Author name: Prasanna

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 9 Hydrogen with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Hydrogen Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Hydrogen Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Hydrogen Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 9 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Hydrogen Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 9 Chemistry Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
When water is dropped over sodium peroxide, the colourless gas produced is:
(a) DiNitrogen
(b) DiOxygen
(c) DiHydrogen
(d) Hydrogen Peroxide

Answer

Answer: (b) DiOxygen
Explanation:
When sodium peroxide dissolves in water:
2Na₂O₂ + 2H₂O → 4NaOH + O₂

---

Question 2.
The atomic weights of isotopes of all element are different due to different number of __________.
(a) Protons
(b) Electrons
(c) Neutrons
(d) None of Above

Answer

Answer: (c) Neutrons
Explanation:
Isotopes are variants of a particular chemical element which differ in neutron number, and consequently in nucleon number. All isotopes of a given element have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons in each atom.

---

Question 3.
During the reaction of natural gas and steam the catalyst used is
(a) Fe
(b) Zn
(c) Ni
(d) Cr

Answer

Answer: (c) Ni
Explanation:
Steam reforming of natural gas is the most common method of producing commercial bulk hydrogen at about 95% of the world production of 500 billion m3 in 1998, or 70 million tonnes by 2018.Hydrogen is used in the industrial synthesis of ammonia and other chemicals. At high temperatures (700 – 1100°C) and in the presence of a metal-based catalyst (nickel), steam reacts with methane to yield carbon monoxide and hydrogen.
CH₄ + H₂O ⇌ CO + 3 H₂

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Question 4.
Cavendish in 766 discovered.
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Oxygen
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Helium

Answer

Answer: (c) Hydrogen
Explanation:
Henry Cavendish FRS was an English natural philosopher, scientist, and an important experimental and theoretical chemist and physicist. He is noted for his discovery of hydrogen, which he termed “inflammable air”. He described the density of inflammable air, which formed water on combustion, in a 1766 paper, On Factitious Airs. Antoine Lavoisier later reproduced Cavendishs experiment and gave the element its name.

---

Question 5.
Dihydrogen gas may be prepared by heating caustic soda on
(a) Cu
(b) Zn
(c) Na
(d) Ag

Answer

Answer: (b) Zn
Explanation:
When a base reacts with a metal salt in hydrogen gas is formed. In this reaction metal is zinc & base is Sodium hydroxide. When sodium hydroxide solution is heated with zinc granules then Sodium zincate and hydrogen gas are formed.
2NaOH (aq) + Zn(s) → Na₂ZnO₂ (aq)+ H₂(g)
The salt formed by the reaction between a base and a metal, the metal is present as a part of the Negative ion. In the sodium zincate salt (Na₂ZnO₂) formed by the reaction between Sodium Hydroxide and Zinc metal, the zinc metal is present at a part of a negative ions , zincate ion (ZnO₂^-2 ) All the metals do not react with bases to form salt and hydrogen gas. The main product formed in this reaction is sodium zincate (Na₂ZnO₂)

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Question 6.
Hydrogen set free at the time of its preparation from its compound in atomic form are called _________.
(a) Nascent Molecular Hydrogen
(b) Nascent Atomic Hydride
(c) Both (1) and (2)
(d) Nascent Hydrogen

Answer

Answer: (a) Nascent Molecular Hydrogen
Explanation:
The hydrogen set free at the time of its preparation from its compounds is also in atom from and is commonly known nascent hydrogen. The newly born hydrogen is in atomic form that is why it is called nascent hydrogen.

---

Question 7.
Which substance does not speed up decomposition of H₂O₂
(a) Glycerol
(b) Pt
(c) Gold
(d) MnO₂

Answer

Answer: (b) Pt
Explanation:
Glycerol, phosphoric acid or acetanilide is added to H₂O₂ to check its decomposition.

---

Question 8.
Water shows anomalous behavior between
(a) 0 to 4 °C
(b) 0 to 5 °C
(c) 0 to -4 °C
(d) 4 to 0 °C

Answer

Answer: (a) 0 to 4 °C
Explanation:
Water show a wide range of anomalies compared to similar liquids or hydrides of other group 16 elements. One of the most talked-about anomalies is the formation of ice from liquid water and how the density changes when we cool the water.

O is a small atom and highly electronegative compared to Hydrogen. So O attracts the covalent clouds of O-H towards itself, thus making water a polar molecule. The hydrogen bonding in water molecules causes high boiling point and liquid state compared to other hydrides of group 16.

When we cool water from higher temperature, the density steadily decreases. At 4 degree C it is the highest. But below 4 degree C, The H-bonds break between the molecules and the molecules get drifted further apart, the volume increases and density decreases. The crystalline form of water is ice. At atmospheric pressure ice crystallises in the hexagonal form, but at very low temperatures it condenses to cubic form leaving gap between the structures, thus increasing the volume again.

Density of ice is less than that of water. Therefore, an ice cube floats on water. In winter season ice formed on the surface of a lake provides thermal insulation which ensures the survival of the aquatic life.

---

Question 9.
Which of the following pair of substance will not evolve H₂ gas
(a) Iron and aqueous H₂SO₄
(b) Copper and HCl(aq)
(c) Sodium and Ethanol
(d) Iron and Steam

Answer

Answer: (b) Copper and HCl(aq)
Explanation:
Copper is a noble metal. As it lies below hydrogen in the electrochemical series. Therefore it cant displace hydrogen from dilute HCl. While iron and sodium lie above hydrogen in the electrochemical series. so they can liberate H₂ either from steam or H₂SO₄ solution.
Fe + H2SO₄ ↔ FeSO₄ + H₂
3Fe + 4H₂O (steam) ↔ Fe₃O₄ + 4H₂
Cu + HCl(g) → No reaction
2Na + 2C₂H₅OH → 2C₂H₅ONa + H₂

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Question 10.
Tritium __________ radio active isotope.
(a) Beta-Emitting
(b) Alpha – Emitting
(c) Gamma-Emitting
(d) None of the Above

Answer

Answer: (a) Beta-Emitting
Explanation:
Tritium is a beta-emitting radioactive isotope of hydrogen. Its nucleus consists of one proton and two neutrons, making it three times as heavy as a hydrogen nucleus (with its one proton) and one-and-a-half times as heavy as deuterium (which contains one proton and only one neutron).

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Question 11.
The maximum density of water at 40C is :
(a) 1.0 g / cm³
(b) 0.998 g / cm³
(c) 0.918 g / cm³
(d) 1.2 g / dm³

Answer

Answer: (a) 1.0 g / cm³
Explanation:
Water never has an absolute density because its density varies with temperature. Water has its maximum density of 1 g/cm³ at 4 degrees Celsius. When the temperature changes from either greater or less than 4 degrees, the density will become less then 1 g/cm³. Water has the maximum density of 1 g/cm³ only when it is pure water. Other factors affect waters density such as whether it is tap or fresh water or salt water. These variations of water changes its density because whats in the water has its own density.

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Question 12.
Water gas is mixture of hydrogen H₂ and
(a) CO
(b) CO₂
(c) Cl₂
(d) SO₂

Answer

Answer: (a) CO
Explanation:
Water gas is a combustion fuel containing carbon monoxide (CO) and hydrogen gas (H₂). Water gas is made by passing steam over heated hydrocarbons.

---

Question 13.
The volume of oxygen gas evolved at STP by decomposition of 0.68 g “20 volume” hydrogen peroxide is:
(a) 112 ml
(b) 224 ml
(c) 56 ml
(d) 336 ml

Answer

Answer: (b) 224 ml
Explanation:
2H₂O₂ → 2H₂O + O₂
2 × 34 g = 22400 ml
As 2 × 34 g = 68 g of H₂O₂ liberates
22400 ml O₂ at STP
Therefore, 0.68 g of H₂O₂ liberates
= (0.68 × 22400)/(68) = 224 ml

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Question 14.
Which of the following statements regarding hydrogen peroxide is/are incorrect?
(a) As aerating agent in production of sponge rubber
(b) As an antichlor
(c) For restoring white colour of blackened lead painting
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above
Explanation:
H₂O₂ show all these properties

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Question 15.
_______ on water decolourises H₂O₂
(a) O₃
(b) Acidic KMnO₄ solution
(c) Black Suspension of Lead Sulphide( PbS)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Black Suspension of Lead Sulphide(PbS)
Explanation:
Lead sulphide (black suspension) on reaction with hydrogen peroxide forms lead sulphate and water. Lead sulphate as well as water are colourless, therefore lead sulphite decolourises on addition of hydrogen peroxide.
PbS(s) + 4H₂O₂ (aq) → PbSO₄ (s) + 4H₂O (aq)

---

Question 16.
The number of electron hydrogen contains in its K shell is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer

Answer: (a) 1
Explanation:
The maximum number of electrons present in a shell is given by the formula 2n², where “n” is the orbit number or energy level index, 1, 2, 3 , …… Hence the maximum number of electrons in different shells are as follows:
First orbit or K-shell will be = 2 × 12 = 2
Hydrogen (H), lithium (Li), and sodium (Na), all have one electron in their outermost shells. This means that they can achieve a stable configuration and a filled outer shell by donating or losing an electron.

---

Question 17.
On shaking H₂O₂ with acidified potassium dichromate and ether, ethereal layer becomes:
(a) Green
(b) Red
(c) Blue
(d) Brown

Answer

Answer: (c) Blue
Explanation:
This is due to the formation of CrO5
K₂Cr₂O₇ + H₂SO₄ + 4H₂O₂ → K₂SO₄ + 2CrO₅ + 5H₂O
So it is Blue

---

Question 18.
Hydrogen atom contains one electron. But, the spectrum of hydrogen contains number of lines.
(a) Single
(b) Multiple
(c) Cannot be determined
(d) None of the Above

Answer

Answer: (b) Multiple
Explanation:
In a sample of hydrogen gas, the number of hydrogen molecules is present. These molecules dissociate and produce hydrogen atoms when heated. Each hydrogen atom contains one electron. The hydrogen atoms absorb different amounts of energy and go to different excited states. From there, they take different paths and come back to ground state. Since different paths are associated with different energies, different spectral lines are formed in the spectrum.

---

Question 19.
H₂O₂ used in rocket has the concentration:
(a) 50%
(b) 90%
(c) 70%
(d) 30%

Answer

Answer: (b) 90%
Explanation:
H₂O₂ is used as an oxidant for rocket fuel. Usually, 90% concentration of H₂O₂ is used.

---

Question 20.
Hydrogen has isotopes
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

Answer

Answer: (c) 4
Explanation:
Hydrogen has three main isotopes; Protium (¹H), deuterium (²H) and tritium (³H). These isotopes form naturally in nature. Protium and deuterium are stable. Tritium is radioactive and has a half-life of about 12 years. Scientists have created four other hydrogen isotopes (4H to 7H), but these isotopes are very unstable and do not exist naturally.
The main isotopes of hydrogen are unique because they are the only isotopes that have a name.

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Hope the information shared regarding the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 9 Hydrogen with Answers Pdf free download is true and genuine as far as our knowledge is concerned. If you feel any information regarding CBSE Class 11 Chemistry Hydrogen MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers is missing do reach us and we will look into it and add it accordingly.

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 1 Introduction to Macroeconomics with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Introduction to Macroeconomics Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Introduction to Macroeconomics Class 12 Objective Questions.

Introduction to Macroeconomics Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct alternative.

Question 1.
What is known as the study of individual units?
(a) Macroeconomics
(b) Microeconomics
(c) Income and employment theory
(d) Development economics

Answer

Answer: (b) Microeconomics

---

Question 2.
The study of aggregates is known as
(a) Macroeconomics
(b) Microeconomics
(c) Price theory
(d) Factor price determination

Answer

Answer: (a) Macroeconomics

---

Question 3.
What is the name of the book written by J.M. Keynes?
(a) The Wealth of Nation
(b) The General Theory of Employment, Interest, and Money
(c) Political Economy
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) The General Theory of Employment, Interest, and Money

---

Question 4.
When was the famous book of Prof. Keynes published?
(a) 1930
(b) 1931
(c) 1936
(d) 1940

Answer

Answer: (c) 1936

---

Question 5.
When did the great depression occur?
(a) 1929-30
(b) 1934-35
(c) 1938-39
(d) 1941-42

Answer

Answer: (a) 1929-30

---

Question 6.
Who is known as the father of modern macroeconomics?
(a) Adam Smith
(b) J. M. Keynes
(c) Samuelson
(d) Hicks

Answer

Answer: (b) J. M. Keynes

---

Question 7.
Mr. Skund Kumar wants to study the national income. Which branch of economics will he have to study?
(a) Microeconomics
(b) Price theory
(c) Factor price determination
(d) Macroeconomics

Answer

Answer: (d) Macroeconomics

---

Fill in the blanks with the correct word.

Question 8.
The mother of all economic problems is _______

Answer

Answer: scarcity

---

Question 9.
Macroeconomics is defined as that branch of economics which studies economic activities of an economy as a _______

Answer

Answer: whole

---

Question 10.
______ was the founding father of modern economics.

Answer

Answer: Adam Smith

---

Question 11.
Keynes book on Income and Employment came to light in the year ________

Answer

Answer: 1936

---

Question 12.
Aggregate Demand is the sum total of consumption and _______

Answer

Answer: investment

---

Question 13.
The period of the Great Depression was from _______

Answer

Answer: 1929-33

---

State whether the following statements are True or False.

Question 14.
Capital, land, labour, and entrepreneur are the factors of production.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 15.
The expenses which raise productive capacity are known as investment expenditure.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 16.
The domestic country may sell goods to the rest of the world. It is called imports.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 17.
The capitalist economy works for social welfare.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 18.
Microeconomics deals with the aggregate economic variable of an economy.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 19.
‘Save more’ is always a virtue.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Match the alternatives given in Column II with respective terms in Column I.

Question 20.

Column I	Column II
(i) Macroeconomic variable	(a) 1936
(ii) Microeconomic variable	(b) Rate of inflation
(iii) Capitalism	(c) Private ownership
(iv) The Great Economic Depression	(d) Demand for cars
(v) General Theory of Employment, Interest, and Money	(e) 1929

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(i) Macroeconomic variable	(b) Rate of inflation
(ii) Microeconomic variable	(d) Demand for cars
(iii) Capitalism	(c) Private ownership
(iv) The Great Economic Depression	(e) 1929
(v) General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money	(a) 1936

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Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 1 Introduction to Macroeconomics with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 12 Economics Introduction to Macroeconomics MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 10 The s-Block Elements with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these The s-Block Elements Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

The s-Block Elements Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the The s-Block Elements Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 10 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on The s-Block Elements Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 10 Chemistry Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
Beryllium shows diagonal relationship with
(a) Mg
(b) Na
(c) Al
(d) B.

Answer

Answer: (c) Al
Explanation:
Just as Li shows resemblance with its diagonally opposite element Al. This is because the two elements have the same electronegativity (Be = 1.5, Al = 1.5) and possess similar polarizing power (i.e., charge/radius).

---

Question 2.
Which of the following metal has stable carbonates?
(a) Na
(b) Mg
(c) Al
(d) Si

Answer

Answer: (a) Na
Explanation:
When carbonates are heated they decompose to form the oxide. Sodium carbonate and potassium carbonate do not decompose. The carbonates become more difficult to decompose as we go down the group.

---

Question 3.
The reaction of Cl₂ with X gives bleaching powder X is
(a) CaO
(b) Ca(OH)₂
(c) Ca(OCl)₂
(d) Ca(O₃Cl)₂

Answer

Answer: (c) Ca(OCl)₂
Explanation:
Calcium hypochlorite is a compound with formula Ca (ClO)₂. As a mixture with lime and calcium chloride, it is marketed as chlorine powder or bleach powder for water treatment and as a bleaching agent.
Calcium hypochlorite is produced industrially by treating lime (Ca(OH)₂) with chlorine gas.
2Cl₂ + 2Ca(OH)₂ → Ca(OCl)₂ + CaCl₂ + 2H₂O

---

Question 4.
NaOH is prepared by the method
(a) Downs cell
(b) Castner cell
(c) Solvay process
(d) Castner – Kellner cell.

Answer

Answer: (d) Castner – Kellner cell.
Explanation:
In the Castner-Kellner method, electrolysis of brine solution is performed in order to obtain sodium hydroxide.

---

Question 5.
Milk of lime reacts with chlorine to form ________, a constituent of bleaching powder.
(a) Ca(OCI)₂
(b) Ca(CIO₂)₂
(c) Ca(CIO₃)₂
(d) Ca(CIO₄)₂

Answer

Answer: (a) Ca(OCI)₂
Explanation:
Milk of lime reacts with chlorine to form bleaching powder.
2Ca(OH)₂ + 2Cl₂ → CaCl₂ + Ca(OCl)₂ + 2H₂O

---

Question 6.
Which one of these are main components of kidney stones?
(a) Sodium Oxalate
(b) Potassium Oxalate
(c) Calcium Oxalate
(d) Copper Oxalate

Answer

Answer: (c) Calcium Oxalate
Explanation:
Calcium oxalate is the main component of kidney stone.

---

Question 7.
A nitrate of an alkali metal M on heating gives O₂.NO₂ and M₂O. The metal M will be:
(a) Na
(b) K
(c) Rb
(d) Li

Answer

Answer: (d) Li
Explanation:
All group 1 compounds (metal nitrates) decompose to give metal nitrates and
oxygen → 2MNO₃ ​→ 2MNO₂ + O₂
​Since Lithium shows diagonal relationship with magnesium, it shows different behaviour
4LiNO₃​ → 2Li₂​O + 4NO₂ ​+ O₂
​(Its nitrate decomposes like Group 2 elements)

---

Question 8.
Which of the following metal carbonates decompose on heating?
(a) LiCO₃ & MgCO₃
(b) Na₂CO₃
(c) K₂CO₃
(d) None of the Above

Answer

Answer: (a) LiCO₃ & MgCO₃
Explanation:
Lithium carbonate and magnesium carbonate are thermally unstable. They decompose on heating. Properties of Li are similar to Mg because of diagonal relationship.
Li₂CO₃ → Li₂O + CO₂
MgCO₃ → MgO + CO₂
Li₂​CO₃ and MgCO₃ are salts of weak acid (CO₂) with weak bases LiOH and Mg(OH)₂. On the other hand, NaOH and KOH are much stronger bases and can hold the CO₂ easily. Thus, sodium carbonate and potassium carbonate are thermally stable. They do not decompose on heating.

---

Question 9.
Which of the following alkaline earth metals do not impart any color to the flame?
(a) Ca,Sr
(b) Mg,Ca
(c) Be,Mg
(d) Sr,Ba

Answer

Answer: (b) Mg,Ca
Explanation:
Relative to other group 2 elements, Be and Mg atoms are smaller in size. Thus, the electrons in Be and Mg are too strongly bound to get excited by flame. In other words, the energy required to excite electrons in Be and Mg atoms does not lie in the visible range.

---

Question 10.
Which one of the following alkali metals emit light of longest wavelength in the flame test ?
(a) Na
(b) K
(c) Cs
(d) Li

Answer

Answer: (b) K
Explanation:
Actually Rb emits the longest wavelength light in flame test. Since Rb is one there in the options, therefore, correct option should be K

---

Question 11.
What will be final weight of 286 gm Na₂CO₃.10H₂O by Heating at 373 K?
(a) 206 gm
(b) 162 gm
(c) 186 gm
(d) 124 gm

Answer

Answer: (d) 124 gm

---

Question 12.
Solubilities of carbonates decrease down the magnesium group due to decrease in
(a) Entropy of solution formation
(b) Lattice energies of solids
(c) Hydration energy of cations
(d) Inter – ionic attraction.

Answer

Answer: (c) Hydration energy of cations
Explanation:
The stability of the carbonates of the alkaline earth metals increases on moving down the group. The solubility of carbonate of metals in water is generally low. However, they dissolve in water containing CO₂ yielding bicarbonates, and this solubility decreases on going down in a group with the increase in stability of carbonates of metals, and decrease in hydration energy of the cations.

---

Question 13.
What are the products formed when Li₂CO₃ undergoes decomposition?
(a) Li₂O₂, CO
(b) Li₂O, CO
(c) Li₂O, CO₂
(d) LiO₂, CO

Answer

Answer: (c) Li₂O, CO₂
Explanation:
Lithium carbonate is unstable carbonate due to polarizing power of Li⁺. Hence it undergoes easy dissociation just like alkaline earth metal carbonates upon heating to give lithium oxide and carbon dioxide.
Li₂CO₃ → Li₂O + CO₂

---

Question 14.
Alkali metals give a _________ when dissolved in liquid ammonia
(a) Deep blue solution
(b) Colourless
(c) Red colour
(d) None of the Above

Answer

Answer: (a) Deep blue solution
Explanation:
When an alkali metal is dissolved in liquid ammonia, it results in the formation of a deep blue coloured solution. The ammoniated electrons absorb energy corresponding to a red region of visible light. Therefore, the transmitted light is blue in colour.

---

Question 15.
_______ does not exhibit coordination number more than four.
(a) Magnesium
(b) Beryllium
(c) Calcium
(d) None of the Above

Answer

Answer: (b) Beryllium
Explanation:
Beryllium does not exhibit coordination number more than four as in its valence shell there are only four orbitals. The remaining members of the group can have a coordination number of six by making use of d-orbitals.

---

Question 16.
The composition of Sorels cement is
(a) KCl × MgCl₂ × 6H₂O
(b) MgCl₂ × 5MgO × (xH₂O)
(c) MgCO₃ × CaCO₃
(d) CaSO₄ × 2H₂O

Answer

Answer: (b) MgCl₂ × 5MgO × (xH₂O)
Explanation:
Mixture of MgCl₂ and MgO is called Sorels cement. It is MgCl₂ × 5MgOx (xH₂O).

---

Question 17.
Which of the following metals is most commonly used in photo – chemical cells?
(a) Lithium
(b) Calcium
(c) Caesium
(d) Francium

Answer

Answer: (c) Caesium
Explanation:
Among the given metals, Cesium(Cs) has lowest ionization enthalpy. Hence it loses electrons readily. Therefore, cesium is used in solar cells.

---

Question 18.
he wire of flash bulb is made up of:
(a) Mg
(b) Ag
(c) Cu
(d) Ba

Answer

Answer: (a) Mg
Explanation:
Magnesium metal is used for the preparation of the wire of flash bulb.

---

Question 19.
Which of the following metals is not manufactured by electrolysis ?
(a) Na
(b) Mg
(c) Al
(d) Fe

Answer

Answer: (d) Fe
Explanation:
Method of extraction of a metal depends on the reactivity of the metal. Iron (Fe) is not manufacture by electrolysis. Moderately reactive metals like zinc and iron are extracted by reduction of their oxides using carbon.

---

Question 20.
Which elements of s- block are largely found in biological fluids?
(a) Sodium, Potassium
(b) Magnesium and Calcium
(c) Both (1) and (2) are true
(d) None of the Above

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (1) and (2) are true
Explanation:
Mono valent sodium and potassium ions and divalent magnesium and calcium ions are found in large proportions in biological fluids. These ions perform important biological functions such as maintenance of ion balance and nerve impulse conduction.

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Hope the information shared regarding the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 10 The s-Block Elements with Answers Pdf free download is true and genuine as far as our knowledge is concerned. If you feel any information regarding CBSE Class 11 Chemistry The s-Block Elements MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers is missing do reach us and we will look into it and add it accordingly.

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 11 The p-Block Elements with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these The p-Block Elements Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

The p-Block Elements Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the The p-Block Elements Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 11 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on The p-Block Elements Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 11 Chemistry Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
Consider the following statement about Ozone I. O₃ is formed by the interaction of fluorine. II. It turns tetramethyl base paper as violet. III. It turns benzidine paper as brown. The correct set of true statement is
(a) I and II
(b) I, II and III
(c) I and III
(d) II and III

Answer

Answer: (b) I, II and III
Explanation:
Ozone is formed by the interaction of fluorine. It turns tetramethyl base paper and benzidine paper as violet and brown respectively.
Hence, the correction option is (2).

---

Question 2.
In the compound of type ECl₃, where E = B, P, As, or Bi, the angle Cl – E – Cl for different E are ion the order:
(a) B = P = As = Bi
(b) B > P > As > Bi
(c) B < P = As = Bi
(d) B < P < As < Bi

Answer

Answer: (b) B > P > As > Bi
Explanation:
BCl₃ is trigonal planar in structure and bond angles are 120° each. PCl₃, AsCl₃, and BiCl₃ are pyramidal in shape with sp³-hybridization.
In all of them, the bond angles are less than the normal tetrahedral angle of 109.28, and also these bond angles decrease down the group.
Therefore, the correct order of bond angles is as follows:
B > P > As > Bi

---

Question 3.
In white phosphorous(P₄) molecule, which one is not correct:
(a) 6P-P single bonds are present
(b) 4P-P single bonds are present
(c) 4 lone pair of electrons is present
(d) P-P-P bond angle is 60°

Answer

Answer: (a) 6P-P single bonds are present
Explanation:
It has total four lone pairs of electrons situated at each P – atom.
It has six P_P single bond

---

Question 4.
All the elements of oxygen family are
(a) Non metals
(b) Metalloids
(c) Radioactive
(d) Polymorphic

Answer

Answer: (d) Polymorphic
Explanation:
Group 16 elements are called polymorphic elements because all elements show allotropy except Te.

---

Question 5.
Which of the following will not produce hydrogen gas ?
(a) Reaction between Fe and dil. HCl
(b) Reaction between Zn and NaOH
(c) Reaction between Zn and conc. H₂SO₄
(d) Electrolysis of NaCl in Nelsons cell

Answer

Answer: (c) Reaction between Zn and conc. H₂SO₄
Explanation:
Concentrated sulphuric acid reacts with Zn to give SO₂ and not H₂

---

Question 6.
Amorphous form of Silica is
(a) Tridymite
(b) Kieselguhr
(c) Cristobalite
(d) Quartz

Answer

Answer: (c) Cristobalite
Explanation:
Silicon Dioxide/ Silica/ Quartz –
Covalent, three dimensional solid network in which each silicon is covalently bond to four oxygen atoms (sp³ hybridisation) forming a tetrahedral structure.
Function of quartz –
As piezoelectric material in clocks, radio, television broadcasting and mobile communication.
Quartz, tridymite, cristobalite is crystalline form, and kieselguhr is an amorphous form of silica.

---

Question 7.
Graphite is a soft solid lubricant extremely diffcult to melt. The reason for this anomalous behaviour is that graphite.
(a) Has carbon atoms arranged in large plates of rings of strongly bound carbon atoms with weak interplate bonds
(b) Is a non – crystalline substance
(c) Is an allotropic from of carbon
(d) Has molecules of variable molecular masses like polymers.

Answer

Answer: (a) Has carbon atoms arranged in large plates of rings of strongly bound carbon atoms with weak interplate bonds
Explanation:
C-atoms oi graphite form covalently bonded plates (layers) These layers are held together by weak forces of attraction. i.e., one layer can slide over other to cause lubricacy. lt cannot be melted easily as a large number of atoms being bonded strongly in the layer to form big entity.

---

Question 8.
Borax is used as a cleansing agent because on dissolving in water, it gives
(a) Alkaline solution
(b) Acidic solution
(c) Bleaching solution
(d) Amphoteric solution.

Answer

Answer: (a) Alkaline solution
Explanation:
Borax dissolves in water to give an alkaline solution.
Na₂B₄O₇ + 7H₂O ⇔ 2NaOH + 4H₃BO₃.

---

Question 9.
Among the C-X bond (where, X = Cl, Br, I) the correct decreasing order of bond energy is
(a) C−I > C−Cl > C−Br
(b) C−I > C−Br > C−Cl
(c) C−Cl > C−Br > C−I
(d) C−Br > C−Cl > C−I

Answer

Answer: (c) C−Cl > C−Br > C−I
Explanation:
Among the C-X bond (where, X = Cl, Br, I), the correct decreasing order of bond energy is
C−Cl > C−Br > C−l

---

Question 10.
On heating boron with caustic potash, the pair of products formed are
(a) Potassium Borate + Dihydrogen
(b) Potassium Borate + Water
(c) Potassium Borate + H₂
(d) Borax + Dihydrogen.

Answer

Answer: (a) Potassium Borate + Dihydrogen
Explanation:
2B + 2KOH + 2H₂O → 2KBO₂ + 3H₂
Boron react with potassium hydroxide and water to produce potassium metaborate and hydrogen.

---

Question 11.
Which of the following statements regarding ozone is not correct?
(a) The oxygen-oxygen bond length in ozone is identical with that of molecular oxygen
(b) The ozone is response hybrid of two structures
(c) The ozone molecule is angular in shape
(d) Ozone is used as a germicide and disinfectant for the purification of air.

Answer

Answer: (a) The oxygen-oxygen bond length in ozone is identical with that of molecular oxygen
Explanation:
The oxygen–oxygen bond length in ozone is identical with that of molecular oxygen

---

Question 12.
There is no S-S bond in
(a) S₂O^2-₄
(b) S₂O^2-₅
(c) S₂O^2-₃
(d) S₂O^2-₇

Answer

Answer: (d) S₂O^2-₇
Solution :
There is no S-S bond in S₂O^2-₇

---

Question 13.
Which is strongest Lewis acid?
(a) BF₃
(b) BCl₃
(c) BBr₃
(d) BI₃

Answer

Answer: (a) BF₃
Explanation:
Larger the size of halogen atom less is the back donation of electrons into empty 2p orbital of B.

---

Question 14.
Fertilizer having the highest nitrogen percentage is:
(a) Calcium cyanamide
(b) Urea
(c) Ammonium nitrate
(d) Ammonium sulphate

Answer

Answer: (b) Urea
Explanation:
Every compound has 2N atoms (i.e., same mass of N), thus compound with the lowest molecular mass (i.e., urea) will have the highest N percentage.

---

Question 15.
In general, the Boron Trihaides act as
(a) Strong reducing agent
(b) Lewis Acids
(c) Lewis Bases
(d) Dehydrating Agents

Answer

Answer: (b) Lewis Acids
Explanation:
The boron atom in trihaldies has only six electrons in the valence shell and hence can accept a pair of electrons in the vacant p-orbital to complete its octet. As a result, boron trihaldies act as a Lewis acids.

---

Question 16.
Which of the following is not a mineral of boron?
(a) Colemanite
(b) Kernite
(c) Boric Anhydride
(d) Borax

Answer

Answer: (c) Boric Anhydride
Explanation:
The most important boron minerals in commercial terms are; Tincal, Colemanite, Kernite, Ulexite, Pandermite, Boracite, Szaybelite and Hydroboracite. The main boron minerals transformed by Eti Maden, the World Boron Leader, into high value added products in international quality standards are; Tincal, Colemanite and Ulexite.

---

Question 17.
Which phosphorus is used as a rat poison?
(a) White
(b) Violet
(c) Red
(d) Black

Answer

Answer: (a) White
Explanation:
White phosphorous is least stable and most toxic of all allotropes. Upon coming on contact with air it is toxic and causes severe liver damage on digestion so it is used as rat poison.

---

Question 18.
The structure of diBorane contains
(a) Four 2c – 2e bonds and two 3c – 2e bonds
(b) Two 2c – 2e bonds and two 3c – 2e bonds
(c) Two 2c – 2e bonds and two 3c – 3e bonds
(d) Four 2c – 2e bonds and four 3c – 2e bonds

Answer

Answer: (a) Four 2c – 2e bonds and two 3c – 2e bonds
Explanation:
According to molecular orbital theory, each of the two boron atoms is in sp³ hybrid state. Of the four hybrid orbitals, three have one electron each while the fourth is empty. Two of the four orbitals of each of the boron atom overlap with two terminal hydrogen atoms forming two normal B – H σ-bonds. One of the remaining hybrid orbital (either filled or empty) of one of the boron atoms, 1s orbital of hydrogen atoms (bridge atom) and one of hybrid orbitals of the other boron atom overlap to form a delocalised orbital covering the three nuclei with a pair of electrons. Such a bond is known as three centre two electron (3c – 2e) bonds

---

Question 19.
Nitrogen (I) oxide is produced by:
(a) Thermal decomposition of ammonium nitrate
(b) Disproportionation of N₂O₄
(c) Thermal decomposition of ammonium nitrite
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Thermal decomposition of ammonium nitrite
Explanation:
Nitrous Oxide (N₂O) can be produced by thermal decomposition of ammonium nitrate:
NH₄NO₃(s) → N₂O (g) + 2H₂O(l)

---

Question 20.
Red phosphorus is chemically less reactive because
(a) It does not contain P – P bonds
(b) It dos not contain tetrahedral P₄ molecules
(c) It does not catch fire in air even upto 400°C
(d) It has a polymeric structure

Answer

Answer: (d) It has a polymeric structure
Explanation:
Red phosphorus is less reactive because of its gaint polymeric structure.

---

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Question 1.
Which part of the Indian Constitution has been referred to as the ‘Conscience’.
(a) Secularism
(b) D.P.S.P
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Fundamental Duties

Answer

Answer: (c) Fundamental Rights

---

Question 2.
Which is the 3^rd tier of government?
(a) Panchayati Raj
(b) Municipal corporation
(c) State government
(d) Central government

Answer

Answer: (a) Panchayati Raj

---

Question 3.
When did Indian National Congress (INC) make the demand for a Constituent Assembly?
(a) 1934
(b) 1945
(c) 1946
(d) 1947

Answer

Answer: (a) 1934

---

Question 4.
When did the Maoists join other political parties in Nepal to sign a 12-point agreement?
(a) April 2006
(b) October 2007
(c) Nov, 2005
(d) Feb 2005

Answer

Answer: (c) Nov, 2005

---

Question 5.
The Constitution prohibits human trafficking, forced labour, and children working under 14 yrs of age. It is mentioned under which Fundament Right?
(a) Right to Freedom
(b) Right to Freedom of Religion
(c) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(d) Right against Exploitation

Answer

Answer: (d) Right against Exploitation

---

Question 6.
Which court issue the Writs?
(a) District Courts
(b) Panchayats
(c) Civil Courts/Criminal Courts
(d) Supreme Court/High Courts

Answer

Answer: (d) Supreme Court/High Courts
Writs can be issued by Supreme Court/High Courts. In common law, a writ is a formal written order issued by a body with administrative or judicial jurisdiction in modern usage, this body is generally a court.

---

Question 7.
Panchayati Raj is the tier of which government?
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth

Answer

Answer: (c) Third
In India, we have governments at the state level and at the center. Panchayati Raj is the third tier of government. It refers to the existence of more than one level of government in the country.

---

Question 8.
When did our Constitution was adopted and was enforced?
(a) 26 January, 1950
(b) 15 August, 1947
(c) 2 October, 1950
(d) 26 November, 1949

Answer

Answer: (a) 26 January, 1950
It was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26 November 1949, and came into effect on 26 January 1950. With its adoption, the Union of India became the modern and contemporary Republic of India replacing the Government of India Act, 1935 as the country’s fundamental governing document.

---

Question 9.
According to which set of fundamental rules the country functions?
(a) A law
(b) An amendment
(c) A constitution
(d) A preamble

Answer

Answer: (c) A constitution
A set of fundamental rules According to which the country functions is called a constitution. It helps serve as a set of rules and principles that all persons in a country can agree upon as the basis of its way.

---

Question 10.
By which amendment the Fundamental duties were included in the Constitution?
(a) 38^th Amendment
(b) 42^nd Amendment
(c) 40^th Amendment
(d) 39^th Amendment

Answer

Answer: (b) 42^nd Amendment
The Fundamental duties were included in the Constitution in 1976 through the 42^nd Amendment.

---

Question 11.
What are the objectives for implementing the fundamental rights according to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?
(a) To ensure every citizen is benefited
(b) To ensure every citizen is rich
(c) To ensure every citizen has ration card
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) To ensure every citizen is benefited
Ambedkar stated that the object of the fundamental rights is to ensure, firstly that ‘every citizen must be in a position to claim those rights, secondly they must be binding on every authority.

---

Question 12.
What is the significance of the Preamble in the Indian Constitution?
(a) States the objectives of the president
(b) States the objectives of the election
(c) States the objectives of the Constitution
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) States the objectives of the Constitution
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution is significant so far as it states the objectives of the Constitution justice, liberty, equality and fraternity.

---

Question 13.
What is Sovereignty?
(a) Freedom to establish new country
(b) Freedom to govern oneself
(c) Peoples government
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Freedom to govern oneself
Sovereignty means independence and freedom to govern oneself. Sovereignty is the full right and power of a governing body over itself, without any interference from outside sources or bodies.

---

Question 14.
What is Democracy?
(a) Rule of people
(b) Rule of king
(c) Rule of British
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Rule of people
Democracy is a system of government referred as rule of people. The government of the people, by the people and for the people is called democracy.

---

Question 15.
What is a Constitution?
(a) Set of rules of court
(b) Set of rules to govern country.
(c) Set of rules of company
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Set of rules to govern country
A constitution is a set of rules according to which the government of a country governs. The Constitution of India is the longest written constitution of any sovereign country in the world, containing 444 articles in 22 parts.

---

Question 16.
What type of government India practiced?
(a) Monarchy
(b) Democracy
(c) Anarchy
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Democracy
India is a type of democracy. Democracy is a system of government referred as rule of people. The government of the people, by the people and for the people is called democracy.

---

Question 17.
What is the name of the Kingship or rule of a king?
(a) Democracy
(b) Constitution
(c) Monarchy
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Monarchy
Kingship or rule of a king in absolute manner is called monarchy. A monarchy is a form of government in which a group embodies the country’s national identity and its head, the monarch, exercises the role of sovereignty.

---

Question 18.
What defines the introduction to our constitution?
(a) Preamble
(b) Sovereignty
(c) Constitution
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Preamble
The introduction to our constitution is known as the preamble. Preamble to the Constitution of India is a brief introductory statement that sets out the guiding purpose and principles of the document.

---

Question 19.
What do you mean by Right to equality?
(a) Rich people are higher than poorer
(b) All are equal before law
(c) Government officer are superior
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) All are equal before law
All persons are equal before the law. It states that no citizen can be discriminated against on the basis of their religion, caste or sex

---

Question 20.
Buying and selling of human beings include in which right?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right against Exploitation
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Right against Exploitation
The practice of the illegal buying and selling of different commodities across national borders, it refers to illegal trade in human beings, particularly women and children.

---

Write true (T) or false (F)

1. In a monarchy, citizens choose their leaders so that they can exercise power with responsibility on the citizen’s behalf.

Answer

Answer: False

---

2. There are three organs of the state according to the Indian Constitution.

Answer

Answer: True

---

3. It is not necessary that all countries that have Constitution are democratic.

Answer

Answer: True

---

4. In 2007, Nepal adopted an interim Constitution.

Answer

Answer: True

---

5. Mahatma Gandhi was known as the father of the Indian Constitution.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Match the following

1.

Column-I	Column-II
1. Gurantees the rights of individuals against the state	(a) Panchayati Raj
2. Father of the Indian Constitution	(b) Federalism
3. 3rd tier of the government	(c) Fundamental Rights
4. Existence of more than one level of government	(d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
5. The cruel and unjust use of power and authority	(e) Tyranny

Answer

Answer:

Column-I	Column-II
1. Gurantees the rights of individuals against the state	(c) Fundamental Rights
2. Father of the Indian Constitution	(d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
3. 3rd tier of the government	(a) Panchayati Raj
4. Existence of more than one level of government	(b) Federalism
5. The cruel and unjust use of power and authority	(e) Tyranny

---

Fill in the blanks

1. Baba Saheb Ambedkar is known as the ……………………… of the Indian Constitution.

Answer

Answer: Father

---

2. In ……………………… societies, Constitution often lays down rules that guard against the misuse of authority by our political leaders.

Answer

Answer: Democratic

---

3. Between December ……………………… and November ……………………… the Constituent Assembly drafted a Constitution for independent India.

Answer

Answer: 1946, 1949.

---

4. ……………………… is responsible for administering and enforcing laws.

Answer

Answer: Government

---

5. ……………………… refers to the existence of more than one level of government in the country.

Answer

Answer: Federalism

---

Picture Based Questions

1.

1. What type of relation is in the figure signified amongst the member of the constituent assembly?
2. About whom does the above picture shows?

Answer

Answer:
1. There is shown an extraordinary sense of unity amongst the members of the constituent assembly.
2. It shows Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, a prominent member of constituent assembly.

---

2.

1. Whom does the picture refers to?
2. What was the believe of Dr. Ambedkar about the scheduled castes?

Answer

Answer:
1. Baba Sahab Dr. Ambedkar is shown as the Father of Indian Constitution.
2. Dr. Ambedkar believed that his participation in the constituent assembly helped the scheduled castes get some safeguards in the draft constitution.

---

3.

1. What does the picture shows?

Answer

Answer:
1. This shows about people standing in line to cast their votes.

---

Map Skills

1.
Mark the following in such a way by colouring them with your desired colour so that we all could easily differentiate their boundaries.
(i) India (ii) Nepal (iii) Bangladesh

Answer

Answer:

---

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Question 1.
Gum Granth Sahib is the holy book of the:
(a) Muslims
(b) Hindus
(c) Sikhs

Answer

Answer: (c) Sikhs

---

Question 2.
Ghazzali and Rumi were the great Sufis of the:
(a) Central America
(b) Central Asia
(c) East Asia

Answer

Answer: (b) Central Asia

---

Question 3.
Sankaradeva was from:
(a) Assam
(b) Manipur
(c) Mizoram

Answer

Answer: (a) Assam

---

Question 4.
Mirabai was a devotee of:
(a) Lord Krishna
(b) Vishnu
(c) Shiva

Answer

Answer: (a) Lord Krishna

---

Question 5.
Nanak was bom in:
(a) Ramdaspur
(b) Talwandi
(c) Banaras

Answer

Answer: (b) Talwandi

---

Question 6.
Islam propagated:
(a) Submission to one God
(b) Talwandi
(c) Submission to many God

Answer

Answer: (a) Submission to one God

---

Question 7.
The term ‘langar’ refer to:
(a) Common place of worship
(b) The Gurudwara
(c) The Gums
(d) Common kitchen

Answer

Answer: (d) Common kitchen

---

Question 8.
Dargah Khwaja Muinuddin Chisthi is situated at:
(a) Jaipur
(b) Udaipur
(c) Ajmer
(d) Alwar

Answer

Answer: (c) Ajmer

---

Question 9.
Narsi Mehta was a saint of:
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Punjab
(d) Gujarat

Answer

Answer: (d) Gujarat

---

Question 10.
Muslim scholars developed a holy law called:
(a) Shariat
(b) Bhakti
(c) Meditation
(d) Salvation

Answer

Answer: (a) Shariat

---

Question 11.
Where did the composition of Surdas compiled?
(a) Sursagara
(b) Sursaravali
(c) Sahitya lahari
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above
Compositions of Surdas compiled in the Sursagara, Surasaravali and Sahitya Lahari.

---

Question 12.
Where did Sufi masters held their assemblies?
(a) In Ichanqahs
(b) In public hall
(c) In their houses
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) In Ichanqahs
The Sufi masters held their assemblies in their Ichanqahs or hospices.

---

Question 13.
Whose songs become popular in Rajasthan and Gujarat?
(a) Surdas
(b) Tulsidas
(c) Guru Nanak
(d) Mira Bai

Answer

Answer: (d) Mira Bai
Mira bai and her songs also openly challenged the norms of the “upper” castes and became popular with the masses in Rajasthan and Gujarat.

---

Question 14.
Surdas was an ardent devotee of whom?
(a) Vishnu
(b) Krishna
(c) Shiva
(d) Durga

Answer

Answer: (b) Krishna
Surdas was an ardent devotee of Krishn(a) His compositions, compiled in the Sursagara, Surasaravali and Sahitya Lahari, express his devotion.

---

Question 15.
Who were Sufis?
(a) Mystics Hindu
(b) Mystics Muslim
(c) Mystics Buddha
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Mystics Muslim
Sufis were Muslim mystics. They rejected outward religiosity and emphasised love and devotion to God and compassion towards all fellow human beings.

---

Question 16.
What are Vamghars?
(a) Houses of recitation and prayer
(b) Houses of merchants
(c) Houses of soldiers
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Houses of recitation and prayer
They are houses of recitation and prayer, a practice that continuous even today.

---

Question 17.
What is abhang?
(a) Muslims devotional hymn
(b) Gujarati devotional hymn
(c) Marathi devotional hymn
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Marathi devotional hymn
Abhang is a Marathi devotional hymn.

---

Question 18.
Give the name some of the saint-poets of Maharashtra?
(a) Janeshwar
(b) Eknath
(c) Namdev
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above
Janeshwar, Namdev, Eknath and Tukaram as well as women like Sakkubai.

---

Question 19.
Who was Shankaracharya?
(a) Philosopher
(b) Saint
(c) writer
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Philosopher
Shankaracharya was a philosopher and he was born in Kerala in the eighth century.

---

Question 20.
Which castes were considered untouchable?
(a) Pulaiyar
(b) Panars
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both a and b
Pulaiyar and the Panars castes were considered ‘untouchable’.

---

Match the following

1.

Column I	Column II
1. Harmander Sahib	(a) Vishnu
2. Tukaram	(b) Monotheism
3. Alwars	(c) Golden Temple
4. Islam	(d) Marathi poet

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
1. Harmander Sahib	(c) Golden Temple
2. Tukaram	(d) Marathi poet
3. Alwars	(a) Vishnu
4. Islam	(b) Monotheism

---

Fill in the blanks

1. ……………. compiled the compositions of Baba Gum Nanak.

Answer

Answer: GuruAngad

---

2. Abhang is a ……………. devotional hymn.

Answer

Answer: Marathi

---

3. There were ……………. Alvars.

Answer

Answer: 12

---

4. Both Hindus and Muslims became the followers of ……………. .

Answer

Answer: Kabir

---

5. There were ……………. nayanars who belonged to different caste backgrounds.

Answer

Answer: 63

---

6. Narsi Mehta was a ……………. .

Answer

Answer: Gujarati saint

---

7. The langar refers to ……………. .

Answer

Answer: Common kitchen

---

8. Surdas was a devotee of ……………. .

Answer

Answer: Lord Krishna

---

9. Islam propagated ……………. or submission to one gold.

Answer

Answer: monotheism

---

10. Muslim scholars developed a holy law called ……………. .

Answer

Answer: Shariat

---

11. The idea of ……………. became so popular that even Buddhists and Jainas adopted these beliefs.

Answer

Answer: Bhakti

---

12. Nayanars saints were devoted to ……………. and Alvars to ……………. .

Answer

Answer: Shiva/Vishnu

---

13. Nathpanthis, Siddacharas and Yogis thoughts became popular among so called ……………. castes.

Answer

Answer: low

---

Map Skills

1. In the map of India represent places related to the following saints:
(i) Guru Nanak
(ii) Dadu and Mirabai
(iii) Shankaradeva
(iv) Eknath, Tukaram
(v) Ramanuja, Nammalvar
(vi) Basavanna, Ramdas, Purandaradasa
(vii) Surdas, Tulsidas, Kabir, Raidas
(viii) Narsi Mehta

Answer

Answer:
(i) Presently Pakistan
(ii) Rajasthan
(iii) Assam
(iv) Maharashtra
(v) Tamil Nadu
(vi) Andhra Pradesh
(vii) Uttar Pradesh
(viii) Gujarat

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