CBSE Class 12

Detailed, Step-by-Step NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 9 International Trade Questions and Answers were solved by Expert Teachers as per NCERT (CBSE) Book guidelines covering each topic in chapter to ensure complete preparation. https://mcq-questions.com/ncert-solutions-for-class-12-geography-chapter-9-part-a/

 International Trade NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 9

 International Trade Questions and Answers Class 12 Geography Chapter 9

Multiple Choice Questions
Question 1.
Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below.
(i) Most of the world’s great ports are classified as :
(A) Naval Ports
(B) Oil Ports
(C) Comprehensive Ports
(D) Industrial Ports.
Answer:
(C) Comprehensive Ports.

(ii) Which one of the following continents has the maximum flow of global trade ?
(A) Asia
(B) North America
(C) Europe
(D) Africa.
Answer:
(B) North America.

(iii) Which one of the following South American nation is a part of OPEC ?
(A) Brazil
(B) Chile
(C) Venezuela
(D) Peru.
Answer:
(C) Venezuela.

(iv) In which of the following trade blocks, is India an associate member ?
(A) SAFTA
(B) QECD
(C) ASEAN
(D) OPEC.
Answer:
(A) ASEAN.

Question 2.
Answer the following questions in about 30 words :
(i) What is the basic function of the World Trade Organisation ? (C.B.S.E. 2013)
Or
Examine the functions of the World Trade Organisation (WTO). (C.B.S.E. 2016)
Answer:
GATT was transformed into the World Trade Organisation from 1st January 1995.
Its basic functions are :

• To deal with the global rules of trade between nations.
• It resolves the disputes between its member nations.
• Its function is to liberalise the world from high custom tariffs and various other types of restrictions.

(ii) Why is it detrimental for a nation to have a negative balance of payments ?
Answer:
A negative balance of payments means that the country spends more on buying goods than it can earn by selling its goods. This would ultimately lead to exhaustion of its financial reserves.

(iii) What benefits do nations get by forming trading blocks ?
Answer:Regional trade blocks encourage trade between countries with geographical proximity, similarity and complementarities in trading items. It curbs restrictions on trade of the developing world. It encourages inter-regional trade.

Question 3.
Answer the following questions in not more than 150 words :
(i) How are ports helpful for trade ?
Give a classification of ports on the basis of their location. (Sample Paper 2017-18)
Answer:
Benefits of Ports
(a) The chief doorways of the world of international trade are its harbours and ports. Cargoes and travellers pass from one part of the world to the another through these ports.

(b) The ports provide facilities of docking, loading, unloading and the storage facilities for cargo. In order to provide these facilities, the port authorities make arrangements for maintaining the navigable channels, arranging tugs and barges, and providing labour and managerial services.

(c) The importance of a port is judged by the size of cargo and the number of ships handled.

(d) The quantity of cargo handled by a port is an indicator of the level of development of its hinterland.

Types of Ports. Generally, ports are classified according to the types of location and traffic which they handle.

(a) Inland ports. These ports are located away from the sea coast. They are linked to the sea through a river or a canal. Such ports are accessible to flat bottom ships or barges. For example, Manchester is linked with a canal; Memphis is located on river Mississippi; Rhine has several ports like Mannheim and Duisburg; and Kolkata is located on River Hoogli, a branch of river Ganga.

(b) Out ports. These are deep water ports built away from the actual ports. These serve the parent ports by receiving those ships which are unable to approach them due to their large size. Classic combination, for example, is Athens and its out port Piraeus in Greece.

(ii) How do nations gain from international trade ?
Or
“International trade is mutually beneficial to nations.” Analyse the statement. (Outside Delhi 2019)
Answer:
International trade is the result of specialization in production. Its benefits are :
(a) It benefits the world economy if different countries practise specialization and division of labour in the production of commodities or provision of services.

(b) Each kind of specialization can give rise to trade.

(c) Thus international trade is based on the principle of comparative advantage, compli- mentaretries and, in principle, should be mutually beneficial to the trading partners.

(d) In modern times, trade is the basis of the world’s economic organization and is related to the foreign policy of nations.

(e) With well-developed transportation and communication systems, no country is willing to forego the benefits derived from participation in international trade.

Detailed, Step-by-Step NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 5 Land Resources and Agriculture Questions and Answers were solved by Expert Teachers as per NCERT (CBSE) Book guidelines covering each topic in chapter to ensure complete preparation. https://mcq-questions.com/ncert-solutions-for-class-12-geography-chapter-5-part-b/

Land Resources and Agriculture NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 5

Land Resources and Agriculture Questions and Answers Class 12 Geography Chapter 5

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Choose the right answers of the following from the given options :
(i) Which one of the following is NOT a land-use category ?
(A) Fallow land
(B) Marginal land
(C) Net Area Sown
(D) Culturable Wasteland.
Answer:
(B) Marginal land

(ii) Which one of the following is the main reason due to which share of forest has shown an increase in the last forty years?
(A) Extensive and efficient efforts of afforestation
(B) Increase in community forest land
(C) Increase in notified area allocated for forest growth
(D) Better peoples’ participation in managing forest area.
Answer:
(C) Increase in notified area allocated for forest growth.

(iii) Which one of the following is the main form of degradation in irrigated areas ?
(A) Gully erosion
(B) Wind erosion
(C) Salinisation of soils
(D) Siltation of land.
Answer:
(C) Salinisation of soils

(iv) Which one of the following crops is not cultivated under dryland farming ?
(A) Ragi
(B) Jowar
(C) Groundnut
(D) Sugarcane
Answer:
(D) Sugarcane.

(v) In which of the following group of countries of the world, HYVs of wheat and rice were developed ?
(A) Japan and Australia
(B) U.S.A. and Japan
(C) Mexico and Philippines
(D) Mexico and Singapore.
Answer:
(C) Mexico and Philippines.

Question 2.
Answer the following questions in about 30 words :
(i) Differentiate between Barren land, Waste land and Culturable Waste land. (Outside Delhi 2019)
Answer:

• Barren land. Arid. Sandy and Rocky land which cannot be cultivated is called Barren land.
• Waste land. The land which has been degraded due to soil erosion and is not cultivated is called Waste land.
• Culturable Waste land. A land which is left fallow (uncultivated) for more than five years is called Culturable Waste land.

(ii) How would you distinguish between Net sown area and Gross cropped area ?
Answer:

• Net sown area. The extent of land on which crops are sown and harvested is known as net sown area.
• Gross cropped area. The total area (including the area grown more than once in a year) under cultivation is called gross cropped area.

(iii) Why is the strategy of increasing cropping intensity important in country like India ?
Classify rainfed farming on the basis of adequacy of soil moisture during cropping season. (C.B.S.E Delhi 2017)
Or
Distinguished between ‘Dryland farming and Wet land farming.’ (Outside Delhi 2019)
Or
What is the difference between Dryland and Wetland farming.
Answer:

Effects :
Technology helps to raise the yield per hectare and total output per unit area. It is done by increasing land use intensity.

• It increases the demand for labour.
• In India, a high cropping intensity is necessary for fuller utilisation of land resources.
• It also reduces unemployment in the rural economy.

(iv) How do you measure total cultivable land ?
Answer:
The total cultivable land can be measured by adding up net sown area, all fallow lands and culturable waste land.

Question 3.
Answer the following Questions in about 150 words:
(i) What are the different types of environmental problems of land resources in India ?
Answer:
Many serious problems of land resources arise due to degradation of land. It leads to depletion of soil fertility. A large area of agricultural land has lost its fertility due to alkalisation and salinisation of soils and water logging.

It has affected about 15 lakh ha. of land. Excessive use of chemicals such as insecticides and pesticides has led to their concentration in toxic amount in the soil profile. Fallow land has declined. Rainfed areas experience degradation by soil erosion by water and wind.

(ii) What are the important strategies for Agricultural development followed in the post independence period in India ?
Or
“After independence various important strategies were adopted for agricultural development in India.” Substantiate the statement. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
After Independence, the immediate goal of the Government was to increase foodgrains production by
(i) switching over from cash crops to food crops

(ii) intensification of cropping over already cultivated land ; and

(iii) increasing cultivated area by bringing cultivable and fallow land under plough. Initially, this strategy helped in increasing foodgrains production. But agricultural production stagnated during late 1950s. To overcome this problem, Intensive Agricultural District Programme (IADP) and Intensive Agricultural Area Programme (IAAP) were launched. But two consecutive droughts during mid-1960s resulted in food crisis in the country. Consequently, the foodgrains were imported from other countries.

Detailed, Step-by-Step NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 8 Transport and Communication Questions and Answers were solved by Expert Teachers as per NCERT (CBSE) Book guidelines covering each topic in chapter to ensure complete preparation. https://mcq-questions.com/ncert-solutions-for-class-12-geography-chapter-8-part-a/

Transport and Communication NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 8

Transport and Communication Questions and Answers Class 12 Geography Chapter 8

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below :
(i) The Trans-Continental Stuart Highway runs between :
(A) Darwin and Melbourne
(B) Edmonton and Anchorage
(C) Vancouver and St. John’s City
(D) Chengdu and Lhasa.
Answer:
(A) Darwin and Melbourne.

(ii) Which country has the highest density of railway network ?
(A) Brazil
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Canada
(D) Russia
Answer:
(B) U.S.A.

(iii) The Big Trunk Route runs through :
(A) The Mediterranean-Indian ocean
(B) The North Atlantic Ocean
(C) The South Atlantic Ocean
(D) The North Pacific Ocean
Answer:
(B) The North Atlantic Ocean.

(iv) The Big Inch pipeline transports :
(A) Milk
(B) Liquid petroleum gas (LPG)
(C) Water
(D) Petroleum
Answer:
(D) Petroleum.

(v) Which one pair of the following places is linked by Channel Tunnel ?
(A) London-Berlin
(B) Paris-London
(C) Berlin-Paris
(D) Barcelona-Berlin
Answer:
(B) Paris-London.

Question 2.
Answer the following Questions in about 30 words :
(i) What are the problems of road transport in mountainous, desert and flood prone regions ?
Answer:
Problems :

• In mountainous areas, it is difficult to construct roads because a number of bridges are to be constructed.
• In desert, roads cannot be constructed on sandy land.
• In flooded areas, the bridges are washed away. Most of roads are unmotorable.

(ii) Which are the major regions of the world having a dense network of airways ?
Answer:
U.S.A. alone accounts for 60 per cent airways of the world. Dense network of airways exists in the following regions:

• Eastern U.S.A.
• Western Europe.
• South-East Asia.

(iii) What is a trans-continental railway ?
Answer:
The trans-continental railway runs across the continent and links its two ends. These railways join the places on the opposite coasts of a continent.

(iv) What are the advantages of water transport ?
Answer:

• Water transport does not require route construction.
• The oceans are linked with each other.
• Oceans are negotiable with ships of various sizes.
• Water transport is the cheapest means of transport.
• The energy cost of water transport is low.

Question 3.
Answer the following questions is not more than 150 words :
(i) Elucidate the statement “In a well managed transport system, various modes complement each other.”
Answer:
Different modes of transport are used for inter-regional and Intra-regional transport. These carry both passengers and freight. Different modes function as under :

• International transport of goods is handled by ocean freighters.
• Road transport is cheaper and faster over short distances providing door to door service.
• Railways are more suited for large volumes of bulky materials over long distances within a country.
• Airways carry high-value light and perishable goods.
  Thus various modes complement each other in a well managed transport system.

(ii) What are the modes by which Cyber Space will expand the contemporary economic social space of humans ? What is Cyber space? Describe any two advantages of the internet. (C.B.S.E. 2013, 2014)
Answer:
Cyber Space (Internet) (C.B.S.E. 2014) Cyberspace is the world of electronic computerised space. It is encompassed by the Internet such as the World Wide Web (www). In simple words, it is the electronic digital world for communicating or accessing information over computer networks Internet. Cyberspace exists everywhere. It may be in an office, sailing boat, flying plane and virtually anywhere.

Progress in Cyber Space :

• Today Internet is the largest electronic network on the planet connecting about 1000 million people in more than 100 countries.
• There were less than 50 million Internet users in 1995, about 400 million in 2000 C.E. and over one billion in 2005.
• The next billion users are to be added by 2010.
• In the last five years there has been a shift among global users from U.S.A. to the developing countries. The percentage share of U.S.A. has dropped from 66 in 1995 to only 25 in 2005.
• Now the majority of the world’s users are in U.S.A., U.K., Germany, Japan, China and India.

Future. As billions use the Internet each year, cyberspace will expand the contemporary economic and social space of humans through the following in order :

• e-mail
• e-commerce
• e-learning and
• e-governance
• Internet
• fax
• television and
• radio.

These will be accessible to more and more people cutting across place and time. It is these modern communication systems, more than transportation, that has made the global village a reality.

Detailed, Step-by-Step NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 1 Population: Distribution, Density, Growth and Composition Questions and Answers were solved by Expert Teachers as per NCERT (CBSE) Book guidelines covering each topic in chapter to ensure complete preparation. https://mcq-questions.com/ncert-solutions-for-class-12-geography-chapter-1-part-b/

Population: Distribution, Density, Growth and Composition NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 1

Population: Distribution, Density, Growth and Composition Questions and Answers Class 12 Geography Chapter 1

Multiple Choice Questions
Question 1.
Choose the right answers of the followings from the given options.
(i) India’s population as per 2011 census is :
(A) 1028 million
(B) 3287 million
(C) 3182 million
(D) 1210 million.
Answer:
(D) 1210 million

(ii) Which one of the following states has the highest density of population in India ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Kerala
(D) Bihar.
Answer:
(D) Bihar

(iii) Which one of the following states has the highest proportion of urban population in India according to 2001 Census ?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Kerala
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Goa.
Answer:
(D) Goa.

(iv) Which one of the following is the largest group of India ?
(A) Sino-Tibetan
(B) Austric
(C) Indo-Aryan
(D) Dravidian.
Answer:
(B) Indo-Aryan

Question 2.
Answer the following questions in about 30 words.
(i) Very hot and dry and very cold and wet regions of India have low density of population. In this light, explain the role of climate on the distribution of population.
Answer:
It is clear that climate determines the pattern of distribution of population,

• Very hot and dry areas have low density of population such as Rajasthan desert has a density of 201 persons per sq km.
• Dry areas like the states of Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka have density of population below the national average
• Similarly, very cold and wet regions have low density of population such as Kashmir, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh. These have a density of population below 200 persons per sq. km.

(ii) Which states have large rural population in India? Give one reason for such large rural population.
Answer:
India is a land of villages with 6,38,588 villages. Average rural population is 68%. In India, Himachal Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Odisha, Bihar and Uttar Pradesh have more than 80% rural population. Reason : This large rural population is due to the fact that the main occupation of the people is agriculture.

(iii) Why do some states of India have higher rates of work participation than others?
Answer:
Some states like Himachal Pradesh and Nagaland have a high percentage of workers engaged in agriculture. Therefore, work participation is more in the secondary and tertiary sectors. Farmers depend on Agro-based occupations, but now the dependence on an agricultural activities is increasing.

(iv) The Agricultural sector has the ‘ largest share of Indian workers.’ Explain.
Answer:
The occupational structure of India shows that the Agriculture (Primary sector) has the highest number of workers. 58.2% of the working population are farmers. Agriculture is the basis of livelihood for most of the people in India. Therefore, working population in non-agricultural activities is less.

Question 3.
Answer the following questions in about 150 words.

(i) Discuss the spatial pattern of density of population in India.
Answer:
The spatial pattern of population distribution is uneven in India
(i) High Population : Uttar Pradesh has the highest population (20 crore). Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, West Bengal and Andhra Pradesh have almost 50% population of the country. Delhi has more population than the population of all the Union Territories combined population

(ii) Low Population:

• Madhya Pradesh has 14% area of the country, but only 7.6% population of India.
• Himalayan region with 17% area covers only 2% population of India. Arunachal Pradesh has the lowest density of population (17 persons per sq. km.).
• Central India, vast areas of Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka has moderate density of population. Therefore, the spatial distribution of population depends on physical, economic, social and historical factors.

(ii) Give an account of the occupational structure of India. ?
Answer:
The occupational structure means the engagement of an individual in farming, manufacturing, trade, services, etc. 58.2% of working population of India are cultivators. Only 4.2% are engaged in household industries and 37.6% are workers of non-household industries, trade, commerce, construction and services. So the number of workers in primary sector is more than secondary and tertiary sectors.

Detailed, Step-by-Step NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 3 Human Development Questions and Answers were solved by Expert Teachers as per NCERT (CBSE) Book guidelines covering each topic in chapter to ensure complete preparation. https://mcq-questions.com/ncert-solutions-for-class-12-geography-chapter-3-part-b/

Human Development NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 3

Human Development Questions and Answers Class 12 Geography Chapter 3

Multiple Choice Questions
Question 1.
Choose the right answers of the following from the given options.
(i) Which one of the following is India’s rank in terms of Human Development Index among the countries of the world in 2005 ?
(A) 126
B) 127
(C) 128
(D) 129.
Answer:
(A) 126.

(ii) Which one of the following states of India has the highest rank in the Human Development Index ? (C.B.S.E. 2014)
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Punjab
(C) Kerala
(D) Haryana.
Answer:
(C) Kerala.

(iii) Which one of the following states of India has the lowest female literacy ?
(A) Jammu and Kashmir
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Bihar.
Answer:
(D) Bihar.

(iv) Which one of the following states of India has the lowest female child sex ratio 0-6 years ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Haryana
(C) Punjab
(D) Himachal Pradesh.
Answer:
(B) Haryana.

(v) Which one of the following Union Territories of India has the highest litearcy rate ?
(A) Lakshadweep
(B) Chandigarh
(C) Daman and Diu
(D) Anadaman and Nicobar Islands.
Answer:
(A) Lakshadweep.

Question 2.
Answer the following questions in about 30 words :
(i) Define Human Development.
Answer:
“Human development is a process of enlarging the range of people’s choices, increasing their opportunities for education, health care, income and empowerment and covering the full range of human choices from a sound physical environment to economic, social and political freedom.”

(ii) Give two reasons for lowr levels of human development in most of the Northern states of India.
Answer:
In the states of Northern India-Punjab, Haryana, U.P., Bihar, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Assamthe human development index is less than 0.5. In these states, the per capita annual income is less than ? 2000. In these states, the per capita consumption expenditure is high. It is 520 per month per person. Poverty, unemployment and underemployment are the main causes of low value of Human Development Index.

(iii) Give two reasons for declining child sex ratio in India.
Answer:
In India, the female sex ratio is declining. The child sex ratio between 0-6 age group is declining. This rate is below 800 female children per 1000 male children. For this social attitude is responsible. For this scientific methods of sex-determination are also responsible. Males dominate Indian society. Therefore the health and education of female is ignored.

Question 3.
Answer the following questions in about 150 words.

(i) Discuss the spatial patterns of female literacy in India in 2001 and bring out the reasons for it.
Answer:
In states of India, spatial variations are found in the female literacy rate. India has national average literacy rate of 65 per cent which is considerably less.
(a) Areas of High female literacy rate. Kerala has the highest female literacy rate of 87.86 per cent, other states are Mizoram (86.13%), Lakshadweep (81.50%), Goa (75.35%), Chandigarh (76.65%) and Andaman & Nicobar islands (75.29%).

(b) Areas of Moderate female literacy rate. (60%-75%) West Bengal, Uttarakhand, Tripura, Sikkim, Punjab, Pondicherry, Nagaland, Meghalaya, Maharashtra and Himachal Pradesh.

(c) Areas of Low female literacy rate (Below 60%) Bihar (33.57%) has the lowest literacy rate. Other states are Andhra Pradesh, Arunaehal Pradesh, Assam, Chhattisgarh, Dadra Nagar Haveli, Gujarat, Haryana, Telangana, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Manipur, Odisha and Rajasthan.

(ii) Which factors have caused spatial variations in the level of Human development among the 15 major states of India ?
Answer:
India ranks 136 (now 135 in 2014) among 186 (now 187 in 2014) countries as regard H.D.I. On its value, India is placed among the moderate group. Kerala (0.638) ranks first in India. In other states, value of HDI is as follows :
Punjab (0.527), Tamil Nadu (0.570) Maharashtra (0.523), Haryana (0.509). The states with low HDI values are Bihar (0.367), Assam (6.386), Uttar Pradesh (0.388), Madhya Pradesh (0.394), Odisha (0.404). Many social, economic and political factors are responsible for these variations.

• The literacy rate is high in states with high value of HDI. In states of Central India like Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, the HDI value is low due to low literacy rate.
• In Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Punjab, Haryana value of HDI is high due to economic development. In Assam and Bihar, HDI value is low due to low economic development.

Detailed, Step-by-Step NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Secondary Activities Questions and Answers were solved by Expert Teachers as per NCERT (CBSE) Book guidelines covering each topic in chapter to ensure complete preparation. https://mcq-questions.com/ncert-solutions-for-class-12-geography-chapter-6-part-a/

Secondary Activities NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 6

Secondary Activities Questions and Answers Class 12 Geography Chapter 6

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below.
(i) Which one of the following statements is wrong ?
(A) Cheap water transport has facilitated the jute mill industry along the Hugli.
(B) Sugar, cotton, textiles and vegetable oils are footloose industries.
(C) The development of hydro-electricity and petroleum reduced, to a great extent, the importance of coal energy as a locational factor for industry.
(D) Port towns in India have attracted industries.
Answer:
(B) Sugar, cotton, textiles and vegetable oils are footloose industries.

(ii) In which one of the following types of economy are the factors of production owned individually ?
(A) Capitalist
(B) Mixed
(C) Socialist
(D) None.
Answer:
(A) Capitalist.

(iii) Which one of the following types of industries produces raw materials for other industries ?
(A) Cottage Industries
(B) Small-scale Industries
(C) Basic Industries
(D) Footloose Industries.
Answer:
(C) Basic Industries.

(iv) Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(A) Auto mobile industry ………………. Los Angeles
(B) Ship building Industry ………………. Lusaka
(c) Air craft Industry …………… Florence
(D) Iron and Steel industry ……………… Pittsburg.
Answer:
(D) Iron and Steel Industry Pittsburg.

Question 2.
Write a short note on the following in about 30 words :

(i) High Tech. Industry.
Answer:
High tech. Industries develop due to application of Intensive Research and Development (R & D). Products of advanced scientific and engineering character are manufactured. Computer Aided design electronic controls of Smelting and Refining are examples of high tech, industry.

(ii) Manfacturing. (CBSE 2014)
Answer:
Manufacturing is the process of conversion of raw materials into useful finished products. It is a secondary occupation of man. It is the second largest productive occupation of man. Manufacturing is done with modem power and machinery for mass production.

(iii) Footloose industries.
Answer:
In past few decades, high-technology activities are expanding fast. Highly sophisticated products are developed involving a great deal of scientific research and development. These industries improve their products very fast to suit the market demand and employ highly skilled labour. Such industries are referred to as foot-loose industries as they have relatively free choice of location.

Question 3.
Answer the following in not more than 150 words :

(i) Discuss the major trends of modern industrial activities especially in the developed countries of the world.
Answer:
The following changing trends are observed in industrial development of developed countries.

• High tech. Industries are developing, but low tech and labour intensive industries are shifting to developing countries.
• Large factories are giving way to smaller units.
• Rapid changes in design and production are taking place.
• Mass production and manufacture of highly standardised products is taking place.
• Locational factors are losing their importance.
• Waste avoidance, recycling, and alternatives are contributing a lot.

(ii) Differentiate between Primary and Secondary activities.
Answer:

(iii) Explain why high-tech industries in many countries are being attracted to the peripherial areas of metropolitan centre.
Answer:
High-tech Industrial State and Technology Park. Foot-loose industries tend to be attracted to purpose-built industrial estates or technology parks on the edge of towns and cities as is the case with London or Tokyo. These places offer a number of advantages over inner city locations.

• space for single-storey factories and future expansion.
• cheaper land values on edge-of-city.
• accessibility to main roads and motorways.
• pleasant environment (often located on a greenfield site).
• labour supply from nearby residential area and commuter village.

(iv) Africa has numerous natural resources and yet it is industrially the most backward continent. Comment.
Answer:
Africa has rich water power and mineral resources. Africa has about 40% of world potential water power resources but only 1% of world developed power resources. It is due to lack of technology and low purchasing power. Africa is rich in mineral resources, but these have not been utilised due to lack of industries. A resource is no resource until it is developed. So Africa still remains a backward continent.