Author name: Prasanna

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 3 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 3 Chemistry Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
The group number, number of valence electrons, and valency of an element with the atomic number 15, respectively, are:
(a) 16, 5 and 2
(b) 15, 5 and 3
(c) 16, 6 and 3
(d) 15, 6 and 2

Answer

Answer: (b) 15, 5 and 3
Explanation:
Atomic number (Z) = 15 = P → [Ne] 3s² 3p³
Phosphorus belongs to 15th group
Number of valence electrons 3s² 3p³ = 5 and valency = 3 in ground state.


Question 2.
The d-block elements consists mostly of
(a) Monovalent metals
(b) All non-metals
(c) Elements which generally form stoichiometric metal oxide
(d) Many metals with catalytic properties

Answer

Answer: (d) Many metals with catalytic properties
Explanation:
Many metals with catalytic properties because (i) They provide surface area for reaction to occur (ii) They decreases the ionisation energy. (iii) They have vacant d-orbitals.


Question 3.
Which of the following has the highest boiling point?
(a) Ne
(b) Xe
(c) Ar
(d) Kr.

Answer

Answer: (b) Xe
Explanation:
Xe has the highest atomic size and molecular weight. Hence, it has strong Vander Waals forces of attraction. Hence, it has the highest boiling point.


Question 4.
The chemistry of lithium is very similar to that of magnesium even though they are placed in different groups. Its reason is:
(a) Both are found together in nature
(b) Both have nearly the same size
(c) Both have similar electronic configuration
(d) The ratio of their charge and size (i.e. charge density) is nearly the same

Answer

Answer: (d) The ratio of their charge and size (i.e. charge density) is nearly the same
Explanation:
The chemistry of lithium is very similar to that of magnesium even though they are placed in different groups because of diagonal relationship.


Question 5.
Which one of the following groupings represents a collection of isoelectronic species? (At. nos: Cs-55, Br-35)
(a) Na+, Ca2+, Mg2+
(b) N3-, F, Na+
(c) Be, Al3+, Cl
(d) Ca2+, Cs+, Br

Answer

Answer: (b) N3-, F, Na+
Explanation:
Isoelectronic species are the neutral atoms, cations or anions of different elements which have the same number of electrons but different nuclear charge.
Number of electrons in N3- = 7 + 3 = 10.
Number of electrons in F = 9 + 1 = 10
Number of electrons in Na+ = 11 – 1 = 10.


Question 6.
Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired electrons?
(a) Mg2+
(b) Ti3+
(c) V3+
(d) Fe2+

Answer

Answer: (d) Fe2+
Explanation:
Mg2+: 1s² 2s² 2p6: no unpaired electron
Ti3+: 1s² 2s² 2p6 3s² 3p6 3d1: one unpaired electron
V3+: 1s² 2s² 2p6 3s² 3p6 3d1: two unpaired electrons
Fe2+: 1s² 2s² 2p6 3s² 3p6 3d6: four unpaired electrons


Question 7.
In the periodic table, the element with atomic number 16 will be placed in the group
(a) Third
(b) Fourth
(c) Fifth
(d) Sixth

Answer

Answer: (d) Sixth
Explanation:
16-1s²2s²2p63s²3p4 there are 6e in outer most shell therefore its group is VIth A


Question 8.
Representative elements are those which belong to
(a) p and d – Block
(b) s and d – Block
(c) s and p – Block
(d) s and f – Block

Answer

Answer: (c) s and p – Block
Explanation:
Elements in which all the inner shells are complete but outer shell is incomplete is known as representative elements i.e. Those elements which have less than 8 electrons in outermost shell are representative.
s and p block elements except inert gas is known as representative elements.


Question 9.
Which pair of elements belongs to same group?
(a) Elements with atomic no. 17 and 38
(b) Elements with atomic no. 20 and 40
(c) Elements with atomic no. 17 and 53
(d) Elements with atomic no. 11 and 33

Answer

Answer: (c) Elements with atomic no. 17 and 53
Explanation:
Atomic no. 17(Cl) and 53 (I) are present in the same group


Question 10.
The most electronegative element of the periodic table is
(a) Iodine
(b) Sulphur
(c) Oxygen
(d) Fluorine.

Answer

Answer: (d) Fluorine.
Explanation:
Fluorine is the most electronegative element. Fluorine has an electronegativity of 3.98 on the Pauling Electronegativity Scale and a valence of 1. A fluorine atom needs one electron to fill its outer electron shell and achieve stability, which is why free fluorine exists as the F ion.


Question 11.
In the third period of the Periodic Table the element having smallest size is
(a) Na
(b) Ar
(c) Cl
(d) Si

Answer

Answer: (b) Ar
Explanation:
In the third period of the Periodic Table the element having smallest size is Ar.


Question 12.
The element with highest second ionization energy is
(a) Cl
(b) S
(c) Na
(d) Mg

Answer

Answer: (c) Na
Explanation:
Sodium has 11 electrons which can be written as (2, 8, and 1). Its outer orbit has 1 electron When it is ionized for the first time, the outer most electron is removed very easily, so that it can form the electronic configuration of the nearest inert gas Neon (2, 8).
Neon has 8 electrons in its outermost orbit. Thus it is highly stable. Now, when the second electron is removed, a very very high amount of energy is required because it doesnt want to give away one of its outermost electron by disrupting its stability.
Thus, second ionization energy of sodium is extremely high.


Question 13.
Which of the following properties generally decreases along a period?
(a) Ionization Energy
(b) Metallic Character
(c) Electron Affinity
(d) Valency.

Answer

Answer: (b) Metallic Character
Explanation:
The IE, EA increases along the period. The valency initially increases then decreases. The metallic character decreases along the period.


Question 14.
Increasing order of electronegativity is
(a) Bi < P < S < Cl
(b) P < Bi < S < Cl
(c) S < Bi < P < Cl
(d) Cl < S < Bi < P

Answer

Answer: (a) Bi < P < S < Cl
Explanation:
Increasing order of electronegativity is Bi < P < S < Cl.


Question 15.
Which of the following oxides is amphoteric in character?
(a) SnO2
(b) CO2
(c) SiO2
(d) CaO

Answer

Answer: (a) SnO2
Explanation:
CaO is basic; CO2 is acidic; SiO2 is weakly acidic. SnO2 is amphoteric.


Question 16.
Which of the following statement is correct with respect to the property of elements with an increase in atomic number in the carbon family (group 14)
(a) Atomic size decrease
(b) Ionization energy increase
(c) Metallic character decrease
(d) Stability of +2 oxidation state increase

Answer

Answer: (d) Stability of +2 oxidation state increase
Explanation:
As we go down the group inertness of ns² pair increase hence tendency to exhibit +2 oxidation state increases and that of +4 oxidation state decreases.


Question 17.
The elements which occupy the peaks of ionisation energy curve, are
(a) Na, K, Rb, Cs
(b) Na, Mg, Cl, I
(c) Cl, Br, I, F
(d) He, Ne, Ar, Kr

Answer

Answer: (d) He, Ne, Ar, Kr
Explanation:
All the noble gases occupy the peaks of I.E. curve.


Question 18.
According to the periodic law of elements, the variation in properties of elements is related to their
(a) nuclear neutron – proton number ratios
(b) atomic masses
(c) nuclear masses
(d) atomic numbers

Answer

Answer: (d) atomic numbers
Explanation:
The Periodic Law states that the physical and chemical properties of the elements recur in a systematic and predictable way when the elements are arranged in order of increasing atomic number.


Question 19.
The group number, number of valence electrons, and valency of an element with the atomic number 15, respectively, are:
(a) 16, 5 and 2
(b) 15, 5 and 3
(c) 16, 6 and 3
(d) 15, 6 and 2

Answer

Answer: (b) 15, 5 and 3
Explanation:
Atomic number (Z) =15 =P → [Ne] 3s² 3p³
Phosphorus belongs to 15th group
Number of valence electrons 3s² 3p³ = 5 and valency = 3 in ground state.


Question 20.
A sudden large jump between the values of second and third ionisation energies of an element would be associated with the electronic configuration
(a) 1s², 2s²p6, 3s1
(b) 1s², 2s²p6, 3s²p1
(c) 1s², 2s2p6, 3s²
(d) 1s², 2s²p6, 3s2

Answer

Answer: (c) 1s², 2s2p6, 3s²
Explanation:
1s², 2s2p6, 3s² – In III transition e is to be removed from stable configuration.


Hope the information shared regarding the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties with Answers Pdf free download is true and genuine as far as our knowledge is concerned. If you feel any information regarding CBSE Class 11 Chemistry Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers is missing do reach us and we will look into it and add it accordingly.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties with Answers Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 4 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 4 Chemistry Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
Based on VSEPR theory, the number of 90° F-Br-F angles in BrF5 is
(a) 0
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 8

Answer

Answer: (a) 0
Explanation:
BrF5 has octahedral geometry and square pyramidal shape.
It has one lone pair and five bond pairs. So, geometry will be octahedral. But since lone pair repels too much, all the four bond pairs that had to be on a square planar surface, will tilt. This will result in a destructed geometry.


Question 2.
The hybrid state of sulphur in SO2 molecule is :
(a) sp²
(b) sp³
(c) sp
(d) sp³d

Answer

Answer: (a) sp²
Explanation:
The hybridisation of sulphur in SO2​ is sp². Sulphur atom has one lone pair of electrons and two bonding domains. Bond angle is <120° and molecular geometry is V-shape, bent or angular


Question 3.
In allene (C3H4), the type(s) of hybridisation of the carbon atoms is (are)
(a) sp and sp³
(b) sp and sp²
(c) Only sp²
(d) sp² and sp³

Answer

Answer: (b) sp and sp²
Explanation:
Allene: H2​C = C = CH2. The central carbon is attached to other carbons by two sigma and two pi bonds so its hybridisation will be sp. The terminal carbon is attached to other carbon and hydrogen by 3 sigma and 2 pi bonds and hence, its hybridisation will be sp²


Question 4.
The state of hybridization of the central atom and the number of lone pairs over the central atom in POCl3 are
(a) sp, 0
(b) sp², 0
(c) sp³, 0
(d) dsp², 1

Answer

Answer: (c) sp³, 0
Explanation:
The central atom of POCl3 that is P has sp3 hybridization and the number of lone pairs over the central atom in POCl3 is zero.

The central atom is P, which has 5 valence electrons. Out of them, two valence electrons are used to form a P = O double bond, while the other 3 valence electrons are used to form 3 P-Cl bonds. The molecular geometry of POCl3 is tetrahedral with asymmetric charge distribution around the central atom. Therefore this molecule is polar. The structure of this compound is tetrahedral and hybridisation of P is sp³.

On the central atom P, there are 4 bonding electron clouds (1 P = O double bond and 3 P-Cl bonds) but no lone pair of electrons.


Question 5.
The charge/size ratio of a cation determines its polarizing power. Which one of the following sequences represents the increasing order of the polarizing order of the polarizing power of the cationic species, K+, Ca2+, Mg2+, Be2+?
(a) Ca2+ < Mg2+ < Be+ < K+
(b) Mg2+ < Be2+ < K+ < Ca2+
(c) Be2+ < K+ < Ca2+ < Mg2+
(d) K+ < Ca2+ < Mg2+ < Be2+

Answer

Answer: (d) K+ < Ca2+ < Mg2+ < Be2+
Explanation:
High charge and small size of the cations increases polarisation.
As the size of the given cations decreases as
K+ > Ca2+ > Mg2+ > Be2+
Hence, polarising power decreases as K+ < Ca2+ < Mg2+ < Be2+


Question 6.
Which one of the following does not have sp² hybridised carbon?
(a) Acetone
(b) Acetic acid
(c) Acetonitrile
(d) Acetamide

Answer

Answer: (c) Acetonitrile
Explanation:
Acetonitrile does not contain sp² hybridized carbon.


Question 7.
Which one of the following is paramagnetic?
(a) NO+
(b) CO
(c) O2
(d) CN

Answer

Answer: (c) O2
Explanation:
O2(17)Super oxide has one unpaired electron. Since Paramagnetism is shown by those molecules which have at least one unpaired electron, hence, O2 is paramagnetic.
Option 1)
NO+
This solution is incorrect
Option 2)
CO
This solution is incorrect
Option 3)
O2
This solution is correct
Option 4)
CN
This solution is incorrect


Question 8.
Which of the following structures will have a bond angle of 120° around the central atom?
(a) Linear
(b) Tetrahedral
(c) Triangular
(d) Square planar

Answer

Answer: (c) Triangular
Explanation:
When three electrons pairs get as far apart from each other, a trigonal planar structure is formed. The bond angle in this structure will be 120°.


Question 9.
An atom of an element A has three electrons in its outermost orbit and that of B has six electrons in its outermost orbit. The formula of the compound between these two will be
(a) A3 B6
(b) A2 B3
(c) A3 B2
(d) A2 B

Answer

Answer: (b) A2 B3
Explanation:
A has 3 electrons in outermost orbit and B has 6 electrons in its outermost orbits. So A can give three electrons to complete its octet and B needs 2 electrons to complete its octet. So 2 atoms of A will release 6 electrons and 3 atoms of B will need six electrons to complete their octet
So, the formula will be A2​B3


Question 10.
In which of the following , the angle around the central atom is largest?
(a) CS2
(b) SF4
(c) SO2
(d) BBR3

Answer

Answer: (b) SF4
Explanation:
Bond angle is determined by the hybridization.
SO2 ​ undergo sp3 hybridization and exhibits 109° bond angle
BBr3​ undergo sp2 hybridization and exhibits 120° bond angle
CS2​ undergo sp hybridization and exhibits 180° bond angle.
SF4​ undergo sp3 d hybridization and exhibits different bond angles.
So, the least bond angle is exhibited by CS2


Question 11.
Based on lattice enthalpy and other considerations which one the following alkali metals chlorides is expected to have the higher melting point?
(a) RbCl
(b) KCl
(c) NaCl
(d) LiCl

Answer

Answer: (c) NaCl
Explanation:
The highest melting point will be NaCl, it is because, the lattice energy decreases as the size of alkali metal increases so going down the group the melting point decreases, but due to the covalent bonding in LiCl, its melting point is lower than NaCl and so NaCl is expected to have maximum melting point in the alkali chlorides.​


Question 12.
In which of the following substances, the intermolecular forces are hydrogen bonds?
(a) Hydrogen Chloride
(b) Hydrogen Sulphide
(c) Dry Ice
(d) Ice

Answer

Answer: (d) Ice
Explanation:
Ice is held together by hydrogen bonds.


Question 13.
Which one of the following pairs of species have the same bond order?
(a) CN and NO+
(b) CN and CN+
(c) O2 and CN
(d) NO+ and CN+

Answer

Answer: (d) NO+ and CN+
Explanation:
CN and NO+ are isoelectronic 14 and have same bond order.


Question 14.
Dipole-induced dipole interactions are present in which of the following pairs?
(a) H2O and alcohol
(b) Cl2 and CCl4
(c) HCl and He atoms
(d) SiF4 and He atoms

Answer

Answer: (c) HCl and He atoms
Explanation:
HCl is polar (μ ≠ 0) and He is non-polar (μ = 0) gives dipole-induced dipole interaction.


Question 15.
In allene (C3H4), the type(s) of hybridisation of the carbon atoms is (are)
(a) sp and sp³
(b) sp and sp²
(c) Only sp²
(d) sp² and sp³

Answer

Answer: (b) sp and sp²
Explanation:
Allene: H2​C = C = CH2. The central carbon is attached to other carbons by two sigma and two pi bonds so its hybridisation will be sp. The terminal carbon is attached to other carbon and hydrogen by 3 sigma and 2 pi bonds and hence, its hybridisation will be sp²


Question 16.
The weakest interparticle forces are found in which of the following?
(a) Ionic Solids
(b) Metallic Solids
(c) Molecular Solids
(d) All types of solids are equal in terms of interparticle forces.

Answer

Answer: (c) Molecular Solids
Explanation:
Molecular solids are the weakest.
Because Ionic solids and metallic solids are a type of bond. Bonds are stronger than Van der Waals forces.


Question 17.
Which of the following types of hybridisation leads to three dimensional geometry of bonds around the carbon atom ?
(a) sp
(b) sp²
(c) sp³
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) sp²
Explanation:
sp² hybrid structures have trigonal planar geometry, which is two dimensional.


Question 18.
If the bond length and dipole moment of a diatomic molecule are 1.25 A and 1.0 D respectively, what is the percent ionic character of the bond?
(a) 10.66
(b) 12.33
(c) 16.66
(d) 19.33

Answer

Answer: (c) 16.66
Explanation:
μionic = (1.6 × 10−19 C)(1.25 × 10−10 m)/(3.335 × 10−30) (Cm/D)
= 5.99 D
%ionic character = (100 × μobs)/ (μionic)
=100 × 15.99 = 16.66%


Question 19.
The number of types of bonds between two carbon atoms in calcium carbide is
(a) Two sigma, two pi
(b) One sigma, two pi
(c) One sigma, one pi
(d) Two sigma, one pi

Answer

Answer: (b) One sigma, two pi
Explanation:
A single bond between two atoms is always considered as sigma bond.
A double bond between two atoms is always considered as one sigma and one pi bond
A triple bond between two atoms is always considered as one sigma bond and two pi bonds.
So according to the given structure CaC2 (Calcium carbide) has 1 sigma and 2 pi bonds


Question 20.
Which of the following species contain non-directional bonds ?
(a) NCl3
(b) BeCl2
(c) BCl3
(d) RbCl

Answer

Answer: (b) BeCl2
Explanation:
Ionic or electrovalent bonds are called non-directional bonds, the meaning of non-directional is that these type of bonds does not have any special type of geometry, that is only attraction of positive and negative charge as we know ionic bonds made between metal[positively charged] and non-metal[negatively charged]

RbCl is ionic compound and non-directional


Hope the information shared regarding the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure with Answers Pdf free download is true and genuine as far as our knowledge is concerned. If you feel any information regarding CBSE Class 11 Chemistry Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers is missing do reach us and we will look into it and add it accordingly.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure with Answers Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 5 States of Matter with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 5 States of Matter with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these States of Matter Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

States of Matter Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the States of Matter Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 5 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on States of Matter Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 5 Chemistry Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
Three containers A, B, C of equal volume contain oxygen, neon and methane respectively at same temperature and pressure. The increasing order of their masses is
(a) A < B < C
(b) B < C < A
(c) C < A < B
(d) C < B < A

Answer

Answer: (d) C < B < A
Explanation:
Under similar conditions of temperature and pressure, equal volumes of different gases contain equal number of moles.
Therefore, Masses of O2, Ne and CH4 will be in the ratio 32 : 20 : 16
So, increasing order of their mass is oxygen > neon > methane


Question 2.
A gas will approach ideal behaviour at
(a) Low temperature, low pressure
(b) Low temperature, high pressure
(c) High temperature, low pressure
(d) High temperature, high pressure

Answer

Answer: (c) High temperature, low pressure
Explanation:
At high temperature and low pressure, the gas volume becomes large and both intermolecular force as well as the molecular volume can be neglected. Under this condition postulate of kinetic theory applies appropriately and gas approaches ideal behavior.


Question 3.
Containers A and B have same gas. Pressure, volume and temperature of A are all twice those of B. The ratio of number of molecules of A and B is
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 1 : 4
(d) 4 : 1

Answer

Answer: (b) 2 : 1
Explanation:
For B, P1 = P, V1 = V, T1 = T.
For A, P1 = 2P, = 2P, V2 = 2P,T1 = 2T
Applying ideal gas equation, PV = nRT.
(P1V1)/ (n1RT1) = (P2V2)/ (n2RT2)
or (PV)/(n1RT) = (2p × 2V)/(n2R(2T))
or (n2/n1) = (2/1)


Question 4.
According to kinetic theory of gases,in an ideal gas,between two successive collisions a gas molecule travels
(a) In a circular path
(b) In a wavy path
(c) In a straight line path
(d) With an accelerated velocity

Answer

Answer: (c) In a straight line path
Explanation:
ln between two successive collisions, no force is acting on the gas molecules. Resultantly they travel with uniform velocity during this interval and hence, moves along a straight line.


Question 5.
When did substances exist in different crystalline forms the phenomenon is called :
(a) Allotropy
(b) Polymorphism
(c) Polymerization
(d) Isomorphism

Answer

Answer: (b) Polymorphism
Explanation:
Polymorphism, in crystallography, the condition in which a solid chemical compound exists in more than one crystalline form; the forms differ somewhat in physical and, sometimes, chemical properties, although their solutions and vapours are identical.


Question 6.
Sl unit of pressure is :
(a) Pascal
(b) torr
(c) mm of Hg
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Pascal
Explanation:
Pressure is the effect of a force applied to an area of any surface. The basic unit of pressure is obtained from combining base units which are force over area.
Pressure = (Force/Area)
Unit of force is: Newton(N)
Unit of Area is: m²(metre)
P = N/m²
And the unit of pressure in SI system is Pascal which is denoted by Pa.
1 Pa = 1 (N/m²)


Question 7.
If the pressure of a gas is increased then its mean free path becomes:
(a) 0
(b) Less
(c) More
(d) Infinity

Answer

Answer: (b) Less
Explanation:
As gas pressure increases mean free path of the gas decreases.
Mean free path is the distance travelled by a gas molecule between two successive collisions.
So, as pressure increases number of collisions also increases. Hence, mean free path decreases.​


Question 8.
1 atmosphere is equal to:
(a) 1 torr
(b) 760 cm
(c) 760 mm
(d) 76 torr

Answer

Answer: (c) 760 mm
Explanation:
Standard atmosphere, unit of pressure, equal to the mean atmospheric pressure at sea level. It corresponds to the pressure exerted by a vertical column of mercury (as in a barometer) 760 mm (29.9213 inches) high. One standard atmosphere, which is also referred to as one atmosphere, is equivalent to 101,325 pascals, or newtons of force per square metre (approximately 14.7 pounds per square inch).


Question 9.
Grahams law refers to :
(a) Boiling point of water
(b) Gaseous Diffusion
(c) Gas Compression
(d) Volume changes of gases

Answer

Answer: (b) Gaseous Diffusion
Explanation:
Graham found experimentally that the rate of effusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of the mass of its particles. This formula can be written as:
(Rate1/ Rate2) = (M2/ M1)(1/2)
where:
Rate1 is the rate of effusion for the first gas. (volume or number of moles per unit time).
Rate2 is the rate of effusion for the second gas.
M1 is the molar mass of gas 1
M2 is the molar mass of gas 2.

Grahams law states that the rate of diffusion or of effusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its molecular weight. Thus, if the molecular weight of one gas is four times that of another, it would diffuse through a porous plug or escape through a small pinhole in a vessel at half the rate of the other (heavier gases diffuse more slowly). A complete theoretical explanation of Grahams law was provided years later by the kinetic theory of gases. Grahams law provides a basis for separating isotopes by diffusion a method that came to play a crucial role in the development of the atomic bomb


Question 10.
The rise or fall of a liquid within a tube of small bore is called :
(a) Surface Tension
(b) Capillary Action
(c) Viscosity
(d) Formation of Curvature

Answer

Answer: (b) Capillary Action
Explanation:
Capillarity, rise or depression of a liquid in a small passage such as a tube of small cross-sectional area, like the spaces between the fibres of a towel or the openings in a porous material. Capillarity is not limited to the vertical direction. Water is drawn into the fibres of a towel, no matter how the towel is oriented.

Liquids that rise in small-bore tubes inserted into the liquid are said to wet the tube, whereas liquids that are depressed within thin tubes below the surface of the surrounding liquid do not wet the tube. Water is a liquid that wets glass capillary tubes; mercury is one that does not. When wetting does not occur, capillarity does not occur.

Capillarity is the result of surface, or interfacial, forces. The rise of water in a thin tube inserted in water is caused by forces of attraction between the molecules of water and the glass walls and among the molecules of water themselves. These attractive forces just balance the force of gravity of the column of water that has risen to a characteristic height. The narrower the bore of the capillary tube, the higher the water rises. Mercury, conversely, is depressed to a greater degree, the narrower the bore.


Question 11.
The rates of diffusion of gases are inversely proportional to square root of their densities . This statement refers to :
(a) Daltons Law
(b) Grahams Law
(c) Avogadros Law
(d) None of the Above

Answer

Answer: (b) Grahams Law
Explanation:
Grahams law states that the rate of diffusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its molecular weight. In the same conditions of temperature and pressure, the molar mass is proportional to the mass density. Therefore the rate of diffusion of different gases is inversely proportional to the square root of their mass densities.
r α √(1/d)
and r α √ (1/M)


Question 12.
Cooling is caused by :
(a) Evaporation
(b) Convection
(c) Conduction
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Conduction
Explanation:
Evaporation is a cooling process because when liquid turns to gas. When a liquid evaporates, its molecules convert from the liquid phase to the vapor phase and escape from the surface. Heat drives this process. In order for the molecule to leave the liquid surface and escape as a vapor, it must take heat energy with it. The heat that it takes with it comes from the surface from which it evaporated. Since the molecule is taking heat with it as its leaving, this has a cooling effect on the surface left behind.


Question 13.
If helium and methane are allowed to diffuse out of the container under the similar conditions of temperature and pressure, then the ratio of rate of diffusion of helium to methane is:
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 3 : 5
(d) 4 : 1

Answer

Answer: (a) 2 : 1
Explanation:
According to Grahams law
(r1/ r2) = √ (M2/M1)
(rHe/rCH4) = √ (16/4)
= (2/1)


Question 14.
Equal masses of ethane and hydrogen are mixed in an empty container at 25°C . The fraction of total pressure exerted by hydrogen is
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 1 : 1
(c) 01 : 16
(d) 15 : 16

Answer

Answer: (d) 15 : 16
Explanation:
Let 30g of both are mixed.
Moles of H2 = (30/2) =15
Moles of C2H6 = (30/30) = 1
Mole fraction of H2 = (15)/(1 + 15) = (15/16)
Which is also the fraction of total pressure executed by H2


Question 15.
The volume of 2.8 g of carbon monoxide at 27°C and 0.0821 atm is
(a) 30 L
(b) 3 L
(c) 0.3 L
(d) 1.5 L

Answer

Answer: (a) 30 L
Explanation:
According to the ideal gas equation, we have
PV = nRT
​PV = (w/M) RT
​V = ​ (w/M) (RT/P)
Given values are:
w = 2.8 g
M = Molar mass of CO = 28 g mol-1
T = 27°C = (273 + 27) = 300 K
P = 0.821 atm
R = 0.0821 L atm mol-1 K-1
Putting the values in the formula we get :
V = (2.8 g /28 g mol-1) × (0.0821 L atm mol-1 K-1) × (300 K)/(0.821 atm)
= 3 L


Question 16.
According to kinetic theory of gases,in an ideal gas,between two successive collisions a gas molecule travels
(a) In a circular path
(b) In a wavy path
(c) In a straight line path
(d) With an accelerated velocity

Answer

Answer: (c) In a straight line path
Explanation:
ln between two successive collisions, no force is acting on the gas molecules. Resultantly they travel with uniform velocity during this interval and hence, moves along a straight line.


Question 17.
Standard conditions are :
(a) 0°C and 14. 7mm
(b) 32°F and 76 cm
(c) 273°C and 760 mm
(d) 4°C and 76 m

Answer

Answer: (b) 32°F and 76 cm
Explanation:
Standard conditions for temperature and pressure are standard sets of conditions for experimental measurements to be established to allow comparisons to be made between different sets of data.
Until 1982, STP was defined as a temperature of 273.15 K (0 °C, 32 °F) and an absolute pressure of exactly 1 atm (101.325 kPa).
Since 1982, STP is defined as a temperature of 273.15 K (0 °C, 32 °F) and an absolute pressure of exactly 105 Pa (100 kPa, 1 bar).


Question 18.
The internal resistance to the flow of a liquid is called :
(a) Surface Tension
(b) Diffusion
(c) Viscosity
(d) Osmosis

Answer

Answer: (c) Viscosity
Explanation:
Viscosity is a measure of a fluids resistance to flow. It describes the internal friction of a moving fluid. A fluid with large viscosity resists motion because its molecular makeup gives it a lot of internal friction. A fluid with low viscosity flows easily because its molecular makeup results in very little friction when it is in motion.
Gases also have viscosity, although it is a little harder to notice it in ordinary circumstances.


Question 19.
When did substances exist in different crystalline forms the phenomenon is called :
(a) Allotropy
(b) Polymorphism
(c) Polymerization
(d) Isomorphism

Answer

Answer: (b) Polymorphism
Explanation:
Polymorphism, in crystallography, the condition in which a solid chemical compound exists in more than one crystalline form; the forms differ somewhat in physical and, sometimes, chemical properties, although their solutions and vapours are identical.


Question 20.
The temperature above which the gas cannot be liquified by pressure alone is called :
(a) Melting Point
(b) Critical Temperature
(c) Transition Temperature
(d) Absolute Zero

Answer

Answer: (b) Critical Temperature
Explanation:
The critical temperature of a gas is the temperature below which it can be liquefied by application of pressure.


Hope the information shared regarding the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 5 States of Matter with Answers Pdf free download is true and genuine as far as our knowledge is concerned. If you feel any information regarding CBSE Class 11 Chemistry States of Matter MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers is missing do reach us and we will look into it and add it accordingly.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 5 States of Matter with Answers Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 6 Thermodynamics with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 6 Thermodynamics with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Thermodynamics Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Thermodynamics Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Thermodynamics Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 6 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Thermodynamics Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 6 Chemistry Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
Hesss law is an application of
(a) 1st law of Thermodynamics
(b) 2nd law of Thermodynamics
(c) Entropy change
(d) ∆H = ∆U + P∆V.

Answer

Answer: (a) 1st law of Thermodynamics
Explanation:
Hesss law is an expression of the principle of conservation of energy, also expressed in the first law of thermodynamics, and the fact that the enthalpy of a chemical process is independent of the path taken from the initial to the final state (i.e. enthalpy is a state function).


Question 2.
5 mole of an ideal gas expand isothermally and irreversibly from a pressure of 10 atm to 1 atm against a constant external pressure of 1 atm. Wirr at 300 K is:
(a) -15.921 kJ
(b) -11.224 kJ
(c) -110.83 kJ
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) -11.224 kJ
Explanation:
P1V1 = RT η
10(V1) = 5(8.3)(300) 1
V1 = 150(0.0821)
P1V1 = P2V2
Therefore, 10(150 x0.0821) = 1 (V2)
Therefore V2 = 10(150 × 0.0821)
Therefore, -P Therefore V = -(1)(9)(150 × 0.0821) 101.3
= -11224 J = -11.224 KJ


Question 3.
At absolute zero the entropy of a perfect crystal is zero. This statement corresponds to which law of thermodynamics?
(a) Zeroth Law
(b) First Law
(c) Second Law
(d) Third Law

Answer

Answer: (d) Third Law
Explanation:
The third law of thermodynamics states that the entropy of a system approaches a constant value as the temperature approaches absolute zero. The entropy of a system at absolute zero is typically zero, and in all cases is determined only by the number of different ground states it has. Specifically, the entropy of a pure crystalline substance (perfect order) at absolute zero temperature is zero. This statement holds true if the perfect crystal has only one state with minimum energy.


Question 4.
Which of the following has the highest entropy?
(a) Mercury
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Water
(d) Graphite

Answer

Answer: (b) Hydrogen
Explanation:
Gas has the highest entropy.


Question 5.
An ideal gas is taken through the cycle A → B → C → A as shown in figure. If the net heat supplied to the gas in cycle is 5 J, the work done by the gas in the process C → A.
MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 6 Thermodynamics with Answers 1
(a) -5 J
(b) -15 J
(c) -10 J
(d) -20 J

Answer

Answer: (a) -5 J
Explanation:
Work done by the gas is negative
∆ U in cyclic process is zero.
Therefore, w = -5J


Question 6.
One mole of which of the following has the highest entropy?
(a) Liquid Nitrogen
(b) Hydrogen Gas
(c) Mercury
(d) Diamond

Answer

Answer: (b) Hydrogen Gas
Explanation:
The measure of randomness of a substance is called entropy. Greater the randomness of molecules of a substance greater is the entropy. Here hydrogen gas has more entropy as it shows more randomness/disorderliness due to less molar mass than all the given substances and also in the gas phase.


Question 7.
An ideal gas is taken around the cycle ABCA as shown in P-V diagram The next work done by the gas during the cycle is equal to:
MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 6 Thermodynamics with Answers 2
(a) 12P1V1
(b) 6P1V1
(c) 5P1V1
(d) P1V1

Answer

Answer: (c) 5P1V1
Explanation:
Work done = Area under P-V graph = (1/2) (5P1) (2V1) = 5P1 V1


Question 8.
Third law of thermodynamics provides a method to evaluate which property?
(a) Absolute Energy
(b) Absolute Enthalpy
(c) Absolute Entropy
(d) Absolute Free Energy

Answer

Answer: (c) Absolute Entropy
Explanation:
The Third Law of Thermodynamics is concerned with the limiting behavior of systems as the temperature approaches absolute zero. Most thermodynamics calculations use only entropy differences, so the zero point of the entropy scale is often not important. However, the Third Law tells us about the completeness as it describes the condition of zero entropy.


Question 9.
Which of the following is/are a reason that water is a desirable heat sink for use in calorimeters?
I) Waters heat specific capacity is very precisely known.
II) Water is readily available.
III) Water has an unusually large specific heat capacity.
(a) I only
(b) I and II
(c) I, II and III
(d) II only

Answer

Answer: (c) I, II and III
Explanation:
Water is a good heat sink for all of the reasons listed above. Moreover, its large heat capacity, liquid state and ready availability enable us to easily set up a calorimeter such that ∆T is large enough that it can be easily measured and small enough that phase transition temperatures are not reached.


Question 10.
In a chemical reaction the bond energy of reactants is more than the bond energy of the products. Therefore, the reaction is
(a) Exothermic
(b) Athermic
(c) Endothermic
(d) Endergonic

Answer

Answer: (c) Endothermic
Explanation:
If the products have a higher energy level than the reactants then the reaction is endothermic.
In an endothermic reaction, the reaction mixture absorbs heat from the surroundings. Therefore, the products will have a higher energy than the reactants and ΔH will be positive.
In an exothermic reaction, the reaction mixture releases heat to the surroundings. Therefore, the products will have a lower energy than the reactants and ΔH will be negative.


Question 11.
In a reversible process the system absorbs 600 kJ heat and performs 250 kJ work on the surroundings. What is the increase in the internal energy of the system?
(a) 850 kJ
(b) 600 kJ
(c) 350 kJ
(d) 250 kJ

Answer

Answer: (c) 350 kJ
Explanation:
∆E = q + w
= (600 – 250)
∆E = 350 J


Question 12.
Which of the following neutralisation reactions is most exothermic?
(a) HCl and NaOH
(b) HCN and NaOH
(c) HCl and NH4OH
(d) CH3COOH and NH4OH

Answer

Answer: (a) HCl and NaOH
Explanation:
Strong acid + Strong base → Most exothermic.


Question 13.
A student runs a reaction in a closed system. In the course of the reaction, 64.7 kJ of heat is released to the surroundings and 14.3 kJ of work is done on the system. What is the change in internal energy (∆U) of the reaction?
(a) -79.0 kJ
(b) 50.4 kJ
(c) 79.0 kJ
(d) -50.4 kJ

Answer

Answer: (d) -50.4 kJ
Explanation:
The change in internal energy is given as: ∆U = q + w. In this reaction, q is -64.7 kJ and w is 14.3 kJ. Therefore the correct answer is -50.4 kJ.


Question 14.
Identify the correct statement from the following in a chemical reaction.
(a) The entropy always increases
(b) The change in entropy along with suitable change in enthalpy decides the fate of a reaction
(c) The enthalpy always decreases
(d) Both the enthalpy and the entropy remain constant

Answer

Answer: (b) The change in entropy along with suitable change in enthalpy decides the fate of a reaction
Explanation:
ΔG = ΔH – TΔS
For a reaction to be spontaneous, ΔG should be negative. Therefore, resultant of ΔH and TΔS decide show the reaction will be carried.


Question 15.
2 mole of an ideal gas at 27° C expands isothermally and reversibly from a volume of 4 litres to 40 litre. The work done (in kJ) is:
(a) w = -28.72 kJ
(b) w = -11.488 kJ
(c) w = -5.736 kJ
(d) w = -4.988 kJ

Answer

Answer: (b) w = -11.488 kJ
Explanation:
w = -2.303 η RT log (V2/V1)
= -2.303(8 – 3) (300)(2) log (40/4)
= -114.8 100J


Question 16.
The latent heat of vapourization of ε liquid at 500 K and 1 atm pressure is 10.0 kcal/mol. What will be the change in internal energy (ΔU) of 3 moles of liquid at the same temperature
(a) 13.0 kcal/mol
(b) −13.0 kcal/mol
(c) 27.0 kcal
(d) −7.0 kcal/mol

Answer

Answer: (c) 27.0 kcal
Explanation:
3H2O(l) → 3H2O(g);
Δn = 3,
ΔE = ΔH − ΔnRT
= 30 − 3 × (2/1000) × 500
= 27 kcal


Question 17.
Calculate the heat required to make 6.4 Kg CaC2 from CaO(s) and C(s) from the reaction: CaO(s) + 3 C(s) → CaC2(s) + CO (g) given that ∆f H° (CaC2) = -14.2 kcal. ∆f H° (CO) = -26.4 kcal.
(a) 5624 kca
(b) 1.11 × 104 kcal
(c) 86.24 × 10³
(d) 1100 kcal

Answer

Answer: (b) 1.11 × 104 kcal
Explanation:
n = (Mass)/ (Molecular weight)
= (6.4 × 10³)/ (64)
= 100
For 1 mole of CaC2
∆ H = ∆Hf (CaC) + Hf (CO) – Hf (CaO)
= -14.2 – 26.4 + 151.6 = 111.1 kcal
For 100 moles, ∆H = 1.11 x 104 Kcal


Question 18.
Entropy of the universe is
(a) Continuously Increasing
(b) Continuously Decreasing
(c) Zero
(d) Constant

Answer

Answer: (a) Continuously Increasing
Explanation:
Energy always flows downhill, and this causes an increase of entropy. Entropy is the spreading out of energy, and energy tends to spread out as much as possible. The universe will have run down completely, and the entropy of the universe will be as high as it is ever going to get.


Question 19.
At absolute zero the entropy of a perfect crystal is zero. This statement corresponds to which law of thermodynamics?
(a) Zeroth Law
(b) First Law
(c) Second Law
(d) Third Law

Answer

Answer: (d) Third Law
Explanation:
The third law of thermodynamics states that the entropy of a system approaches a constant value as the temperature approaches absolute zero. The entropy of a system at absolute zero is typically zero, and in all cases is determined only by the number of different ground states it has. Specifically, the entropy of a pure crystalline substance (perfect order) at absolute zero temperature is zero. This statement holds true if the perfect crystal has only one state with minimum energy.


Question 20.
The bond energy (in kcal mol-1) of a C-C single bond is approximately
(a) 1
(b) 10
(c) 83-85
(d) 1000

Answer

Answer: (c) 83-85
Explanation:
C–C bond 83–85 kcal/mol
It is the energy required to break the bond .It is defined as the standard enthalpy change when a bond is cleaved by homolysis, with reactants and products of the homolysis reaction at 0 K (absolute zero)


Hope the information shared regarding the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 6 Thermodynamics with Answers Pdf free download is true and genuine as far as our knowledge is concerned. If you feel any information regarding CBSE Class 11 Chemistry Thermodynamics MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers is missing do reach us and we will look into it and add it accordingly.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 6 Thermodynamics with Answers Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 7 Equilibrium with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 7 Equilibrium with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Equilibrium Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Equilibrium Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Equilibrium Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 7 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Equilibrium Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 7 Chemistry Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
Which of the following fluoro-compounds is most likely to behave as a Lewis base?
(a) BF3
(b) PF3
(c) CF4
(d) SiF4

Answer

Answer: (b) PF3
Explanation:
BF3 → Lewis acid (incomplete octet)
PF3 → Lewis base (presence of lone pair on p atom)
CF4 → Complete octet
SiF4 → Lewis acid (empty d-orbital in Si-atom)


Question 2.
Calculate the pOH of a solution at 25°C that contains 1 × 10-10 M of hydronium ions, i.e. H3O+.
(a) 4.000
(b) 9.000
(c) 1.000
(d) 7.000

Answer

Answer: (a) 4.000
Explanation:
Given H3O+ ion concentration = 1 × 10-10
pH = −log[H+], pH = −log[1 × 10-10],
pH= + 10log10, pH = 10
We know that, pH + pOH = 14 …….. (i)
Put the value of pH in eq. (i)
10 + pOH = 14
pOH = 4.


Question 3.
When two reactants, A and B are mixed to give products C and D, the reaction quotient, Q, at the initial stages of the reaction
(a) is zero
(b) Decreases With Time
(c) Is Independent Of Time
(d) Increases With Time

Answer

Answer: (d) Increases With Time
Explanation:
Reaction quotient, Qc is equal to ratio of concentration of products to concentration of reactants at any instant of time. In the beginning of reaction, the concentration of products is negligible as compared to reactants. Therefore, the value of reaction quotient is very less.


Question 4.
1 M NaCl and 1 M HCl are present in an aqueous solution. The solution is
(a) Not a buffer solution with pH < 7
(b) Not a buffer solution with pH > 7
(c) A buffer solution with pH < 7
(d) A buffer solution with pH > 7

Answer

Answer: (a) Not a buffer solution with pH < 7
Explanation:
Buffer can accept and donate protons at the same time and HCl is an acid. So, it has pH < 7
So, this is not a buffer and the solution will be acidic.


Question 5.
If, in the reaction N2O4 2NO2, x is that part of N2O4 which dissociates, then the number of molecules at equilibrium will be
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) (1 + x)
(d) (1 + xy)²

Answer

Answer: (a) 1
Explanation:
N2O4 ↔ 2NO2
1 0 (1 – x) 2x
So total number of moles at equilibrium (if initially 1 mole of N2O4 was taken) = (1 – x) + 2x
= (1 + x)


Question 6.
The solubility product of a salt having general formula MX2. In water is : 4 × 10-12. The concentration of M2+ions in the aqueous solution of the salt is
(a) 4.0 × 10-10 M
(b) 1.6 × 10-4 M
(c) 1.0 × 10-4 M
(d) 2.0 × 10-6 M

Answer

Answer: (c) 1.0 × 10-4 M
Explanation:
(MX2) ⇔ M2+s + 2X2s
KSPMS2 = 4S³
= 4 × 10-12
Therefore, S = 10-4
Therefore [M2+] = 1.0 × 10-4M


Question 7.
Equimolar solutions of the following were prepared in water separately. Which one of the solutions will record the highest pH?
(a) CaCl2
(b) SrCl2
(c) BaCl2
(d) MgCl2

Answer

Answer: (c) BaCl2
Explanation:
Equimolar solutions of the given chlorides when prepared in water forms their respective hydroxides.
The pH of salt BaCl2 = 7, whereas SrCl2 and CaCl2 = 7 and MgCl2 < 7.


Question 8.
Oxidation number of Iodine varies from
(a) -1 to +1
(b) -1 to +7
(c) +3 to +5
(d) -1 to +5

Answer

Answer: (b) -1 to +7
Explanation:
Various oxidation numbers of Iodine are -1, 0, +1, +3, +5, +7.
So, Iodine shows -1 to +7 oxidation state.


Question 9.
Which of the following molecualr species has unpaired electrons?
(a) N2
(b) F2
(c) O2
(d) O2-2

Answer

Answer: (c) O2
Explanation:
In O2 total electrons are 17 moiecular orbital configuration.
O2 has one unpaired electron.


Question 10.
A certain buffer solution contains equal concentration of X and HX. The ka for HX is 10-8. The pH of the buffer is
(a) 3
(b) 8
(c) 11
(d) 14

Answer

Answer: (b) 8
Explanation:
ka kb = kw
kb = 10-8
ka × 10-8 = 10-14
ka = 10-6 = [H+]
pH = −log [H+]
pH = − log 10-6
= 6pH + pOH
= 14 pOH
= 14 − 6
= 8


Question 11.
Among the following the weakest Bronsted base is
(a) F
(b) Cl
(c) Br
(d) I

Answer

Answer: (d) I
Explanation:
According to this theory, an acid is a proton donor and a base is a proton acceptor. Every strong Bronsted acid has a weak conjugate base and every strong base has a weak conjugate acid. The acidity increases in halogen group atoms,
HF < HCl < HBr < HI.
So, HI is highly acidic and their conjugate bases decrease in order F > Cl > Br > I.


Question 12.
Which of the following statements is correct about the equilibrium constant?
(a) Its value increases by increase in temperature
(b) Its value decreases by decrease in temperature
(c) Its value may increase or decrease with increase in temperature
(d) Its value is constant at all temperatures

Answer

Answer: (c) Its value may increase or decrease with increase in temperature
Explanation:
Increase in the temperature decreases the value of equilibrium constant because forward reaction is exothermic. When the forward reaction is endothermic increase the temperature increases the value of equilibrium constant. These occurs when chemical equilibrium shifts toward the products or reactants.


Question 13.
pH value of which one of the following is NOT equal to one?
(a) 0.1 M CH3COOH
(b) 0.1 M HNO3
(c) 0.05 M H2SO4
(d) 50 cm³ 0.4 M HCl + 50 cm³ 0.2 M NaOH

Answer

Answer: (a) 0.1 M CH3COOH
Explanation:
Since CH3COOH does not dissociate completely, its 10-1 M solution does not have pH = 1


Question 14.
[ OH] in a solution is 1 mol L. The pH the solution is
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) 14
(d) 10-14

Answer

Answer: (c) 14
Explanation:
[H3O+] = (Kw)/ [OH]
= (10-14)/ (1)
pH = 14


Question 15.
What is the pH of a 0.10 M solution of barium hydroxide, Ba (OH)2?
(a) 11.31
(b) 11.7
(c) 13.30
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) 13.30
Explanation:
pH = 13.30
Barium hydroxide is a strong base for both stages of dissociation:
Ba (OH)2 (s) → Ba2+ + 2OH
So the solution will have 0.20 M hydroxide ions. Now use the auto dissociation product for water:
[H+][OH] = 1.0 × 10-14M
[OH] = 2.0 × 10-1M
[H+] = 5.0 × 10-14M
And then pH = −log10 ([H+] = 5.0 × 10-14)
= 13.30.


Question 16.
The Ksp for Cr (OH)3 is 1.6 × 10-30. The molar solubility of this compound in water is:
(a) √ (1.6 × 10-30)
(b) (√(1.6 × 10-30))(1/4)
(c) (√(1.6 × 10-30)/(27)))(1/4)
(d) (1.6 × 10-30)/(27)

Answer

Answer: (c) (√(1.6 × 10-30)/(27)))(1/4)


Question 17.
The solubility product of CuS, Ag2S and HgS are 10-31, 10-44 and 10-54 respectively. The solubilities of these sulphides are in the order
(a) HgS > Ag2S > CuS
(b) CuS > Ag2S > HgS
(c) Ag2S > CuS > HgS
(d) AgS > HgS > CuS

Answer

Answer: (c) Ag2S > CuS > HgS
Explanation:
For CuS & HgS Ksp = S² (where s= solubility) & for Ag2S ; Ksp = 4S3 (s= solubility) now put the values of Ksp and check in which case the value of S is highest & lowest.
Solubility of CuS : (10-31)(1/2) = ( 10(-31/2));
Ag2S: (10-44)(1/3) =( 10(-44/3));
HgS;
(10-54)(1/2) = (10-54/2) = (10-27);
The order of solubility will be as per above values:
Hence , the order of solubility is: Ag2S > CuS > HgS


Question 18.
Buffer solutions have constant acidity and alkalinity because
(a) They have large excess of H+ or OH ions
(b) They have fixed value of pH
(c) These give unionised acid or base on reaction with added acid or alkali
(d) Acids and alkalies in these solutions are shielded from attack by other ions

Answer

Answer: (c) These give unionised acid or base on reaction with added acid or alkali
Explanation:
Consider a buffer of CH3COOH + CH3COONa
Addition of acid: H+ + CH3COO – → CH3COOH
Weak acid
Addition of alkali:
OH + CH3COOH → H2O + CH3COO
Weak electrolyte
Thus, the addition of acid or alkali does not cause any change in pH.


Question 19.
The position of some metals in the electrochemical series in decreasing electropositive character is Mg > Al > Zn > Cu > Ag. In a chemical factory, a worker by accident used a copper rod to stir a solution of aluminium nitrate; he was scared that now there would be some reaction in the solution, so he hurriedly removed the rod from the solution and observed that
(a) The rod was coated with Al
(b) An alloy of Cu and Al was being formed.
(c) The solution turned blue in colour
(d) There was no reaction.

Answer

Answer: (d) There was no reaction.
Explanation:
Mg > Al > Zn > Cu > Ag Copper rod is used to stir solution of Al(NO3)3 so no reaction as one above in series will displace metal lower in series.


Question 20.
An amount of solid NH4HS is placed in a flask already contaniing ammonia gas at a certain temperature and 0.50 atm pressure. Ammonium hydrogen sulphide decomposes to yield NH3 and H2S gases in the flask. When the decomposition reaction reaches equilibrium , the total pressure in the flask rises to 0.84 atm? The equilibrium constant for NH4HS decomposition at this temperature is
(a) 0.11
(b) 0.17
(c) 0.18
(d) 0.30

Answer

Answer: (a) 0.11


Hope the information shared regarding the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 7 Equilibrium with Answers Pdf free download is true and genuine as far as our knowledge is concerned. If you feel any information regarding CBSE Class 11 Chemistry Equilibrium MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers is missing do reach us and we will look into it and add it accordingly.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 7 Equilibrium with Answers Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 8 Redox Reactions with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 8 Redox Reactions with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Redox Reactions Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Redox Reactions Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Redox Reactions Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 8 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Redox Reactions Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 8 Chemistry Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
KMnO4 reacts with oxalic acid according to the equation 2MnO4 + 5C2O42- + 16H+ → 2Mn2+ + 10CO2 + 8H2O Here 20 mL of 0.1 M KMnO4 is equivalent to
(a) 50 mL of 0.5 M C2H2O4
(b) 20 mL of 0.1 M C2H2O4
(c) 20 mL of 0.5 M C2H2O4
(d) 50 mL of 0.1 M C2H2O4

Answer

Answer: (d) 50 mL of 0.1 MC2H2O4
Explanation:
2MnO4 + 5C2O42- + 16H+ → 2Mn2+ + 10CO2 + 8H2O
Therefore, 2 moles of MNO4 equivalent to 5 moles of C2O42-
20 mL of 0.1 M KMnO4 = 2 moles of KMnO4
Also, 50 mL of 0.1 M C2H2O4 equivalent to 5 mol of C2O42-
Therefore, these are equivalent.


Question 2.
Which of the following is a redox reaction?
(a) NaCl + KNO3 → NaNO3 + KCl
(b) Mg(OH)2 + 2NH4Cl → MgCl2 + 2NH4OH
(c) CaC2O4 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2C2O4
(d) 2Zn + 2AgCN → 2Ag + Zn(CN)2

Answer

Answer: (d) 2Zn + 2AgCN → 2Ag + Zn(CN)2
Explanation:
In all the three reaction there is no change in the oxidation states. These are simple ionic reactions.
But in 2Zn + 2AgCN → 2Ag + Zn(CN)2 there is a change in oxidation state. Ag gains electrons and Zn lose electrons therefore it is a redox reaction.


Question 3.
The reduction potential values of M, N and O are +2.46 V, -1.13 V, -3.13 V respectively. Which of the following orders is correct regarding their reducing property?
(a) O > N > M
(b) M > O > N
(c) M > N > O
(d) O > M > N

Answer

Answer: (d) O > M > N
Explanation:
Given Reduction Potential:
M → +2.46V
N → +1.13V
O → −3.13V
We know that the electrode which has more reduction potential is a good oxidizing agent and has least reducing power.
While the electrode which has less reduction potential, it has more reducing power.
Therefore, Order of reducing power is: – O > M > N


Question 4.
Which of the following processes does not involve either oxidation or reduction?
(a) Formation of slaked lime from quick lime
(b) Heating Mercuric Oxide
(c) Formation of Manganese Chloride from Manganese oxide
(d) Formation of Zinc from Zinc blende

Answer

Answer: (a) Formation of slaked lime from quick lime
Explanation:
Here, in this reaction
CaO + H2​O → Ca(OH)2
Oxidation number doesnt change so its not a redox reaction.


Question 5.
The number of moles of KMnO4 reduced by one mole of KI in alkaline medium is
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Five
(d) One fifth.

Answer

Answer: (b) Two
Explanation:
In alkaline medium the reduction of KMnO4 with KI will takes place as
2 KMnO4 + H2O → 2 KOH + 2 MnO2
KI + 3[O] → KIO3
Hence the overall reaction is
KI + 2KMnO4 + H2O → KIO3 + 2 KOH + 2 MnO2
So, one mole of KI will reduced two moles of KMnO4


Question 6.
What is known as Autooxidation?
(a) Formation of H2O by the oxidation of H2O2.
(b) Formation of H2O2 by the oxidation of H2O.
(c) Both (1) and (2) are true
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Formation of H2O2 by the oxidation of H2O.
Explanation:
Autoxidation is any oxidation that occurs in presence of oxygen. The term is usually used to describe the degradation of organic compounds in air (as a source of oxygen). Autoxidation produces hydroperoxides and cyclic organic peroxides. These species can react further to form many products. The process is relevant to many phenomena including aging, paint, and spoilage of foods, degradation of petrochemicals, and the industrial production of chemicals. Autoxidation is important because it is a useful reaction for converting compounds to oxygenated derivatives, and also because it occurs in situations where it is not desired (as in the destructive cracking of the rubber in automobile tires or in rancidification). Water automatically gets oxidised to hydrogen peroxide.


Question 7.
Which of the following statements regarding sulphur is incorrect ?
(a) S2 molecule is paramagnetic.
(b) The vapour at 200° C consists mostly of S8 rings.
(c) At 600°C the gas mainly consists of S2 molecules.
(d) The oxidation state of sulphur is never less than +4 in its compounds.

Answer

Answer: (d) The oxidation state of sulphur is never less than +4 in its compounds.
Explanation:
Oxidation state of oxygen family
Oxygen shows -2, +2 and -1
Oxidation states other elements show +2, +4 and +6 oxidation states
In H2S, the oxidation state of S is -2. Oxidation state of S lie between -2 to +6.
Option 1)
S2 molecule is paramagnetic.
This option is incorrect.
Option 2)
The vapour at 200° C consists mostly of S8 rings.
This option is incorrect.
Option 3)
At 600° C the gas mainly consists of S2 molecules.
This option is incorrect.
Option 4)
The oxidation state of sulphur is never less than +4 in its compounds.
This option is correct.


Question 8.
The oxidation number of Xe in BaXeO6 is
(a) 8
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) 10

Answer

Answer: (d) 10
Explanation:
Oxidation state of Ba in general = +2 and of O = −2
Applying formula, Sum of total oxidation state of all atoms = Overall charge on the compound.
Let oxidation state of Xe in BaXeO6 be x.
2 + x + 6(−2) = 0,
x = 10
But oxidation state 10 is not possible for Xe. In this case the oxidation state of Xe is equal to maximum possible oxidation state for Xe = +8.


Question 9.
CrO5 has structure as shown, The oxidation number of chromium in the compound is?
MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 8 Redox Reactions with Answers 1
(a) +10
(b) +6
(c) +4
(d) +5

Answer

Answer: (b) +6
Explanation:
From the above structure we can observe that 4 oxygen atoms are linked by peroxide linkage. So there oxidation state is -1 as in peroxide.
One oxygen atom is attached normally so its oxidation state is -2. So oxidation state of Cr is x + 4(−1) + (−2) = 0, x = +6


Question 10.
Pure water is bad conductor of electricity because
(a) It has high boiling point
(b) It is almost unionised
(c) Its molecules are associated with H- bonds
(d) Its pH is 7 at 25°C

Answer

Answer: (b) It is almost unionised
Explanation:
Distilled water is a poor conductor of electricity because it does not contain any dissolved salts in it which can provide it ions to conduct electricity. Impurities in water get ionised to conduct electricity. Hence pure water cannot conduct electricity.


Question 11.
The oxidation process involves
(a) Increase in oxidation number
(b) Decrease in oxidation number
(c) No change in oxidation number
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Increase in oxidation number
Explanation:
Oxidation process Involves:-
Addition of O2 or electronegative element
Removal of H/ electropositive element
Loss of electrons
Increase in oxidation number


Question 12.
The ionic mobility of alkali metal ions in aqueous solution is maximum for
(a) Li+
(b) Na+
(c) K+
(d) Rb+

Answer

Answer: (d) Rb+
Explanation:
The smaller is the ion, the more is hydration, the larger is size, lesser is the mobility.


Question 13.
Pure water is bad conductor of electricity because
(a) It has high boiling point
(b) It is almost unionised
(c) Its molecules are associated with H- bonds
(d) Its pH is 7 at 25°C

Answer

Answer: (b) It is almost unionised
Explanation:
Distilled water is a poor conductor of electricity because it does not contain any dissolved salts in it which can provide it ions to conduct electricity.
Impurities in water get ionised to conduct electricity. Hence pure water cannot conduct electricity.


Question 14.
The oxidation number of Fe in K4 [Fe (CN)6] is
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) Zero

Answer

Answer: (c) 2
Explanation:
The oxidation number of Fe in K4 Fe (CN)6 can be calculated as follows,
Oxidation state of K = 1, CN = -1.
Let Oxidation state of Fe be x. so
4(+1) + x + 6(-1) = 0
Hence x = +2


Question 15.
A standard hydrogen electrode has zero electrode potential because
(a) Hydrogen is easiest to oxidise
(b) This electrode potential is assumed to be zero
(c) Hydrogen atom has only one electron
(d) Hydrogen is the lightest element

Answer

Answer: (b) This electrode potential is assumed to be zero
Explanation:
The electrode potential of a standard hydrogen electrode is arbitrarily assumed to be zero.


Question 16.
Burning of lime to give calcium oxide and carbon dioxide is
(a) An Oxidation Process
(b) A Reduction Process
(c) Disproportionation
(d) Decomposition.

Answer

Answer: (d) Decomposition.
Explanation:
Lime water formula is Calcium hydroxide (Ca(OH)2)
Ca(OH)2 in the presence of excess heat gives calcium oxide(CaO) , Carbon dioxide (CO2), and water(H2O).
In this process excess of heat is given and lime water breaks down in different compounds, therefore it undergoes Thermal decomposition reaction.


Question 17.
The colourless solution of silver nitrate slowly turns blue on adding copper chips to it because of
(a) Dissolution of Copper
(b) Oxidation of Ag+ → Ag
(c) Reduction of Cu2+ ions
(d) Oxidation of Cu atoms.

Answer

Answer: (d) Oxidation of Cu atoms.
Explanation:
When copper turnings are added to silver nitrate solution, the solution becomes brown in color after sometime because copper is more reactive than silver so it displaces silver from silver nitrate solution and form copper nitrate solution.


Question 18.
The oxidation number of carbon in CH2 Cl2 is
(a) 0
(b) +2
(c) +3
(d) +5

Answer

Answer: (a) 0
Explanation:
The oxidation state of carbon in dichloromethane as x.
Also the charges on H and Cl are +1 and −1 respectively.
Therefore, CH2​Cl2 ​→ x + 2(+1) +2(−1) = 0
⇒ x = 0


Question 19.
The oxidation state of I in IPO4 is
(a) +1
(b) +3
(c) +5
(d) +7

Answer

Answer: (b) +3
Explanation:
Let oxidation state of iodine be x.
x − 3 = 0, x = +3,
Because PO43- has combined oxidation number −3.
Therefore, x − 3 = 0
∴ x = +3
Thus oxidation state of iodine is +3.


Question 20.
The relationship between electrode potentials and concentrations of the substances involved in half cell reaction is given by
(a) Habers process
(b) Hess Law
(c) Nernst Equation
(d) None of the Above

Answer

Answer: (c) Nernst Equation
Explanation:
The relationship between electrode potentials and concentrations of the substances involved in half cell reaction is given by Nernst Equation.
E = E°−(2.303RT)/(nF) log[Mn+]/[M]
Where
E = cell potential (V) under specific conditions
E°= cell potential at standard-state conditions
R = ideal gas constant = 8.314 J/mol-k
T = temperature (kelvin), which is generally 25C (298 K)
n = number of moles of electrons transferred in the balanced equation
F = Faradays constant, the charge on a mole of electrons = 95,484.56 C/mol
[M] and [Mn+] are molar concentrations of element and its cation resp.


Hope the information shared regarding the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 8 Redox Reactions with Answers Pdf free download is true and genuine as far as our knowledge is concerned. If you feel any information regarding CBSE Class 11 Chemistry Redox Reactions MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers is missing do reach us and we will look into it and add it accordingly.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 8 Redox Reactions with Answers Read More »

error: Content is protected !!