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Food Security in India Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Appearing Students of Class 9 Exams can download MCQ on Food Security in India Class 9 with Answers from here. By practicing Class 9 Economics Chapter 4 MCQ with Answers, you can score well in the exam. Download Class 9 SST Economics Chapter 4 MCQ in PDF format from the below access links and start practicing on a regular basis for better subject knowledge.

Question 1.
Chronic hunger is a consequence of diets persistently inadequate:
(a) in term of quality only
(b) in term of quantity only
(c) in term of quantity and quality
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) in term of quantity and quality
Chronic hunger is a consequence of diets persistently in adequate to both quality and quantity.

---

Question 2.
Seasonal hunger is a type of hunger when a person:
(a) is unable to get food for the entire year
(b) is able to get food for the entire year
(c) is able to get work for the entire year
(d) is unable to get work for the entire year

Answer

Answer: (c) is able to get work for the entire year
Seasonal hunger occurs when a labour is unable to get work for the entire year.

---

Question 3.
Since independence, India is aiming at self-sufficiency in:
(a) food security
(b) food grains
(c) work force
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) food grains
The main aim of India is to get self-sufficiency in food grains, since independence.

---

Question 4.
The highest rate of growth in foodgrain was achieved in:
(a) Punjab and Bihar
(b) Haryana and Orissa
(c) Punjab and Haryana
(d) Punjab

Answer

Answer: (c) Punjab and Haryana
Both Punjab and Haryana have benefitted for the ‘Green Revolution’.

---

Question 5.
There are ………….. lakh ration shops all over the country:
(a) 4.4
(b) 4.5
(c) 4.6
(d) 4.7

Answer

Answer: (c) 4.6
4.6.

---

Question 6.
Fair Price Shops keep stock of:
(a) only food grains
(b) food grains and sugar
(c) food grain, sugar and kerosene oil
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) food grain, sugar and kerosene oil
Fair Price Shops keep stock of sugar, food grains and kerosene oil

---

Question 7.
Food security means:
(a) availability of food to all people at all times.
(b) availability and accessibility of food as all people at all times.
(c) availability, accessibility and affordability of food to all people at all times.
(d) none of the above.

Answer

Answer: (c) availability, accessibility and affordability of food to all people at all times.
Actually food security means availability, asscessibility and affordability of food grain.

---

Question 8.
The famine of Bengal occurred is:
(a) 1941
(b) 1942
(c) 1943
(d) 1944

Answer

Answer: (c) 1943
The famine of Bengal occurred in 1943. The famine killed thirty lakh people in the province of Bengal.

---

Question 9.
Starvation deaths are also reported in Baran district of:
(a) West Bengal
(b) Bihar
(c) Orissa
(d) Rajasthan

Answer

Answer: (d) Rajasthan
Baran district is in Rajasthan.

---

Question 10.
Food security in needed in a country:
(a) to ensure food at all times
(b) to ensure food to the rich
(c) to ensure food at sometimes
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) to ensure food at all times
Food security means to ensure food at all times.

---

Question 11.
The food insecure people are disproportionately large:
(a) in all the states of India
(b) in the states of Bihar and Orissa
(c) in some region of the country
(d) none of the above.

Answer

Answer: (c) in some region of the country
In some regions of India where production is less.

---

Question 12.
Hunger is another aspect indicating:
(a) food security
(b) food insecurity
(c) to meet their demands
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) food insecurity
Food insecurity will lead to hunger.

---

Write true (T) or false (F)

1. Accessibility means food is within reach of some section of the people.

Answer

Answer: False

---

2. The poorest section of the society are always food insecure all the time.

Answer

Answer: True

---

3. A massive starvation might take a turn of famine.

Answer

Answer: True

---

4. The famine of Bengal killed twenty lakh people.

Answer

Answer: False

---

5. There are places like Kalahandi and Kashipur in Orissa where famine-like conditions have been existing for many years.

Answer

Answer: True

---

6. Food security is needed in a country to provide food to the poor.

Answer

Answer: False

---

7. Hunger is not just an expression of poverty, it brings about poverty.

Answer

Answer: True

---

8. Hunger has chronic and seasonal dimension.

Answer

Answer: True

---

9. People suffer from chronic hunger became of their high income and in turn ability to buy food even for survival.

Answer

Answer: False

---

10. The percentage of seasonal as well as chronic hunger has declined in India.

Answer

Answer: True

---

11. After Independence, Indian policy of makers adopted all measures to achieve self-sufficiency in food grains.

Answer

Answer: True

---

12. Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh recorded significant increase in wheat yield.

Answer

Answer: False

---

13. India has become, self-sufficient in foodgrains during the last thirty years.

Answer

Answer: True

---

14. Buffer stock is the stock of foodgrain, namely wheat and barley procured by the government through FCI.

Answer

Answer: False

---

15. The farmers are paid a pre-announced price for their crops which is called Minimum Support Price.

Answer

Answer: True

---

16. The food procured by the FCI is distributed through government regulated ration shops among all sections of the society.

Answer

Answer: False

---

17. There are about 5.6 lakh ration shops all over the country.

Answer

Answer: False

---

18. The ration shops are also known as Fair Price Shops.

Answer

Answer: True

---

19. In ration shops the items are sold to people at a price higher than the market price.

Answer

Answer: False

---

20. The introduction of Rationing in India dates back to the 1940s against the backdrop of the Bengal famine.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Match the following

1.

Column A	Column B
(a) ICDS introduced in	(1) 1977 – 78
(b) FFW introduced in	(2) 1995
(c) World Food Summit	(3) 2000
(d) AAY was launched in	(4) 2000
(e) APS was launched in	(5) 1975

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(a) ICDS introduced in	(5) 1975
(b) FFW introduced in	(1) 1977 – 78
(c) World Food Summit	(2) 1995
(d) AAY was launched in	(3) 2000
(e) APS was launched in	(4) 2000

---

2.

Column A	Column B
(a) Availability of food	(1) an individual has enough money to buy food, to meet one’s dietary needs.
(b) Accessibility means	(2) food is within reach of every person.
(c) Affordability means	(3) wide spread deaths due to starvation and epidemics.
(d) Famine	(4) Stock of wheat and rice procured by the government through FCI.
(e) Buffer stock	(5) means food production within the country, food import and previous year stock stored.

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(a) Availability of food	(5) means food production within the country, food import and previous year stock stored.
(b) Accessibility means	(2) food is within reach of every person.
(c) Affordability means	(1) an individual has enough money to buy food, to meet one’s dietary needs.
(d) Famine	(3) wide spread deaths due to starvation and epidemics.
(e) Buffer stock	(4) Stock of wheat and rice procured by the government through FCI.

---

3.

Column I	Column II	Column III
1. The MSP is declared by the government	(a) FCI is called	(A) security programmes
2. Distribution of food by the	(b) food	(B) in the
3. PDS and mid-day meals are exclusively	(c) every year before the	(C) PDS
4. RPDS was introduced in	(d) AAY	(D) sowing
5. In 2000, two special schemes were launched, viz.	(e) 1,700 block	(E) APS

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II	Column III
1. The MSP is declared by the government	(c) every year before the	(D) sowing
2. Distribution of food by the	(a) FCI is called	(C) PDS
3. PDS and mid-day meals are exclusively	(b) food	(A) security programmes
4. RPDS was introduced in	(e) 1,700 block	(B) in the
5. In 2000, two special schemes were launched, viz.	(d) AAY	(E) APS

---

Fill in the blanks

1. Hunger are prevalent despite overflowing ……………. .

Answer

Answer: granaries

---

2. In July, 2002, the stock of wheat and rice with FCI was ……………. million tonnes.

Answer

Answer: 63

---

3. There is a general consensus that high level of ……………. stock of food grain is very undesirable and can be wasteful.

Answer

Answer: buffer

---

4. ……………. dealers are sometime found resorting to malpractices.

Answer

Answer: PDS

---

5. When ……………. shops are unable to sell, a massive stock of foodgrains pile up with the FCI.

Answer

Answer: ration

---

6. The price for ……………. family is almost as high as open market price.

Answer

Answer: APL

---

7. The ……………. are also playing an important role in food security in India.

Answer

Answer: Cooperatives

---

8. In ……………. , around 94 per cent of the ration shops are run by cooperatives.

Answer

Answer: Tamil Nadu

---

9. In ……………. , ADS has facilitated a network of NGOs for setting up grain banks in different region.

Answer

Answer: Maharashtra

---

10. ……………. Banks are now slowly taking shape in different parts of Maharashtra.

Answer

Answer: Grain

---

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Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 13 Sound with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Sound Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Sound Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Sound Multiple Choice Questions of Class 8 Science Chapter 13 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Sound Class 8 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 13 Science Class 8 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
Sound can travel through:
(a) gases only
(b) solids only
(c) liquids only
(d) solids, liquids and gases

Answer

(d) solids, liquids and gases
Sound can travel through solids, liquids and gases.

---

Question 2.
Voice of which of the following is likely to have minimum frequency:
(a) baby girl
(b) baby boy
(c) a man
(d) a woman

Answer

(a) baby girl
Baby girl is likely to have minimum frequency.

---

Question 3.
Vibration in a body produce:
(a) energy
(b) sound
(c) heat
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) sound
Vibration if a body produce sound.

---

Question 4.
A shehnai produces sound from:
(a) vibrating strings
(b) vibrating membrane
(c) vibrating air column
(d) none of these

Answer

(c) vibrating air column
A shehnai produces sound from vibrating air column.

---

Question 5.
Drum produces sound from:
(a) vibrating membrane
(b) vibrating stretched membrane
(c) vibrating strings
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) vibrating stretched membrane
Drum produces sound from vibrating stretched membrane.

---

Question 6.
Frequency of oscillations is:
(a) the number of oscillations per minute
(b) the number of oscillations per hour
(c) the number of oscillations per second
(d) none of these

Answer

(c) the number of oscillations per second
Frequency of oscillations is the number of oscillations per second.

---

Question 7.
The unit of frequency is:
(a) hertz
(b) hertz /sec
(c) hertz / min
(d) hertz / hour

Answer

(a) hertz
The unit of frequency is hertz.

---

Question 8.
The frequency determines the of a sound.
(a) loudness
(b) pitch
(c) both loudness and pitch
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) pitch
The frequency determines the pitch of a sound.

---

Question 9.
When the amplitude is small, the sound produced is:
(a) loud
(b) feeble
(c) low pitched
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) feeble
When the amplitude is small, the sound produced is feeble.

---

Question 10.
The ultrasound equipment works at frequencies:
(a) higher than 20,000 Hz
(b) lower than 20,000 Hz
(c) less than 20 Hz
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) higher than 20,000 Hz
The ultrasound equipment works at frequencies higher than 20,000 Hz.

---

Question 11.
Noise pollution causes:
(a) lack of sleep
(b) hypertension
(c) anxiety
(d) all of these

Answer

(d) all of these
Noise pollution causes lack of sleep, hypertension, anxiety.

---

Question 12.
Trees planted along the roads reduces the harmful effect of:
(a) noise pollution
(b) air pollution
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

(c) both (a) and (b)
Trees planted along the roads reduces the harmful effects of noise pollution and air pollution.

---

Question 13.
Number of vocal cords in human is:
(a) one
(b) two
(c) four
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) two
Number of vocal cords in human is two.

---

Question 14.
Sound:
(a) can travel through vacuum
(b) cannot travel through vacuum
(c) sound can sometimes travel through
(d) none of these vacuum

Answer

(b) cannot travel through vacuum
Sound cannot travel through vacuum.

---

Question 15.
Sound:
(a) Sound requires a medium to travel
(b) does not require a medium to travel
(c) sometimes require a medium to travel
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) Sound requires a medium to travel
Sound requires a medium to travel.

---

Question 16.
Propagation of sound is fastest In:
(a) gases
(b) liquids
(c) solids
(d) vacuum

Answer

(c) solids
Propagation of sound is fastest in solids.

---

Question 17.
Sound does not travel in:
(a) vacuum
(b) gases
(c) solids
(d) liquids

Answer

(a) vacuum
Sound does not travel in vacuum.

---

Question 18.
Unwanted and unpleasant sounds are called:
(a) noise
(b) noise pollution
(c) music
(d) air pollution

Answer

(a) noise
Noise is unwanted and unpleasant sound.

---

Question 19.
Process of receiving sound vibrations and sensing them by brain is called :
(a) producing
(b) speaking
(c) sensing
(d) hearing

Answer

(d) hearing
Process of receiving sound vibrations and sensing them by brain is called hearing

---

Question 20.
Voice box has stretched string like parts, which vibrate to produce sound are called:
(a) larynx
(b) vocal cords
(c) nerves
(d) arteries

Answer

(b) vocal cords
Voice box has stretched string like parts, which vibrate to produce sound are called vocal cords.

---

Quesiton 21.
Large amplitude of sound vibrations will produce:
(a) loud sound
(b) slow sound
(c) meak sound
(d) shreak

Answer

(a) loud sound
Large amplitude of sound vibrations will produce loud sound.

---

Question 22.
High frequency of sound vibrations will produce a:
(a) loud sound
(b) shreak
(c) meak sound
(d) low piched sound

Answer

(b) shreak
High frequency of sound vibration will produce a shreak.

---

Question 23.
Excess unwanted sounds is environment can cause:
(a) noise
(b) disturbance
(c) noise pollution
(d) air pollution

Answer

(c) noise pollution
Excess unwanted sounds is environment can cause noise pollution.

---

Question 24.
The range of audible sound for human ear is:
(a) less than 20 Hz
(b) more than 20,000 Hz
(c) from 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz
(d) none of these

Answer

(c) from 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz
The range of audible sound for human ear is from 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz.

---

Question 25.
The amplitude of the sound wave decides its:
(a) loudness
(b) pitch
(c) speed
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) loudness
The amplitude of the sound wave decides its loudness.

---

Question 26.
If the amplitude becomes twice than the loudness of sound increases by a factor of:
(a) 2
(b) 4
(e) no change
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) 4
If the amplitude becomes twice than the loudness of sound increases by a factor of 4. Loudness of sound is proportional to the square of the amplitude of the vibration producing the sound.

---

Question 27.
In sitar sound Is produced by:
(a) beating
(b) rubbing
(c) blowing
(d) plucking

Answer

Answer: (a)
In sitar sound is produced by plucking.

---

Match the Column-A with Column-B:

Question 1.

Column-A	Column-B
(a) Unit of frequency	(i) Amplitude
(b) Pleasant sound	(ii) High frequency
(c) Unwanted sound	(iii) Hertz
(d) High pitch sound	(iv) Music
(e) Loudness	(v) Noise

Answer

Column-A	Column-B
(a) Unit of frequency	(iii) Hertz
(b) Pleasant sound	(iv) Music
(c) Unwanted sound	(v) Noise
(d) High pitch sound	(ii) High frequency
(e) Loudness	(i) Amplitude

---

Question 2.

Column-A	Column-B
(a) Number of vibrations produced by a vibrating particle in one second	(i) 330 m / sec
(b) Pitch	(ii) frequency
(c) Flute	(iii) vibration
(d) To and fro motion of a vibrating body about its mean position	(iv) vibration air column
(e) Speed of sound in air	(v) frequency of vibration

Answer

Column-A	Column-B
(a) Number of vibrations produced by a vibrating particle in one second	(v) frequency of vibration
(b) Pitch	(ii) frequency
(c) Flute	(iv) vibration air column
(d) To and fro motion of a vibrating body about its mean position	(iii) vibration
(e) Speed of sound in air	(i) 330 m / sec

---

Question 3.

Column-A	Column-B
(a) Sound propagation	(i) Time period
(b) Maximum displacement of a vibrating particle from its mean position	(ii) Vacuum
(c) 1 KHz	(iii) Amplitude
(d) Time in which vibrating particle completes one vibration	(iv) Material medium
(e) A medium through which sound cannot travel	(v) 1000 Hz

Answer

Column-A	Column-B
(a) Sound propagation	(iv) Material medium
(b) Maximum displacement of a vibrating particle from its mean position	(iii) Amplitude
(c) 1 KHz	(v) 1000 Hz
(d) Time in which vibrating particle completes one vibration	(i) Time period
(e) A medium through which sound cannot travel	(ii) Vacuum

---

State whether the following statements are True or False:

Question 1.
Sound cannot travel in vacuum.

Answer

True

---

Question 2.
The number of oscillations per sound of a vibrating object is called its time period.

Answer

False

---

Question 3.
If the amplitude of vibration is large, sound is feeble.

Answer

False

---

Question 4.
For human ears, the audible range is 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz.

Answer

True

---

Question 5.
The lower the frequency of vibration, the higher is the pitch.

Answer

False

---

Question 6.
Unwanted or unpleasant sound is termed as music.

Answer

False

---

Question 7.
Noise pollution may cause partial hearing impairment.

Answer

True

---

Question 8.
The loudness of sound is measured in hertz.

Answer

False

---

Question 9.
One hertz means one vibration per second.

Answer

False

---

Question 10.
Sound travels fastest in solids.

Answer

true

---

Question 11.
We can hear all the vibrations made by different bodies.

Answer

False

---

Question 12.
Cusions, curtains and rugs absorb sound.

Answer

True

---

Question 13.
The quality of sound depends on the material of vibrating part.

Answer

True

---

Question 14.
Sound with frequency above 20,000 Hz is called ultrasonic.

Answer

True

---

Question 15.
Smaller the amplitude of vibration, the louder is the sound.

Answer

False

---

Question 16.
In human beings, the vibration of the vocal cords produces sound.

Answer

True

---

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Time taken by an object to complete one oscillation is called …………………….

Answer

time period

---

Question 2.
Loudness is determined by the ……………………. of vibration.

Answer

amplitude

---

Question 3.
The unit of frequency is ……………………..

Answer

hertz

---

Question 4.
Unwanted sound is called ……………………..

Answer

noise

---

Question 5.
Shrillness of a sound is determined by the ……………………. of vibration.

Answer

frequency

---

Question 6.
Sound is produced by ……………………. objects.

Answer

vibrating

---

Question 7.
……………………. in human beings vibrate to produce sound.

Answer

Vocal cords

---

Question 8.
When we touch a source of sound, we can feel the ……………………..

Answer

vibrations

---

Question 9.
Sound cannot travel in ……………………..

Answer

vacuum

---

Question 10.
The audible frequency for human ear is ……………………..

Answer

20 Hz to 20,000 Hz

---

Question 11.
Sound requires a ……………………. to travel.

Answer

medium

---

Question 12.
The number of vibrations per second defines ……………………..

Answer

frequency

---

Question 13.
Sound travels fastest in ……………………..

Answer

solids

---

Question 14.
Only vibrating bodies produce ……………………..

Answer

sound

---

Question 15.
……………………. part of dholak vibrate to produce sound.

Answer

Stretched membrane

---

Question 16.
……………………. part of Sitar vibrate to produce sound.

Answer

Stretched string

---

Question 17.
……………………. part of flute vibrate to produce sound.

Answer

Air column

---

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Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 9 Reproduction in Animals with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Reproduction in Animals Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Reproduction in Animals Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Reproduction in Animals Multiple Choice Questions of Class 8 Science Chapter 9 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Reproduction in Animals Class 8 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 9 Science Class 8 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
The fusion of a male and female gamete results in the formation of:
(a) Egg
(b) Zoospore
(c) Sperm
(d) Zygote

Answer

(d) Zygote
The fusion of a male and female gamate results in the formation of zygote.

---

Question 2.
The developing zygote is called:
(a) baby
(b) foetus
(c) embryo
(d) none of these

Answer

(c) embryo
The developing zygote is called embryo.

---

Question 3.
The stage of the embryo in which all the body parts can be identified is called:
(a) baby
(b) foetus
(c) baby embryo
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) foetus
The stage of the embryo in which all body parts can be identified is called foetus.

---

Question 4.
The animals which give birth to young ones are called:
(a) viviparous
(b) oviparous
(c) hermaphrodites
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) viviparous
The animals which give birth to young ones are called viviparous.

---

Question 5.
The animals which lay eggs are called:
(a) viviparous
(b) hermaphrodites
(c) oviparous
(d) none of these

Answer

(c) oviparous
The animals which lay eggs are called oviparous.

---

Question 6.
A fertihsed ovum deirelops into a baby in the:
(a) vagina
(b) fallopian tubes
(c) uterus
(d) ovary

Answer

(c) uterus
A fertilised ovum develops in to a baby in the uterus.

---

Question 7.
Which of the following is a hermaphrodite animal:
(a) elephant
(b) cow
(c) dog
(d) earthworm

Answer

(d) earthworm
Earthworm is a hermaphrodite animal.

---

Question 8.
Which of the following requires both parents for reproducing:
(a) hydra
(b) amoeba
(c) paramecium
(d) human

Answer

(d) human
Earthworm is a hermaphrodite animal.

---

Question 9.
Which of the following is involved in the sexual reproduction ?
(a) vegetative propagation
(b) multiple fission
(c) binary fission
(d) fertilisation

Answer

(d) fertilisation
Human requires both parents (mother and father) for reproducing.

---

Question 10.
The organism which has both the male and female sex organs present in the same body is called:
(a) unisexual
(b) multisexual
(c) hermaphrodites
(d) none of these

Answer

(d) none of these
Fertilisation is involved in sexual reproduction. Vegetative propagation, multiple fission and binary fission are methods of asexual reproduction.

---

Question 11.
The process leading to the fusion of the gametes in plants and inimals is called:
(a) grbwth
(b) fertihsation
(c) development
(d) fusion

Answer

(b) fertihsation
Fertilisation is the process leading to the fusion of the gamates in plants and animals

---

Question 12.
Amoeba reproduce by:
(a) budding
(b) multiple fission
(c) vegetative propogation
(d) binar fission

Answer

(d) binar fission
Amoeba reproduce by binary fission.

---

Question 13.
Hydra reproduce by:
(a) budding
(b) multiple fission
(c) vegetative propogation
(d) binary fission

Answer

(a) budding
Hydra reproduce by budding.

---

Question 14.
External fertilisation takes place in:
(a) humans
(b) fish
(c) hens
(d) dogs

Answer

(b) fish
External fertilisation takes place in fish.

---

Question 15.
Test tube babies grow in:
(a) mother’s uterus
(b) mother’s oviduct
(c) none of these
(d) test tubes

Answer

(a) mother’s uterus
Test tube babies grow in mother’s uterus.

---

Question 16.
The young once of which of the following animals is similar to its parents:
(a) frog
(b) mosquito
(c) butterfly
(d) goat

Answer

(d) goat
Goat. The young ones offrog, mosquito and butterfly are different from their parents

---

Question 17.
The young ones of which of the following animals is not similar to its parents:
(a) human being
(b) dog
(c) frog
(d) cockroach

Answer

(c) frog
Frog. The young ones of human being, dog and cockroach are similar to their parent.

---

Question 18.
The young ones of which of the following animals is not similar to its parents:
(a) human being
(b) dog
(c) frog
(d) cockroach

Answer

(c) frog
Frog. The young ones of human being, dog and cockroach are similar to their

---

Question 19.
Animals in which male and female are distinct are called :
(a) bisexual
(b) unisexual
(c) sexual
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) unisexual
Animals in which male and female are distinct are called unisexual.

---

Question 19.
The egg of the bird is celled:
(a) two
(b) one
(c) many
(d) ten

Answer

(b) one
The egg of the bird is one celled.

---

Question 20.
Male reproductive organ is called:
(a) ovary
(b) gametes
(c) tcstis
(d) sperms

Answer

(c) tcstis
Male reproductive organ is testis. It produces sperms.

---

Question 21.
Female reproductive organ is called:
(a) egg
(b) ovary
(c) gamete
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) ovary
Female reproductive organ is ovary. It produces egg.

---

Question 22.
The fusion of egg and sperms is called:
(a) fertilisation
(b) gametes
(c) fusion
(d) none of these

Answer

(c) fusion
The fusion of egg and sperms is called fertilisation.

---

Question 23.
Which of the following has internal fertilisation:
(a) bird
(b) cat
(c) human being
(d) all of these

Answer

(d) all of these
Bird, cat and human being has internal fertilisation.

---

Question 24.
External fertilisation takes place:
(a) inside the female body
(c) outside the female body
(b) inside the male body
(d) none of these

Answer

(c) outside the female body
External fertilisation takes place outside the female body.

---

Question 25.
Which of the following are male reproductive organs:
(a) ovary, testis, scrotum, penis
(b) ovary, uterus, testis, scrotum
(c) uterus, testis, scrotum, penis
(d) urinary bladder, testis, scrotum, penis.

Answer

(d) urinary bladder, testis, scrotum, penis.
Urinary bladder, testis, scrotum and penis are male reproductive organs.

---

Question 26.
In human beings:
(a) embryo develops outside the body
(d) embryo develops inside the female body
(c) embryo develops inside the female body till complete baby is formed
(d) embryo develope inside the female body till the formation of the pro-embryo

Answer

(c) embryo develops inside the female body till complete baby is formed
In human beings embryo develops inside the female body till complete body is formed

---

Question 27.
Which of the following animals lay eggs:
(a) cockroach
(b) fish
(c) lizard
(d) all the above

Answer

(d) all the above
Cockroach, fish and lizard all lay eggs.

---

Question 28.
Internal fertilization occurs:
(a) in female body
(b) outside female body
(c) in male body
(d) outside male body

Answer

(a) in female body
Internal fertilizations occurs in female body.

---

Question 28.
A tadpole develops into an adult frog by the process of:
(a) fertilization
(b) metamorphosis
(c) embedding
(d) budding

Answer

(b) metamorphosis
A tadpole develops into an adult frog by the process of metamorphosis.

---

Question 29.
The number of nuclei present in a zygote is:
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Four

Answer

(c) Two
The number of nuclei present in a zygote is two.

---

Match the Column-A with Column-B:

Question 1.

Column-A	Column-B
(a) Zygote	(i) stage of embryo with all body parts identifiable.
(b) Foetus	(ii) drastic change taking place during the development of an animal.
(c) Fertilisation	(iii) fertilised egg.
(d) Metamorphosis	(iv) fusion of ovum and sperm.

Answer

Column-A	Column-B
(a) Zygote	(iii) fertilised egg.
(b) Foetus	(i) stage of embryo with all body parts identifiable
(c) Fertilisation	(iv) fusion of ovum and sperm.
(d) Metamorphosis	(ii) drastic change taking place during the development of an animal.

---

Question 2.

Column-A	Column-B
(a) Ovaries	(i) male gamete
(b) Testes	(ii) female gamete
(c) Sperm	(iii) male reproductive organ
(d) Ova	(iv) female reproductive organ

Answer

Column-A	Column-B
(a) Ovaries	(iv) female reproductive organ
(b) Testes	(iii) male reproductive organ
(c) Sperm	(i) male gamete
(d) Ova	(ii) female gamete

---

Question 3.

Column-A	Column-B
(a) Amoeba	(i) sexual reproduction
(b) Hydra	(ii) binary fission
(c) Human being	(iii) vegetative propagation
(d) Some plants	(iv) budding

Answer

Column-A	Column-B
(a) Amoeba	(ii) binary fission
(b) Hydra	(iv) budding
(c) Human being	(i) sexual reproduction
(d) Some plants	(iii) vegetative propagation

---

State whether the following statements are True or False:

Question 1.
Living organisms can reproduce by two methods asexual and sexual.

Answer

True

---

Question 2.
Egg producing animals are called viviparous.

Answer

False

---

Question 3.
Frog and fish reproduce by internal fertilisation.

Answer

False

---

Question 4.
Earthworm are bisexual.

Answer

True

---

Question 5.
The unfertilised egg is called foetus.

Answer

False

---

Question 6.
Oviparous animals give birth to young ones.

Answer

False

---

Question 7.
Each sperm is a single cell.

Answer

True

---

Question 8.
External fertilization takes place in frog.

Answer

True

---

Question 9.
A new human individual develops from a cell called gamete.

Answer

False

---

Question 10.
Egg laid after fertilization is made up of a single cell.

Answer

True

---

Question 11.
Amoeba reproduces by budding.

Answer

False

---

Question 12.
Fertilization is necessary even in asexual reproduction.

Answer

False

---

Question 13.
Binary fission is a method of asexual reproduction.

Answer

True

---

Question 14.
A zygote is formed as a result of fertilization.

Answer

True

---

Question 15.
An embryo is made up of a single cell.

Answer

False

---

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
The process of ………………………. ensure continuity of life.

Answer

reproduction

---

Question 2.
Fertilized egg is called ………………………..

Answer

zygote

---

Question 3.
………………………. animals lay eggs.

Answer

Oviparous

---

Question 4.
The transformation of larva into adult through drastic changes is called ………………………..

Answer

metamorphosis

---

Question 5.
Hydra reproduce by the method of ……………………….

Answer

budding

---

Question 6.
Fertilisation taking place outside the female body is called ………………………. fertilisation.

Answer

external

---

Question 7.
In human females the embryo gets embedded in the wall of the ………………………. for further development.

Answer

uterus

---

Question 8.
………………………. animals give birth to young ones.

Answer

Viviparous

---

Question 9.
Amoeba is a ………………………. celled organism.

Answer

single

---

Question 10.
Hens sit on the eggs to provide ……………………….

Answer

warmth

---

Question 11.
Female gametes are called ………………………..

Answer

ova (eggs)

---

Question 12.
Male gametes are called ……………………….

Answer

sperms

---

Question 13.
Tests produce ………………………. sperms.

Answer

millions of

---

Question 14.
Egg is a ………………………. cell.

Answer

single

---

Question 15.
During fertilisation the nuclei of the ………………………. and the egg fuse to form a single nucleus.

Answer

sperm

---

Question 16.
The egg of ………………………. is largest.

Answer

ostrich

---

Question 17.
There are ………………………. ovaries in females.

Answer

two

---

Question 18.
Development of baby takes place ………………………. in female body.

Answer

uterus

---

Question 19.
Amoeba divides if self into ………………………. daughter cells.

Answer

two

---

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Question 1.
A democracy must be based on a free and fair election where those currently in power:
(a) have a fair chance of wining
(b) have a fair chance of losing
(c) cannot be removed from their seats
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) have a fair chance of losing
The currently in form have a fair chance of losing.

---

Question 2.
In Saudi Arabia:
(a) men do not have the right to vote
(b) women do not have the right to vote
(c) both men and women have the right to vote
(d) both men and women do not have the right to vote

Answer

Answer: (b) women do not have the right to vote
In Saudi Arabia, women do not have the right to vote.

---

Question 3.
Estonia has made its citizenship rules in such a way that people beloging to:
(a) African minority find it difficult to get the right to vote
(b) American minority find it difficult to get the right to vote
(c) Russian minority find it difficult to get the right to vote
(d) all the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Russian minority find it difficult to get the right to vote
People belonging to Russian minority find difficult to get the right to vote.

---

Question 4.
In Fiji, the electoral system is such that the vote of an indigenous Fiji has more value than that of:
(a) an African-Fijian
(b) a Chinese-Fijian
(c) an Indian-Fijian
(d) Pakistani-Fijian

Answer

Answer: (c) an Indian-Fijian
The vote of an indigenous Fiji has more value than that of an Indian-Fijian.

---

Question 5.
In a democracy, each adult citizen must:
(a) have one vote and each vote must have two values
(b) have two votes and each vote must have one value
(c) have one vote and each vote must have one value
(d) all the above

Answer

Answer: (c) have one vote and each vote must have one value
Each adult citizen must have one vote and each vote must have one value.

---

Question 6.
Zimbabwe attained inde-pendence from white minority rule in:
(a) 1960
(b) 1970
(c) 1980
(d) 1990

Answer

Answer: (c) 1980
It was in 1980.

---

Question 7.
A democratic government rules within limits set by:
(a) the ruling government
(b) the constitutional law
(c) citizens right
(d) constitutional law and citizens’ rights

Answer

Answer: (d) constitutional law and citizens’ rights
Within limits set by constitutional law and citizens’ rights.

---

Question 8.
Democracy is a form of government in which:
(a) rulers elected by the government take all the major decisions
(b) elections offer a choice and fair opportunity to the people to change the current rulers
(c) the exercise of this choice leads to a government limited by basic rules of the constitution and citizen’s rights
(d) all the above

Answer

Answer: (d) all the above
All the above factors favour democracy.

---

Question 9.
The correct argument/s of democracy is/are:
(a) leaders keep changing in a democracy. This leads to instability
(b) democracy is all about political competition and power play. There is no scope for morality
(c) so many people have to be consulted in a democracy that it leads to delays
(d) all the above

Answer

Answer: (d) all the above
All the factors are arguments of democracy.

---

Question 10.
The worst recorded famine in world history is:
(a) Bengal famine
(b) Japanese famine
(c) China’s famine
(d) American famine

Answer

Answer: (c) China’s famine
It was China’s famine.

---

Question 11.
A democratic government is a better government because it is a more:
(a) effective form of government
(b) accountable form of government
(c) powerful form of government
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) accountable form of government
Because it is a more accountable form of government.

---

Question 12.
Democracy improves the:
(a) dignity of the people
(b) economy of the country
(c) the quality of decision-making
(d) all the above

Answer

Answer: (c) the quality of decision-making
Democracy improves the quality of decision-making.

---

Question 13.
Democracy provides a method:
(a) to build buildings
(b) to fight poverty
(c) to deal with differences and conflict
(d) all the above

Answer

Answer: (c) to deal with differences and conflict
Democracy provides a method to deal with differences and conflicts.

---

Question 14.
Democracy is the form of government in which:
(a) people are elected by the rulers
(b) rulers are not elected by the people
(c) people themselves become rulers
(d) rulers are elected by the people

Answer

Answer: (d) rulers are elected by the people
Democracy is the form of government in which rulers are elected by the people.

---

Question 15.
In Pakistan, General Parvez Musharraf led a military coup in October:
(a) 1997
(b) 1998
(c) 1999
(d) 2000

Answer

Answer: (c) 1999
It was in 1999.

---

Question 16.
General Musharraf overthrew a democratically elected govern¬ment and declared himself the:
(a) ‘Prime Minister’ of the country
(b) ‘President’ of the country
(c) ‘Chief Executive’ of the country
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) ‘Chief Executive’ of the country
General Musharraf declared himself the ‘Chief Executive’ of the country.

---

Question 17.
In August 2002, President Musharraf issued a ‘Legal Framework Order’ that:
(a) changed the policies of the country
(b) changed the borders of the country
(c) amended the constitution of Pakistan
(d) all the above

Answer

Answer: (c) amended the constitution of Pakistan
The order amended the Constitution of Pakistan.

---

Question 18.
The work of the civilian cabinet is supervised by the National Security Council which is dominated by:
(a) ministers
(b) civil officers
(c) military officers
(d) all the above

Answer

Answer: (c) military officers
It is dominated by military officers.

---

Question 19.
In a democracy the final decision making power must rest with:
(a) the President
(b) the Prime Minister
(c) those who did not vote
(d) those elected by the people

Answer

Answer: (d) those elected by the people
In a democracy, the final decision-making power must rest with those elected by the people.

---

Question 20.
In China, elections are regularly held after every five years for electing the country’s parliament, called:
(a) Quanguo Renmin Daibiao Dahui
(b) Renmin Quanguo Daibiao Dahui
(c) Daibiao Quanguo Renmin Dahui
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Quanguo Renmin Daibiao Dahui
The Parliament is called Quanguo Renmin Daibiao Dahui (National People’s Congress.)

---

Question 21.
The National People’s Congress has nearly ……………….. members elected from all over China.
(a) 2000
(b) 3000
(c) 4000
(d) 5000

Answer

Answer: (b) 3000
It has nearly 3000 members elected from all over China.

---

Question 22.
In China, before contesting elections, a candidate needs the approval:
(a) of the army
(b) of the people
(c) of the government
(d) of the Chinese Communist Party

Answer

Answer: (d) of the Chinese Communist Party
A candidate needs the approval of the Chinese Communist Party.

---

Question 23.
Since its independence in 1930, Mexico holds elections after every:
(a) four years to elect its President
(b) five years to elect its President
(c) six years to elect its President
(d) seven years to elect its President

Answer

Answer: (c) six years to elect its President
After every six years elections are held in Mexico.

---

Question 24.
Mexico has:
(a) been under a military rule before
(b) been under a dictator’s rule before
(c) had never been under a military or dictator’s rule before
(d) all the above

Answer

Answer: (c) had never been under a military or dictator’s rule before
Mexico has never been under a military or dictator’s rule.

---

Question 25.
Until 2000, every election in Mexico was won by a party called:
(a) PRI
(b) RIP
(c) PIR
(d) IRP

Answer

Answer: (a) PRI
The party was called IRP (Institutional Revolutionary Party).

---

Write true (T) or false (F)

1. A democracy is a form of government in which the rulers are elected by the people.

Answer

Answer: True

---

2. Every government in contemporary world wants to be called a democracy, even if its not so.

Answer

Answer: True

---

3. In Pakistan, General Parvez Musharraf lead a military coup in ‘November’ 1998.

Answer

Answer: False

---

4. General Musharraf later changed his designation to President and in 2004 held a referendum in the country that granted him a five-year extension.

Answer

Answer: False

---

5. Syria is a small east Asian country.

Answer

Answer: False

---

6. According to the ‘Legal Framework Order’, the President of Pakistan, can dismiss the national or provincial assemblies.

Answer

Answer: True

---

7. The work of the civilian cabinet is supervised by a National Security Council which is dominated by military officers.

Answer

Answer: True

---

8. In a democracy, the final decision-making power rest with the people.

Answer

Answer: False

---

9. In China, elections are held after every six years for the electing the parliament.

Answer

Answer: False

---

10. The National People’s Congress of China, does not have the power to appoint the President of the country.

Answer

Answer: False

---

11. Before contesting elections a candidate in China, needs the approval of the Chinese Communist Party.

Answer

Answer: True

---

12. Since its independence in 1930, Mexico holds elections after every six years to elect its President.

Answer

Answer: True

---

13. Until 2005, every election in Mexico, was won by a party called PRI.

Answer

Answer: False

---

14. The PRI was known to indulge many dirty tricks to win elections.

Answer

Answer: True

---

15. In Saudi Arabia, women have the right to vote.

Answer

Answer: False

---

16. Democracy is based on a fundamental principle of political equality.

Answer

Answer: True

---

17. In a democracy, each adult citizen must have one vote and each must have one value.

Answer

Answer: True

---

18. Zimbabwe attained independence from white minority rule in 1985.

Answer

Answer: False

---

19. Since 1985, Zimbabwe has been ruled by ZANU-PF, the party that led the freedom stiuggle.

Answer

Answer: False

---

20. A democratic government cannot do whatever it likes, simply became it has won an election.

Answer

Answer: True

---

21. A democratic government rules within limits set by constitutional law and citizens rights.

Answer

Answer: True

---

22. In democracy, rulers elected by the people cannot take all the major decisions.

Answer

Answer: False

---

23. In democracy, elections offer a choice and fair opportunity to the people to change the current rulers.

Answer

Answer: True

---

24. Democracy also lead to instability.

Answer

Answer: True

---

25. In democracy, many people have to be consulted thus, it leads to delays.

Answer

Answer: True

---

26. Democracy can not lead to corruption for it is based on electoral competition.

Answer

Answer: False

---

27. China’s famine of 1958-1961 was the worst recorded famine in world history.

Answer

Answer: True

---

28. A democi’atic government is a better government because it is a more accountable form of government.

Answer

Answer: True

---

29. In a diverse country like India, democracy keeps our country together.

Answer

Answer: True

---

30. Democracy does not enhance the dignity of citizens.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Match the following

1.

Column A	Column B
1. General Musharraf fed a military coup in	(a) 1930
2. Musharraf held a referendum in the country in	(b) 1980
3. Mexico got independent in	(c) 1958
4. Zimbabwe attained independence in	(d) 1999
5. Famine in China	(e) 2002

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
1. General Musharraf fed a military coup in	(d) 1999
2. Musharraf held a referendum in the country in	(e) 2002
3. Mexico got independent in	(a) 1930
4. Zimbabwe attained independence in	(b) 1980
5. Famine in China	(c) 1958

---

2.

Column I	Column II	Column III
1. General Musharraf overthrew a democrati­cally elected government and	(a) those elected	A.Chief Ex. Of the country
2. Syria is a small	(b) vote must have	B. country
3. In a democracy, the final decision-making power must rest with	(c) of	C. by the people
4. In a democracy,each adult citizen must have one vote and each	(d) west Asian	D. one value
5. Democracy enhances the dignity	(e) declared himself the	E. citizens

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II	Column III
1. General Musharraf overthrew a democrati­cally elected government and	(e) declared himself the	A.Chief Ex. Of the country
2. Syria is a small	(d) west Asian	B. country
3. In a democracy, the final decision-making power must rest with	(a) those elected	C. by the people
4. In a democracy,each adult citizen must have one vote and each	(b) vote must have	D. one value
5. Democracy enhances the dignity	(c) of	E. citizens

---

Fill in the blanks

1. Elections have been held regularly in Zimbabwe, and always won by ……………. .

Answer

Answer: ZANU-PF

---

2. In Zimbabwe, President ……………. is popular but also uses unfair practices in elections.

Answer

Answer: Mugabe

---

3. The example of Zimbabwe shows that popular ……………. of the rulers is necessary in a democracy.

Answer

Answer: approval

---

4. Everyone should be equal in the ……………. of the law.

Answer

Answer: eyes

---

5. There are some conditions that apply to the way a government in run after the ……………. .

Answer

Answer: elections

---

6. In a democracy, every major decisions has to go through a series of ……………. .

Answer

Answer: consultations

---

7. Every office ……………. has certain rights and responsibilities assigned by the institution and the law.

Answer

Answer: bearer

---

8. A democratic government rules within limits set by constitutional law and ……………. rights.

Answer

Answer: citizens

---

9. In a democracy, rulers elected by the people take all the ……………. decisions.

Answer

Answer: major

---

10. Democracy leads to ……………. as leaders keep changing.

Answer

Answer: instability

---

11. Democracy has no scope for ……………. because it is all about political competition and power play.

Answer

Answer: morality

---

12. Democracy leads to completion for it is based on ……………. competition.

Answer

Answer: electoral

---

13. Nearly ……………. crore people died in China’s famine of 1958-1961.

Answer

Answer: three

---

14. A democratic government is a better government became it is a more ……………. form of government.

Answer

Answer: accountable

---

15. Democracy enchances the ……………. of citizens.

Answer

Answer: dignity

---

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Question 1.
What does a Republic mean?
(a) King has the power to decide
(b) The head of the state is hereditary
(c) Dictatorship
(d) The head of the state is an elected person and not a hereditary positions.

Answer

Answer: (d) The head of the state is an elected person and not a hereditary positions.
The head of the state is an elected person and not a hereditary position. It is the true defination of a Republic prescribed by our constitution.

---

Question 2.
Who framed Indian Constitution?
(a) Ordinary Citizens
(b) Governor General of India
(c) British Parliament
(d) Constituent Assembly

Answer

Answer: (d) Constituent Assembly
India has a written constitution. Cabinet Mission recommended the creation of Constituent Assembly. Constitution was discussed and adopted by Constituent Assembly.

---

Question 3.
When were elections of Constituent Assembly held?
(a) June, 1946
(b) July, 1946
(c) August, 1946
(d) September 1946

Answer

Answer: (b) July, 1946
Members of the Constituent Assembly were elected member peoples representatives and nominees from the native states. Elections to the Constituent Assembly were held in July, 1946.

---

Question 4.
President of constituent Assembly was ……………. .
(a) B.R. Ambedkar
(b) B.N. Rao
(c) K.M. Munshi
(d) Rajendra Prasad

Answer

Answer: (d) Rajendra Prasad
Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the President of the Constituent Assembly.

---

Question 5.
Who was the Chairman of Drafting Committee?
(a) B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Rajendra Prasad
(c) K.M. Munshi
(d) B.N. Rao

Answer

Answer: (a) B.R. Ambedkar
Constituent Assembly had certain committees. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the chairman of Drafting Committee.

---

Question 6.
The first meeting of the Constituent Assembly was held on ……………. .
(a) September, 1946
(b) October, 1946
(c) November, 1946
(d) December, 1946

Answer

Answer: (d) December, 1946
Elections to the Constituent Assembly were held in July, 1946 and first meeting was held in December, 1946.

---

Question 7.
How much time did framing of constitution took?
(a) 3 years, 11 months, 18 days
(b) 2 years, 11 months, 18 days
(c) 1 years, 11 months, 18 days
(d) 1 year, 11 months, 16 days

Answer

Answer: (b) 2 years, 11 months, 18 days
The Constitution of India was discussed and adopted by Constituent Assembly. First meeting of Constituent Assembly was held in December, 1946. On 26 November, 1949 the Constitution was adopted and enacted by Constituent Assembly.

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Question 8.
When was Indian Constitution adopted?
(a) 26 November, 1949
(b) 26 December, 1949
(c) 26 January, 1950
(d) 26 February, 1950

Answer

Answer: (a) 26 November, 1949
On 26th November, 1949 the Constitution was adopted.

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Question 9.
Which article of the Indian Constitution, the procedure of amendment of constitution is mentioned?
(a) Article 366
(b) Article 367
(c) Article 368
(d) Article 369

Answer

Answer: (c) Article 368
Constitution to has be flexible and adaptable to the changing circumstances and needs. Therefore certain provisions are there in the constitution by which changes can be incorporated in the constitution. Article 368 of the Constitution provides procedures for these amendments.

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Question 10.
When was the first amendment to the Indian Constituent made?
(a) In 1950
(b) In 1951
(c) In 1952
(d) In 1953

Answer

Answer: (b) In 1951
First amendment was made in 1951. Provisions for reservation, abolition of land lordism and imposition of reasonable restrictions and individual freedom.

---

Question 11.
To which country does Nelson Mandela belong?
(a) Namibia
(b) Uganda
(c) South Africa
(d) Zimbabwe

Answer

Answer: (c) South Africa
South Africa, a factual based question. Later he (Nelson) became the President of South Africa.

---

Question 12.
System of ‘Apartheid’ was prevalent in which country?
(a) Ghana
(b) India
(c) Gold Coast
(d) South Africa

Answer

Answer: (d) South Africa
In South Africa, it is totally prevalent.

---

Question 13.
What is the full form of A.N.C.?
(a) Asian National Congress
(b) African National Congress
(c) African National Contest
(d) American National Congress

Answer

Answer: (b) African National Congress
A factual based observation.

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Question 14.
Who was the president of Constituent Assembly?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar
(c) Sh. B.N. Rao
(d) Mahatama Gandhi

Answer

Answer: (a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Dr. Rajendra Prasad, others are irrelevant name.

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Question 15.
Who framed Indian constitution?
(a) Governor General
(b) Ordinary Citizens
(c) Constituent Assembly
(d) British Parliament

Answer

Answer: (a) Governor General
Governor General and British parliament are the symbol of colonial administration while we all are ordinary citizens.

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Question 16.
When was Indian Constitution adopted and enacted?
(a) 26th January, 1950
(b) 26th November, 1949
(c) 15th August, 1947
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) 26th November, 1949
A factual based question.

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Question 17.
Apartheid was a system in which discrimination was done on the basis of:
(a) Caste
(b) Religion
(c) Region
(d) Colour

Answer

Answer: (b) Religion
Religion. Caste, Region and Colour are other reference of another concept.

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Question 18.
Who was the Chairman of Drafting Committee of Constituent Assembly?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar
(c) Sh. B.N. Rao
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar
Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar, others are not valid reason.

---

Question 19.
When did Constitution of India came into force?
(a) 26th January, 1950
(b) 26th November, 1949
(c) 15th August, 1947
(d) 26th January, 1930

Answer

Answer: (a) 26th January, 1950
26th Jan., 1950, a political concept and Historical fact.

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Question 20.
Which of these is a provision that a democratic constitution does not have?
(a) Powers of the head of the state
(b) Name of the head of the state
(c) Powers of the legislature
(d) Name of the country

Answer

Answer: (b) Name of the head of the state
Name of the head of the state is not a valid reason.

---

Question 21.
What is the name of the autobiography of Nelson Mandela?
(a) Freedom of Midnight
(b) Tryst with Destiny
(c) The Long walk to freedom
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) The Long walk to freedom
The long walk to freedom others are not books written by him.

---

Write true (T) or false (F)

1. Economic Justice means that there is no discrimination on the basis of social status of the citizen.

Answer

Answer: False

---

2. Sovereign means a nation which is free from foreign dominance or interference.

Answer

Answer: True

---

3. A constitution is a set of rules by which a country is governed.

Answer

Answer: True

---

4. British rulers introduced English and Modern education.

Answer

Answer: True

---

5. Democracy in India is a gift of the British rulers.

Answer

Answer: False

---

6. Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the chairman of Drafting Committee.

Answer

Answer: False

---

7. The basic rights guaranteed in the constitution are called Fundamental Rights.

Answer

Answer: True

---

8. A constitution is about Institution not about values.

Answer

Answer: False

---

9. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution starts with word ‘We the people’.

Answer

Answer: True

---

10. In Parliamentary system legislature has control over Executive.

Answer

Answer: True

---

11. Social Reform Movements were directly related to freedom struggle.

Answer

Answer: False

---

12. India has an unwritten constitution.

Answer

Answer: False

---

13. Most leaders during the freedom movement wanted India to be ruled by Representative of the people.

Answer

Answer: True

---

14. Economic Justice means that there will be no discrimination on the basis of economic status of the citizens.

Answer

Answer: False

---

15. The Directive Principles are guidelines and directions by the constitution to citizens.

Answer

Answer: False

---

16. At the time of Independence, India was mainly an agrarian economy.

Answer

Answer: True

---

17. The Ideals mentioned in the Preamble to the constitution are—India is Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic.

Answer

Answer: True

---

18. The Constitution does not define powers and jurisdiction of different organs of the state.

Answer

Answer: False

---

19. The Indian government can ignore the rights of the citizens.

Answer

Answer: False

---

20. The word, Secular, in Indian Constitution means that all religions command equal respect and recognition from the state.

Answer

Answer: True

---

21. Formation powers and working of different organs has been laid down in the constitution.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Match the following

1.

Column A	Column B
(a) Sovereign	(i) Head of the state is an elected person.
(b) Republic	(ii) Government will not favour any religion.
(c) Secular	(iii) People have the supreme right to make decisions

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(a) Sovereign	(iii) People have the supreme right to make decisions
(b) Republic	(i) Head of the state is an elected person.
(c) Secular	(ii) Government will not favour any religion.

---

2.

Column A	Column B
(a) B.R. Ambedkar	(i) Chairman of Advisory Committee of Constituent Assembly.
(b) Rajendra Prasad	(ii) Chairman of Drafting Committee of Constituent Assembly.
(c) B.N. Rao	(iii) President of Constituent Assembly.

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(a) B.R. Ambedkar	(ii) Chairman of Drafting Committee of Constituent Assembly.
(b) Rajendra Prasad	(iii) President of Constituent Assembly.
(c) B.N. Rao	(i) Chairman of Advisory Committee of Constituent Assembly.

---

3.

Column A	Column B
(a) Judiciary has a right to review a law passed by Legislature.	(i) Secular state
(b) All citizens will have right to participate in political process.	(ii) Judicial Review
(c) The government does not formulate policies which discriminate between various religious communities of India.	(iii) Political Justice

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(a) Judiciary has a right to review a law passed by Legislature.	(ii) Judicial Review
(b) All citizens will have right to participate in political process.	(iii) Political Justice
(c) The government does not formulate policies which discriminate between various religious communities of India.	(i) Secular state

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4.

Column A	Column B
(a) The elections to Constituent Assembly were held	(i) December, 1946
(b) First meeting of Constituent Assembly held	(ii) 26 Nov, 1949
(c) Indian Constitution adopted and enacted on	(iii) July, 1946

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(a) The elections to Constituent Assembly were held	(iii) July, 1946
(b) First meeting of Constituent Assembly held	(i) December, 1946
(c) Indian Constitution adopted and enacted on	(ii) 26 Nov, 1949

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The Changing World of Visual Arts Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Appearing Students of Class 8 Exams can download MCQ on The Changing World of Visual Arts Class 8 with Answers from here. By practicing Class 8 History Chapter 10 MCQ with Answers, you can score well in the exam. Download Class 8 SST History Chapter 10 MCQ in PDF format from the below access links and start practicing on a regular basis for better subject knowledge.

Question 1.
Nawab Mubarakuddaulah belongs to:
(a) Bombay
(b) Poona
(c) Murshidabad
(d) Mysore

Answer

Answer: (c) Murshidabad

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Question 2.
Abanindranath Tagore was the nephew of:
(a) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) Raja Ravi Varma
(c) Mubrakuddaulah
(d) Nand Lai Bose

Answer

Answer: (a) Rabindranath Tagore

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Question 3.
Damayanthi was painted by:
(a) Raja Ravi Varma
(b) Thomas Daniell
(c) William Daniell
(d) David Wilkie

Answer

Answer: (a) Raja Ravi Varma

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Question 4.
The art of making portraits is known as:
(a) Engraving
(b) Portraiture
(c) Miniature
(d) Picturesque

Answer

Answer: (b) Portraiture

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Question 5.
The storming of Seringapatam was painted by:
(a) David Wilkie
(b) William Daniell
(c) Thomas Daniell
(d) Rober Kerr Porter

Answer

Answer: (d) Rober Kerr Porter

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Question 6.
In which styles the victoria Terminus was built?
(a) Gothic style
(b) Dorian style
(c) Corinthian style
(d) Classical Greek and Roman Style

Answer

Answer: (a) Gothic style
The victoria Terminus, the railway station in Bombay was built in Gothic style. The new buildings that came up in the mid-nineteenth century in Bombay, were mostly in this style.

---

Question 7.
From where did the style of architecture was borrowed in Calcutta?
(a) Doric
(b) Gothic
(c) Classical style of Greece and Rome
(d) Corinthian

Answer

Answer: (c) Classical style of Greece and Rome
Central Post Office in Calcutta has rounded arches and pillars. The style of architecture was borrowed from Classical style of Greece and Rome.

---

Question 8.
One of the first history paintings was produced by whom?
(a) Francis Hayman
(b) Johann Zoffany
(c) Tilly Kettle
(d) William Daniell

Answer

Answer: (a) Francis Hayman
One of the first history paintings was produced by Francis Hayman in 1762 and placed on public display in the Vauxhall Gardens in London.

---

Question 9.
What do you mean by Realism?
(a) Faithfully observe and depict the subject
(b) Faithfully observe the landscape
(c) Draw from their imagination
(d) Draw and paint landscape

Answer

Answer: (a) Faithfully observe and depict the subject
Realism meant a belief that artists had to faithfully observe and depict the subject.

---

Question 10.
What is the name of an art form where impression is printed on paper and cloth?
(a) Motif
(b) Embossing
(c) Engraving
(d) Stamping

Answer

Answer: (c) Engraving
An art form where impression is printed on paper and cloth from the design on wood or metal are called engraving.

---

Question 11.
Why did the Muhammad Ali khan appointed artists?
(a) Paint modern paintings
(b) Paint historical paintings
(c) Paint oil paintings
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Paint oil paintings
Muhammad Ali khan, the Nawab of Arcot, commissioned two European artists to paint oil paintings and portraits.

---

Question 12.
What are history paintings?
(a) Painting showing Indian victories in British
(b) Painting showing Indian victory over Mughal
(c) Painting showing British victories in India
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer:(c) Painting showing British victories in India
The paintings, which display British victories in India, are called history paintings. This tradition sought to dramatize and recreate various episodes of British imperial history, and enjoyed great prestige and popularity.

---

Question 13.
Why were the paintings on Indian themes displayed in Britain?
(a) To give idea about Indian poor
(b) To give idea about new land conquer
(c) To give idea about wealth in India
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) To give idea about new land conquer
The paintings on Indian themes were displayed in Britain to give an idea to the people about the new land conquered by the Company.

---

Question 14.
Why did the European portrait painters come to India?
(a) Paint for free
(b) For getting the contract
(c) To paint only for king
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) For getting the contract
The European portrait painters came to India with the hope of getting the contract for making the portraits of European officials and Indian rulers.

---

Question 15.
What do you mean by Engraving?
(a) Oil painting
(b) Impression printing
(c) British printing
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Impression printing
An art form where impression is printed on paper and cloth from the design on wood or metal are called engraving.

---

Question 16.
Who was Okakura Kakuzo?
(a) Japanese research
(b) Indian research
(c) British research
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Japanese research
Okakura Kakuzo was a Japanese research scholar who did research on Japanese art. In 1904, he published a book called “The Ideals of the East” in Japan. He wrote “Asia is one” in the opening lines of the book.

---

Question 17.
Where is the victoria Terminus situated?
(a) Delhi
(b) Madras
(c) Bombay
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Bombay
The victoria Terminus, the railway station in Bombay was built in Gothic style. The new buildings that came up in the mid- nineteenth century in Bombay, were mostly in this style.

---

Question 18.
who tried to create a style that was both modern and national?
(a) Francis Hayman
(b) Johann Zoffany
(c) Raja Ravi Verma
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Raja Ravi Verma
Raja Ravi Verma was one of the first artists who tried to create a style that was both modern and national. He painted on canvas the scenes from both Ramayana and Mahabharata.

---

Question 19.
Which Post Office bought the style of architecture from Greece and Rome?
(a) Delhi post office
(b) Central post office Calcutta
(c) Bombay post office
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Central post office Calcutta
Central Post Office in Calcutta has rounded arches and pillars. the style of architecture was borrowed from Greece and Rome.

---

Question 20.
In which year painting was produced by Francis Hayman?
(a) 1789
(b) 1753
(c) 1747
(d) 1762

Answer

Answer: (d) 1762
One of the first history paintings was produced by Francis Hayman in 1762 and placed on public display in the Vauxhall Gardens in London.

---

Write true (T) or false (F)

1. From the 18th century a stream of European artists came to India along with the British traders and rulers.

Answer

Answer: True

---

2. Portraiture is the art of making portraits.

Answer

Answer: True

---

3. There was a 3rd category of imperial art called history painting.

Answer

Answer: True

---

4. Imperial history paintings sought to create a private memory of British officers.

Answer

Answer: False

---

5. Tipu Sultan was defeated at the Battle of Bedara.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Match the following

1.

Column-I	Column-II
1. Mural	(a) Patuas
2. Battle of Pollilur	(b) Arcot
3. Scroll Painters	(c) Mysore
4. Muhammad Ali Khan	(d) A wall painting
5. Tipu Sultan	(e) 1780

Answer

Answer:

Column-I	Column-II
1. Mural	(d) A wall painting
2. Battle of Pollilur	(e) 1780
3. Scroll Painters	(a) Patuas
4. Muhammad Ali Khan	(b) Arcot
5. Tipu Sultan	(c) Mysore

---

Fill in the Blanks

1. Storming of Seringapatam painted by ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: Rober Kerr Porter

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2. Muhammad Ali Khan commissioned two visiting European artists ……………………… and ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: Tilly Kettle, George Willison

---

3. Many European portrait painters came to India is search of profitable ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: commission

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4. Clive street is in ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: Calcutta

---

5. European artists brought with them new styles and new ……………………… of paintings.

Answer

Answer: conventions

---

Picture Based Questions

1. Who was the painter of the following painting?

Answer

Answer: Raja Ravi Varma.

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2. What does the pictures describes?

Answer

Answer: It describes about the Clive street in Calcutta draw by Thomas and William Daniell, 1786.

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3. Whom does the portrait belongs to.

Answer

Answer: Muhammad Ali Khan of Arcot.

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Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 History Chapter 10 The Changing World of Visual Arts with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals of real numbers topic. Need any support from our end during the preparation of The Changing World of Visual Arts Class 8 MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.