridisation of carbon in carbanion?
(a) sp
(b) sp²
(c) sp³
(d) sp²d.

Answer

Answer: (c) sp³
Explanation:
In carbanion the carbon atom is sp³ hybridised and the geometry is pyramidal.


Question 10.
An organic compound contains C = 38.8 H = 16 and N = 45.2. Empirical formula of the compound is
(a) CH3NH2
(b) CH3CN
(c) C2H5CN
(d) CH2(NH)2

Answer

Answer: (a) CH3NH2


Question 11.
59 g of an amide obtained from a carboxylic acid, RCOOH, liberated 17 g of ammonia upon heating with alkali. The acid is
(a) Formic Acid
(b) Acetic Acid
(c) Propionic Acid
(d) Benzoic Acid

Answer

Answer: (b) Acetic Acid


Question 12.
The displacement of electrons in a multiple bond in the presence of attacking reagent is called
(a) Inductive effect
(b) Electromeric effect
(c) Resonance
(d) Hyper conjugation

Answer

Answer: (b) Electromeric effect
Explanation:
The electromeric effect is a temporary effect brought into play at the requirement of attacking reagent. Electromeric effect refers to a molecular polarizability effect occurring by an intra-molecular electron displacement. It is the temporary effect.


Question 13.
The molecular formula C5H12 contains how many isomeric alkanes?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer

Answer: (c) 3
Explanation:
n-pentane, 2-ethylpropane, and 2-methylbutane are the 3 isomeric alkanes of C5H1 (pentane).


Question 14.
If two compounds have the same empirical formula but different molecular formula they must have
(a) Different percentage composition
(b) Different molecular weight
(c) Same viscosity
(d) Same vapour density

Answer

Answer: (b) Different molecular weight
Explanation:
If molecular formula is different than molecular weight is also different.


Question 15.
Inductive effect involves
(a) displacement of σ electrons
(b) delocalization of π electrons
(c) delocalization of σ-electrons
(d) displacement of π-electrons

Answer

Answer: (a) displacement of σ electrons
Explanation:
During inductive effect shifting of a electrons takes place due to which partially charges are developed on the atom.
+δ” + δ′ + δ −δ
C− C− C −C1−


Question 16.
A gas mixture contains 50% helium and 50% methane by volume. What is the percent by weight of methane in the mixture
(a) 75%
(b) 50%
(c) 80.03%
(d) 19.97%

Answer

Answer: (c) 80.03%
Explanation:
Given the Solution contains He + CH4
Their molecular weight = 4 + 16 = 20 % wt of CH4
= (weight of CH4)/(Total wt × 100)
= (16/20) × 100
= 80.0


Question 17.
Which of the following physical properties differ for each of a pair of enantiomers?
(a) solubility in ethanol
(b) direction of rotation of plane-polarized light
(c) boiling point and melting point
(d) index of refraction

Answer

Answer: (b) direction of rotation of plane-polarized light
Explanation:
Enantiomers are equal in all their physical properties except for their optical rotation, as they rotate the plane of polarized light by equal amounts in opposite directions.


Question 18.
The reaction of HCOOH with conc.H2SO4 gives which of the following compound?
(a) CO2
(b) CO
(c) Oxalic Acid
(d) Acetic acid

Answer

Answer: (b) CO


Question 19.
What is the state of hybridisation of carbon in carbanion?
(a) sp
(b) sp²
(c) sp³
(d) sp²d.

Answer

Answer: (c) sp³
Explanation:
In carbanion the carbon atom is sp³ hybridised and the geometry is pyramidal.


Question 20.
Which among the following is formed when an alcohol is dehydrated?
(a) alkane
(b) alkyne
(c) alkene
(d) aldehyde

Answer

Answer: (c) alkene
Explanation:
In elimination reaction, when protic acids react with alcohol, they lose water molecule to form alkenes.


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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 4 Determination of Income and Employment with Answers

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 4 Determination of Income and Employment with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Determination of Income and Employment Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Determination of Income and Employment Class 12 Objective Questions.

Determination of Income and Employment Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct alternative.

Question 1.
The value of multiplier is
(a) \(\frac{1}{MPC}\)
(b) \(\frac{1}{MPS}\)
(c) \(\frac{1}{1-MPS}\)
(d) \(\frac{1}{MPC-1}\)

Answer

Answer: (b) \(\frac{1}{MPS}\)


Question 2.
Aggregate demand can be increased by
(a) increasing bank rate
(b) selling government securities by the Reserve Bank of India
(c) increasing cash reserve ratio
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) None of the above


Question 3.
If MPC is equal to 1, the value of the multiplier is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) Between 0 and 1
(d) Infinity

Answer

Answer: (d) Infinity


Question 4.
If the marginal propensity to consume is greater than the marginal propensity to save, the value of the multiplier will be:
(a) greater than 2
(b) less than 2
(c) two equal to 2
(d) equal to 5

Answer

Answer: (a) greater than 2


Question 5.
If MPC is zero, the value of the multiplier is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) between 0 and 1
(d) infinity

Answer

Answer: (b) 1


Question 6.
Average Propensity to Consume can never be ________
(a) positive
(b) zero
(c) more than one
(d) less than one

Answer

Answer: (b) zero


Question 7.
According to classical economists, there always exists an equilibrium in the economy.
(a) Full employment
(b) Underemployment
(c) Over full employment
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Full employment


Question 8.
What will be MPC when MPS = 0?
(a) One
(b) Zero
(c) Two
(d) Infinite

Answer

Answer: (a) One


Question 9.
If the income is ₹ 400 crores and consumption is ₹ 250 crores, what will be the APC?
(a) 0.67
(b) 0.63
(c) 0.60
(d) 0.58

Answer

Answer: (b) 0.63


Question 10.
What is a fiscal measure of correcting deficient demand?
(a) Decrease in public debt
(b) Increase in public expenditure and decrease in taxes
(c) Deficit financing
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 11.
Which is the measure of correcting excess demand?
(a) Deficit financing
(b) Reduction in taxes
(c) Increase in public expenditure
(d) Increase in public debt

Answer

Answer: (d) Increase in public debt


Fill in the blanks with the correct word.

Question 12.
The multiplier is the ratio between the change in income and change in ________

Answer

Answer: investment


Question 13.
In an economy, break-even point and equilibrium point may lie at the same level of income, if ex-ante investments are _____

Answer

Answer: zero


Question 14.
There is a/an ________ relation between multiplier and MPC.

Answer

Answer: direct


Question 15.
Deficient demand refers to the situation when Aggregate Demand is _______ Aggregate Supply.

Answer

Answer: less than


Question 16.
The price will ________ in the situation of excess demand.

Answer

Answer: Increase


Question 17.
In a situation of inflationary gap, the economy faces a situation of ______ output.

Answer

Answer: higher


Question 18.
________ demand causes inflationary pressure.

Answer

Answer: excess


Question 19.
Deflationary gap is a measure of ________ demand.

Answer

Answer: excess


Question 20.
_______ policy is related to revenue and expenditure of the government.

Answer

Answer: fiscal


Question 21.
Bank rate is a _______ instrument of monetary policy.

Answer

Answer: quantitative


Question 22.
_______ policy is concerned with the supply, availability, and cost of money.

Answer

Answer: monetary


Question 23.
_______ employment was the main feature of the classical theory of employment.

Answer

Answer: Full


Question 24.
MPC is always ________

Answer

Answer: positive


Question 25.
MPC is greater than zero and _______ than one.

Answer

Answer: less


State whether the following statements are true or false. Give reasons.

Question 26.
There is a direct relationship between multiplier and MPC.

Answer

Answer: True
There is a direct relationship between multiplier and MPC. The higher the MPC, the higher will be the value of the multiplier and vice-versa.


Question 27.
When MPC is zero, the multiplier is 1.

Answer

Answer: True
The relation between multiplier and MPC can be represented as K = \(\frac{1}{1-MPC}\)
At MPC = 0, K = 1.


Question 28.
The deflationary gap causes a fall in the level of employment.

Answer

Answer: True
When there is a deflationary gap, aggregate demand remains less than essential demand at the full employment level. Thus, the problem of involuntary unemployment takes place.


Question 29.
The inflationary gap causes a fall in the level of price.

Answer

Answer: False
When there is an inflationary gap, aggregate demand remains more than essential demand at the full employment level. Thus, there is a significant rise in prices.


Question 30.
Monetary policy is related to the revenue and expenditure policy of the government.

Answer

Answer: False
The monetary policy includes measures taken by the central bank to expand or contract the money supply. Instead, fiscal policy is related to the revenue and expenditure policy of the government.


Question 31.
When there is excess demand, the rate of taxation is to be reduced.

Answer

Answer: False
During excess demand, the government reduces the rate of taxes and even imposes some new taxes. It leads to a decrease in the level of aggregate expenditure in the economy and helps to control the situation of excess demand.


Question 32.
When there is deficient demand, public expenditure is to be generally expanded.

Answer

Answer: True
An increase in public expenditure tends to increase the purchasing power of the public which, in turn, increases the demand for goods and corrects deficient demand.


Match the alternatives given in Column II with respective terms in Column I.

Question 33.

Column IColumn II
(i) Ex-ante Investment(a) Increase Bank rate
(ii) Ex-post Investment(b) AS curve is perfectly inelastic
(iii) Monetary Measure to Correct Disequilibrium(c) Actual Investment
(iv) Fiscal Measure to Correct Disequilibrium(d) Planned Investment
(v) Components of AD(e) Changes in Government expenditure
(vi) Components of AS(f) Consumption and Investment
(vii) Classical Concept of AS(g) Changing Cash Reserve Ratio
(viii) Keynesian Concept of AS(h) Consumption and Saving
(ix) To correct excess demand(i) AS curve is perfectly elastic
(x) To correct deficient demand(j) Increase government expenditure
Answer

Answer:

Column IColumn II
(i) Ex-ante Investment(d) Planned Investment
(ii) Ex-post Investment(c) Actual Investment
(iii) Monetary Measure to Correct Disequilibrium(g) Changing Cash Reserve Ratio
(iv) Fiscal Measure to Correct Disequilibrium(e) Changes in Government expenditure
(v) Components of AD(f) Consumption and Investment
(vi) Components of AS(h) Consumption and Saving
(vii) Classical Concept of AS(b) AS curve is perfectly inelastic
(viii) Keynesian Concept of AS(i) AS curve is perfectly elastic
(ix) To correct excess demand(a) Increase Bank rate
(x) To correct deficient demand(j) Increase government expenditure

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