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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 14 Environmental Chemistry with Answers

MCQ Questions /

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 14 Environmental Chemistry with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Environmental Chemistry Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Environmental Chemistry Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Environmental Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 14 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Environmental Chemistry Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 14 Chemistry Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
Who sediment of suspended matter occurs?
(a) When soil is eroded from the air
(b) When soil is eroded from the land
(c) When soil is eroded from the water
(d) When soil is eroded from the rock

Answer

Answer: (b) When soil is eroded from the land
Explanation:
Sediment of suspended matter occurs when the soil is eroded from the land. High levels of soil particles which are suspended in water interfere with the penetration of sunlight. This reduces the photosynthetic activity of aquatic plants and algae.

Question 2:
A secondary pollutant is?
(a) O3
(b) CO
(c) CH4
(d) Pb

Answer

Answer: (a) O3
Explanation:
Primary pollutants include ammonia, sulfur dioxide, nitrogen dioxide and carbon monoxide. Secondary pollutants include ground-level ozone, acid rain and nutrient enrichment compounds.
So, the correct option is O3.

Question 3.
Which is most harmful for life on globe?
(a) Deforestation
(b) Soil Erosion
(c) Increasing Desert
(d) Nuclear Fallout

Answer

Answer: (d) Nuclear Fallout
Explanation:
Nuclear fallout, or simply fallout, is the residual radioactive material propelled into the upper atmosphere following a nuclear blast or a nuclear reaction conducted in an unshielded facility, so called because it “falls out” of the sky after the explosion and the shock wave have passed. While deforestation, soil erosion and increasing deserts can be controlled, nuclear fallout causes genetic mutation in humans and destruction that cannot be controlled or cured.

Question 4.
Excess nitrate in drinking water can cause
(a) methemoglobinemia
(b) kidney damage
(c) liver damage
(d) laxative effect

Answer

Answer: (a) methemoglobinemia
Explanation:
Excessive concentration of nitrate in drinking water is harmful and can cause methemoglobinemia (blue baby syndrome).

Question 5.
What is the main reason for thermal pollution?
(a) Increase in the temperature of the ecosystem
(b) Increase in the chemical contains in water
(c) Hot water released by power plants and industries
(d) Pollution causing by vehicles

Answer

Answer: (c) Hot water released by power plants and industries
Explanation:
The hot water released by power plants and industries that use large volumes of water to cool the plant. This result in a rise in temperature of the water bodies, due to this thermal pollution occurs.

Question 6.
Water sample is reported to be highly polluted if BOD (Biological Oxygen Demand) value of sample becomes
(a) more than 17 ppm.
(b) equal to 10 ppm.
(c) equal to 5 ppm.
(d) less than 5 ppm.

Answer

Answer: (a) more than 17 ppm.
Explanation:
Water sample is reported to be highly polluted if BOD value of sample is more than 17ppm.

Question 7.
The pollutants released by jet aeroplanes in the atmosphere as fluorocarbons are called
(a) Photochemical oxidants
(b) Photochemical reductants
(c) Aerosols
(d) Physical pollutants

Answer

Answer: (c) Aerosols
Explanation:
Aerosols are emitted into the air in the form of vapour or fine mist. Jet airplanes emit aerosols containing chlorofluorocarbons (CCl2F2) and (CCl3F). The aerosols deplete ozone layer in the atmosphere.

Question 8.
The birds lay eggs with shells that are much thinner than normal is an example of _________
(a) Bioaccumulation
(b) Mutation
(c) DNA sequence
(d) Mal nutrients

Answer

Answer: (a) Bioaccumulation
Explanation:
The pesticides that eat by an organism keep on moving in an aquatic food chain. At each link in the food chain, these chemicals which do not pass out of the body get accumulated and cause bioaccumulation. High levels of pesticides such as DDT can cause thin shells in bird eggs.

Question 9.
Which among the following is bio – degradable pollutant?
(a) Lead compounds
(b) Mercuric salts
(c) Pesticides
(d) Domestic wastes.

Answer

Answer: (d) Domestic wastes.
Explanation:
Those pollutants which can be broken down into simpler, harmless, substances in nature in due course of time (by the action of micro-organisms like certain bacteria) are called biodegradable pollutants. Domestic wastes (garbage), urine, faecal matter, sewage, agriculture residues, paper, wood, cloth, cattle dung, animal bones, leather, wool, vegetable stuff or plants are biodegradable pollutants.

Question 10.
The substance having the largest concentration in acid rain?
(a) H2CO3
(b) HNO3
(c) HCl
(d) H2SO4

Answer

Answer: (d) H2SO4
Explanation:
Acid rain contains H2SO4 > HNO3 > HCl

Question 11.
Which of the following is most abundant hydrocarbon pollutant?
(a) Butane
(b) Ethane
(c) Methane
(d) Propane

Answer

Answer: (c) Methane
Explanation:
Most abundant hydrocarbon pollutant is methane.

Question 12.
In Antarctica, ozone depletion is due to the formation of the following compounds
(a) Acroline
(b) Peroxy acetyl nitrate
(c) SO2 and SO3
(d) Chlorine nitrate

Answer

Answer: (d) Chlorine nitrate
Explanation:
In Antarctica ozone depletion is caused due to the formation a chlorine compound called chlorine nitrate.

Question 13.
Synthesis of ethanal commercially from which of the following reagent is the part of green chemistry?
(a) CH3CH2OH
(b) CH2 = CH2
(c) HC≡CH
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (b) CH2 = CH2

Question 14.
Lung diseases are four times more in urban areas than rural areas. This is due to presence of which of the following in atmosphere?
(a) CO2
(b) SO2
(c) N2
(d) O2.

Answer

Answer: (b) SO2
Explanation:
SO2 is formed as a major pollutant. So, lung diseases are four times more in urban areas than in rural areas.

Question 15.
In which of the following regions hydrogen and helium are found
(a) Stratosphere
(b) Mesosphere
(c) Exosphere
(d) Troposphere

Answer

Answer: (c) Exosphere
Explanation:
H2, He and ionic oxygen are present in exosphere.

Question 16.
Which of the following organisms found in human waste that cause water pollution?
(a) Coliform bacteria
(b) Coliform bacteria
(c) Protozoa
(d) Parasitic worms

Answer

Answer: (a) Coliform bacteria
Explanation:
Humans waste contains concentrated populations of coliform bacteria such as Escherichia coli and Streptococcus faecalis. These bacteria normally grow in the large intestine of the human body. Releasing of such wastes to water cause pollution in water bodies.

Question 17.
One of the following is the chief source of water and soil pollution
(a) Agro industry
(b) Mining
(c) Thermal power stations
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Thermal power stations
Explanation:
Thermal power plant, agro industry and mining all are responsible for soil and water pollution. (Due to extraction of chemicals which cause pollution)

Question 18.
Which among the following does not cause water pollution?
(a) Automoblie exhaust
(b) Plant nutrients
(c) Oxygen demanding wastes
(d) Disease causing agents .

Answer

Answer: (a) Automoblie exhaust
Explanation:
Automoblie exhaust causes air pollution not the water pollution.

Question 19.
The non-viable particulate among the following is
(a) Dust
(b) Bacteria
(c) Moulds
(d) Fungi

Answer

Answer: (a) Dust
Explanation:
Dust is the particulate matter that causes choking and air pollution. Its allergic to people suffering from lungs diseases.
Bacteria, moulds and fungi can be sometimes useful for us.
Hence, option (1) is correct.

Question 20.
Why thermal pollution causing the release of hot water by power plants is dangerous?
(a) They increase the solubility of oxygen
(b) They decrease the solubility of oxygen
(c) They dont dissolve oxygen
(d) They dissolve nitrogen

Answer

Answer: (b) They decrease the solubility of oxygen
Explanation:
Hot water released by power plants and industries warm water bodies those which are connected to power plants and industries. This warm water decreases the solubility of oxygen and it changes the breeding cycles of various aquatic organisms.

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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 5 Human Capital Formation in India with Answers

MCQ Questions /

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 5 Human Capital Formation in India with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Human Capital Formation in India Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Human Capital Formation in India Class 12 Objective Questions.

Human Capital Formation in India Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct alternative.

Question 1.
Which of the following is not an example of physical capital?
(a) Machinery
(b) Raw material
(c) Building
(d) Education and knowledge in people

Answer

Answer: (d) Education and knowledge in people

Question 2.
________ five-year plan recognized the importance of human capital.
(a) Seventh
(b) Third
(c) Eight
(d) Sixth

Answer

Answer: (a) Seventh

Question 3.
Which one of the following is a reason for poor human capital formation in India?
(a) Brain drain
(b) Insufficient resources
(c) High growth of population
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 4.
How much educational cess has been imposed by the government on all Union taxes?
(a) 1 %
(b) 2%
(c) 4%
(d) 5%

Answer

Answer: (b) 2%

Question 5.
Which one of the following is a major source of human capital formation in the country?
(a) Expenditure on education
(b) Expenditure on infrastructure
(c) Expenditure on defense
(d) Expenditure on energy

Answer

Answer: (a) Expenditure on education

Question 6.
The objective of midday meal scheme is __________
(a) to boost universalisation of primary education
(b) to boost the nutritional status of children in schools
(c) to increase enrolment attendance and retention, and also improving the nutritional status of children in school
(d) to boost universalisation of upper primary level of education

Answer

Answer: (c) to increase enrolment attendance and retention, and also improving nutritional status of children in school

Fill in the blanks with the correct word.

Question 7.
Human capital is a ________ process.

Answer

Answer: social

Question 8.
_______ is the reason for the rural-urban migration in India.

Answer

Answer: Unemployment

Question 9.
_______ capital is completely mobile between countries.

Answer

Answer: Physical

Question 10.
________ means the increase in real national income of a country.

Answer

Answer: Economic growth

Question 11.
Human capital considers education and health as a means to increase ________

Answer

Answer: productivity

Question 12.
India has the potential to become a leading _______ economy.

Answer

Answer: knowledge-based

Question 13.
______ is the prime funding authority for university education.

Answer

Answer: UGC

Question 14.
Expenditure per student in ________ education is higher than that of elementary.

Answer

Answer: tertiary

State whether the following statements are True or False.

Question 15.
Preventive medicine includes medical practices that are designed to avoid or avert diseases.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 16.
Physical capital is inseparable from its owner.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 17.
Human capital treats humans as ends in themselves.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 18.
Indian Council for Medical Research is responsible for the promotion of health and family welfare programmes.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 19.
Elementary education takes a major share of total education expenditure in India.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 20.
The level of unemployment among educated youth is the highest.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 21.
The differences in literacy rates between males and females are widening.

Answer

Answer: False

Match the alternatives given in Column II with respective terms in Column I.

Question 22.

Column IColumn II
(i) Physical capital formation(a) Social process
(ii) Human capital formation(b) Spread of health literacy
(iii) Preventive medicine(c) Mortality rate
(iv) Curative medicine(d) Economic and technical process
(v) Social medicine(e) Primary completion rate
(vi) Indicators of educational achievement(f) Interventions during illness
(vii) Indicators of the health status of a country(g) Vaccination
Answer

Answer:

Column IColumn II
(i) Physical capital formation(d) Economic and technical process
(ii) Human capital formation(a) Social process
(iii) Preventive medicine(g) Vaccination
(iv) Curative medicine(f) Interventions during illness
(v) Social medicine(b) Spread of health literacy
(vi) Indicators of educational achievement(e) Primary completion rate
(vii) Indicators of the health status of a country(c) Mortality rate

Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 5 Human Capital Formation in India with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 12 Economics Human Capital Formation in India MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 6 Rural Development with Answers

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Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 6 Rural Development with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Rural Development Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Rural Development Class 12 Objective Questions.

Rural Development Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct alternative.

Question 1.
The problems faced in rural banking are
(a) Insufficient rural credit
(b) Growing overdue
(c) Inadequate amount of sanction
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 2.
_______ is the apex body which coordinates the functioning of different financial institutions working for the expansion of rural credit.
(a) NABARD
(b) Self-help Groups
(c) Regional Rural Banks
(d) Commercial Banks

Answer

Answer: (a) NABARD

Question 3.
The scheme of microfinance is extended through _________
(a) Self-help Groups
(b) Land Development Banks
(c) NABARD
(d) Regional Rural Banks

Answer

Answer: (a) Self-help Groups

Question 4.
Name the state which is held as a success story in the efficient implementation of milk cooperative.
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Gujarat
(d) Andhra Pradesh

Answer

Answer: (c) Gujarat

Question 5.
Which one of the following is not a non-institutional source of credit?
(a) Moneylenders
(b) Relatives
(c) Traders and commission agents
(d) Land Development Bank

Answer

Answer: (d) Land Development Bank

Question 6.
Why is the minimum support price fixed by the government?
(a) For the government’s own benefit
(b) To safeguard the interest of farmers
(c) To save the interest of consumers
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) To safeguard the interest of farmers

Question 7.
Blue revolution is associated with
(a) Indigo cultivation
(b) Poultry farming
(c) Fisheries
(d) Availability of drinking water

Answer

Answer: (c) Fisheries

Question 8.
Which of the following falls under unorganized sector?
(a) Gramin Bank
(b) Cooperative banks
(c) Moneylenders and traders
(d) Land development Banks

Answer

Answer: (c) Moneylenders and traders

Question 9.
14 major commercial banks were nationalised in ________
(a) 1969
(b) 1980
(c) 1975
(d) 1991

Answer

Answer: (a) 1969

Question 10.
_______ comes under horticulture.
(a) Fish farming
(b) Poultry farming
(c) Flower cultivation
(d) Animal husbandry

Answer

Answer: (c) Flower cultivation

Question 11.
Which of the following accounts for the largest share in the livestock sector of India?
(a) Poultry
(b) Cattle
(c) Goats
(d) Ponies and mules

Answer

Answer: (a) Poultry

Question 12.
Agriculture marketing does not comprise of _______
(a) transportation of the product to the marketing place for sale
(b) grading of the products according to the quality
(c) storage of the produce for sale in future
(d) credit is taken to meet expenditure on agriculture

Answer

Answer: (d) credit taken to meet expenditure on agriculture

Question 13.
When was the National Bank for Agricultural and Rural Development set up?
(a) 1962
(b) 1972
(c) 1982
(d) 1992

Answer

Answer: (c) 1982

Question 14.
Which among the following is a process that involves the assembling, storage, processing, transportation, packaging, grading, and distribution of different agricultural commodities across the country?
(a) Agricultural Management
(b) Agricultural Banking
(c) Agricultural Diversification
(d) Agricultural Marketing

Answer

Answer: (d) Agricultural Marketing

Question 15.
What is the name of the vegetable and fruit market in Andhra Pradesh?
(a) Apni Mandi
(b) Hadaspar Mandi
(c) Rythu Bazar
(d) Uzhavar Sandies

Answer

Answer: (c) Rythu Bazar

Fill in the blanks with the correct word.

Question 16.
At the time of independence, moneylenders and traders ________ small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.

Answer

Answer: exploited

Question 17.
The _______ was a harbinger of major changes in the credit system.

Answer

Answer: Green Revolution

Question 18.
By March 2003, _______ SHGs had been provided credit by the banking system.

Answer

Answer: 7 lakhs

Question 19.
More than 10 percent of goods produced in farms are wasted due to lack of ________ facilities.

Answer

Answer: storage

Question 20.
The alternate marketing channels in Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan are known as ________

Answer

Answer: Apni Mandi

Question 21.
Much of the agricultural employment activities are concentrated in the _______ season.

Answer

Answer: Kharif

Question 22.
________ provided a system in which the farmers are assured a fair price and income from the supply of milk to urban markets.

Answer

Answer: Operation flood

Question 23.
_______ farming relies heavily on chemical fertilizers and toxic pesticides.

Answer

Answer: Conventional

State whether the following statements are True or False.

Question 24.
Rural development mostly depends upon the development of agriculture.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 25.
Institutional sources of credit include moneylenders, traders, employers, relatives, and friends.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 26.
The major achievement of rural banking over the years has been the effective recovery of loans.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 27.
Self-help groups have helped in the empowerment of women.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 28.
The current infrastructure facilities are sufficient to meet the growing demand in rural agricultural marketing.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 29.
At present, the livestock sector provides alternate livelihood options to over 70 million small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 30.
Horticulture is a branch of agriculture-related to the management and care of farm animals such as cattle, sheep, pigs, and goats.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 31.
The use of eco-friendly technologies such as organic farming is essential for sustainable development.

Answer

Answer: True

Match the alternatives given in Column II with respective terms in Column I.

Question 32.

Column IColumn II
(i) Institutional sources of credit(a) Rythu Bazar
(ii) Non-institutional sources(b) April 2004
(iii) A vegetable and fruit market in Andhra Pradesh(c) World’s biggest dairy development programme
(iv) A farmers’ market in Tamil Nadu(d) Regional Rural Bank
(v) Green Revolution(e) Uzhavar Santhai
(vi) Golden revolution(f) Helped attain self-sufficiency in food grains
(vii) Operation Flood(g) Moneylenders
(viii) NABARD was set up(h) 1982
(ix) Launch of Kisan Credit Card (KCC) Scheme(i) 1998-99
(x) Launch of Vishesh Krishi Upaj Yojana(j) Planned investment in horticulture became highly productive
Answer

Answer:

Column IColumn II
(i) Institutional sources of credit(d) Regional Rural Bank
(ii) Non-institutional sources(g) Moneylenders
(iii) A vegetable and fruit market in Andhra Pradesh(a) Rythu Bazar
(iv) A farmers’ market in Tamil Nadu(e) Uzhavar Santhai
(v) Green Revolution(f) Helped attain self-sufficiency in food grains
(vi) Golden revolution(j) Planned investment in horticulture became highly productive
(vii) Operation Flood(c) World’s biggest dairy development programme
(viii) NABARD was set up(h) 1982
(ix) Launch of Kisan Credit Card (KCC) Scheme(i) 1998-99
(x) Launch of Vishesh Krishi Upaj Yojana(b) April, 2004

Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 6 Rural Development with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 12 Economics Rural Development MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 1 The Living World with Answers

MCQ Questions /

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 1 The Living World with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these The Living World Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

The Living World Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the The Living World Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Biology Chapter 1 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on The Living World Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 1 Biology Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

I. Select the correct answer of the following questions.

Question 1.
Scientific name are drawn form
(a) Latin
(b) English
(c) Sanskrit
(d) Arabic

Answer

Answer: (a) Latin

Question 2.
Binomial nomenclature was given by
(a) Linnaeus
(b) Pliny
(c) Bentham and Hookes
(d) Aristotle

Answer

Answer: (a) Linnaeus

Question 3.
Systematics is the study of
(a) Diversity amongst groups
(b) Grouping of organisms
(c) Identification and grouping of organisms
(d) Nomenclature and classification or organisms

Answer

Answer: (a) Diversity amongst groups

Question 4.
Taxonomy refers to
(a) Classification
(b) Nomenclature
(c) Identification
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 5.
Which of the following has more characters In chtnmon?
(a) Species
(b) Genus
(c) Class
(d) Division

Answer

Answer: (a) Species

Question 6.
Any type of taxonomic group of the organisms is called
(a) Taion
(b) Category
(c) Classification
(d) Rank of hierarchy

Answer

Answer: (a) Taxon

Question 7.
A rank or level in the hierarchial classification of organisms is a
(a) Taxon
(b) Category
(c) Key
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Category

Question 8.
Which of the following is not a correct hierarchial order?
(a) Phylum, order, family
(b) Class, family, genus
(c) Class, order, family
(d) Family, class, order

Answer

Answer: (d) Family, class, order

Question 9.
Father of Taxonomy is
(a) Linnaeus
(b) Aristotle
(c) John Ray
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Linnaeus

Question 10.
‘Systema Nature’ is a book written by
(a) Linnaeus
(b) Charak
(c) John Roy
(d) De Candole

Answer

Answer: (a) Linnaeus

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
All living organisms ………. Increase in ………… and increase in ………… of individuals are twin characteristics of growth.

Answer

Answer: grow, mass, number

Question 2.
………., this growth by cell division occurs continuously throughout their life.

Answer

Answer: In plants

Question 3.
……….. , this growth is seen only up to a certain age.

Answer

Answer: In Animals

Question 4.
The fungi, the filamentous algae, the protonema of mosses, all easily multiply by …………….

Answer

Answer: fragmentation

Question 5.
All living organisms are made of ………….

Answer

Answer: chemical

Question 6.
Celluar organisation of the body is the defining feature of life …………

Answer

Answer: forms

Question 7.
We sense our environment through our ………….

Answer

Answer: sense organs

Question 8.
Plants respond to external factors like ………, ………., ………

Answer

Answer: light, water, temperature

Question 9.
Biology is the story of life on …………

Answer

Answer: earth

Question 10.
Biology is the story of ………… of living organisms on earth.

Answer

Answer: evolution

III. Mark the Statements True (T) or False (F):

Question 1.
There is a need to standardise the naming of living organisms such that a particular organism is known by the same name all over world. This process is called nomenclature.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 2.
Biologists follow universally accepted principles to provide scientific name to known organisms. Each name has two components-the Generic name and the specific epithet

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 3.
System of providing a name with two components is called Binomical nomenclature.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 4.
Biological names are generally in Latin and written in italics.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 5.
Both the words in a biological name, when handwritten, are separately underlined, or printed in italics to indicate their Latin origin.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 6.
The first word denoting the genus starts with a capital letter while the specific epithet starts with a small letter.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 7.
All living organisms can be classified into different taxa. This process of classification is taxonomy.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 8.
Taxonomic categories and hierarchy can be illustrated by an example.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 9.
Taxonomical studies of all known organisms have led to the development of common categories such as kindom, phylum or division (for plants), class order, family, genus and species.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 10.
Herbarium is a store house of collected plant specimens that are dried, pressed and preserved on sheets.

Answer

Answer: True

IV. Match the column I with column II.

Column IColumn II
A. Herbarium1. Contrast pair or couplet
B. Key2. Information on any one taxon.
C. Monographs3. Lucknow
D. Kingdom4. Highest taxonomic category
E. National Botanical Research Institute5. Storage of collected dried plant specimens.
Answer

Answer:

Column IColumn II
A. Herbarium5. Storage of collected dried plant specimens.
B. Key1. Contrast pair or couplet
C. Monographs2. Information on any one taxon.
D. Kingdom4. Highest taxonomic category
E. National Botanical Research Institute3. Lucknow

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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 7 Employment: Growth, Informalisation and Other Issues with Answers

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Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 7 Employment: Growth, Informalisation and Other Issues with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Employment: Growth, Informalisation and Other Issues Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Employment: Growth, Informalisation and Other Issues Class 12 Objective Questions.

Employment: Growth, Informalisation and Other Issues Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct alternative.

Question 1.
Most of the disguised unemployed persons in India are found in
(a) Agriculture
(b) Industry
(c) Trade
(d) Transport

Answer

Answer: (a) Agriculture

Question 2.
The process of moving from self-employment and regular salaried employment to casual work is known as ________
(a) Informalisation of workforce
(b) Casualisation of the workforce
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

Answer

Answer: (b) Casualisation of the workforce

Question 3.
An arrangement in which a worker uses his own resources to make a living is known _________
(a) Wage employment
(b) regular employment
(c) casual employment
(d) self-employment

Answer

Answer: (d) self-employment

Question 4.
Out of these which of the following is a worker?
(a) Beggar
(b) Gambler
(c) Cobbler
(d) Smuggler

Answer

Answer: (c) Cobbler

Question 5.
Unemployed people is calculated as
(a) Labour Force – Workforce
(b) Labour Force + Workforce
(c) Workforce – Labour Force
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Labour Force – Workforce

Question 6.
Which of the following statements is not true for a worker?
(a) A worker contributes to the GDP.
(b) Workers may temporarily abstain from work due to illness.
(c) Self-employed are not workers.
(b) Those who help the main workers are also workers.

Answer

Answer: (c) Self-employed are not workers.

Question 7.
What percent of urban workers are casual labourers?
(a) 54 percent
(b) 47 percent
(c) 38 percent
(d) 15 percent

Answer

Answer: (d) 15 percent

Question 8.
Which of the following workers is a regular salaried employee?
(a) Owner of a saloon
(b) Rickshaw puller
(c) Cashier in State Bank of India
(d) Vegetable vendor

Answer

Answer: (c) Cashier in State Bank of India

Question 9.
Which of the following is a primary sector activity?
(a) Mining and Quarrying
(b) Construction
(c) Trade
(d) Transport and Storage

Answer

Answer: (a) Mining and Quarrying

Question 10.
What proportion of the urban workforce is engaged in the secondary sector?
(a) Half
(b) One-third
(c) One-fourth
(d) One-fifth

Answer

Answer: (b) One-third

Question 11.
What was the average rate of growth of employment during 1950-2010?
(a) 1 percent
(b) 2 percent
(c) 5 percent
(d) 10 percent

Answer

Answer: (b) 2 percent

Question 12.
Which of the following is not a feature of organized sector?
(a) Job Security
(b) Social security benefits
(c) Irregular payment
(d) Fixed working hours

Answer

Answer: (c) Irregular payment

Question 13.
Which of the following is not an employment generation programme?
(a) Rural Employment Generation Programme (REGP)
(b) Pradhan Mantri Roz$ar Yojana (PMRY)
(c) National Food for Work Programme (NFWP)
(d) Valmiki Ambedkar Awas Yojana

Answer

Answer: (d) Valmiki Ambedkar Awas Yojana

Fill in the blanks with the correct word.

Question 14.
Economic activities contribute to the _______ of the country.

Answer

Answer: GDP

Question 15.
Worker-population ratio analyses the situation of _______ in the country.

Answer

Answer: employment

Question 16.
______ is an indicator which is used for analysing the employment situation of a country.

Answer

Answer: Workforce participation rate

Question 17.
Workers who own and operate an enterprise to earn their livelihood are known as _______

Answer

Answer: self-employed

Question 18.
Enterprises in _______ areas require workers on a regular basis.

Answer

Answer: urban

Question 19.
The ________ sector gives employment to about one-third of urban workforce.

Answer

Answer: secondary

Question 20.
In ________ unemployment, people are not able to find jobs during some months of the year.

Answer

Answer: seasonal

Question 21.
Under _______ type of unemployment, the marginal product gained by employing one additional unit of labour is zero.

Answer

Answer: disguised

State whether the following statements are True or False.

Question 22.
Self-employed and casual wage labourers are found more in rural areas.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 23.
Casual wage work is the major source for both men and women.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 24.
In the course of the economic development of a country, workers migrate from rural to urban areas.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 25.
There has hardly been any change in the distribution of the workforce across various industries since the 1970s.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 26.
The Indian economy has been able to produce more goods and services due to growth in employment opportunities.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 27.
Employment is not secure in the organized sector.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 28.
Newly emerging jobs are found mostly in the service sector.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 29.
All persons in a country who are working for seeking work are included in the workforce.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 30.
A low employment elasticity indicates that the economy is able to generate very few employment opportunities as against an increase in the rate of economic growth.

Answer

Answer: False

Match the alternatives given in Column II with respective terms in Column I.

Question 31.

Column IColumn II
(i) Organised sector(a) Aims at creating self-employment opportunities in rural areas/small towns
(ii) Unorganised sector(b) Employs 10 or more workers
(iii) Cashier at Reliance Fresh(c) Regular-salaried worker
(iv) Construction Worker(d) Aims to promote micro-enterprises
(v) Prime Minister’s Rozgar Yojana(e) Casual wage worker
(vi) Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana(f) Employs less than 10 workers
Answer

Answer:

Column IColumn II
(i) Organised sector(b) Employs 10 or more workers
(ii) Unorganised sector(f) Employs less than 10 workers
(iii) Cashier at Reliance Fresh(c) Regular-salaried worker
(iv) Construction Worker(e) Casual wage worker
(v) Prime Minister’s Rozgar Yojana(a) Aims at creating self-employment opportunities in rural areas/small towns
(vi) Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana(d) Aims to promote micro-enterprises

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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 2 Biological Classification with Answers

MCQ Questions /

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 2 Biological Classification with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Biological Classification Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Biological Classification Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Biological Classification Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Biology Chapter 2 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Biological Classification Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 2 Biology Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

I. Select the correct answer of the following questions:

Question 1.
Five kingdom classification was proposed by
(a) Linnaeus
(b) Whittaker
(c) Lamark
(d) Aristotle

Answer

Answer: (b) Whittaker

Question 2.
The Term ‘Superparasite’ is; meant for
(a) Mycoplasma
(b) Animal parasites
(c) Viruses
(d) A parasite living on another parasite

Answer

Answer: (d) A parasite living on another parasite

Question 3.
The biologist, who created the kingdom protista for the unicel-lular animals and plants, is
(a) Haeckel
(b) Pasteur
(c) Koch
(d) Lister

Answer

Answer: (a) Haeckel

Question 4.
Organism having characters of both animals and plants is
(a) Bacterium
(b) Paramoecium
(c) Mycoplasma
(d) Euglena

Answer

Answer: (d) Euglena

Question 5.
On the basis of nucleus, viruses should be included in
(a) Prokaryotes
(b) Eukaryotes
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (d) None of these

Question 6.
A unicellular organism often considered a connecting link between plants and animals, is
(a) Paramoecium
(b) Entamoeba
(c) Monocystics
(d) Euglena

Answer

Answer: (d) Euglena

Question 7.
In Whittaker’s classification, the Unicellular organisms having various cell organelles constitute the kingdom
(a) Monera
(b) Protista
(c) Fungi
(d) Plantae

Answer

Answer: (b) Protista

Question 8.
In five kingdom classification, the kindom that includes the blue green algae, nitrogen fixing bacteria and methanogenic archaebacteria is
(a) Plantae
(b) Fungi
(c) Protista
(d) Monero

Answer

Answer: (d) Monero

Question 9.
Name the archaebacteria present in the guts of ruminant animals
(a) Methanogens
(b) Anabaena
(c) Nostoc
(d) Paramoecium

Answer

Answer: (a) Methanogens

Question 10.
An organism without cell-wall and can survive without oxygen
(a) Gonyanlax
(b) Rhizopus
(c) Mycoplasma
(d) Sacharomyces

Answer

Answer: (c) Mycoplasma

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
In Linnaeus’ time a …………. system of classification with ………….. and ………… kingdom was developed that included all plants and animals respectively.

Answer

Answer: Two kingdom, Plantae, Animalia

Question 2.
R.H. Whittaker (1969) proposed a …………..

Answer

Answer: Five Kingdom Classification

Question 3.
The kingdoms defined by him were named ………., ……….., ………. , ………… and …………..

Answer

Answer: Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, Animalia

Question 4.
………….. and …………. were placed together under algae.

Answer

Answer: Chlamydomonas, Spirogyra

Question 5.
………….. differ from other bacteria in having a different cell wall strcuture and this feature is responsible for their survival in extreme conditions.

Answer

Answer: Archaebacteria

Question 6.
………….. have chlorophyll a similar to green plants and are photosynthetic autotrophs.

Answer

Answer: Cyanobacteria

Question 7.
…………… are the most abundant in nature.

Answer

Answer: Heterotrophic bacteria

Question 8.
All single celled eukaryotes are placed under …………, but the boundaries of this kingdom are not well defined.

Answer

Answer: Protista

Question 9.
………… are the chief ‘producers’ in the oceans.

Answer

Answer: Diatoms

Question 10.
Slime moulds are …………. protists.

Answer

Answer: saprophytic

III. Mark the Statements True (T) or False (F):

Question 1.
All protozoans are heterotrophs and live as predators or parasites.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 2.
Most Fungi are heterotrophic and absorb soluble organic matter from dead substrates and hence are called saprophytes.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 3.
Reproduction in fungi can take place by vegetative means frag-mentation, fission and budding.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 4.
Fusion of protoplasms between two motile or non-motile gemetes is called karyogamy.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 5.
Fusion of two nuclei is called plasmogamy

Answer

Answer: False

Question 6.
Meiosis in zygote resulting in haploid spores.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 7.
The my celium is aseptate and coenocytic.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 8.
Some examples are Aspergillus, Claviceps and Neurospora, Neu- rospora is used extensively in biochemical and genetic work.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 9.
Some examples are Alternaria, Colletotrichum and Trichoderma.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 10.
Life cycle of plants has two distinct phases-the diploid sporo- phytic and haploid gametophytic

Answer

Answer: True

IV. Match the column I with column II.

Column IColumn II
(a) Prokaryotic1. Two kingdom
(b) Eukaryotic2. Monera
(c) Linaeus’ time3. Five Kingdom Classification
(d) R.H. Whittaker4. Protista
(e) Heterotrophic bacteria5. Storage of collected dried plant specimens.
(f) Many mycoplasma are6. The ascomycetes are unicellular, e.g., yeast.
(g) Commonly known as sac- fungi,7. They are helpful in making, curd from milk.
(h) Karyogamy and meiosis take place in8. the basidium producing four basi ospores.
(i) The algal components is known as9. phycobiont and fungal component as mycobiont.
(j) Members of Kingdom Fungi show a great10. diversity in structures and habit at.
Answer
Column IColumn II
(a) Prokaryotic2. Monera
(b) Eukaryotic4. Protista
(c) Linaeus’ time1. Two kingdom
(d) R.H. Whittaker3. Five Kingdom Classification
(e) Heterotrophic bacteria7. They are helpful in making, curd from milk.
(f) Many mycoplasma are5. Storage of collected dried plant specimens.
(g) Commonly known as sac- fungi,6. The ascomycetes are unicellular, e.g., yeast.
(h) Karyogamy and meiosis take place in8. the basidium producing four basi ospores.
(i) The algal components is known as9. phycobiont and fungal component as mycobiont.
(j) Members of Kingdom Fungi show a great10. diversity in structures and habit at.

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