Author name: Prasanna

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 5 Government Budget and the Economy with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Government Budget and the Economy Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Government Budget and the Economy Class 12 Objective Questions.

Government Budget and the Economy Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct alternative.

Question 1.
Which of the following is a non-tax revenue?
(a) export duty
(b) import duty
(c) dividends
(d) excise duty

Answer

Answer: (c) dividends

---

Question 2.
The primary deficit in a government budget is
(a) Revenue expenditure minus revenue receipts
(b) Total expenditure minus total receipts
(c) Revenue deficit minus interest payment
(d) Fiscal deficit minus interest payment

Answer

Answer: (d) Fiscal deficit minus interest payment

---

Question 3.
Direct tax is called direct because it is collected from the
(a) the producers on goods produced
(b) the sellers on goods sold
(c) the buyers of goods
(d) the income earners

Answer

Answer: (d) the income earners

---

Question 4.
The primary deficit in a government budget will be zero, when _______
(a) Revenue deficit is zero
(b) Net interest payments are zero
(c) Fiscal deficit is zero
(d) Fiscal deficit is equal to interest payment

Answer

Answer: (d) Fiscal deficit is equal to interest payment

---

Question 5.
Which one of these is a revenue expenditure?
(a) Purchase of an asset
(b) Loans advanced
(c) Subsidies
(d) Expenditure on acquisition of land

Answer

Answer: (c) Subsidies

---

Question 6.
Which one of the following is a combination of direct taxes?
(a) Excise duty and wealth tax
(b) Service tax and income tax
(c) Excise duty and service tax
(d) Wealth tax and income tax

Answer

Answer: (d) Wealth tax and income tax

---

Question 7.
Which of the following statement is true?
(a) Loan from IMF is a revenue receipt.
(b) Higher revenue deficit necessarily leads to higher fiscal deficit.
(c) Borrowings by the government represent a situation of fiscal deficit.
(d) Revenue deficit is the excess of capital received over the revenue receipts.

Answer

Answer: (c) Borrowings by the government represent a situation of fiscal deficit.

---

Question 8.
Which of the following is not a revenue receipt?
(a) Recovery of loans
(b) Foreign grants
(c) Profit of public enterprises
(d) Wealth tax

Answer

Answer: (a) Recovery of loans

---

Question 9.
Primary deficit is borrowing requirements of the government for payment(s)
(a) of interest
(b) other than interest
(c) of all types
(d) that are specific

Answer

Answer: (b) other than interest

---

Question 10.
Which of the following sources of receipts in the government budget increases its liabilities?
(a) Direct taxes
(b) Recovery of loans
(c) Borrowings
(d) Dividend from PSUs

Answer

Answer: (c) Borrowings

---

Question 11.
Which of the following is an indirect tax?
(a) Profit tax
(b) Wealth tax
(c) Custom duty
(d) Gift tax

Answer

Answer: (c) Custom duty

---

Question 12.
Borrowing in the government budget is
(a) revenue deficit
(b) fiscal deficit
(c) primary deficit
(d) deficit in taxes

Answer

Answer: (b) fiscal deficit

---

Fill in the blanks with the correct word.

Question 13.
Any debt from abroad involves a ________

Answer

Answer: burden

---

Question 14.
Deficit budget is that in which total expenditure is _______ total receipts.

Answer

Answer: greater than

---

Question 15.
_________ tax is that in which final burden of the tax falls on the person who pays it.

Answer

Answer: Direct

---

Question 16.
Government expenditure on Mid-Day Meal scheme running in government (state-run) schools is a type of _______ expenditure in the government budget.

Answer

Answer: revenue

---

Question 17.
The formula to calculate primary deficit is ________

Answer

Answer: Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payments

---

State whether the following statements are True or False. Give reasons.

Question 18.
Indirect taxes are not convenient to realize.

Answer

Answer: False
Indirect taxes are easy to realize since they are included in the prices of commodities.

---

Question 19.
Payment of salaries to the government employees is a capital payment.

Answer

Answer: False
Payment of salary is a revenue payment.

---

Question 20.
Expenditure made on the establishment of the Metro rail line in Delhi is a capital expenditure.

Answer

Answer: True
This expenditure has created assets.

---

Question 21.
Public borrowing is a capital receipt.

Answer

Answer: True
It creates liability for the government.

---

Question 22.
Recovery of loan is a revenue receipt.

Answer

Answer: False
It is a capital receipt as it reduces the asset of the government.

---

Question 23.
Sales tax is an indirect tax.

Answer

Answer: True
Its burden can be shifted on others.

---

Question 24.
Service tax is a direct tax.

Answer

Answer: False
It is an indirect tax as its burden can be shifted.

---

Question 25.
Grants by the government are treated as revenue expenditure.

Answer

Answer: True
All grants are treated as revenue expenditure of the government, even though some of them may lead to asset formation.

---

Question 26.
Excess of capital expenditure over capital receipt is called revenue deficit.

Answer

Answer: False
It is called a deficit in the capital budget.

---

Match the alternatives given in Column II with respective terms in Column I.

Question 27.

Column I	Column II
(i) Revenue Expenditure	(a) Recovery of loans
(ii) Capital Expenditure	(b) Tax revenue
(iii) Revenue Receipts	(c) Neither creates assets nor reduces liabilities
(iv) Capital Receipts	(d) Income tax
(v) Direct Tax	(e) Revenue receipt
(vi) Indirect Tax	(f) Excise duty
(vii) Borrowings from IMF	(g) Capital receipt
(viii) Dividends paid to the Government by Commercial Banks	(h) Either creates assets or reduces liabilities

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(i) Revenue Expenditure	(c) Neither creates assets nor reduces liabilities
(ii) Capital Expenditure	(h) Either creates assets or reduces liabilities
(iii) Revenue Receipts	(b) Tax revenue
(iv) Capital Receipts	(a) Recovery of loans
(v) Direct Tax	(d) Income tax
(vi) Indirect Tax	(f) Excise duty
(vii) Borrowings from IMF	(g) Capital receipt
(viii) Dividends paid to the Government by Commercial Banks	(e) Revenue receipt

---

Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 5 Government Budget and the Economy with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 12 Economics Government Budget and the Economy MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 6 Open Economy Macroeconomics with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Open Economy Macroeconomics Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Open Economy Macroeconomics Class 12 Objective Questions.

Open Economy Macroeconomics Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct alternative.

Question 1.
Other things remaining unchanged, when in a country the price of foreign currency rises, national income is:
(a) Likely to rise
(b) Likely to fall
(c) Likely to rise and fall both
(d) Not affected

Answer

Answer: (a) Likely to rise

---

Question 2.
Foreign exchange transactions dependent on other foreign exchange transactions are called:
(a) Current account transactions
(b) Capital account transactions
(c) Autonomous transactions
(d) Accommodating transactions

Answer

Answer: (d) Accommodating transactions

---

Question 3.
Other things remaining the same, when in a country the market price of foreign currency falls, national income is likely:
(a) to rise
(b) to fall
(c) to rise or to fall
(d) to remain unaffected

Answer

Answer: (b) to fall

---

Question 4.
Foreign exchange transactions which are independent of other transactions in the Balance of Payments Account are called:
(a) Current transactions
(b) Capital transactions
(c) Autonomous transactions
(d) Accommodating transactions

Answer

Answer: (c) Autonomous transactions

---

Question 5.
What is the cause of the devaluation of any country’s currency?
(a) Increase in the domestic inflation rate
(b) Domestic real interest rates are less than foreign interest rates
(c) Much increase in the income
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

---

Question 6.
The operation of daily nature in the foreign exchange market is known as
(a) Spot market
(b) Forward market
(c) Domestic market
(d) International market

Answer

Answer: (a) Spot market

---

Question 7.
The operation of future delivery in the foreign exchange market is known as
(a) Spot market
(b) Current market
(c) Forward market
(d) Domestic market

Answer

Answer: (c) Forward market

---

Question 8.
Trade of visible items between the countries is known as
(a) Balance of Payment
(b) Balance of Trade
(c) Deficit Balance
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Balance of Trade

---

Question 9.
When the import and export of visible items are equal, the situation is known as
(a) Balance of Trade
(b) Balance of Payment
(c) Trade Surplus
(d) Trade Deficit

Answer

Answer: (a) Balance of Trade

---

Question 10.
When there is a favourable balance of trade?
(a) X > M
(b) X = M
(c) X < M
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) X > M

---

Fill in the blanks with the correct word.

Question 11.
_______ rate of exchange refers to the rate of exchange as determined by the government.

Answer

Answer: Fixed

---

Question 12.
______ market deals with such sale and purchase of foreign exchange which are contracted today but are implemented sometimes in the future.

Answer

Answer: Forward

---

Question 13.
______ rate of exchange is also called the free rate of exchange.

Answer

Answer: Flexible

---

Question 14.
The balance of ______ is the difference between visible exports and visible imports.

Answer

Answer: trade

---

Question 15.
Balance of Payment has ______ accounts.

Answer

Answer: three

---

Question 16.
Balance of Payment is always ________

Answer

Answer: positive

---

Question 17.
If exports exceed imports, then BoP is ________

Answer

Answer: favourable

---

Question 18.
When exports are equal to imports, then it is the situation of _________

Answer

Answer: equilibrium

---

Question 19.
Balance of trade includes only ________ items.

Answer

Answer: visible

---

State whether the following statements are true or false. Give reasons.

Question 20.
The difference between the value of exports and imports of goods and services is called a trade balance.

Answer

Answer: False
Balance of trade refers to the relationship between the value of imports and exports of the goods of a country. It does not include invisible items such as services.

---

Question 21.
‘Managed Floating Exchange Rate is decided by market forces but remains within a specific range as decided by the central bank.’

Answer

Answer: True
In this system, the central bank intervenes to minimize fluctuation in the exchange rate.

---

Question 22.
Excess of foreign exchange receipts over foreign exchange payments on account of accommodating transactions equals deficit in the Balance of Payments.

Answer

Answer: False
Excess of foreign exchange receipts over foreign exchange payments on account of autonomous transactions equals deficit in the Balance of Payments.

---

Question 23.
Export and import of machines are recorded in the capital account of the Balance of Payments account.

Answer

Answer: False
Export and import of machines are not recorded in capital account as capital account transactions do not involve the movement of goods. Export and import of machines is a part of the Current Account.

---

Question 24.
The current account of Balance of Payments accounts records only exports and imports of goods and services.

Answer

Answer: False
The current account of the Balance of Payments account also records unilateral transfers along with exports and imports of goods and services.

---

Question 25.
Foreign investments are recorded in the capital account of Balance of Payments.

Answer

Answer: True
Foreign investments are recorded in the capital account of Balance of Payments as it involves a change in ownership of assets.

---

Question 26.
Banking and insurance are examples of visible items.

Answer

Answer: False
These are services and hence, are part of invisible items.

---

Match the alternatives given in Column II with respective terms in Column I.

Question 27.

Column I	Column II
(i) Items of Current Account	(a) Includes only visible items
(ii) Items of Capital Account	(b) Above the line items
(iii) Balance of Trade	(c) Unilateral transfers
(iv) Current Account Balance	(d) Exports will increase
(v) Autonomous Transactions	(e) Imports will increase
(vi) Accommodating Transactions	(f) Portfolio Investment
(vii) Effect of appreciation of the domestic currency	(g) Below the line items
(viii) Effect of depreciation of the domestic currency	(h) Includes visible and invisible items

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(i) Items of Current Account	(c) Unilateral transfers
(ii) Items of Capital Account	(f) Portfolio Investment
(iii) Balance of Trade	(a) Includes only visible items
(iv) Current Account Balance	(h) Includes visible and invisible items
(v) Autonomous Transactions	(b) Above the line items
(vi) Accommodating Transactions	(g) Below the line items
(vii) Effect of appreciation of the domestic currency	(e) Imports will increase
(viii) Effect of depreciation of the domestic currency	(d) Exports will increase

---

Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 6 Open Economy Macroeconomics with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 12 Economics Open Economy Macroeconomics MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 1 Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence Class 12 Objective Questions.

Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct alternative.

Question 1.
In the history of demographic transition, which year is regarded as the year of the great divide?
(a) 1901
(b) 1902
(c) 1921
(d) 1923

Answer

Answer: (c) 1921

---

Question 2.
When were the railways Introduced in India?
(a) 1769
(b) 1825
(c) 1850
(d) 1875

Answer

Answer: (c) 1850

---

Question 3.
The first census data was collected during British rule.
(a) 1891
(b) 1881
(c) 1950
(d) 1850

Answer

Answer: (b) 1881

---

Question 4.
At the time of independence, most of the land was owned by _________
(a) farmers
(b) zamindars
(c) labour
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (b) zamindars

---

Question 5.
What was the life expectancy in India during the British rule?
(a) 65
(b) 38
(c) 32
(d) 44

Answer

Answer: (d) 44

---

Question 6.
During colonial period India’s demographic profile showed ________
(a) high birth rate
(b) low death rate
(c) low infant mortality rate
(d) high literacy rate

Answer

Answer: (a) high birth rate

---

Question 7.
Indian economy on the eve of Independence was ________
(a) underdeveloped
(b) developing
(c) stagnant
(d) semi-feudal

Answer

Answer: (a) underdeveloped

---

Question 8.
Suez Canal was opened for transport in _________
(a) 1850
(b) 1853
(c) 1869
(d) 1901

Answer

Answer: (c) 1869

---

Question 9.
Who made significant estimates about calculating national income in India during the British period?
(a) V.K.R.V. Rao
(b) Dadabhai Naoroji
(c) Findlay Shirras
(d) William Digby

Answer

Answer: (a) V.K.R.V. Rao

---

Fill in the blanks with the correct word.

Question 10.
The country’s growth of aggregate real output was less than _____ during the first half of the twentieth century.

Answer

Answer: two percent

---

Question 11.
The Indian economy was a/an _______ economy at the time of Independence.

Answer

Answer: agrarian

---

Question 12.
_______ of agriculture increased the burden of revenue on farmers.

Answer

Answer: Commercialisation

---

Question 13.
The distribution of the working population in different sectors of the economy offers a glimpse of ______ structure.

Answer

Answer: occupational

---

Question 14.
The second stage of demographic transition began after ________ in India.

Answer

Answer: 1921

---

Question 15.
Indian economy served as a source of ______ for the British industry and a market for its finished goods.

Answer

Answer: raw material

---

Question 16.
_______ were developed by the British Raj as a means to enlarge the size of the market for the British goods.

Answer

Answer: Railways

---

Question 17.
The British introduced the railways in India in __________

Answer

Answer: 1850

---

Question 18.
The ________ sector accounted for only 17.2 percent of the working population on the eve of Independence.

Answer

Answer: tertiary/service

---

Question 19.
India’s first official census was undertaken in _________

Answer

Answer: 1881

---

State whether the following statements are True or False.

Question 20.
India was a prosperous and wealthy economy prior to the advent of British rule.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 21.
The colonial rule destroyed India’s traditional handicraft industry.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 22.
The economic policies pursued by the colonial government in India were concerned more with the protection and promotion of the economic interests of India.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 23.
India was reduced to an importer of primary products.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 24.
The contribution of the new industrial sector to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) expanded significantly during the British rule.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 25.
The aim of developing postal and telegraph was to enhance the efficiency of the British administration.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Match the alternatives given in Column II with respective terms in Column I.

Question 26.

Column I	Column II
(i) The year of the Great Divide	(a) 1850
(ii) British introduced railways in India	(b) 1912
(iii) Overall literacy on the eve of Independence	(c) 1869
(iv) Female literacy on the eve of Independence	(d) 16 percent
(v) TISCO plant began production	(e) 7 percent
(vi) The Suez Canal opened	(f) 1921

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(i) The year of the Great Divide	(f) 1921
(ii) British introduced railways in India	(a) 1850
(iii) Overall literacy on the eve of Independence	(d) 16 percent
(iv) Female literacy on the eve of Independence	(e) 7 percent
(v) TISCO plant began production	(b) 1912
(vi) The Suez Canal opened	(c) 1869

---

Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 1 Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 12 Economics Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 2 Indian Economy 1950-1990 with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Indian Economy 1950-1990 Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Indian Economy 1950-1990 Class 12 Objective Questions.

Indian Economy 1950-1990 Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct alternative.

Question 1.
Which one of the following measures was not a part of tenancy reforms?
(a) fixation of land ceiling
(b) regulation of rent
(c) ownership rights for tenants
(d) security of tenure

Answer

Answer: (a) fixation of land ceiling

---

Question 2.
Which of the following industry was not reserved for the government in Industrial Policy Resolution, 1956?
(a) Iron and steel
(b) Transport
(c) Atomic energy
(d) Railway transport

Answer

Answer: (a) Iron and steel

---

Question 3.
The motive behind the introduction of land reforms in India was __________
(a) self-sufficiency in food grains
(b) agricultural development
(c) equity in agriculture
(d) industrial development

Answer

Answer: (c) equity in agriculture

---

Question 4.
When was NITI Aayog established?
(a) 1991
(b) 2001
(c) 2011
(d) 2015

Answer

Answer: (d) 2015

---

Question 5.
Land ceiling refers to _________
(a) fixing rural landholding at the existing level
(b) fixing the quantum of land held by an individual
(c) fixing urban landholdings at the existing level
(d) fixing land area for irrigation purposes

Answer

Answer: (b) fixing the quantum of land held by an individual

---

Question 6.
In which of the following types of economy are resources owned privately and the main objective behind economic activities is profit-making?
(a) Capitalist
(b) Socialist
(c) Mixed
(d) Global

Answer

Answer: (a) Capitalist

---

Question 7.
Which of the following is the main objective of carrying out various economic activities?
(a) Profit
(b) Public welfare
(c) Competition
(d) Equality

Answer

Answer: (b) Public welfare

---

Question 8.
When was the National Development Council (NDC) set up as an adjunct to the Planning Commission?
(a) 1950
(b) 1969
(c) 1952
(d) 1979

Answer

Answer: (c) 1952

---

Question 9.
What is needed to provide protection against natural calamities like floods, drought, locusts, thunderstorms, etc.?
(a) Multiple cropping
(b) Green Revolution
(c) Crop insurance
(d) HYV

Answer

Answer: (c) Crop insurance

---

Question 10.
How many industries have been reserved for the public sector under Industrial Policy Resolution, 1956?
(a) 17
(b) 21
(c) 15
(d) 2

Answer

Answer: (a) 17

---

Fill in the blanks with the correct word.

Question 11.
________ planning includes all spheres of economic and social activities.

Answer

Answer: Comprehensive

---

Question 12.
________ is the Chairman of the Planning Commission.

Answer

Answer: Prime Minister

---

Question 13.
Full employment and equitable distribution of income and wealth are the _______ objectives of planning in India.

Answer

Answer: long-term

---

Question 14.
__________ combined with social justice is the principal goal of planning in India.

Answer

Answer: Economic growth

---

Question 15.
Modernisation means adoption of new technology and a change in __________

Answer

Answer: social outlook

---

Question 16.
Planning in India started with a heavy reliance on the _________ sector.

Answer

Answer: Public

---

Question 17.
Land Reforms were introduced to make tillers the owners of the land and bring about __________ in agriculture.

Answer

Answer: equity

---

Question 18.
Import Substitution policy was introduced to protect the _________ from foreign competition.

Answer

Answer: domestic industries

---

State whether the following statements are True or False.

Question 19.
In a capitalist economy, production takes place for selling the output in the market with a profit motive.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 20.
Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru and many other leaders favoured capitalism for independent India.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 21.
Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru is regarded as the architect of Indian planning.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 22.
Land Reforms were introduced to make tillers the owners of the land.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 23.
Under Industrial Policy Resolution (IPR), 1956, Category II of the industrial sector includes industries jointly owned and controlled by the private sector and the state.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 24.
Quotas are tax on imported goods while tariffs specify the number of goods which can be imported.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Match the alternatives given in Column II with respective terms in Column I.

Question 25.

Column I	Column II
(i) Objective of the capitalist economy	(a) 1956
(ii) Objective of a socialist economy	(b) Controlled and managed by the government
(iii) Private Sector	(c) 1952
(iv) Public Sector	(d) 1950
(v) Adoption of Industrial Policy Resolution	(e) Maximising social welfare
(vi) Industrial licensing started in India	(f) 2015
(vii) Constitution of Planning Commission	(g) 1967-68
(viii) Establishment of NITI Aayog	(h) Controlled and managed by individuals
(ix) Introduction of New Industrial Policy	(i) 1991
(x) Introduction of Green Revolution	(j) Profit

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(i) Objective of capitalist economy	(j) Profit
(ii) Objective of socialist economy	(e) Maximising social welfare
(iii) Private Sector	(h) Controlled and managed by individuals
(iv) Public Sector	(b) Controlled and managed by government
(v) Adoption of Industrial Policy Resolution	(a) 1956
(vi) Industrial licensing started in India	(c) 1952
(vii) Constitution of Planning Commission	(d) 1950
(viii) Establishment of NITI Aayog	(f) 2015
(ix) Introduction of New Industrial Policy	(i) 1991
(x) Introduction of Green Revolution	(g) 1967-68

---

Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 2 Indian Economy 1950-1990 with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 12 Economics Indian Economy 1950-1990 MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

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Hydrocarbons Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Hydrocarbons Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 13 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Hydrocarbons Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 13 Chemistry Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
Which of the following compounds will exhibit geometrical isomerism?
(a) 1 – Phenyl – 2 – butene
(b) 3 – Phenyl – 1 – butene
(c) 2 – Phenyl – 1 butene
(d) 1, 1 – Diphenyl – propene.

Answer

Answer: (a) 1 – Phenyl – 2 – butene
Explanation:
C₆H₅CH₂−CH=CH−CH₃ (1-phenyl-2-butene) exhibits the phenomenon of geometrical isomerism due to C_ab = C_ad structure, so its two isomers are possible which are given are follow:

---

Question 2.
Hydrocarbon containing following bond is most reactive
(a) C ≡ C
(b) C = C
(c) C – C
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) C≡C
Explanation:
−C≡C−is most reactive because sp-hybridization.

---

Question 3.
A gas decolourised by KMno4 solution but gives no precipitate with ammoniacal cuprous chloride is
(a) Ethene
(b) Propane
(c) Propene
(d) Methane

Answer

Answer: (a) Ethene
Explanation:
A gas decolourised by KMno4 solution but gives no precipitate with ammoniacal cuprous chloride is Ethene

---

Question 4.
A dibromo derivative of an alkane reacts with sodium metal to form an alicyclic hydrocarbon. The derivative is _______
(a) 1, 4-dibromobutane
(b) 1, 2-dibromoethane
(c) carbon
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) 1, 4-dibromobutane
Explanation:
A dibromo derivative of an alkane reacts with sodium metal to form an alicyclic hydrocarbon. The derivative is 1, 4-dibromobutane.

---

Question 5.
Reaction of HBr with propene in the presence of peroxide gives:
(a) 3 – Bromo propane
(b) Allyl bromide
(c) n – Propyl bromide
(d) Isoproyl bromide

Answer

Answer: (c) n – Propyl bromide

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Question 6.
Which branched chain isomer of the hydrocarbon with molecular mass 72u gives only one isomer of mono substituted alkyl halide?
(a) Neopentane
(b) Carbon
(c) Isohexane
(d) Neohexane

Answer

Answer: (a) Neopentane
Explanation:
Neopentane chain isomer of the hydrocarbon with molecular mass 72u gives only one isomer of mono substituted alkyl halide.

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Question 7.
Aromatic compounds burn with a sooty flame because?
(a) They have a ring structure of carbon atoms
(b) They have a relatively high percentage of hydrogen
(c) They have a relatively high percentage of carbon
(d) They resist reaction with oxygen of air

Answer

Answer: (c) They have a relatively high percentage of carbon
Explanation:
Due to the high percentage of carbon, a lot of carbon remains unburnt and escapes as fine particles called soot.

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Question 8.
The lowest alkene, that is capable of exhibiting geometrical isomerism is
(a) Ethene
(b) But – 1- ene
(c) But – 2 – ene
(d) Propene

Answer

Answer: (c) But – 2 – ene
Explanation:
The lowest alkene which is capable of exhibiting geometrical isomerism is 2-Butene

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Question 9.
Which one of these is NOT TRUE for benzene?
(a) Heat of hydrogenation of benzene is less than the theoretical value
(b) There are three carbon-carbon single bonds and three carbon-carbon double bonds
(c) It forms only one type of monosubstituted product
(d) The bond angle between carbon-carbon bonds is 120o

Answer

Answer: (b) There are three carbon-carbon single bonds and three carbon-carbon double bonds
Explanation:
The structure of benzene is

Bond order = (number of bonds) /(number of resonating structures) = (4/3) = 1.33
Since, the bond order is in between single and double bond, thus it contains delocalised n bonds. Hence, it is not possible to obtain number of single and double bonds in benzene.

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Question 10.
Ethyl benzene cannot be prepared by _____.
(a) Wurtz Reaction
(b) Wurtz Fittig reaction
(c) Clemmensen Reduction
(d) Carbon

Answer

Answer: (a) Wurtz Reaction
Explanation:
Ethyl benzene cannot be prepared by Wurtz Reaction.

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Question 11.
Propyne on polymerization yields
(a) Mesitylene
(b) Benzene
(c) Ethyl benzene
(d) Propyl benzene.

Answer

Answer: (a) Mesitylene
Explanation:
This process is similar to the process of obtaining benzene by trimerisation of ethyne.If ethyne is substituted by propyne leading to the formation of mesitylene.

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Question 12.
A gas decolourised by KMno4 solution but gives no precipitate with ammoniacal cuprous chloride is
(a) Ethene
(b) Propane
(c) Propene
(d) Methane

Answer

Answer: (a) Ethene
Explanation:
A gas decolourised by KMno4 solution but gives no precipitate with ammoniacal cuprous chloride is Ethene

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Question 13.
Among the following compounds the one that is most reactive towards electrophilic nitration is
(a) Toluene
(b) Benzene
(c) Benzoic Acid
(d) Nitrobenzene

Answer

Answer: (a) Toluene
Explanation:
Toluene contains electron donating methyl group which shows +I effect and increases the electron density on benzene ring thus making it suitable for electrophilic substitution reaction.

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Question 14.
HBr reacts with CH₂ = CH – OCH₃ under anhydrous conditions at room temperature to give
(a) CH₃CHO and CH₃Br
(b) BrCH₂CHO and CH₃OH
(c) BrCH₂ – CH₂ – OCH₃
(d) H₃C – CHBr – OCH₃

Answer

Answer: (d) H₃C – CHBr – OCH₃
Explanation:
Methyl vinyl ether is a very reactive gas. It is hydrolysed rapidly by dilute acids at room temperature to give methanol and aldehyde. However, under anhydrous conditions at room temperature, it undergoes many addition reactions at the double bond.

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Question 15.
The angle strain in cyclobutane is
(a) 24°44
(b) 29°16
(c) 19°22
(d) 9°44

Answer

Answer: (d) 9°44
Explanation:
According to Baeyers strain theory, the amount of the strain is directly proportional to the angle through which a valency bond has deviated from its normal position. i.e., Amount of deviation) in cyclobutane (d) = (109°28 − 90°)/(2) = 9°44

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Question 16.
The lowest alkene, that is capable of exhibiting geometrical isomerism is
(a) Ethene
(b) But – 1- ene
(c) But – 2 – ene
(d) Propene.

Answer

Answer: (c) But – 2 – ene
Explanation:
The lowest alkene which is capable of exhibiting geometrical isomerism is 2-Butene

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Question 17.
A dibromo derivative of an alkane reacts with sodium metal to form an alicyclic hydrocarbon. The derivative is ______.
(a) 2, 2-dibromobutane
(b) 1, 1-dibromopropane
(c) 1, 4-dibromobutane
(d) 1, 2-dibromoethane

Answer

Answer: (c) 1, 4-dibromobutane
Explanation:
The derivative is 1,4 dibromobutane. This on reaction with sodium metal gives cyclobutane.

This reaction is an example of internal Wurtz reaction.

---

Question 18.
Phenyl magnesium bromide reacts with methanol to give
(a) A mixture of Benzene and Mg(OME) Br
(b) A mixture of Propane and Mg(OME) Br
(c) A mixture of Methane and Mg(OME) Br
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) A mixture of Benzene and Mg(OME) Br
Explanation:
Phenyl magnesium bromide reacts with methanol to give a mixture of benzene and Mg(OME)Br.

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Question 19.
A gas decolourised by KMnO₄ solution but gives no precipitate with ammoniacal cuprous chloride is
(a) Ethane
(b) Methane
(c) Ethene
(d) Acetylene

Answer

Answer: (c) Ethene
Explanation:
A gas decolourised by KMnO₄ solution but gives no precipitate with ammonical cuprous chloride is ethene CH₂ = CH₂. Since it contains carbon-carbon double bond, it reacts with KMnO₄. to form vicinal diol. Hence, KMnO₄ is decolourised.
CH₂ = CH₂ + H₂O +(O) à HO-CH₂-CH₂-OH
Acetylene gives a precipitate with ammonical cuprous chloride.

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Question 20.
When cyclohexane is poured on water, it floats because
(a) Cyclohexane is in boat form
(b) Cyclohexane is in chair form
(c) Cyclohexane is in crown fromorm
(d) Cyclohexane is less dense than water.

Answer

Answer: (d) Cyclohexane is less dense than water.
Explanation:
As alkanes and cycloalkanes are non-polar molecules and are insoluble in H₂O they are also denser than H₂O and that is why can float on water.

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Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation: An Appraisal Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct alternative.

Question 1.
Economic reforms were introduced in India in the year _________
(a) 1991
(b) 1992
(c) 2001
(d) 2005

Answer

Answer: (a) 1991

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Question 2.
Make in India programme was launched in __________
(a) 1991
(b) 2014
(c) 2015
(d) 2016

Answer

Answer: (b) 2014

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Question 3.
MUDRA Bank was set up to meet the credit needs of the _________
(a) farmers
(b) small enterprises
(c) large enterprises
(d) exporters

Answer

Answer: (b) small enterprises

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Question 4.
Which of the following replaced MRTP Act?
(a) Competition Act
(b) Foreign Exchange Management Act
(c) New Companies Act
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Competition Act

---

Question 5.
To provide refinance facilities to micro-units, an agency named MUDRA was established by the government. In which year this agency was set up?
(a) 1991
(b) 1999
(c) 2005
(d) 2015

Answer

Answer: (d) 2015

---

Question 6.
At present how many industries are exclusively reserved for the public sector in India?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five

Answer

Answer: (b) Three

---

Question 7.
At present the number of industries requiring company licensing is __________
(a) Eight
(b) Six
(c) Four
(d) Five

Answer

Answer: (d) Five

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Question 8.
GST has been implemented from __________
(a) April 1, 2018
(b) January 1, 2018
(c) January 1, 2017
(d) July 1, 2017

Answer

Answer: (d) July 1, 2017

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Question 9.
When did the Gulf Crisis take place?
(a) 1985
(b) 1990-91
(c) 1995
(d) 1975

Answer

Answer: (b) 1990-91

---

Question 10.
How much loan was provided by World Bank and IMF during the nineties to bail India out of the crisis?
(a) $10 million
(b) $10 billion
(c) $7 billion
(d) $20 billion

Answer

Answer: (c) $7 billion

---

Question 11.
For how many industries, licensing is still necessary?
(a) 7
(b) 6
(c) 9
(d) 10

Answer

Answer: (b) 6

---

Question 12.
How many industries are entirely reserved for the public sector?
(a) 6
(b) 10
(c) 2
(d) 4

Answer

Answer: (c) 2

---

Question 13.
What is the investment limit in small scale industries?
(a) 50 lakh
(b) 1 crore
(c) 25 lakh
(d) 75 crore

Answer

Answer: (b) 1 crore

---

Question 14.
Who is the Chairman of the GST Council?
(a) Finance Minister
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Finance Secretary
(d) Deputy Chairman of NITI Aayog

Answer

Answer: (a) Finance Minister

---

Fill in the blanks with the correct word.

Question 15.
India met with the economic crisis in 1991 as it failed to repay its _______ from abroad.

Answer

Answer: borrowings

---

Question 16.
________ is the excess of expenditure (borrowings) over income.

Answer

Answer: Deficit

---

Question 17.
To overcome the crisis, India approached IMF and World Bank for _________

Answer

Answer: loan

---

Question 18.
Fiscal policy refers to the revenue and expenditure policy of the government to achieve _______ development in the economy.

Answer

Answer: balanced

---

Question 19.
Trade policy reforms led to the removal of export duties to ________ India’s competitive position.

Answer

Answer: increase

---

Question 20.
India has become an important destination for global _________ since the reforms.

Answer

Answer: outsourcing

---

Question 21.
Trade between two countries is called ________ trade.

Answer

Answer: bilateral

---

Question 22.
Industrial sector has experienced ________ in growth pattern.

Answer

Answer: fluctuations

---

State whether the following statements are True or False.

Question 23.
The crisis led to a rise in the prices of essential goods.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 24.
Reserve Bank of India announced New Economic Policy as a condition to support the Indian economy.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 25.
Opening up the economy by removing restrictions on the private sector is called globalization.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 26.
Industrial licensing was abolished on all products except on those which were important from a profit point of view.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 27.
The rupee was devalued to resolve the balance of payments crisis.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 28.
Private ownership is capable of utilizing capital and other resources more efficiently.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 29.
GATT is the successor to the WTO.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 30.
Opening up of the economy resulted in a rapid increase in FDI and foreign exchange reserves.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Match the alternatives given in Column II with respective terms in Column I.

Question 31.

Column I	Column II
(i) Liberalisation	(a) Removing trade restrictions
(ii) Privatisation	(b) July 2017
(iii) Globalisation	(c) Collected on inter-state sale
(iv) Tariff barriers	(d) Removing restrictions on the private sector
(v) Non-tariff barrier	(e) Imposing excise duty on imports
(vi) Introduction of New Economic Policy in India	(f) November 2016
(vii) Implementation of GST in India	(g) Reducing the role of the government
(viii) Demonetisation took place in India	(h) Fixing quotas restrictions
(ix) SGST	(i) Collected on intra-state sale
(x) IGST	(j) 1991

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(i) Liberalisation	(d) Removing restrictions on the private sector
(ii) Privatisation	(g) Reducing the role of the government
(iii) Globalisation	(a) Removing trade restrictions
(iv) Tariff barriers	(e) Imposing excise duty on imports
(v) Non-tariff barrier	(h) Fixing quotas restrictions
(vi) Introduction of New Economic Policy in India	(j) 1991
(vii) Implementation of GST in India	(b) July 2017
(viii) Demonetisation took place in India	(f) November 2016
(ix) SGST	(i) Collected on intra-state sale
(x) IGST	(c) Collected on inter-state sale

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