Author name: Prasanna

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 8 Infrastructure with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Infrastructure Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Infrastructure Class 12 Objective Questions.

Infrastructure Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct alternative.

Question 1.
Which of the following has the largest source of power in India?
(a) Wind Power
(b) Solar Power
(c) Hydroelectricity
(d) Thermal Power

Answer

Answer: (d) Thermal Power

---

Question 2.
Which of the following is a non-conventional source of energy?
(a) Hydroelectricity
(b) Thermal Power
(c) Solar Energy
(d) Atomic power

Answer

Answer: (c) Solar Energy

---

Question 3.
Which of the following is a commercial source of energy?
(a) Coal
(b) Agricultural waste
(c) Animal dung
(d) Firewood

Answer

Answer: (a) Coal

---

Question 4.
The power generated from water is called
(a) Thermal Power
(b) Hydroelectric Power
(c) Atomic Power
(d) Tidal Power

Answer

Answer: (b) Hydroelectric Power

---

Question 5.
From which of the following sources of generation we get the largest amount of power?
(a) Thermal Power
(b) Hydroelectric Power
(c) Atomic Power
(d) Tidal Power

Answer

Answer: (a) Thermal Power

---

Question 6.
Which of the following statements is not correct with regards to infrastructure?
(a) Infrastructure contributes to economic development.
(b) Infrastructure provides support services.
(c) All infrastructural facilities have a direct impact on the production of goods and services.
(d) Inadequate infrastructure can have multiple adverse effects on health.

Answer

Answer: (c) All infrastructural facilities have a direct impact on the production of goods and services.

---

Question 7.
Which of the following facilities is included in social infrastructure?
(a) Roads and highways
(b) Housing
(c) Internet
(d) Electricity

Answer

Answer: (b) Housing

---

Question 8.
What is morbidity?
(a) Proneness to fall ill
(b) High infant mortality rate
(c) High maternal mortality rate
(d) Low life expectancy

Answer

Answer: (a) Proneness to fall ill

---

Question 9.
What percent of rural households use bio-fuels for cooking?
(a) 50 percent
(b) 75 percent
(c) 80 percent
(d) 90 percent

Answer

Answer: (d) 90 percent

---

Question 10.
Which of the following countries invest almost 50 percent of its GDP in infrastructure?
(a) India
(b) China
(c) Pakistan
(d) Sri Lanka

Answer

Answer: (b) China

---

Question 11.
Low-income countries do not invest in which of the given infrastructural services?
(a) Transport
(b) Irrigation
(c) Power
(d) Telecommunication

Answer

Answer: (d) Telecommunication

---

Question 12.
Which of the following statements is true for commercial sources of energy?
(a) Commercial sources are bought and sold.
(b) Commercial sources are renewable.
(c) Commercial sources are found in forests.
(d) Dried dung is an example of a commercial source of energy.

Answer

Answer: (a) Commercial sources are bought and sold.

---

Question 13.
Which of the following sector was the largest consumer of commercial energy in 1953-54?
(a) Households
(b) Transport
(c) Industries
(d) Agriculture

Answer

Answer: (b) Transport

---

Question 14.
Which of the following is not a function of primary health care?
(a) Spreading education concerning prevailing health problems
(b) Promoting food supply and proper nutrition
(c) Conducting research
(d) Providing essential drugs

Answer

Answer: (c) Conducting research

---

Fill in the blanks with the correct word.

Question 15.
Infrastructure associated with energy, transportation, and communication is included in the ______ infrastructure.

Answer

Answer: social

---

Question 16.
Inadequate infrastructure can have multiple adverse effects on ________

Answer

Answer: health

---

Question 17.
______ accounts for the largest share in the commercial energy consumption in India.

Answer

Answer: Coal

---

Question 18.
Hydel and wind power do not rely on _________

Answer

Answer: fossil fuel

---

Question 19.
________ sources of energy are found in nature/forests.

Answer

Answer: Non-commercial

---

Question 20.
The hospitals at the village level are known as _______

Answer

Answer: PHCs

---

Question 21.
In the healthcare sector, _______ has huge potential because they are effective, safe, and inexpensive.

Answer

Answer: ISM (Indian System of Medicines)

---

Question 22.
Accessibility and ________ need to be integrated into our basic health infrastructure in order to provide basic healthcare to all.

Answer

Answer: affordability

---

State whether the following statements are True or False.

Question 23.
The use of renewable energy sources can ensure an additional supply of electricity.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 24.
The growth rate of demand for power is always lower than the GDP growth rate.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 25.
Industries are the largest consumer of commercial energy.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 26.
India’s health infrastructure and health care is made up of a three-tier system.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 27.
Infrastructural development in India has not been uniform over the last six decades.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 28.
Hospitals under the secondary sector have advanced level equipment and medicines.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Match the alternatives given in Column II with respective terms in Column I.

Question 29.

Column I	Column II
(i) Economic infrastructure	(a) Uses drugs obtained only from herbal, animal and mineral sources
(ii) Social infrastructure	(b) Monitors tariff structure and other regulatory issues in Delhi
(iii) Commercial source of energy	(c) Communication
(iv) Non-commercial source of energy	(d) Uses drugs made from metals and minerals to treat infective diseases
(v) Ayurveda system of medicine	(e) Agricultural waste
(vi) Unani system of medicine	(f) Private sector company that distributes electricity in Delhi
(vii) Siddha system of medicine	(g) Coal
(viii) Tata – Power Limited (NDPL)	(h) Uses medicinal plants as raw materials for manufacturing drugs
(ix) Delhi Electricity Regulatory Commission	(i) Hospitals at the village level
(x) PHCs	(j) Education

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(i) Economic infrastructure	(c) Communication
(ii) Social infrastructure	(j) Education
(iii) Commercial source of energy	(g) Coal
(iv) Non-commercial source of energy	(e) Agricultural waste
(v) Ayurveda system of medicine	(h) Uses medicinal plants as raw materials for manufacturing drugs
(vi) Unani system of medicine	(a) Uses drugs obtained only from herbal, animal and mineral sources
(vii) Siddha system of medicine	(d) Uses drugs made from metals and minerals to treat infective diseases
(viii) Tata – Power Limited (NDPL)	(f) Private sector company that distributes electricity in Delhi
(ix) Delhi Electricity Regulatory Commission	(b) Monitors tariff structure and other regulatory issues in Delhi
(x) PHCs	(i) Hospitals at the village level

---

Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 8 Infrastructure with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 12 Economics Infrastructure MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 9 Environment and Sustainable Development with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Environment and Sustainable Development Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Environment and Sustainable Development Class 12 Objective Questions.

Environment and Sustainable Development Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct alternative.

Question 1.
World Environment Day is observed on ________
(a) 5 June
(b) 15 August
(c) 1 January
(d) 5 September

Answer

Answer: (a) 5 June

---

Question 2.
The main reason for soil erosion is _________
(a) ozone depletion
(b) deforestation
(c) air pollution
(d) global warming

Answer

Answer: (b) deforestation

---

Question 3.
The government set up the Central Pollution Control Board to control _________
(a) noise pollution
(b) air pollution
(c) deforestation
(d) land pollution

Answer

Answer: (b) air pollution

---

Question 4.
Sustainable development can be achieved by _________
(a) controlling pollution
(b) controlling the growth of population
(c) restricting use of renewable resources
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these

---

Question 5.
Which of the following is an impact of global warming?
(a) Deforestation
(b) Rise in sea level
(c) Waste generation
(d) Rapid increase in population

Answer

Answer: (b) Rise in sea level

---

Question 6.
In which of the following layers of the atmosphere is ozone shield found?
(a) Troposphere
(b) Exosphere
(c) Stratosphere
(d) Mesosphere

Answer

Answer: (c) Stratosphere

---

Question 7.
Which of the following is a consequence of ozone layer depletion?
(a) Skin cancer in humans
(b) Lower production of phytoplankton
(c) Hampers growth of terrestrial plants
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

---

Question 8.
When was the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) set up?
(a) 1964
(b) 1974
(c) 1984
(d) 1994

Answer

Answer: (b) 1974

---

Question 9.
How many industrial categories have been identified as significantly polluting by the CPCB?
(a) 17
(b) 25
(c) 27
(d) 31

Answer

Answer: (a) 17

---

Fill in the blanks with the correct word.

Question 10.
________ resources are those which get exhausted with extraction and use.

Answer

Answer: Non-renewable

---

Question 11.
Absorptive capacity of the environment is ability to absorb __________

Answer

Answer: degradation

---

Question 12.
Solar energy can be converted into electricity with the help of _______ cell.

Answer

Answer: photovoltaic

---

Question 13.
In India, the ________ of the Deccan Plateau is particularly suitable for the cultivation of cotton.

Answer

Answer: black soil

---

Question 14.
The origins of chlorine and bromine compounds in the stratosphere are _________

Answer

Answer: chlorofluorocarbons

---

Question 15.
_______ emissions are the major contributors to air pollution in urban areas of India.

Answer

Answer: Vehicular

---

Question 16.
Thermal power plants emit large quantities of _________ which is a greenhouse gas.

Answer

Answer: carbon dioxide

---

Question 17.
________ plants use the energy of such streams to move small turbines.

Answer

Answer: Mini-hydel

---

State whether the following statements are True or False.

Question 18.
Fossil fuels can be used without the possibility of these becoming depleted or exhausted.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 19.
India alone accounts for nearly 20 percent of the world’s total iron-ore reserves.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 20.
Improper planning and management of irrigation systems are one of the factors responsible for land degradation.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 21.
Sustainable development is synonymous with the conservation of the environment.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 22.
Earthworms can convert organic matter into compost faster than the normal composting process.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 23.
Prior to the advent of the Green Revolution, food products were contaminated and soil, water- bodies, and even groundwater were polluted.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Match the alternatives given in Column II with respective terms in Column I.

Question 24.

Column I	Column II
(i) Deccan Plateau in India	(a) Rise in sea level
(ii) Indo-Gangetic Plains	(b) Petroleum, coal, iron-ore, etc.
(iii) Renewable Resource	(c) Rich in black soil
(iv) Non-renewable Resources	(d) Increasing urbanization
(v) Cause of Environmental Crisis	(e) Trees, fish, water
(vi) Impact of Global Warming	(f) Intensively cultivated and densely populated

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(i) Deccan Plateau in India	(c) Rich in black soil
(ii) Indo-Gangetic Plains	(f) Intensively cultivated and densely populated
(iii) Renewable Resource	(e) Trees, fish, water
(iv) Non-renewable Resources	(b) Petroleum, coal, iron-ore, etc.
(v) Cause of Environmental Crisis	(d) Increasing urbanization
(vi) Impact of Global Warming	(a) Rise in sea level

---

Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 9 Environment and Sustainable Development with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 12 Economics Environment and Sustainable Development MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 10 Comparative Development Experiences of India and its Neighbours with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Comparative Development Experiences of India and its Neighbours Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Comparative Development Experiences of India and its Neighbours Class 12 Objective Questions.

Comparative Development Experiences of India and its Neighbours Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct alternative.

Question 1.
The Great Leap Forward campaign in China focused on _________
(a) widespread industrialization
(b) new agricultural strategy
(c) privatization
(d) economic reforms

Answer

Answer: (a) widespread industrialization

---

Question 2.
The growth rate of the population is highest in which of the following country?
(a) India
(b) China
(c) Pakistan
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Pakistan

---

Question 3.
Introduction of Economic Reform in Pakistan took place in _________
(a) 1978
(b) 1980
(c) 1988
(d) 1991

Answer

Answer: (c) 1988

---

Question 4.
With which of the following concepts is the commune system associated?
(a) Industrialisation
(b) Human rights
(c) SEZs
(d) Equal distribution of land

Answer

Answer: (d) Equal distribution of land

---

Question 5.
Which of the following is not an indicator of human development?
(a) Density of Population
(b) GDP per capita
(c) Literacy rate
(d) Life expectancy at birth

Answer

Answer: (a) Density of Population

---

Question 6.
Which of the following is a feature pertaining to the Indian economy?
(a) One child norm
(b) Growth due to manufacturing sector
(c) High degree of urbanization
(d) Growth due to service sector

Answer

Answer: (d) Growth due to service sector

---

Question 7.
When did China announce its first five-year plan?
(a) 1951
(b) 1956
(c) 1953
(d) 1961

Answer

Answer: (c) 1953

---

Question 8.
Which of the following countries ranks first in the development experience?
(a) India
(b) China
(c) Pakistan
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) China

---

Question 9.
What was the fertility rate in Pakistan as in 2018?
(a) 1.6
(b) 2.6
(c) 3.6
(d) 3.6

Answer

Answer: (c) 3.6

---

Question 10.
Which of the following countries has introduced the one-child norm?
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Pakistan
(d) Bangladesh

Answer

Answer: (a) China

---

Question 11.
Which of the following countries was faster in shifting its workforce from agriculture to the service sector?
(a) India
(b) Pakistan
(c) China
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (b) Pakistan

---

Question 12.
Which of the following is not an indicator of human development?
(a) Density of population
(b) GDP per capita
(c) Life expectancy at birth
(d) Literacy rate

Answer

Answer: (a) Density of population

---

Question 13.
With which of the following concepts is the commune system associated?
(a) Industrialisation
(b) Human rights
(c) Equal distribution of land
(d) Special Economic Zones

Answer

Answer: (c) Equal distribution of land

---

Question 14.
How many people died in the devastating earthquake that took place in Pakistan in 2005?
(a) 45,000
(b) 55,000
(c) 65,000
(d) 75,000

Answer

Answer: (d) 75,000

---

Fill in the blanks with the correct word.

Question 15.
China has recently started moving towards a _______ system.

Answer

Answer: democratic

---

Question 16.
People’s Republic of China was established in __________

Answer

Answer: 1949

---

Question 17.
Pakistan’s five-year plan is now called the ________ Development Plan.

Answer

Answer: Medium-term

---

Question 18.
________ introduced the Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution in 1695 in China.

Answer

Answer: Mao

---

Question 19.
In the 1970s, nationalisation of capital goods industries took place in _________

Answer

Answer: Pakistan

---

Question 20.
In India and Pakistan, the service sector accounts for more than ________ percent of GDP.

Answer

Answer: 50

---

Question 21.
Lack of _______ freedom and its implications for human rights are major concerns in China.

Answer

Answer: political

---

State whether the following statements are True or False.

Question 22.
Regional and global economic groupings are formed to protest against the free flow of goods and services between nations.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 23.
India and Pakistan adopted similar strategies for social and economic development.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 24.
Pakistan introduced a variety of regulated policy framework for import substitution industrialization.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 25.
China received financial support from western nations.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 26.
In all the three economies, the industry and service sectors have less proportion of workforce but contribute more in terms of output.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 27.
China’s growth is mainly contributed by the industrial sector and India’s growth by the service sector.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Match the alternatives given in Column II with respective terms in Column I.

Question 28.

Column I	Column II
(i) New Economic Policy in India	(a) High degree of urbanization
(ii) The Great Leap Forward (GLF) campaign in China	(b) 1988
(iii) Reforms initiated in Pakistan	(c) 152
(iv) Contributes a major share in India’s GDP	(d) Industrial Sector
(v) Contributes a major share in China’s GDP	(e) Very high fertility rate
(vi) Feature of the Indian economy	(f) 1991
(vii) Feature of China’s economy	(g) Service Sector
(viii) Feature of Pakistan’s economy	(h) High density of population
(ix) India’s HDI Rank	(i) 129
(x) Pakistan’s HDI Rank	(j) 1958

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(i) New Economic Policy in India	(f) 1991
(ii) The Great Leap Forward (GLF) campaign in China	(j) 1958
(iii) Reforms initiated in Pakistan	(b) 1988
(iv) Contributes a major share in India’s GDP	(g) Service Sector
(v) Contributes a major share in China’s GDP	(d) Industrial Sector
(vi) Feature of the Indian economy	(h) High density of population
(vii) Feature of China’s economy	(a) High degree of urbanization
(viii) Feature of Pakistan’s economy	(e) Very high fertility rate
(ix) India’s HDI Rank	(i) 129
(x) Pakistan’s HDI Rank	(c) 152

---

Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 10 Comparative Development Experiences of India and its Neighbours with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 12 Economics Comparative Development Experiences of India and its Neighbours MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

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Plant Kingdom Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

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I. Select the correct answer of the following questions:

Question 1.
Agar is obtained from
(a) Laminaria
(b) Porphyra
(c) Sargassum
(d) Gelidium

Answer

Answer: (d) Gelidium

---

Question 2.
Red algae resemble blue green algae in the presence of
(a) Similar cell wall constitutents
(b) Phycobilins
(c) Similar reserve food
(d) Similar mode of reproduction

Answer

Answer: (b) Phycobilins

---

Question 3.
The colour of brown algae is due to
(a) Phycoerythrin
(b) Phycocyonin
(c) Fucoxanthin
(d) Carotenes

Answer

Answer: (c) Fucoxanthin.

---

Question 4.
All algae possess
(a) Chlorophyll (b) and carotenes
(b) Chlorophyll (a) and corotenes
(c) Chlorophyll (a) and chlorophyll (c)
(d) Chlorophyll (a) and chlorophyll (b)

Answer

Answer: (b) Chlorophyll (a) and carotenes.

---

Question 5.
Flagellate cells are absent in
(a) Brown algae
(b) Red algae
(c) Green algae
(d) Chlamydomonas.

Answer

Answer: (b) Red algae.

---

Question 6.
Sex organs are unicellular and non-jacketed in
(a) Algae
(b) Bryophyta
(c) Gymnosperms
(d) Pteridophyta.

Answer

Answer: (a) Algae.

---

Question 7.
In green algae meiosis occurs in
(a) Gametangia
(b) Sporangia
(jc) Zoospore
(d) Zygospore.

Answer

Answer: (d) Zygospore.

---

Question 8.
Protonema stage is found in
(a) Green algae
(b) Liveworts
(c) Ferns
(d) Mosses.

Answer

Answer: (d) Mosses.

---

Question 9.
Pyrenoids are present in
(a) Brown algae
(b) Red algae
(c) Green algae
(d) Blue green algae.

Answer

Answer: (c) Green algae.

---

Question 10.
Sporophyte of riccia is made of
(a) Capsule only
(b) Foot, seta and capsule
(c) Seta and capsule
(d) Foot and capsule.

Answer

Answer: (a) Capsule only.

---

Question 11.
A fern differs from a bryophyte in having.
(a) Parasitic sporophyte
(b) Independent gametaphyte
(c) Independent sporophyte
(d) Parasitic gametophyte.

Answer

Answer: (c) Independent spororphyte.

---

Question 12.
Seedless vascular plants are
(a) Mosses
(b) Liver worts
(c) Ferns
(d) Cycads.

Answer

Answer: (c) Ferms.

---

Question 13.
Gymnosperms are characterised by
(a) Naked ovules
(b) Large leaves
(c) Scale leaves
(d) Ciliated sperms.

Answer

Answer: (a) Naked ovules.

---

Question 14.
Which of these algae is very rich in protein.
(a) Ulothrix
(b) Oscillatoria
(c) Chlorella
(d) Spirogyra.

Answer

Answer: (c) Chlorella.

---

Question 15.
Multicelluilar branched rhizoids and leafy gametophytes are found in
(a) All bryophytes
(b) Some bryophytes
(c) Some pteridophytes
(d) All pteridophytes

Answer

Answer: (b) Some bryophytes.

---

Question 16.
Life cyle of Pinus is
(a) Diplontic
(b) Haplontic
(c) Diplobiontic
(d) Diplohaplontic.

Answer

Answer: (d) Diplohaplontic.

---

Question 17.
Bryophytes can be distinguished from algae because they
(a) are thalioid forms
(b) contain chloroplast in their cells
(c) do not have conducting tissue
(d) possess archegonia with outer layer of sterile cells.

Answer

Answer: (d) Possess archegonia with outer layer of sterile cells.

---

Question 18.
Bryophytes are dependent on water because
(a) the sperms can easily reach upto egg in the archegonium.
(b) water is essential for their vegetative propagation.
(c) water is essential for fertilisation for their homosporous nature.
(d) archegonium has to remain filled with water for fertilisation.

Answer

Answer: (a) The sperms can easily reach upto egg in archegonium.

---

Question 19.
A marine angiosperm is
(a) Hydrilla
(b) Zostera
(c) Vallisnaria
(d) Ceratopyllus.

Answer

Answer: (b) Zostera.

---

Question 20.
The largest alga is
(a) Sargassum
(b) Laminaria
(c) Macrocystis
(d) Fucus

Answer

Answer: (c) Macrocystis

---

II. Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
In this chapter we will describe ………….. under algae, …………. Pteridophytes, ………….. and angiosperms.

Answer

Answer: Plantae, Bryo- phytes, Gymnosperms

---

Question 2.
Such systems were …………. because they separated closely related species since they were based on few characteristics.

Answer

Answer: artificial

---

Question 3.
At prasent …………….. based on evoiutionory relationships between the various organisms are acceptable.

Answer

Answer: Phylogenetic classification systems

---

Question 4.
Fusion between one large, …………… (static) female gemete and a smaller, motile male gamete is termed ………..

Answer

Answer: non-motile, oogamous

---

Question 5.
Certain marine brown and red algae produce large amounts of hydrocolloids (water holding substances) e.g. ……….. (of brown algae) and carrageen (of red algae) are used commercially.

Answer

Answer: algin

---

Question 6.
The algae are divided into three main classes: ……….., ………….. and ………….

Answer

Answer: Chlorophyceae, Phaeophyceae, Rhodophyceae

---

Question 7.
The plant body of ………….. is more differentiated than that of …………..

Answer

Answer: Bryophytes, algae

---

Question 8.
The predominant stage of the life cycle of a moss is the gametophyte which consists of …………

Answer

Answer: two stages.

---

Question 9.
Each of the cells of an ………….. are haploid.

Answer

Answer: embryo-scarsac

---

Question 10.
The ……………. and …………… degenerate after fertilisation.

Answer

Answer: Synergids, antipodals

---

Question 11.
The dominant, photosynthetic phase in such plants is the …………… the gametophyte. This kind of life-cycle is termed as ………..

Answer

Answer: free-living, haplontic

---

Question 12.
The gameto phytic phase is represented by the single to few celled haploid gametophyte. This kind of life-cycle is termed as …………..

Answer

Answer: Diplontic

---

Question 13.
The diploid sporophyte is represented by a dominant, independent, ……….., vascular plant body.

Answer

Answer: photosynthetic

---

III. Mark the statements True (T) or False (F)

Question 1.
Numerical Taxonomy which is now easily carried out using computer is based on ail the observable charateristics.

Answer

Answer: True.

---

Question 2.
The algae reproduce by only vegetative methods.

Answer

Answer: False.

---

Question 3.
At least a half of the total carbon-dioxide fixation on earth is carried out by algae through photosyntheses.

Answer

Answer: True.

---

Question 4.
Algae are of paramount importance as primary producers of energy-rich compounds which form the basis of the food cycles of all aquatic animals.

Answer

Answer: True

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Question 5.
The algae are divided into two main classes: Rhodophyceae and chlorophyceae.

Answer

Answer: False.

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Question 6.
Majority of the red algae are found on land with greater concentrations found in the warmer areas.

Answer

Answer: False.

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Question 7.
The bryophytes are divided into: liverworts and mosses.

Answer

Answer: True.

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Question 8.
The liverworts grow usually in moist shady habitats such as banks of streams, marshy ground, damp soil, bark of trees and deep in the woods.

Answer

Answer: True.

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Question 9.
The first stage is the leafy stage which develops from the secondary protonema as a lateral bud.

Answer

Answer: False.

---

Question 10.
Water is required for transfer of antherozoids— the male gametes released from the antheridia, to the mouth of archegonium.

Answer

Answer: True.

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Question 11.
Unlike bryophytes and pteridophytes, in gymnosperms the male and the female gametophytes have independent free-living existence.

Answer

Answer: False.

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Question 12.
Angiosperms provide us with food, fodder, fuel, medicines and several other commercially important products. They are divided into two classes: the dicotyledons and the monocotyledons.

Answer

Answer: True.

---

IV. Match the items of column I with the items of column II

Column I	Column II
a. Most algal genera are haplontic	1. Primary endosperm nucleus
b. In plants both haploid and diploid cell.	2. Some of them such as Ectocaspus polysiphonia
c. PEN	3. Can divide by mitosis
d. The involvement of two fusions, this event is termed as double fertilisation	4. Is also retained within mega-sporangium.
e. Each embryosac has a 3 celled egg appartus	5. or female strobili
f. The multicellular female gametophyte	6. consists of two stages: psotonema stage, leafy stage
g. A multicellular female gametophyte that	7. multicelluar. The male sex organ is called ontheridium.
h. Megasporangia are called macrosporanagiate	8. of the plant kingdom, because these plants can live on soil.
i. The gametophyte bears male and female sex organs called	9. an event unique to angiospe rms.
j. Formation of specialised structures	10. amylopetin and glycogen in one egg cell and two syner
k. The bryophytes are divided into	11. gids 3 antipodal cells and two polar nuclei structure.
l. The sex organs in bryophytes are	12. bears two or.more archegonia or female sex organs.
m. the predominant stage of the life	13. called gemmae.
n. Bryophytes are also called amphibians	14. antheridia and archegonia
o. The food is stored as floridean starch which is very similar to.	15. liverworts and mosses.

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
a. Most algal genera are haplontic	1. Primary endosperm nucleus
b. In plants both haploid and diploid cell.	2. Some of them such as Ectocaspus polysiphonia
c. PEN	3. Can divide by mitosis
d. The involvement of two fusions, this event is termed as double fertilisation	4. Is also retained within mega-sporangium.
e. Each embryosac has a 3 celled egg appartus	5. or female strobili
f. The multicellular female gametophyte	6. consists of two stages: psotonema stage, leafy stage
g. A multicellular female gametophyte that	7. multicelluar. The male sex organ is called ontheridium.
h. Megasporangia are called macrosporanagiate	8. of the plant kingdom, because these plants can live on soil.
i. The gametophyte bears male and female sex organs called	9. an event unique to angiospe rms.
j. Formation of specialised structures	10. amylopetin and glycogen in one egg cell and two syner
k. The bryophytes are divided into	11. gids 3 antipodal cells and two polar nuclei structure.
l. The sex organs in bryophytes are	12. bears two or.more archegonia or female sex organs.
m. the predominant stage of the life	13. called gemmae.
n. Bryophytes are also called amphibians	14. antheridia and archegonia
o. The food is stored as floridean starch which is very similar to.	15. liverworts and mosses.

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Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 1 Nature and Significance of Management with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Nature and Significance of Management Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Nature and Significance of Management Class 12 Objective Questions.

Nature and Significance of Management Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Which one of the following is not an objective of Management?
(a) Political Objective
(b) Social Objective
(c) Organisational Objective
(d) Personal Objectives

Answer

Answer: (a) Political Objective

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Question 2.
Management is _______
(a) Wastage of time
(b) Multi-Dimensional
(c) Not required in small business firms
(d) Individual Activity

Answer

Answer: (b) Multi-Dimensional

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Question 3.
Management is a __________ Activity
(a) Group
(b) Supervisor Level
(c) Accounting
(d) Individual

Answer

Answer: (a) Group

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Question 4.
The word________denotes a function, a task, a discipline.
(a) Management
(b) Leadership
(c) Motivation
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Management

---

Question 5.
Mainly planning is concerned with ________
(a) Formulation of Policies and Strategies
(b) Management in Action
(c) Manpower Planning
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Formulation of Policies and Strategies

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Question 6.
A process needs
(a) Throughout to execute
(b) Timer to execute
(c) Resources to execute
(d) Both a and b

Answer

Answer: (c) Resources to execute

---

Question 7.
Coordination is:
(a) The essence of management
(b) Function of Management
(c) An objective of management
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) The essence of management

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Question 8.
Providing the facility for Schools and hospitals is the _____objective of management.
(a) Social Objectives
(b) Organisational Objective
(c) Personal Objective
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Social Objectives

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Question 9.
Organisational objective is not concerned with __________
(a) Growth
(b) Profit
(c) Survival
(d) Supply of quality goods

Answer

Answer: (d) Supply of quality goods

---

Question 10.
Which of the following is not an example of non-economic activity?
(a) Patriotism
(b) Teaching
(c) Sentiment
(d) Sympathy

Answer

Answer: (b) Teaching

---

Question 11.
Effectiveness is concerned with ____________
(a) Doing the task correctly with minimum cost
(b) Getting things done with the aim of achieving goals effectively and efficiently
(c) Doing the right task, completing activities, and achieving goals
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Doing the right task, completing activities, and achieving goals

---

Question 12.
Which aspect of management is concerned with the end result?
(a) Co-ordination
(b) Efficiency
(c) Effectiveness
(d) Controlling

Answer

Answer: (c) Effectiveness

---

Question 13.
Pramod Limited targets production of 22,000 units in a year. The production manager was able to cut down the cost but could not achieve the target. In this case, manager is ________ but not ________
(a) Efficient but not honest
(b) Effective but not efficient
(c) Efficient but not effective
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Efficient but not effective

---

Question 14.
Water pollution can be identified by testing its
(a) PH level
(b) Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD)
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)

---

Question 15.
Which of the following is not included in Top Level Management?
(a) Accountant
(b) Managing Director
(c) Chief Executive
(d) Board of Directors

Answer

Answer: (a) Accountant

---

Question 16.
The possibilities of inadequate profits or even losses due to uncertainties are known as _______
(a) Business contingencies
(b) Business risks
(c) Business ventures
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Business risks

---

Question 17.
Management is also considered as a profession where ______________
(a) Anyone can get entry
(b) Only a businessman can get entry
(c) Qualification doesn’t matter
(d) Dynamic Function

Answer

Answer: (a) Anyone can get entry

---

Question 18.
______ Aims to help each other
(a) Cooperation
(b) Planning
(c) Coordination
(d) Staffing

Answer

Answer: (a) Cooperation

---

Question 19.
Chief Marketing Officer and Managing Director is the part of _________
(a) Operational Management
(b) Top Management
(c) Middle Management
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Top Management

---

Question 20.
The following is not an objective of management:
(a) Earning Profits
(b) Policymaking
(c) Growth of the organization
(d) Providing employment

Answer

Answer: (b) Policymaking

---

Question 21.
Policy formulation is the function of:
(a) Operational management
(b) Top-level managers
(c) Middle-level managers
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Top-level managers

---

Question 22.
The work performed by Top Level Management is ______________
(a) Concerned with control of operative employees
(b) Complex and Stressful
(c) Easy
(d) Not Considered

Answer

Answer: (b) Complex and Stressful

---

Question 23.
Under what function of management, policies and strategies are formulated?
(a) Organising
(b) Directing
(c) Planning
(d) Controlling

Answer

Answer: (c) Planning

---

Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 1 Nature and Significance of Management with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 12 Business Studies Nature and Significance of Management MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 2 Principles of Management with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Principles of Management Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Principles of Management Class 12 Objective Questions.

Principles of Management Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following is NOT a Principle of management given by Taylor?
(a) Maximum, not restricted output
(b) Functional foremanship
(c) Harmony not discord
(d) Science, not the rule of the Thumb

Answer

Answer: (b) Functional foremanship

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Question 2.
Which of the following statement best describes the principle of Division of Work?
(a) Labour should be divided
(b) Resources should be divided among jobs
(c) It leads to specialization
(d) Work should be divided into small tasks

Answer

Answer: (d) Work should be divided into small tasks

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Question 3.
She/he keeps machines, materials, tools, etc., ready for operations by concerned workers?. Whose work is described? by this sentence under functional foremanship?
(a) Instruction Card Clerk
(b) Repair Boss
(c) Route Clerk
(d) Gang Boss

Answer

Answer: (d) Gang Boss

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Question 4.
How are principles of management formed?
(a) By experiences of customers
(b) By propagation of social scientists
(c) In a laboratory
(d) By experiences of managers

Answer

Answer: (d) By experiences of managers

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Question 5.
Unity of direction is concerned with____________
(a) One Head One Plan
(b) One Head Different Plans
(c) Planning by Production manager
(d) Planning by Employees

Answer

Answer: (a) One Head One Plan

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Question 6.
Harmony, Not Discord principle is concerned with ______________
(a) Management should share the gains of the company with workers
(b) Investigation of Task
(c) Scientific inquiry
(d) Observation and Analysis

Answer

Answer: (a) Management should share the gains of the company with workers

---

Question 7.
Henri Fayol was a:
(a) Mining Engineer
(b) Production engineer
(c) Accountant
(d) Social Scientist

Answer

Answer: (a) Mining Engineer

---

Question 8.
The main objective of motion study is _____________
(a) To provide more work to the workers
(b) To find out labour cost
(c) To eliminate the rest hours of workers
(d) To eliminate the unproductive motions

Answer

Answer: (d) To eliminate the unproductive motions

---

Question 9.
Principles of management are not:
(a) Flexible
(b) Behavioural
(c) Absolute
(d) Universal

Answer

Answer: (c) Absolute

---

Question 10.
Espirit De Corps means _________________
(a) Union is strength
(b) Order
(c) Gang Plank
(d) Scalar Chain

Answer

Answer: (a) Union is strength

---

Question 11.
Which of the following is not concerned with F.W. Taylor?
(a) Motion Study
(b) Fatigue Study
(c) Method Study
(d) Scalar Chain

Answer

Answer: (d) Scalar Chain

---

Question 12.
In the management process, the most misinterpreted word is
(a) Organizing
(b) Delegating
(c) Controlling
(d) Planning

Answer

Answer: (a) Organizing

---

Question 13.
Who is considered as the father of Scientific Management?
(a) Harold Koontz
(b) Henry Fayol
(c) Gilbreth
(d) F.W.Taylor

Answer

Answer: (d) F.W.Taylor

---

Question 14.
Name the organizational structure that assists in increasing managerial and operational efficiency.
(a) Functional structure
(b) Divisional structure
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Functional structure

---

Question 15.
Who said, “Management is a multiple purpose organ that manages a business, manages a manager and manages workers and work”?
(a) Harold Koontz
(b) Peter Drucker
(c) Kenneth O’Donnell
(d) Anonymous

Answer

Answer: (b) Peter Drucker

---

Question 16.
Which of the following can be tested in the laboratories?
(a) Principles of Pure Art
(b) Principles of pure science
(c) Principles of management
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Principles of pure science

---

Question 17.
Basic aim of Functional Foremanship is ________
(a) Not to provide free time to workers
(b) To separate Top-level management from Chief Executive Officer
(c) To separate planning functions from executive functions
(d) Not to divide the work

Answer

Answer: (c) To separate planning functions from executive functions

---

Question 18.
Science, not rule of thumb, this principle was given by _______
(a) James Lundy
(b) Henry Fayol
(c) Koontz
(d) F.W.Taylor

Answer

Answer: (d) F.W.Taylor

---

Question 19.
Principles of management cannot be __________
(a) Defined
(b) Applied Everywhere
(c) Tested in Laboratories
(d) Part of the business

Answer

Answer: (c) Tested in Laboratories

---

Question 20.
Which of the following techniques and studies are concerned with F.W.Taylor?
(a) Fatigue Study
(b) Method Study
(c) Time Study
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above

---

Question 21.
Gang Plank means _________
(a) Indirect Contact
(b) Contact not allowed
(c) Direct Contact
(d) Appointment before Contact

Answer

Answer: (c) Direct Contact

---

Question 22.
The word ________ denotes a function, a task, a discipline.
(a) Management
(b) Leadership
(c) Motivation
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Management

---

Question 23.
How many principles are given by Henri Fayol?
(a) 16
(b) 18
(c) 20
(d) 14

Answer

Answer: (d) 14

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Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 2 Principles of Management with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 12 Business Studies Principles of Management MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.