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MCQ Questions for Class 7 Geography Chapter 3 Our Changing Earth with Answers

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Geography Chapter 3 Our Changing Earth with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 7 Social Science with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Our Changing Earth Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ of Chapter 3 Geography Objective Questions.

Our Changing Earth Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers

Appearing Students of Class 7 Exams can download MCQ on Our Changing Earth Class 7 with Answers from here. By practicing Class 7 Geography Chapter 3 MCQ with Answers, you can score well in the exam. Download Class 7 SST Geography Chapter 3 MCQ in PDF format from the below access links and start practicing on a regular basis for better subject knowledge.

Question 1.
The place in the crust where the movement of the earth starts is called the:
(a) Focus
(b) Epicentre
(c) Point

Answer

Answer:


Question 2.
After the river enters the plain, it twists and turns forming large bends known as:
(a) Meanders
(b) Ox-bow lake
(c) Levees

Answer

Answer:


Question 3.
Large deposits of loess is found in:
(a) South Korea
(b) Malaysia
(c) China

Answer

Answer:


Question 4.
The highest waterfall of the world is:
(a) Niagara falls
(b) Angel falls
(c) Victoria falls

Answer

Answer:


Question 5.
Which waterfall is located on the border between Canada and USA in North America?
(a) Angel falls
(b) Niagara falls
(c) Victoria falls

Answer

Answer:


Question 6.
At what magnitude is earthquake classified as major earthquake?
(a) 2.0
(b) 5.5
(c) 7.0

Answer

Answer:


Question 7.
Which is caused by the sudden movements of the earth?
(a) Volcano
(b) Folding
(c) Flood plain
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Volcano
Volcano is caused by the sudden movements of the earth. A volcano is a vent opening in the earth’s crust through that molten material erupts suddenly.


Question 8.
Where are Mushroom rocks are found?
(a) Deserts
(b) River valleys
(c) Glaciers
(d) Sea cliff

Answer

Answer: (a) Deserts
An active agent of erosion and deposition in the deserts is win(d) In deserts rocks are in the shape of a mushroom, commonly called mushroom rocks.


Question 9.
What is known as the steep rocky coast rising most vertically above the sea water?
(a) Sea cliff
(b) Glaciers
(c) Sea waves
(d) Stacks

Answer

Answer: (a) Sea cliff
The steep rocky coast rising most vertically above the sea water is called sea cliff. The sea waves deposit sediments along the shores forming beaches.


Question 10.
Where is the Angel falls located?
(a) South Africa
(b) South America
(c) South India
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) South America
There are thousands of small waterfalls in the worl(d) The highest waterfall is Angel Falls of Venezuela in South Americ(a)


Question 11.
What are the sudden movements in the earth crust are called?
(a) Focus
(b) Deposition
(c) Erosion
(d) Earthquake

Answer

Answer: (d) Earthquake
Endogenic forces sometimes produce sudden movements and at the other times produce slow movements. Sudden movements like earthquakes and volcanoes cause mass destruction over the surface of the earth.


Question 12.
What do you mean by a glacier?
(a) Moving of Layer of earth
(b) Moving of Soil
(c) Moving of ice
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Moving of ice
Moving rivers of ice are called glaciers.


Question 13.
What are the types of earthquake waves?
(a) P wave
(b) S wave
(c) L wave
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above
P wave and longitudinal waves, S wave or transverse waves and L waves or surface waves.


Question 14.
What do you know by Ox-bow Lakes?
(a) Lakes formed from animal participation
(b) Lakes for ox
(c) Cutting of meander loop from main rivers
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Cutting of meander loop from main rivers
When the meander loop is cut off from the main river it forms a cut-off lake. As its shape is like an ox-bow, it is also known as ox-bow Lake.


Question 15.
What are sand-dunes?
(a) Low hill-like structures
(b) Big mountains
(c) Volcano
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Low hill-like structures
Sand dunes are low hill-like structures formed by the deposition of sand in the deserts.


Question 16.
What do you mean by erosion?
(a) Moving of plates
(b) Type of exogenic forces
(c) Wearing away of landscape
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Wearing away of landscape
Erosion is the wearing away of the landscape by different agents like water, wind and ice.


Match the following

1.

Column IColumn II
1. Weather(a) Wearing away of the landscape by different agents
2. Erosion(b) Raised banks
3. Victoria falls(c) Breaking up of rocks
4. Levees(d) Collection of sediments
5. Delta(e) Zambia and Zimbabwe
Answer

Answer:

Column IColumn II
1. Weather(c) Breaking up of rocks
2. Erosion(a) Wearing away of the landscape by different agents
3. Victoria falls(e) Zambia and Zimbabwe
4. Levees(b) Raised banks
5. Delta(d) Collection of sediments

Fill in the blanks

1. An earthquake is measured with a machine called ……………. .

Answer

Answer: seismograph


2. The lithosphere is broken into a number of plates known as the ……………. plates.

Answer

Answer: lithospheric


3. The ……………. forces act in the interior of the earth.

Answer

Answer: endogenic


4. The ……………. forces work on the surface of the earth.

Answer

Answer: exogenic


5. When the ……………. plates move, the surface of the earth vibrates.

Answer

Answer: lithospheric


6. The place above the focus is called the ……………. .

Answer

Answer: epicentre


7. The strength of the earthquake decreases away from the ……………. .

Answer

Answer: centre


8. The magnitude of the earthquake is measured on the ……………. .

Answer

Answer: Richter scale


9. The landscape is being continuously worn away by two processes ……………. and ……………. .

Answer

Answer: weathering, erosion


10. When the river tumbles at steep angle over hard rocks or down a steep valley side, it forms a ……………. .

Answer

Answer: waterfall


11. The raised banks are called ……………. .

Answer

Answer: levees


12. The erosion and deposition of the sea waves give rise to ……………. landforms.

Answer

Answer: coastal


13. ……………. are “rivers” of ice.

Answer

Answer: Glaciers


Picture Based Questions

1. In the following picture, identify Sea Cave, Sea Arch and Stack.

Answer

Answer:
MCQ Questions for Class 7 Geography Chapter 3


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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 12 Thermodynamics with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 12 Thermodynamics with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Thermodynamics Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Thermodynamics Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Thermodynamics Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Physics Chapter 12 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Thermodynamics Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 12 Physics Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
A vessel contains a mixture of one mole of oxygen and two moles of nitrogen at 300 K. The ratio of the average rotational kinetic energy per O² to per N² molecule is
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 2 : 1
(d) depends on the moment of inertia of the two molecules

Answer

Answer: (a) 1 : 1


Question 2.
For a diatomic gas change in internal energy for a unit change in temperature for constant pressure and constant volume is U1 and U2 respectively. What is the ratio of U1 and U2?
(a) 5 : 3
(b) 3 : 5
(c) 1 : 1
(d) 5 : 7

Answer

Answer: (c) 1 : 1


Question 3.
An ideal gas heat engine operates in Carnot cycle between 227°C and 127°C. It absorbs 6 × 104 cal of heat at higher temperature. Amount of heat converted to work is:
(a) 2.4 × 104 cal
(b) 6 × 104 cal
(c) 1.2 × 104 cal
(d) 4.8 × 104 cal

Answer

Answer: (c) 1.2 × 104 cal


Question 4.
Which of the following parameters dose not characterize the thermodynamic state of matter?
(a) work
(b) volume
(c) pressure
(d) temperature

Answer

Answer: (a) work


Question 5.
A Carnot engine whose sink is at 300 K has an efficiency of 40%. By how much should the temperature of source be increased, so as to increase its efficiency by 50% of original efficiency?
(a) 275 K
(b) 325 K
(c) 250 K
(d) 380 K

Answer

Answer: (c) 250 K


Question 6.
The translational kinetic energy of gas molecules at temperature T for one mole of a gas is
(a) (3/2) RT
(b) (9/2) RT
(c) (1/3) RT
(d) (5/2) RT

Answer

Answer: (a) (3/2) RT


Question 7.
The temperature of reservoir of Carnots engine operating with an efficiency of 70% is 1000 kelvin. The temperature of its sink is
(a) 300 K
(b) 400 K
(c) 500 K
(d) 700 K

Answer

Answer: (a) 300 K


Question 8.
A gas is taken through a number of thermodynamic states. What happens to its specific heat?
(a) It is always constant.
(b) It increases.
(c) It decreases.
(d) It can have any value depending upon the process of heat absorbed or evolved.

Answer

Answer: (d) It can have any value depending upon the process of heat absorbed or evolved.


Question 9.
Directions: The following question has four choices out of which ONLY ONE is correct. A refrigerator with its power on, is kept in a closed room with its door open, then the temperature of the room will _________.
(a) rise
(b) fall
(c) remain the same
(d) depend on the area of the room

Answer

Answer: (a) rise


Question 10.
Directions: The following question has four choices out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the first law of thermodynamics? A. It is not applicable to any cyclic process B. It is a restatement of the principle of conservation of energy C. It introduces the concept of the internal energy D. It introduces the concept of the entropy
(a) A and D
(b) B and C
(c) C and A
(d) A and B

Answer

Answer: (a) A and D


Question 11.
For a diatomic gas change in internal energy for a unit change in temperature for constant pressure and constant volume is U1 and U2 respectively. What is the ratio of U1 and U2?
(a) 5 : 3
(b) 3 : 5
(c) 1 : 1
(d) 5 : 7

Answer

Answer: (c) 1 : 1


Question 12.
An engine has an efficiency of 1/6. When the temperature of sink is reduced by 62°C, its efficiency is doubled. Temperature of the source is:
(a) 124°C
(b) 37°C
(c) 62°C
(d) 99°C

Answer

Answer: (d) 99°C


Question 13.
Directions: The following question has four choices out of which ONLY ONE is correct. A Carnots engine works as a refrigerator between 250 K and 300 K. If it receives 750 calories of heat from the reservoir at the lower temperature, the amount of heat rejected at the higher temperature is __________.
(a) 900 cal
(b) 625 cal
(c) 750 cal
(d) 1000 cal

Answer

Answer: (a) 900 cal


Question 14.
An ideal gas heat engine operates in a Carnot cycle between 227°C and 127°C. It absorbs 6 kcal at the higher temperature. The amount of heat (in kcal) converted into work is equal to:
(a) 1.6
(b) 1.2
(c) 4.8
(d) 3.5

Answer

Answer: (b) 1.2


Question 15.
A vessel contains a mixture of one mole of oxygen and two moles of nitrogen at 300 K. The ratio of the average rotational kinetic energy per O² to per N² molecule is
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 2 : 1
(d) depends on the moment of inertia of the two molecules

Answer

Answer: (a) 1 : 1


Question 16.
Which of the following statements is correct for any thermodynamic system?
(a) The internal energy changes in all processes.
(b) Internal energy and entropy are state functions.
(c) The change in entropy can never be zero.
(d) The work done in an adiabatic process is always zero.

Answer

Answer: (b) Internal energy and entropy are state functions.


Question 17.
The temperature of reservoir of Carnots engine operating with an efficiency of 70% is 1000 kelvin. The temperature of its sink is
(a) 300 K
(b) 400 K
(c) 500 K
(d) 700 K

Answer

Answer: (a) 300 K


Question 18.
Directions: The following question has four choices out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the first law of thermodynamics? A. It is not applicable to any cyclic process B. It is a restatement of the principle of conservation of energy C. It introduces the concept of the internal energy D. It introduces the concept of the entropy
(a) A and D
(b) B and C
(c) C and A
(d) A and B

Answer

Answer: (a) A and D


Question 19.
A black body at a temperature of 227°C radiates heat at the rate of 20 cal m-2s-1. When its temperature rises to 727°C, the heat radiated will be
(a) 40 units
(b) 160 units
(c) 320 units
(d) 640 units

Answer

Answer: (c) 320 units


Question 20.
At a given volume and temperature, the pressure of a gas
(a) varies inversely as its mass
(b) varies inversely as the square of its mass
(c) varies linearly as its mass
(d) is independent of its mass

Answer

Answer: (c) varies linearly as its mass


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MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Winds, Storms and Cyclones Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Winds, Storms and Cyclones Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Winds, Storms and Cyclones Multiple Choice Questions of Class 7 Science Chapter 8 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Winds, Storms and Cyclones Class 7 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 8 Science Class 7 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
Winds currents generated by uneven heating between the equator and the:
(a) Moon
(b) Poles
(c) Sun
(d) Stars

Answer

(b) Poles
Winds currents generated by uneven heating between the equator and the poles


Question 2.
Smoke is hotter and lighter than:
(a) water
(b) heat
(c) air
(d) none of these

Answer

(c) air
Smoke is hotter and lighter than air.


Question 3.
The India Meteorological department forecasts cyclones with the help of:
(a) Rohini satellite
(b) Aryabhatta satellite
(c) INSAT satellite
(d) None of these

Answer

(c) INSAT satellite
The India Meteorological department forecasts cyclones with the help of INSAT satellite.


Question 4.
The heated air that rises up gets cooled and sinks which cause the:
(a) conduction currents
(b) radiation
(c) convection currents
(d) none of these

Answer

(c) convection currents
The heated air that rises up gets cooled and sinks which cause the convection currents.


Question 5.
A natural hazard causing destruction is called a:
(a) natural disaster
(b) cyclone
(c) thunderstorm
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) natural disaster
A natural hazard causing destruction is called a natural disaster.


Question 6.
Who among the following was the first to observe that whenever air moves its pressure drop ?
(a) Galileo
(b) Bernoulli
(c) Newton
(d) Guericpe

Answer

(b) Bernoulli
Bernoulli was the first to observe that whenever air moves its pressure drop ?


Question 7.
Which of the following natural disasters is characterized by thunder and lightning ?
(a) Drought
(b) Flood
(c) Thunderstorm
(d) Cyclone

Answer

(c) Thunderstorm
Thunder storm is characterized by thunder and lightning.


Question 8.
An alternative name of natural disaster is:
(a) natural calamity
(b) storm
(c) cyclone
(d) tornado

Answer

(a) natural calamity
An alternative name of natural disaster is natural calamity.


Question 9.
An intense whirl in the atmosphere with very strong winds in known as:
(a) natural calamity
(b) storm
(c) cyclone
(d) tornado

Answer

(c) cyclone
An intense whirl in the atmosphere with very strong winds is known as cyclone.


Question 10.
Which of the following States of India is prone to be hit by a cyclone ?
(a) Orissa
(b) Haryana
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Rajasthan

Answer

(a) Orissa
Orissa is prone to be hit by a cyclone.


Question 11.
Air exerts pressure in:
(a) sideways only
(b) downward direction only
(c) upward direction only
(d) all directions

Answer

(d) all directions
Air exerts pressure in all directions.


Question 12.
Air expands on:
(a) heating
(b) cooling
(c) drying
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) heating
Air expands on heating.


Question 13.
The calm centre of cyclone is:
(a) Eye
(b) Nose
(c) Skin
(d) None of these

Answer

(a) Eye
The calm centre of cyclone is eye.


Question 14.
Winds are expected to blow towards the equator, at a latitude of:
(a) 40°N
(b) 30°N
(c) 20°N
(d) None of these

Answer

(c) 20°N
Winds are expected to blow towards the equator, at a latitude of 20°N.


Question 15.
When we go up in the atmosphere, the air pressure:
(a) increases
(b) reduces
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) reduces
When we go up in the atmosphere, the air pressure reduces.


Question 16.
A cyclone is a:
(a) violent storm
(b) weak storm
(c) slow
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) violent storm
A cyclone is a violent storm.


Question 17.
Which of the following place is unlikely to be affected by a cyclone ?
(a) Chennai
(b) Mangalore
(c) Amritsar
(d) Puri

Answer

(c) Amritsar
Amritsar is unlikely to be affected by cyclone.


Question 18.
What step is to be taken for helping neighbours during cyclones ?
(a) Moving them to cyclone shelters
(b) Shifting their household properties to safer places
(c) Providing them medical aid
(d) All of the above

Answer

(d) All of the above
All the steps given above is to be taken for helping neighbours during cyclones.


Question 19.
How many hours in advance cyclone chart in issued of expected storms by satellites and radars ?
(a) 72
(b) 48
(c) 96
(d) 12

Answer

(b) 48
48 hours is used in advance in cyclone chart to expected storms by satellites and radars.


Question 20.
A disaster fell on Orissa in India on:
(a) 22 Oct., 1999
(b) 29 Oct., 1999
(c) 18 Oct., 1999
(d) None of these

Answer

(c) 18 Oct., 1999
A disaster fell on Orissa in India in 18 Oct, 1999.


Question 21.
Second cyclone hit Orissa on:
(a) 22 Oct., 1999
(b) 29 Oct., 1999
(c) 18 Oct., 1999
(d) None of these

Answer

(b) 29 Oct., 1999
Second cyclone hit Orissa in 29 Oct, 1999.


Question 22.
The number of homeless people hit by cyclone was:
(a) about 30,000 people
(b) about 60,000 people
(c) about 80,000 people
(d) about 70,000 people

Answer

(d) about 70,000 people
The no. of homeless people hit by cyclone was about 70,000.


Question 23.
Which modern technologies have made easier to monitor cyclones?
(a) Radar and satellites
(b) Anemometer
(c) Radio and Television
(d) Television and satellites

Answer

(a) Radar and satellites
Radar and satellites modern technologies have made easier to monitor cyclones.


Question 24.
When is a cyclone warning issued
(a) 48 hours in advance
(b) 32 hours in advance
(c) 24 hours in advance
(d) 42 hours in advance

Answer

(c) 24 hours in advance
Cyclone warning is issued 24 hours in advance.


Question 25.
What can be the maximum speed of tornado ?
(a) 30 km/hr
(b) 300 km/hr
(c) 3000 km/hr
(d) 3 km/hr

Answer

(b) 300 km/hr
300 km/hr is maximum speed of tornado.


Question 26.
We nil air into bicycle tubes to keep the tyre:
(a) tight
(b) loose
(c) heavy
(d) big

Answer

(a) tight
We fill air into bicycle tubes to keep the tyre tight.


Question 27.
Air has:
(a) force
(b) force when it is cold
(c) no force
(d) force when it is hot

Answer

(a) force
Air has force.


Question 28.
When a balloon deflates then:
(a) there is low sound
(b) there is loud sound
(c) no sound
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) there is loud sound
When ballon deflates then there is loud sound.


Question 29.
Hot air compared to cold air is:
(a) heavy
(b) lighter
(c) same
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) lighter
Hot air compare to cold air is lighter.


Question 30.
Speed winds are accompanied by:
(a) increased air pressure
(b) reduced air pressure
(c) there is no change in air pressure
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) reduced air pressure
Speed winds are accompanied by reduce air pressure.


Question 31.
Air moves:
(a) from the region where the air pressure is high to the region where the pressure is low
(b) from the region where the air pressure is low to the region where the pressure is high
(c) any where
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) from the region where the air pressure is high to the region where the pressure is low
Air moves from the region where the air pressure is high to the region where the pressure is low.


Question 32.
A storm is marked by:
(a) thunder and lightning
(b) flood
(c) water cycle
(d) storm

Answer

(a) thunder and lightning
A storm is marked by thunder and lightening.


Question 33.
The amount of water on the earth remains more or less the same because of:
(a) thunder
(b) flood
(c) water cycle
(d) all of the above

Answer

(c) water cycle
Amount of water on the earth remains more or less the same because of water cycle.


Question 34.
A dark funnel-shaped cloud that reaches from the sky to the ground is:
(a) cyclone
(b) tornado
(c) hurricane
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) tornado
A dark funnel-shaped like cloud that reaches from the sky to the ground tornado.


Question 35.
A name given to cyclone in American continent is:
(a) tornado
(b) hurricane
(c) typhoon
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) hurricane
A name given to the cyclone in American continent is hurricane.


Question 36.
A name give to cyclone in Philippines and Japan is:
(a) tornado
(b) hurricane
(c) typhoon
(d) none of these

Answer

(c) typhoon
A name given to cyclone in Philippines and Japan is Typhoon.


Question 37.
The instrument used to measure wind speed is:
(a) barometer
(b) anemometer
(c) rain guage
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) anemometer
The instrument used to measure wind speed is anemometer.


Question 38.
Cyclones:
(a) damages houses
(b) reduces the fertility of soil
(c) damages trees
(d) all of these

Answer

(d) all of these
Cyclones damages houses, damages trees and reduces the fertility of soil.


Question 39.
The factors which contribute to the development of cyclones is:
(a) wind speed
(b) temperature, humidity
(c) wind direction
(d) all of these

Answer

(d) all of these
The factors which contribute to development of cyclones is wind speed, wind direction and temperature, humidity.


Question 40.
When water changes from liquid to vapour state then water requires:
(a) wind
(b) heat
(c) air
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) heat
When water changes from liquid to vapour state then water requires heat.


Question 41.
The moving air is called:
(a) wind
(b) heat
(c) air
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) wind
The moving air is called wind.


Question 42.
A formation of a very low pressure system with very high speed winds revolving around it is called
(a) wind
(b) thunderstorm
(c) cyclones
(d) none of these

Answer

(c) cyclones
A formation of a very low pressure system with very high speed winds revolving around it is called cyclones.


Question 43.
A swift movement of the falling water droplets along with the rising air and creating lightning and sound is:
(a) wind
(b) thunderstorm
(c) cyclone
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) thunderstorm
A swift movement of the falling water droplets along with the rising air and creating lightning and sound is thunder storm.


Question 44.
The winds which flow from the oceans towards the land is:
(a) monsoon winds
(b) storm
(c) cyclones
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) monsoon winds
The winds which flow from the oceans towards the land is monsoon winds.


Question 45.
Monsoon carry water and it starts:
(a) wind
(b) storm
(c) rain
(d) none of these

Answer

(c) rain
Monsoon carry water and it starts rain.


Question 46.
Rain may cause excess water everywhere which is called:
(a) flood
(b) air
(c) cyclone
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) flood
Rain may cause excess water everywhere which is called flood.


Question 47.
Floods may occur which destroys:
(a) vegetation
(b) property
(c) life
(d) all of these

Answer

(d) all of these
Floods may occur which destroys vegetation, property and life.


Question 48.
The direction of the wind gets reversed, it flows from the land to the ocean in:
(a) summers
(b) winters
(c) monsoons
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) winters
The direction of the wind gets reversed, it flows from the land to the ocean in winters.


Question 49.
Near the equator the land warms up faster in:
(a) summer
(b) winter
(c) monsoon
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) summer
Near the equator the land warms up faster in summer.


Question 50.
Most of the time, the temperature of the land is higher than that of the water in the:
(a) oceans
(b) rivers
(c) lakes
(d) sea

Answer

(a) oceans
Most of time, the temperature of the land is higher than that of the water in the oceans.


Match Column A with Column B:

Question 1.

Column- AColumn- B
(a) In India cyclone hits(i) 29 Oct., 1999
(b) First cyclone hit Orissa on(ii) 70,000 people
(c) Second cyclone hit Orissa on(iii) 18 Oct., 1999
(d) The homeless people hit by cyclone(iv) Orissa
Answer
Column- AColumn- B
(a) In India cyclone hits(iv) Orissa
(b) First cyclone hit Orissa on(iii) 18 Oct., 1999
(c) Second cyclone hit Orissa on(i) 29 Oct., 1999
(d) The homeless people hit by cyclone(ii) 70,000 people

Question 2.

Column- AColumn- B
(a) Winds carry water and bring rain(i) Hurricane
(b) Speed of wind is measured by(ii) Monsoon
(c) A dark funnel shaped cloud(iii) Anemometer
(d) In American continent(iv) Tornado
Answer
Column- AColumn- B
(a) Winds carry water and bring rain(ii) Monsoon
(b) Speed of wind is measured by(iii) Anemometer
(c) A dark funnel shaped cloud(iv) Tornado
(d) In American continent(i) Hurricane

Question 3.

Column- AColumn- B
(a) Cyclone alert issued(i) wind
(b) Cyclone warning issued(ii) 300 km/hr
(c) Maximum speed of tornado(iii) 48 hrs. in advance
(d) Moving air(iv) 24 hrs. in advance
Answer
Column- AColumn- B
(a) Cyclone alert issued(iii) 48 hrs. in advance
(b) Cyclone warning issued(iv) 24 hrs. in advance
(c) Maximum speed of tornado(ii) 300 km/hr
(d) Moving air(i) wind

State whether the following statements are ‘True’ or ‘False’:

Question 1.
Monsoon winds carry water and it rains.

Answer

True


Question 2.
Moving air is storm.

Answer

False


Question 3.
Typhoons are dark funnel shaped clouds.

Answer

False


Question 4.
Anemometer is used to measure the speed of wind.

Answer

True


Question 5.
Orissa was hit by a cyclone on 18 Oct., 1999.

Answer

True


Question 6.
Self help is best help. It is better to plan in advance and to be ready to defend any aproaching cyclone.

Answer

True


Question 7.
Regularly listen to weather bulletins on T.V. and radio.

Answer

True


Question 8.
Hurricane is a cyclone in Philippines and Japan.

Answer

False


Question 9.
The word monsoon is derived from the Arabic word ‘mausan’ whic means ‘season’.

Answer

True


Question 10.
The coastline of India is not vulnerable to cyclones.

Answer

False


Question 11.
In winters, the winds flow the land to the ocean.

Answer

True


Question 12.
A cyclone is formed by a very high pressure system with a very high speed wind revolving around it.

Answer

False


Question 13.
In summers, the winds flow the land towards the ocean.

Answer

False


Question 14.
A good house is one which has no windows and ventilation.

Answer

False


Question 15.
Water should be used as such as in a cyclone hit area.

Answer

False


Question 16.
Thunder storm is a kind of weather characterized by rain.

Answer

True


Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Air exerts …………………… in all direction.

Answer

pressure


Question 2.
The Indian Meteorological Department forecasts cyclones with the help of …………………… satellite.

Answer

INSAT


Question 3.
Rubber suckers work because of air …………………….

Answer

pressure


Question 4.
A …………………… is a violent, twisting funnel of wind.

Answer

tornado


Question 5.
Wind is …………………… air.

Answer

moving


Question 6.
Wind is generated due to heating on the …………………… earth.

Answer

uneven


Question 7.
Near the earth’s surface …………………… air rises up whereas …………………… air comes down.

Answer

hot, cold


Question 8.
Air moves from a region of …………………… pressure to a region of …………………… pressure.

Answer

high, low


Question 9.
…………………… and …………………… have made easier to monitor cyclones.

Answer

Radar, satellites


Question 10.
…………………… are important for harvest. If harvest is good, farmers are happy.

Answer

Clouds


Question 11.
…………………… is a cyclone in Philippines and Japan.

Answer

Typhoon


Question 12.
Continuous heavy rainfall leads to …………………… situation.

Answer

flood


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MCQ Questions for Class 6 History Chapter 6 Kingdoms, Kings and an Early Republic with Answers

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 History Chapter 6 Kingdoms, Kings and an Early Republic with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 6 Social Science with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Kingdoms, Kings and an Early Republic Class 6 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ of Chapter 6 History Objective Questions.

Kingdoms, Kings and an Early Republic Class 6 MCQs Questions with Answers

Appearing Students of Class 6 Exams can download MCQ on Kingdoms, Kings and an Early Republic Class 6 with Answers from here. By practicing Class 6 History Chapter 6 MCQ with Answers, you can score well in the exam. Download Class 6 SST History Chapter 6 MCQ in PDF format from the below access links and start practicing on a regular basis for better subject knowledge.

Question 1.
1. Which animal was let loose in Ashvamedha?
(a) Cow
(b) Horse
(c) Elephant
(d) Buffalo

Answer

Answer: (b) Horse


Question 2.
Who was a central figure in the rituals?
(a) Brahmins
(b) Women
(c) Janas
(d) King

Answer

Answer: (d) King


Question 3.
Who were poor?
(a) Brahmins
(b) King
(c) Farmers
(d) Traders

Answer

Answer: (c) Farmers


Question 4.
Who were considered as untouchable in Varna system’?
(a) Brahmins
(b) King
(c) Shudras
(d) Women

Answer

Answer: (c) Shudras


Question 5.
Who were the people who studies the Vedas, performed sacrifices and received gifts?
(a) Brahmins
(b) King
(c) Janas
(d) Merchant

Answer

Answer: (a) Brahmins


Question 6.
Which sentence is not true in respect of forts?
(a) Forts were built because people were afraid of attacks from other kings
(b) People were also controlled easily by kings by fortification.
(c) Some kings also wanted to show how rich and powerful they were by building really large, tall and impressive walls around their cities?
(d) All are true.

Answer

Answer: (d) All are true.


Question 7.
Which sentence is not true in respect of the later Vedic books?
(a) In north India, many books were composed in the area drained by the Ganga and the Yamuna.
(b) These were composed before the Rigveda.
(c) These books described how rituals were to be performed and rules about society.
(d) These books were composed by priests.

Answer

Answer: (b) These were composed before the Rigveda.


Question 8.
Which sentence is not true in respect of Pottery found in Mahajanapadas?
(a) These made earthen pots.
(b) Some of them were grey in colour, other were red.
(c) One special type of pottery found at these sites is known a Painted Grey Ware.
(d) These grey pots had painted designs, usually simple lines in geometric patterns.
(e) All are true.

Answer

Answer: (e) All are true.


Question 9.
According to the Veda, which statement is false?
(a) Brahmins were expected to study the Vedas, perform sacrifices and receive gifts.
(b) Kshatriyas were the rulers. They were expected to fight battles and protect people.
(c) Both Shudras and women were allowed to study the Vedas.
(d) Shudras were last who had to serve the other three groups and could not perform any sacrifice. Later, they were classified as untouchables. The priest said that contact with these was polluting.

Answer

Answer: (c) Both Shudras and women were allowed to study the Vedas.


Question 10.
What is true in respect of Athens?
(a) Women of Athens were not considered citizens.
(b) Foreigners, who lived and worked in Athens, did not have rights as citizens.
(c) There were several thousand slaves in Athens who were not treated as citizens.
(d) All above.

Answer

Answer: (d) All above.


Question 11.
How much of the produce was collected as tax
(a) one-third part
(b) one-fifth part
(c) one-sixth part
(d) half part

Answer

Answer: (c) one-sixth part


Question 12.
Classification of society into four groups on the basis of their occupation is called
(a) Vajja
(b) Vista
(c) Varna
(d) Vedas

Answer

Answer: (c) Varna


Question 13.
_________________ means unquestioned control over an area in which the royal horse move uninterrupted
(a) Shermedha
(b) Ashvamedha
(c) Singhmedha
(d) Shatriyas

Answer

Answer: (b) Ashvamedha


Question 14.
Magadha and _________ are examples of monarchical mahajanapadas
(a) Shakyas
(b) Lichchhavis
(c) Vajji
(d) Vatsa

Answer

Answer: (d) Vatsa


Question 15.
____________ had a large deposits of iron-ore
(a) Malla
(b) Vajji
(c) Magadha
(d) Ujjayini

Answer

Answer: (c) Magadha


Question 16.
Which among the following is not capital of big cities of that period
(a) Pawa
(b) Champa
(c) Rajgriha
(d) Anga

Answer

Answer: (d) Anga


Question 17.
Who was the central figure in the Ashvamedha sacrifice
(a) Ministers
(b) Purohit
(c) King
(d) Soldiers

Answer

Answer: (c) King


Question 18.
Who was the founder of Nanda Dynasty
(a) Mahanara Nanda
(b) Mahapadma Nanda
(c) Maha Nanda
(d) Padma Nanda

Answer

Answer: (b) Mahapadma Nanda


Question 19.
The farmers gave one-sixth of their produce to the king which was called
(a) Bhaga
(b) Part
(c) Hissa
(d) Bhora

Answer

Answer: (a) Bhaga


Question 20.
Who worked as a farmers in the agriculture field
(a) Dass, Landless people, Women
(b) King, Purohit, Women
(c) Dass, Shudras, Vaishyas
(d) Dass, Brahmins, Kshatriyas

Answer

Answer: (a) Dass, Landless people, Women


Match the following

1.

Column-A (Janapads)Column-B (Place)
1. Pur ana Qila(a) Pakistan
2. Hastinapur(b) Bihar
3. Atranjikhera(c) Delhi
4. Magadha(d) Meerut
5. Gandhar(e) Near Etah (UP)
Answer

Answer:

Column-A (Janapads)Column-B (Place)
1. Pur ana Qila(c) Delhi
2. Hastinapur(d) Meerut
3. Atranjikhera(e) Near Etah (UP)
4. Magadha(b) Bihar
5. Gandhar(a) Pakistan

2.

Column-A (Group)Column-B (form of Tax)
1. Farmers(a) Taxes on goods
2. Crafts persons(b) Animal and its produce.
3. Herders(c) Forest produce
4. Traders(d) l/6th part of production
5. Hunters and gatherers(e) Labour, one day in a month
Answer

Answer:

Column-A (Group)Column-B (form of Tax)
1. Farmers(d) l/6th part of production
2. Crafts persons(e) Labour, one day in a month
3. Herders(b) Animal and its produce.
4. Traders(a) Taxes on goods
5. Hunters and gatherers(c) Forest produce

Fill in the blanks

1. Shudras and ……………………… were not allowed to study the Vedas.

Answer

Answer: women


2. Shudras were later classified as ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: untouchables


3. ……………………… was not grown earlier in this settlement.

Answer

Answer: Sugar cane


4. Earthen pots were ……………………… and ……………………… in colour.

Answer

Answer: grey and red


5. Tax collected from farmers was known as ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: ‘bhaga’


6. ……………………… was capital of Magadha for several years. Later the capital was shifted to ………………………

Answer

Answer: Rajgir, Pataliputra


7. ……………………… and ……………………… of Athens were not considered citizens.

Answer

Answer: Slaves, women


8. All the men over the age of ……………………… years were recognized as full citizens of Athens.

Answer

Answer: 30


9. Digha Nikaya is a famous ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: Buddhist book


10. First democracy began at ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: Athens


Map Skills

1. Find out janapadas and mahajanapadas on Indian map?

Answer

Answer:
MCQ Questions for Class 6 History Chapter 6
Some mahajanapadas and janapadas can be located on Indian map:
(i) Gandhara (ii) Kuru (iii) Panchala (iv) Kosala (v) Magadha (vi) Vajji (vii) Anga (viii) Avanti etc.


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MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 9 Soil

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 9 Soil with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Soil Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Soil Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Soil Multiple Choice Questions of Class 7 Science Chapter 9 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Soil Class 7 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 9 Science Class 7 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
The rotten dead matter in the soil is called:
(a) organic matter
(b) sand
(c) humus
(d) silt

Answer

(a) organic matter
Clay soil when felt with your hand, will be the smoothest.


Question 2.
Soil is formed from the parent rock material by a very slow and gradual process called:
(a) processing
(b) weathering
(c) breaking
(d) cutting

Answer

(b) weathering
The rotten dead matter in the soil is called sand.


Question 3.
The uppermost layer of earth’s crust, in which plants grow is:
(a) soil
(b) land
(c) water
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) land
Soil is formed from the parent rock material by a gradual process called weathering.


Question 4.
The uses of soil are:
(a) soil gives crop
(b) soil gives support to buildings
(c) toys can be made from soil
(d) all of these

Answer

(a) soil gives crop
The uppermost layer of earth’s crust, in which plants grow is soil.


Question 5.
Soil is polluted by:
(a) air
(b) water
(c) polythene bags
(d) none of these

Answer

(d) none of these
The uses of soil are they gives crop, support to buildings and to make toys.


Question 6.
A vertical section through different layers of the soil is:
(a) horizons
(b) soil profile
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

(c) both (a) and (b)
Soil is polluted by polythene bags


Question 7.
Different layers of the soil differs in feels colours, depth and chemical composition are:
(a) horizons
(b) soil profile
(c) weathering
(d) can’t say

Answer

(b) soil profile
A vertical section through different layers of soil is soil profile.


Question 8.
What kind of soil should be used for making matkas and surahis ?
(a) clayey soil
(b) loamy soil
(c) sandy soil
(d) can’t say

Answer

(a) clayey soil
Different layers of soil differs in feel, colour, depth and chemical composition are horizons.


Question 9.
The forumla used to calculate the rate of percolation is:
(a) percolation rate = amount of water (ml) percolation time (min)
(b) percolation rate = amount of water X percolation time 1
(c) percolation rate = amount of water X percolation time
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) percolation rate = amount of water (ml) percolation time (min)
Clayey soil should be used for making matkas and surahis.


Question 10.
Which type of soil will allow water to reach a well faster and in greater amount ?
(a) clayey soil
(b) sandy soil
(c) loamy soil
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) clayey soil
Percolation rate = amount of water (ml) percolation time (min) Sandy soil allow water to reach a well faster and is greater amount.


Question 11.
Which type of soil retains the highest amount of water ?
(a) clayey soil
(b) sandy soil
(c) loamy soil
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) sandy soil
Clayey soil retains the highest amount of water.


Question 12.
Which type of soil retains the least amount of water ?
(a) sandy soil
(b) loamy soil
(c) clayey soil
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) sandy soil
Sandy soil retains the least amount of water.


Question 13.
Rain water can be percolated by making:
(a) big holes
(b) small holes
(c) tanks
(d) wells

Answer

(a) big holes
Rain water can be percolated by making small holes.


Question 14.
Wind, rainfall,’temperature, light and humidity affect the:
(a) soil
(b) water
(c) air
(d) mountains

Answer

(b) water
Wind, rainfall, temperature, light and humidity affect soil.


Question 15.
Loamy soil is most suitable for planting:
(a) rice crop
(b) pulses crop
(c) cotton crop
(d) all of these

Answer

(a) rice crop
Loamy soil is most suitable for planting rice crop.


Question 16.
The removal of land surface by water, wind or ice is known as:
(a) soil erosion
(b) horizons
(c) humus
(d) rocks

Answer

(a) soil erosion
The removal of land surface by water, wind or ice is known as soil erosion.


Question 17.
The hard layer of rocks below the C horizon is called:
(a) bottom rock
(b) substratum
(c) bed rock
(d) gravel

Answer

(a) bottom rock
The hard layer of rocks below the C-horizon is called gravel.


Question 18.
Soil carried from else where and deposits them in the:
(a) substratum
(b) B horizon
(c) C horizon
(d) transported soil

Answer

(d) transported soil
Soil carried from else where and deposits them in the transported soil.


Question 19.
Rain water washes off minerals and deposits them in the:
(a) substratum
(b) B horizon
(c) C horizon
(d) R horizon

Answer

(d) R horizon
Rainwater washes off minerals and deposits them in the B-horizon.


Question 20.
Which soil is found in the fertile plains of Punjab and Uttar Pradesh ?
(a) red Soil
(b) black soil
(c) alluvial soil
(d) leteritic soil

Answer

(b) black soil
Alluvial soil is found in fertile plains of Punjab and Uttar Pradesh.


Question 21.
The colour of red soil is due to presence of:
(a) minerals
(b) iron oxide
(c) vitamins
(d) none of these

Answer

(c) vitamins
The colour of red soil is due to presence of iron oxide.


Question 22.
Bacteria, fungi, algael and tiny organisms called:
(a) humus
(b) protozoans
(c) biota
(d) all of these

Answer

(b) protozoans
Bacteria, fungi, algael and tiny organisms called protozoans.


Question 23.
The best kind of soil for plant growth is:
(a) loamy soil
(b) clayey soil
(c) sandy soil
(d) all of these

Answer

(a) loamy soil
The best kind of soil is loamy soil.


Question 24.
To improve the capacity to hold water ……………………. is added to the soil:
(a) rocks
(b) humus
(c) gravel
(d) sand

Answer

(b) humus
Humus improve the capacity to hold water.


Question 25.
Breaking down of rock to form soil is caused by:
(a) water
(b) air
(c) temperature
(d) all of these

Answer

(d) all of these
All of these is caused by breaking down of rock.


Question 26.
Cause of soil erosion is:
(a) less rainfall
(b) excess of vegetation
(c) lack of vegetation
(d) plenty of rocks

Answer

(c) lack of vegetation
Cause of soil erosion is lack of vegetation.


Question 27.
Humus is present in:
(a) bad rock
(b) gravel
(c) topsoil
(d) subsoil

Answer

(c) topsoil
Humus is present in top soil.


Question 28.
Humus is made up of:
(a) inorganic matter
(b) loose soil
(b) sub soil
(c) gravel
(d) bad rock

Answer

(c) gravel
Humus is made up of decayed plants and animals.


Question 29.
Fertility of soil is increased by the presence of:
(a) bacteria
(b) fungi
(c) insects
(d) all of these

Answer

(a) bacteria
The layer of soil where plants growth takes place is top soil.


Question 30.
aerates the soil and allows the air to reach the roots of plants:
(a) earthworm
(b) becteria
(c) fungi
(d) virus

Answer

(d) virus
Fertility of soil is increased by presence of all bacteria, fungi and insects.


Question 31.
For growing pulses the soil required is:
(a) sandy
(b) clayey
(c) loamy
(d) all of these

Answer

(a) sandy
Earthworm aerates the soil and allows the air to reach the roots of plants.


Question 32.
In addition to the rock particles, the soil contains:
(a) air and water
(b) water and minerals
(c) minerals, organic matter, air and water
(d) water, air and plants

Answer

(c) minerals, organic matter, air and water
For growing the pulses the soil required is loamy.


Question 33.
The water holding capacity is the highest in:
(a) clayey soil
(b) sandy soil
(c) loamy soil
(d) mixture of sand and loam

Answer

(c) loamy soil
In addition to the rock particles, the soil contains minerals, organic matter, air and water.


Question 34.
The smallest particles of rock form the:
(a) A-horizon
(b) B-horizon
(c) C-horizon
(d) D-horizon

Answer

(a) A-horizon
The water holding capacity is the highest in clayey soil.


Question 35.
Which of these has the smallest size of particles:
(a) sand
(b) clay
(c) silt
(d) gravel

Answer

(a) sand
The smallest particles of rock form the A-horizon.


Question 36.
What kind of soil is best for growing cotton ?
(a) sandy
(b) clayey
(c) loamy
(d) loamy-sandy

Answer

(b) clayey
Clay has the smallest size of particles.


Question 37.
Humus and the smallest particles of rock form the upper layer of soil called:
(a) parent rock
(b) sub soil
(c) top soil
(d) none of these

Answer

(d) none of these
Loamy and sandy soil is best for growing cotton.


Question 38.
Which layer of the soil has most nutrients for plants ?
(a) top soil
(b) subsoil
(c) parent soil
(d) bad rock

Answer

(c) parent soil
Humus and the smallest particles of rock form the upper layer of soil is called top soil.


Question 39.
Which soil has the right water holding capacity for plant growth:
(a) clayey soil
(b) sandy soil
(c) loamy soil
(d) same for all

Answer

(a) clayey soil
Top soil has most nutrients for plants.


Question 40.
Which soil when felt with your hand will be the smoothest:
(a) clay
(b) silt
(c) sand
(d) loam

Answer

(c) sand
Loamy soil has the right water holding capacity for plant growth.


Match the items in column A with column B:

Question 1.

Column- AColumn- B
(a) Garden soil(i) Brown in colour
(b) Soil from the road side(ii) Sandy
(c) Soil from the area where construction is going on(iii) Blackish in colour
Answer
Column- AColumn- B
(a) Garden soil(iii) Blackish in colour
(b) Soil from the road side(i) Brown in colour
(c) Soil from the area where construction is going on(ii) Sandy

Question 2.

Column- AColumn- B
(a) A home for living organisms(i) Large particles
(b) Upper layer of the soil(ii) All kinds of soil
(c) Sandy soil(iii) Small particles and packed tight
(d) Middle layer of the soil(iv) Dark in colour
(e) Clayey soil(v) Lesser amount of humus
Answer
Column- AColumn- B
(a) A home for living organisms(ii) All kinds of soil
(b) Upper layer of the soil(iv) Dark in colour
(c) Sandy soil(i) Large particles
(d) Middle layer of the soil(v) Lesser amount of humus
(e) Clayey soil(iii) Small particles and packed tight

State the following statements are True or False:

Question 1.
The best kind of soil for plant growth is sandy soil.

Answer

False


Question 2.
To improve the capacity to hold water humus is added to soil.

Answer

True


Question 3.
Breaking down of rocks to form soil is caused by coal.

Answer

False


Question 4.
Lack of vegetation is cause of soil erosion.

Answer

True


Question 5.
Humus is made of inorganic matter.

Answer

False


Question 6.
Humus is present in top soil.

Answer

True


Question 7.
The layer of soil where plant growth takes place is top soil.

Answer

True


Question 8.
Fertility of soil is increased by the presence of fungi, insects and bacteria.

Answer

True


Question 9.
Virus aerates the soil and allows the air to reach the roots of plants.

Answer

False


Question 10.
Clayey soil is required for growing pulses.

Answer

False


Question 11.
The removal of land surface by water wind as ice is soil erosion.

Answer

True


Question 12.
Loamy soil is most suitable for planting rice crop.

Answer

True


Question 13.
Polythene bags and plastics pollute the soil.

Answer

True


Question 14.
In the presence of plants, soil become loose.

Answer

False


Question 15.
The upper most horizon is generally light in colour at it is rich in humus.

Answer

False


Question 16.
Clayey soil is used to make pots, toys and statues.

Answer

True


Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
……………………. is the mixture of rock particles and humus.

Answer

soil


Question 2.
……………………. is the rotting dead matter in the soil.

Answer

humus


Question 3.
……………………. is breaking down of use pieces of rock into smaller pieces.

Answer

weathering


Question 4.
……………………. is formed by humus and the smallest particles of rock.

Answer

top soil


Question 5.
……………………. contains the smallest particles and feels very smooth.

Answer

clay


Question 6.
In addition to the rock particles, top soil also has small stones called …………………….

Answer

Answer: (a)


gravel
Question 7.
……………………. has a lot of sand and a little silt and clay.

Answer

sandy soil


Question 8.
……………………. is below the top soil and it contains mostly rock bits and some nutrients.

Answer

B-horizon


Question 9.
……………………. has the largest size particles can easily be seen.

Answer

sand


Question 10.
……………………. is our most important natural resources.

Answer

soil


Question 11.
……………………. is a mixture of sand, silt and clay and also humus in it.

Answer

loam


Question 12.
……………………. soils rich in clay and organic matter.

Answer

paddy


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Question 1.
Who went to Gautam Buddha for saving life of her son?
(a) Ahiliya
(b) Mahavira
(c) Kisagotami
(d) Sita

Answer

Answer: (c) Kisagotami


Question 2.
Which language was used by the Buddha to communicate with people?
(a) Hindi
(b) English
(c) Prakrit
(d) Sanskrit

Answer

Answer: (c) Prakrit


Question 3.
Siddhartha was the original name of:
(a) Buddha
(b) Mahavira
(c) Shiva
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Buddha


Question 4.
Mahavira was the prime of:
(a) Magadha
(b) Kalinga
(c) Lichchhavi
(d) Kusinara

Answer

Answer: (c) Lichchhavi


Question 5.
Valabhi is situated in the state:
(a) Gujarat
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Delhi
(d) Jammu and Kashmir

Answer

Answer: (a) Gujarat


Question 6.
The Prakrit spoken in Magadha was known as:
(a) Prakriti
(b) Magadhi
(c) Magadh’s Prakrit
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Magadhi


Question 7.
State of being unmarried is known as:
(a) Celibacy
(b) Calibaccy
(c) Calligraphy
(d) Calimobacy

Answer

Answer: (a) Celibacy


Question 8.
A follower of Vardhamana was known as:
(a) Buddha
(b) Brahman
(c) Jaina
(d) Kshatriya

Answer

Answer: (c) Jaina


Question 9.
Who composed the grammar of Sanskrit?
(a) Mahavira
(b) Panini
(c) Buddha
(d) Anagha

Answer

Answer: (b) Panini


Question 10.
Buddha believed that the result of our action is ____________.
(a) Karma
(b) Happiness
(c) Sadness
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Karma


Question 11.
Where did Buddha give his first teaching?
(a) Kurukshetra
(b) Lumbini
(c) Samath
(d) Kusinara

Answer

Answer: (c) Samath


Question 12.
The language of the Avesta, and the practices described in it are very similar to those of the
(a) Mahabharata
(b) Quran
(c) Bible
(d) Vedas

Answer

Answer: (d) Vedas


Question 13.
Panini, who prepared a __________ for Sanskrit.
(a) Dialogues
(b) Novel
(c) Words
(d) Grammar

Answer

Answer: (d) Grammar


Question 14.
Gautam Buddha’s father was the chief of _____________ clan
(a) Jnatrika
(b) Kamboja
(c) Lichchhavi
(d) Shakya

Answer

Answer: (d) Shakya


Question 15.
In which tree did Buddha gain enlightenment?
(a) Burgad tree
(b) Tulsi tree
(c) Peepal tree
(d) Neem tree

Answer

Answer: (c) Peepal tree


Question 16.
How many ashrams were recognised
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 6

Answer

Answer: (b) 4


Question 17.
Which means approaching and sitting near
(a) Upanishads
(b) Bhuddhism
(c) Vedas
(d) Aryans

Answer

Answer: (a) Upanishads


Question 18.
Mahavira was __________ prince
(a) Shudras
(b) Vaishya
(c) Brahmins
(d) Kshtriyas

Answer

Answer: (d) Kshtriyas


Question 19.
Zoroaster teaching are contained in the books called
(a) Geeta
(b) Bible
(c) Avesta
(d) Quran

Answer

Answer: (c) Avesta


Question 20.
____________ was an association of those who left their homes
(a) Angha
(b) Sang
(c) Sangha
(d) Gana

Answer

Answer: (c) Sangha


Question 21.
Who was the founder of Buddhism?
(a) Ashoka
(b) Bimbisara
(c) Siddhartha Gautama
(d) Mahavira

Answer

Answer: (c) Siddhartha Gautama


Match the following

1.

Column-IColumn-II
1. Zoroaster(a) thirst
2. Jina(b) Iranian prophet
3. Siddhartha(c) stage of life
4. Tanha(d) Jaina
5. Ashrama(e) Gautam Buddha
6. Atman(f) universal soul
7. Brahman(g) individual soul
Answer

Answer:

Column-IColumn-II
1. Zoroaster(b) Iranian prophet
2. Jina(d) Jaina
3. Siddhartha(e) Gautam Buddha
4. Tanha(a) thirst
5. Ashrama(c) stage of life
6. Atman(g) individual soul
7. Brahman(f) universal soul

Fill in the blanks

1. ……………………… believed that the result of our action is karma.

Answer

Answer: Buddha


2. The Buddha belonged to a small gana called the ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: Sakya gana


3. The rules made for the Buddhist sangha were written down in a book called the ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: Vinaya Pitaka


4. A group, Lichchhavis was part of the ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: Vajji Sangha


5. The earliest viharas were made of ……………………… and then ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: wood, brick


6. The land on which the vihara was built was usually donated by a ……………………… or a ……………………… or the ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: rich merchant, landowner, king


7. ……………………… were the ancestors of today’s Parsis.

Answer

Answer: Zoroastrians


8. Jainism was supported mainly by ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: traders


9. ……………………… was a kshtriya prince of the Lichchhavis.

Answer

Answer: Vardhamana Mahavira


10. ……………………… left the comforts of his home in search of knowledge.

Answer

Answer: Buddha


11. In ……………………… Buddha decided to find out his own path to realization.

Answer

Answer: Bodh Gaya (Bihar)


12. Most Upanishadic thinkers were men, especially ……………………… and ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: brahmins, rajas


Map Skills

1. Map of India locates the following places:
(a) Sarnath (b ) Bodh Gaya (c) Valabhi (d) Lumbini

Answer

Answer:
MCQ Questions for Class 6 History Chapter 7


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