CBSE Class 8

Here we are providing How the Camel Got His Hump Extra Questions and Answers Class 8 English It So Happened, Extra Questions for Class 8 English was designed by subject expert teachers.

How the Camel Got His Hump Extra Questions and Answers Class 8 English It So Happened

How the Camel Got His Hump Extra Questions and Answers Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
According to the story when the world had just begun which animals worked for the man and which did not ?
Answer:
The dog, horse and ox worked for the man but camel did not work for him.

Question 2.
Why did the camel live in the desert ?
Answer:
Camel lived in the desert because he did not want to work.

Question 3.
How did the camel respond when he was asked to work ?
Answer:
The camel only ‘humphed’ and did not work.

Question 4.
When camel did not work what did the man ask the other three animals to do ?
Ans. He asked them to work double-time to make up for thework not done by the camel.

Question 5.
Who was Djinn ?
Answer:
Djinn was incharge of all the deserts.

Question 6.
Why did the three animals go to the Djinn?
Answer:
They went to the Djinn to complaint about the camel that he was not doing any work.

Question 7.
“Well,” said the Horse, “there’s a thing in the middle of your desert with a long neck and long legs….” Which ‘thing’ is the Horse referring to here ?
Answer:
The Horse is referring to the camel.

Question 8.
What punishment did the Djinn give to the camel for not working and saying ‘Humph’?
Answer:
He created a permanent ‘hump’ on camel’s back.

How the Camel Got His Hump Extra Questions and Answers Short Answer Type

Question 1.
How was the camel different from other three animals ?
Answer:
All the three animals worked for man – but the camel did not work. He lived alone in the middle of the desert. He was vain and admired his good looks.

Question 2.
Which animals worked for the man ? Why did he call them at the end of the day ?
Answer:
The dog, ox and horse worked for the man. He called them to tell the camel can’t or won’t work so they would have to work double-time to make up for it.

Question 3.
Who was Djinn ? Why did the dog, ox and horse go to him ?
Answer:
Djinn was in charge of all Deserts. The three animals went to him to complain about the camel who would not work and they had to do his share of work.

Question 4.
What assurance did the Djinn give to the three animals who complained him about the camel ?
Answer:
He assured them that he would ask the camel to do his share of work and if he did not he would punish him.

Question 5.
When the Djinn met the camel, what was he doing ? What does his action reflect about him ?
Answer:
The camel was looking at his reflection in the pool. It reflects that he was vain and admired his looks.

Question 6.
How did the camel get his hump ?
Answer:
When the Djinn asked the camel to go to man and work like other animals, he said; “Humph”. The Djinn told him not to say “Humph’ but he repeated it. Then his back started putting up into a hump and the hump stayed there permanently.

Question 7.
When the camel asked how he could work with his hump, what did the Djinn reply ?
Answer:
He replied that instead of being a hindrance (his hump will help him. It would store food and water for him and would enable him to work for many days without eating or drinking.

Question 8.
What message does the writer want to give through the story ‘How the camel got his Hump’ ?
Answer:
It gives the message that one should not shirk work. Idleness not only makes a person lazy, passive and friendless but also leads to deformity of body or development of diseases.

How the Camel Got His Hump Extra Questions and Answers Long Answer Type

Question 1.
‘What is the moral of the story ‘How the Camel got his Hump’ ?
Answer:
‘Everyone should do his work seriously is the moral of the story ‘How the Camel got his hump.’ This imaginative story is about how the camel got its hump. It happened when the world was created. All animals were working for Man; but the camel did not want to. When someone asked him about it, he just said ‘Humph’. So, all animals complained to the Djinn. He called up the camel and asked about it. The camel replied, ‘Humph’. Immediately his back puffed up into a great big hump. The Djinn explained, “That’s your own humph that you’ve brought on yourself by not working.”

Make your learning experience enjoyable by preparing from the Class 8 Civics Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers The Indian Constitution available on this page. All the Solutions are covered as per the latest syllabus guidelines. Knowing the Answers to the Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science Civics Chapter 1 The Indian Constitution helps students to attempt the exam with confidence.

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Civics Chapter 1 Extra Questions The Indian Constitution

Extra Questions for Class 8 Civics Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers The Indian Constitution

NCERT Class 8 Civics Chapter 1 Extra Questions Very Short Answers Type

Question 1.
Which type of government was there in Nepal in 1990?
Answer:
In 1990, Nepal had a monarchy. The final authority rested with the King.

Question 2.
When was democracy established in Nepal?
Answer:
In 2006.

Question 3.
When did the Indian Constitutional Assembly form?
Answer:
1946.

Question 4.
What is federalism?
Answer:
This refers to the existence of more than one level of government in the country.

Question 5.
Which is the third tier of Indian government?
Answer:
Panchayati Raj.

Question 6.
Mention the three organs of the Indian State.
Answer:
(i) The legislature,
(ii) The executive,
(iii) The judiciary.

Question 7.
What is stated in the Right to Constitutional Remedies?
Answer:
This Right allows a citizen to move the court if he believes that any of his Fundamental Rights has been violated by the State.

Question 8.
What is secularism?
Answer:
A secular State is one in which the State does not officially promote any one religion as the State religion.

Question 9.
In which year the Constitution of Nepal was adopted?
Answer:
2015

Question 10.
Who is known as the father of the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Question 11.
………….. investigates the complaint received about any crime.
Answer:
Police

NCERT Class 8 Civics Chapter 1 Extra Questions Short Answers Type

Question 12.
We need a constitution to save us from ourselves. What does this mean?
or
How does constitution save us from ourselves?
Answer:
We need a constitution to save us from ourselves means that we might, at times, feel particularly strong about an issue that might go against our larger interests.

Question 13.
Why was it important to have government at the state level?
or
Why is federal form of government required in India?
Answer:
Federal form of government is important in India because a vast number of communities live in India. It is not possible to involve only one person sitting in the capital city of New Delhi and making decisions for everyone. Instead, another level of government is required in the states so that decisions could, be made properly for that particular area.

Question 14.
Parliamentary form of government reflects which feature of our Constitution?
or
Through parliamentary form of government which Right has been provided to the citizens of India?
Answer:
Parliamentary form of government reflects the following features of our Constitution:
(i) The people of India have a direct role in electing their representatives.
(ii) Every citizen of the country, irrespective of his or her social background, can also contest elections. These representatives are accountable to the people.

Question 15.
What does the legislature, executive and judiciary refer to?
Answer:
(i) The legislature refers to that group of people who make laws for the country.
(ii) The executive is a smaller group of people who are responsible for implementing laws and running the government.
(iii) The judiciary refers to the system of courts in the country

Question 16.
What was the main purpose to include Fundamental Rights in our Constitution?
Or
What are Fundamental Rights?
Answer:
Fundamental Rights are often referred to as the ‘conscience’ of the Indian Constitution. These Rights protect citizens against the ‘ arbitrary and absolute exercise of power by the state. The Constitution, thus, guarantees the rights of individuals against the State as well as against other individuals.

Question 17.
Write the two fold objectives of Fundamental Rights as said by Dr. Ambedkar.
Ans.
(i) Every citizen must be in a position to claim his/her Fundamental Rights.
(ii) These rights must be binding upon every authority that has got the power to make laws.

Question 18.
Why Directive Principles were designed or included in our Constitution?
Answer:
Directive Principles were designed in our Constitution to ensure greater social and economic reform, and to serve as a guide to the independent Indian State to institute laws and policies that help reduce the poverty of the masses.

Question 19.
What is stated in the Right to Freedom?
Answer:
This includes the right to freedom of speech and expression, the right to form associations, the right to move freely and reside in any part of the country, and the right to practise any profession, occupation or business.

Question 20.
What is stated in the Cultural and Educational Rights?
Answer:
The Constitution states that all minorities, religious or linguistic community can set up their own educational institutions in order to preserve and develop their own culture.

Question 21.
What are the key features of Indian Constitution? Explain any three.
Answer:
(i) Federalism-This refers to the existence of more than one level of government in the country.
(ii) Secularism-A secular state is one in which the state does not officially promote any one religion as the state religion.
(iii) Separation of Powers-To prevent the misuse of power by the Legislature, Executive and the Judiciary.

Question 22.
Why there is separation of powers between three organs of government?
Answer:
To prevent the misuse of power by the Legislature, Executive and the Judiciary. The Constitution says that each of these organs should exercise different powers.

Question 23.
How is separation of powers done in Indian Constitution?
Answer:
(i) The Legislature is a group of people who make laws for the country.
(ii) The Executive is a smaller group of people who are responsible for implementing laws and running the government.
(iii) The Judiciary is the system of courts in the country.

NCERT Class 8 Civics Chapter 1 Extra Questions Long Answers Type

Question 24.
Write the various purposes of Constitution?
Answer:
(i) It lays out certain ideals that form the basis of the kind of country that we as citizens aspire to live in.
(ii) It defines the nature of a country’s political system.
(iii) It ensures that a dominant group does not use its power against other, less powerful people or groups.
(iv) It saves us from ourselves.

Question 25.
How is a Constitution helpful to us?
Answer:
A Constitution helps to serve as a set of rules and principles that all persons in a country can agree upon as the basis of the way in which they want the country to be governed. This includes not only the type of government but also an agreement on certain ideals that they all believe the country should uphold.

Question 26.
A good Constitution does not allow sudden whims to change its basic structure. Explain with the help of an example.
Answer:
The Constitution helps to protect us against certain decisions that could have an adverse effect on the larger principles that the country believes in. For example, it is possible that a majority of people, who live in a democracy, might strongly feel that party politics has become so acrimonious that we need a strong dictator to set this right. Swept by this emotion, the people may not realise that in the long run, dictatorial rule goes against all their interests. Thus, a good Constitution does not allow certain sudden whims to change its basic structure.

Question 27.
Who were the Moderates? What were their demands in early phase?
Answer:
From 1885 to 1905 group of leaderled congress known as moderates or early nationalist their demands were following:
(i) Reduced land revenue
(ii) Reduced Army expenditure
(iii) Reduced salt tax
(iv) Changing in administration, education
(v) Welfare of state.

Hope the data shared above regarding the NCERT Class 8 Civics Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers The Indian Constitution PDF has aided in your exam preparation. If you ever need any assistance you can always reach us and our team will guide you at the soonest possibility.

Make your learning experience enjoyable by preparing from the Class 8 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Human Resource available on this page. All the Solutions are covered as per the latest syllabus guidelines. Knowing the Answers to the Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 6 Human Resource helps students to attempt the exam with confidence.

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions Human Resource

Extra Questions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Human Resource

NCERT Class 8 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions Very Short Answers Type

Question 1.
When did the Ministry of Human Resource Development establish? What was its aim?
Answer:
The Ministry of Human Resource Development was established in 1985. Its main aim was the improve people’s skills.

Question 2.
What do you understand by the pattern of population distribution?
Answer:
The way in which people are spread across the earth surface is known as the pattern of population distribution.

Question 3.
Which are the most crowded areas of the world?
Answer:
(i) South and South-East Asia,
(ii) Europe,
(iii) North-Eastern North America.

Question 4.
Which regions of the world are sparsely populated?
Answer:
High latitude areas, tropical deserts, high mountains and equatorial forests are sparsely populated.

Question 5.
What is average density of population in India?
Answer:
324 persons per square km.

Question 6.
What is population density?
Answer:
Population density is the number of people living in a unit area of the earth’s surface.

Question 7.
Name two regions of the world which attracted people due to the presence of minerals.
Answer:
(i) Diamond mines of South Africa.
(ii) Oil in Middle East.

Question 8.
Why do people prefer to live on plains?
Answer:
People prefer to live on plains because these are suitable for farming, manufacturing and tertiary activities.

Question 9.
What do you understand by population change?
Answer:
The population change refers to the change in the number of people during a specific time.

Question 10.
Distinguish between birth rate and death rate.
Answer:
Birth rate is the number of live births per 1000 people while death rate is the number of deaths per 1000 people.

Question 11.
What is migration?
Answer:
Migration is the movement of people in and out of an area.

Question 12.
What is natural growth rate?
Answer:
The difference between the birth rate and the death rate of a country is called the natural growth rate.

Question 13.
Distinguish between emigrants and immigrants.
Answer:
Emigrants are people who leave a country, immigrants are those who arrive in a country.

Question 14.
Which are the two groups of dependents in a population?
Answer:
(i) Young dependents (aged below 15 years)
(ii) Elderly dependents (aged over 65 years).

Question 15.
Which type of population pyramid do the countries like Japan have?
Answer:
In the countries like Japan, low birth rates make the pyramid narrow at the base. Decreased death rates allow the numbers of people to reach in the old age.

NCERT Class 8 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions Short Answers Type

Question 16.
Sixty percent of the world’s population stay in just 10 countries. L Name any eight of them.
Answer:
(i) China,
(ii) India,
(iii) USA,
(iv) Indonesia,
(v) Brazil,
(vi) Pakistan,
(vii) Bangladesh,
(viii) Russia,
(ix) Nigeria,
(x) Japan.

Question 17.
What is the average density of population of the world? Which part of the world have the highest density of population?
Answer:
The average density of population of the world is 45 persons per square km. South Central Asia has the highest density of population.

Question 18.
In the early 1970s, the world population was 3 billion. In 1999, the population doubled to 6billion. What were the factors responsible for this growth?
Answer:
Factors responsible for this population growth were:
(i) Better food supplies
(ii) Better medicines and
(iii) Reduced Death Rate
(iv) Number of births medical facilities remained fairly high.

Question 19.
Does emigration and imgration affect the population size of a country? Give example in support of your answer.
Answer:
Emigration and immigration do affect the population size of a country. For example, the population of United States of America and Australia increased due to immigration while Sudan has experienced a loss in population numbers due to emigration.

Question 20.
Are population composition and economic development related to each, other. Give an example in support of your answer.
Answer:
Population composition hardly affects economic development. For example, Bangladesh and Japan both are densely populated but Japan is far more economically developed than Bangladesh.

Question 21.
Which aspects of population do the. composition of population help us to know?
Answer:
We learn various aspects of population through population composition:
(i) Number of males and females.
(ii) To which age group they belong.
(iii) Education level.
(iv) Composition of occupation;
(v) Income level.
(vi) Health conditions.

Question 22.
Which type of population pyramid does India have?
Answer:
The population pyramid of India is broad in the younger age groups because more infants survive to adulthood. Such populations contain a relatively large number of young people which means a strong and expanding labour force.

Question 23.
What is Population Composition? How does it help us?
Answer:
Population composition refers to the structure of the population. It helps us to know the variation in age, sex, literacy level, health condition, occupation and income level of a population.

Question 24.
What are the factors influencing change in population?
Answer:
(i) Birth rate-The number of live births per 1000 people.
(ii) Death rate-The number of death per 1000 people.
(iii) Migration-It is the movement of people in and out of an area.

NCERT Class 8 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions Long Answers Type

Question 25.
How do topography and climate affect distribution of population?
Answer:
Topography – People prefer to live on plains rather than mountains and plateaus because plains are suitable for farming, manufacturing, transportation, etc. The Hwang Ho plains are densely populated while mountains like Andes, Alps, Himalayas are sparsely populated.

Climate – Regions of very hot and very cold climate like Sahara desert, Antarctica are sparsely populated.

Question 26.
Explain how social, cultural and economic factors affect the distribution of population?
Answer:
Social factors – Areas of better housing, education and health facilities are more densely populated, e.g., Pune, Bangalore, Chandigarh.
Cultural factors – Places of religious or cultural significance attract people. For example, Varanasi, Jerusalem and Vatican City.
Economic factors – Industrial areas provide employment opportunities, thus., attract large number of people. For example, Osaka, Mumbai, etc.

Question 27.
Until the 1800s, the world’s population grew steadily but slowly. Give reasons.
Answer:
(i) Large number of babies were bom, but they died early too.
(ii) Lack of proper health facilities.
(iii) Sufficient food was not available to masses.
(iv) Farmers were not able to produce enough to meet the food requirements of all the people.

Question 28.
What is the general trend of international and internal (within a nation) migration?
Answer:
(i) The general trend of international migration is from less developed nations to the more developed nations in search of better employment opportunities.
(ii) Within a nation, people move from the rural to urban areas in search of employment, education and health facilities.

Question 29.
How does the population pyramid of a country in which both birth and death rates are high look? What do you conclude from such pyramid?
Answer:
The population pyramid of a country in which both birth and death rates are high, is broad at the base and rapidly narrows towards the top. This is because, although many children are bom, a large percentage of them die in their infancy, relatively few become adults and there are very few old people.

Question 30.
What are the factors affecting the distribution of population?
Answer:

1. Soil-Fertile soil provides suitable land for agriculture like – Ganga and Brahmaputra plain.
2. Water-People prefer to live in the areas where sufficient amount of freshwater is easily available.
3. Topography-People always prefer to live on plains rather than mountains and plateous.
4. Climate-People usually avoid extreme climate that are very hot and very cold.
5. Social, Cultural and Economic factors.

Question 31.
What are the three causes of growing population of India? Give two suggestions to control population growth.
Answer:
The three causes of growing population of India are:

1. Better food supplies
2. Decreasing Death Rate
3. Better healthcare services and to control population growth, Government should implement a strict law and policy. Family Planning plan should be promoted.

Hope the data shared above regarding the NCERT Class 8 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Human Resource PDF has aided in your exam preparation. If you ever need any assistance you can always reach us and our team will guide you at the soonest possibility.

Make your learning experience enjoyable by preparing from the Class 8 Geography Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Industries available on this page. All the Solutions are covered as per the latest syllabus guidelines. Knowing the Answers to the Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 5 Industries helps students to attempt the exam with confidence.

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 5 Extra Questions Industries

Extra Questions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Industries

NCERT Class 8 Geography Chapter 5 Extra Questions Very Short Answers Type

Question 1.
On what bases industries can be classified?
Answer:
Industries can be classified on the following bases:
(i) raw materials,
(ii) size,
(iii) ownership.

Question 2.
Classify the industries on the basis of ownership.
Answer:
Private sector, state-owned or public sector, joint sector and co-operative sector.

Question 3.
Name the major industrial regions of the world.
Answer:

1. Eastern North America
2. Western and Central Europe
3. Eastern Europe
4. Eastern Asia.

Question 4.
Why do industrial accidents or disaster occur?
Answer:
Industrial accidents occur mainly due to technical failure or irresponsible handling of hazardous material.

Question 5.
Name the countries where iron and steel industry is located.
Answer:
Germany, USA, China, Japan and Russia.

Question 6.
In which countries is textile industry concentrated?
Answer:
India, Hong Kong, South Korea, Japan and Taiwan.

Question 7.
In which countries do the major hubs of Information Technology (IT) industry lie?
Answer:
(i) Silicon Valley in Central California.
(ii) Bangalore region of India.

Question 8.
Why is iron and steel industry called a feeder industry?
Answer:
Iron and steel industry is called a feeder industry because its products are used as raw materials for other industries.

Question 9.
Write the names of great lakes of North America.
Answer:
Superior, Huron, Ontario, Michigan and Erie.

Question 10.
Name the regions of Pittsburgh where large steel mills are located.
Answer:
(i) Valley of Monogahela river.
(ii) Valley of Allegheny river.
(iii) Along the river Ohio.

Question 11.
Give examples of natural fibres.
Answer:
Wool, silk, cotton, linen and jute.

Question 12.
Give examples of man-made fibres.
Answer:
Nylon, polyester, acrylic, rayon.

Question 13.
Which countries are the important producers of cotton textiles?
Answer:
India, China, Japan and USA.

Question 14.
India has a glorious tradition of producing good quality cotton textiles. Give examples of Indian handspun and handwoven cloth.
Answer:

1. Muslins of Dhaka
2. Chintzes of Masulipatnam
3. Calicos of Calicut
4. Gold-wrought cotton pieces of Burhanpur, Surat and Vadodara.

Question 15.
When and where was the first successful modem textile mill established?
Answer:
In 1854 at Mumbai.

Question 16.
Name an important textile centre of Japan.
Answer:
Osaka is an important textile centre of Japan. It is also known as ‘Manchester of Japan’.

Question 17.
From which countries does Japan import cotton?
Answer:
Egypt, India, China and USA.

Question 18.
Which industries have replaced the cotton textile industry of Osaka?
Answer:
Iron and steel, machinery, shipbuilding, automobiles, electrical equipments and cement.

Question 19.
Define Information Technology industry.
Answer:
The information technology industry deals in the storage, processing and distribution of information.

Question 20.
Which factors guide the location of IT industry?
Answer:
Resource availability, cost and infrastructure.

Question 21.
Name the major hubs of the IT industry.
Answer:
(i) Silicon Valley, California
(ii) Bangalore, India.

NCERT Class 8 Geography Chapter 5 Extra Questions Short Answers Type

Question 22.
What do you understand by secondary activities? Explain with the help of example.
Answer:
Secondary activities change raw materials into products of more value to people. For example, pulp is changed into paper and paper into a note book.

Question 23.
Explain how products of mineral-based industries feed other industries.
Answer:
Iron made from iron-ore is the product of mineral-based industry. This is used as raw material for the manufacture of various products such as heavy machinery, building materials and railway coaches.

Question 24.
What is the difference between private sector and public sector industries?
Answer:
Private sector industries are owned and operated by individuals or a group of individuals. Public sector industries are owned and operated by the government.

Question 25.
Write the difference between joint sector and co-operative sector industries.
Answer:
Joint sector industries are owned and. operated by the state and individuals or a group of individuals.
Co-operative sector industries are owned and operated by the producers or suppliers of raw materials, workers or both.

Question 26.
Name the major industrial regions of India.
Answer:

1. Mumbai-Pune cluster
2. Bangalore-Tamil Nadu region
3. Hugli region
4. Ahmedabad-Baroda region
5. Chottanagpur industrial belt
6. Visakhapatnam-Guntur belt
7. Gurgaon-Delhi-Meerut region
8. Kollam-Thiruvananthapuram region.

Question 27.
What was the cause of industrial disaster which occurred in Bhopal on 3 December, 1984?
Answer:
The industrial disaster in Bhopal on 3 December, 1984 occurred due to the leakage of highly poisonous Methyl Isocynate (MIC) gas alongwith Hydrogen Cyanide and other reactive products.

Question 28.
What are ‘Sunrise Industries’? Give examples of such industries.
Answer:
Emerging industries are also known as ‘Sunrise Industries’. For example, Information Technology, Hospitality and Knowledge.

Question 29.
Mention the inputs of iron and steel industry.
Answer:
The inputs of iron and steel industry are:

1. Raw materials – iron-ore, coal, limestone
2. labour,
3. capital,
4. land,
5. other infrastructure.

Question 30.
Write two characteristics of steel.
Answer:
(i) Steel is hard and it can easily be shaped, cut or made into wire.
(ii) Special alloys of steel can be made by adding other metals like aluminium, nickel and copper. It gives unusual hardness, toughness or ability to resist rust.

Question 31.
After 1950, why did iron and steel industry begin to be located on flat land and near sea ports?
Answer:
After 1950 iron and steel industry began to be located on flat land near sea ports because steel works had become very large and iron-ore had been imported from overseas.

Question 32.
Name the imgor steel producing centres of India. Also, mention the states where they are located.
Answer:

Question 33.
Why has the cotton textile industry spread to different parts of the country?
Answer:
Cotton textile industry has spread to different parts of the country because:
(i) Raw cotton is a pure and light weight raw material.
(ii) Humidity can be created artificially which is important for cotton textile.

Question 34.
Why could traditional cotton textile not compete with new textile mills of the West (Europe)?
Answer:
(i) The production of hand woven cotton textile was expensive and time consuming.
(ii) Textile mills of the West (Europe) produced cheap and good quality fabrics.

Question 35.
Name some major cotton textile centres of India.
Answer:
Coimbatore, Kanpur, Chennai, Ahmedabad, Mumbai, Kolkata, Ludhiana, Pondicherry and Panipat.

Question 36.
Why have textile mills been closed down in Ahmedabad?
Answer:
Textile mills have been closed down in Ahmedabad because:
(i) New textile centres have emerged in India.
(ii) Machines and technology have not been upgraded.

Question 37.
Name the two major hubs of IT industry. Also, write their locations.
Answer:
(i) Bangalore is located on the Deccan Plateau of India.
(ii) Silicon Valley is a part of Santa Clara Valley, located next to the Rocky Mountains of North America.

Question 38.
Name some emerging information technology hubs in India.
Answer:
Mumbai, New Delhi, Hyderabad, Chennai, Gurgaon, Pune, Thiruvananthapuram, Kochi and Chandigarh.

Question 39.
On the outline map of India show the following places. Ahmedabad.
Answer:
Ahmedabad

Question 40.
Which industry is often referred to as the backbone of modern industry and why?
Answer:
Iron and steel industry is often referred to as the backbone of modem industry because almost everything we use is either made of iron or steel or has been made with tools and machinery of these metals.

NCERT Class 8 Geography Chapter 5 Extra Questions Long Answers Type

Question 41.
How can industries he classified on the basis of raw materials? Explain.
Answer:
On the basis of raw materials industries can be classified in the following ways:

1. Agro-based industries use plant and animal-based products as their raw materials. For example, food processing.
2. Mineral-based industries use mineral ores as their raw material. For example, iron and steel industry.
3. Marine-based industries use products from the sea and oceans as raw materials. For example, manufacturing of fish oil.
4. Forest-based industries utilise forest produce as raw materials. For example, paper and pulp, furniture and building.

Question 42.
What do you understand by Industrial System? Explain with the help of an example.
Answer:
Industrial System consists of inputs, processes and outputs.

(i) The inputs are raw materials, labour, cost of land, transport, power etc.
(ii) The processes include a wide range of activities that convert the raw materials into finished products.
(iii) The outputs are the end products and the income is earned from it.
For example, in textile industry the inputs are cotton, labour, factory building, transport cost, etc. The processes include ginning, spinning, weaving, dyeing and printing. The output are the garments like shirt, trousers, etc.

Question 43.
Describe the utility of steel in our day-to-day life.
or
Explain how steel is the backbone of modern industry.
Answer:
(i) Various modes of transport like ships, trains, trucks and autos are made of steel.
(ii) The safety pins and the needles are also made of steel.
(iii) Oil wells are drilled with steel machinery. Steel pipelines transport oil.
(iv) Minerals are mined with steel equipment.
(v) Farm machines are made up of steel.
(vi) Large buildings have steel framework.

Question 44.
Why was Sakchi (near Jamshedpur) chosen to set up the steel plant (TISCO)? Give reasons.
Answer:
Sakchi was chosen to set-up the steel plant (TISCO) for various reasons:
(i) It was close to the iron-ore, coal and manganese deposits. TISCO gets coal from Jharia coalfields and iron-ore, limestone, dolomite and manganese from Orissa and Chhattisgarh.
(ii) The Kharkai and Subarnarekha rivers ensured sufficient water supply.
(iii) Kolkata provided a large market.
(iv) Government initiatives provided adequate capital for its later development.

Question 45.
Describe the locational advantages of Pittsburgh steel city in the United States of America.
Answer:
Locational advantages df Pittsburgh steel city:
(i) Coal is available locally.
(ii) Iron-ore comes from the iron mines at Minnesota, about 1500 km from Pittsburgh.
(iii) The world’s best route – the famous Great Lakes waterway is available for shipping ore
cheaply.
(iv) Trains carry the ore from the Great Lakes to the Pittsburgh area.
(v) The Ohio, the Monogahela and Allegheny rivers provide adequate water supply.

Question 46.
Describe the favourable locational factors that were responsible for the development of the textile industry in Ahmedabad.
Answer:
(i) Ahmedabad is situated in the “heart of a cotton-growing area. This ensures easy availability of raw material.
(ii) The humid climate is ideal for spinning and weaving.
(iii) The flat terrain is suitable for the establishment of the mills.
(iv) The densely populated states of Gujarat and Maharashtra provide both skilled and semi-skilled labour.
(v) There are well developed road and railway network.
(vi) Nearby Mumbai port facilitates import of machinery and export of cotton textiles.

Question 47.
Why has the textile industry developed in Osaka (Japan)?
or
Describe the geographical factors responsible for the location of textile industry in Osaka (Japan).
Answer:

1. The extensive plain around Osaka ensured the availability of land for the growth of cotton mills.
2. Warm humid climate is well suited to spinning and weaving.
3. The river Yodo provides sufficient water for the mills.
4. Labour is easily available.
5. Location of port facilitates import of raw cotton and for exporting textiles.

Question 48.
Explain the classification of Industries
Answer:
Industries can be classified on the following basis:
(i) Raw Materials-Agro-based and mineral-based like food processing iron and steel industry.
(ii)

Question 49.
Explain the factors influencing the location of an industry.
Answer:
Factors which affect the location of an industry are:

1. Availability of raw materials
2. land
3. water
4. labour
5. power
6. capital
7. transport
8. market
9. government policies
10. communication

Hope the data shared above regarding the NCERT Class 8 Geography Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Industries PDF has aided in your exam preparation. If you ever need any assistance you can always reach us and our team will guide you at the soonest possibility.

Make your learning experience enjoyable by preparing from the Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Agriculture available on this page. All the Solutions are covered as per the latest syllabus guidelines. Knowing the Answers to the Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture helps students to attempt the exam with confidence.

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 Extra Questions Agriculture

Extra Questions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Agriculture

NCERT Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 Extra Questions Very Short Answers Type

Question 1.
What is arable land?
Answer:
The land on which the crops are grown is called arable land.

Question 2.
Mention the important inputs of agriculture.
Answer:
Seeds, fertilizers, machinery and labour.

Question 3.
Name the operations involved in agriculture.
Answer:
Ploughing, sowing, irrigation, weeding and harvesting.

Question 4.
Mention the outputs of agriculture.
Answer:
Crops, wool, dairy and poultry products.

Question 5.
On what basis can agriculture be classified.
Answer:

1. Geographical conditions,
2. demand of produce,
3. labour,
4. level of technology.

Question 6.
Name two major types of farming.
Answer:
(i) Subsistence farming
(ii) Commercial farming.

Question 7.
What is subsistence farming?
Answer:
Subsistence farming is practised to meet the needs of the farmer’s family.

Question 8.
Into which two types can subsistence farming be classified?
Answer:
(i) Intensive subsistence,
(ii) Primitive subsistence farming.

Question 9.
Name the crops cultivated in intensive subsistence agriculture.
Answer:
Wheat, maize, pulses and oilseeds.

Question 10.
Into which two types can primitive subsistence agriculture be divided?
Answer:
(i) Shifting cultivation,
(ii) nomadic herding.

Question 11.
In which parts of the world is shifting cultivation practised?
Answer:

1. Amazon basin,
2. Tropical Africa,
3. Parts of South-East Asia,
4. North-East India.

Question 12.
Which types of farming are included in commercial farming?
Answer:

1. Commercial grain farming,
2. Mixed farming,
3. Plantation agriculture.

Question 13.
In the temperate grasslands of North America why can only a single crop be grown?
Answer:
In the temperate grasslands of North America only a single crop can be grown because severe winters- restrict the growing season.

Question 14.
Name two major plantations found in the tropical regions of the world.
Answer:

1. Rubber plantation in Malaysia
2. Coffee plantation in Brazil
3. Tea plantation in India and Sri Lanka.

Question 15.
Name two important food crops, fibre crops and beverage crops.
Answer:

1. Food crops – wheat, rice
2. Fibre crops – jute, cotton
3. Beverage crops – tea, coffee.

Question 16.
Name four leading producers of rice.
Answer:
China, India, Japan, Sri Lanka.

Question 17.
Name two places where two to three crops of rice are grown in a year.
Answer:
(i) West Bengal,
(ii) Bangladesh.

Question 18.
During which season is wheat grown in India?
Answer:
Winters.

Question 19.
Name the leading producers of maize.
Answer:
North America, Brazil, China, Russia, Canada, India and Mexico.

Question 20.
In which countries is cotton grown as a major crop?
Answer:
China, USA, India, Pakistan, Brazil and Egypt.

Question 21.
Which countries produce best quality tea in the world?
Answer:
Kenya, India, China, Sri Lanka.

NCERT Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 Extra Questions Short Answers Type

Question 22.
What are primary activities? Give examples.
Answer:
Primary activities include all those activities connected with extraction and production of natural resources. For example, agriculture, fishing, gathering etc.

Question 23.
What are secondary activities? Give examples.
Answer:
Secondary activities are concerned with the processing of natural resources. For example, manufacturing of steel, weaving of cloth etc.

Question 24.
What are tertiary activities? Give examples.
Answer:
Tertiary activities provide support to the primary and secondary sectors through services. For example, trade, banking, insurance etc.

Question 25.
In which parts of the world is nomadic herding practised?
Answer:
Nomadic herding is practised in the following regions:
(i) Semi arid and arid regions of Sahara.
(ii) Central Asia.
(iii) Rajasthan and Jammu and Kashmir in India.

Question 26.
Write the main features of commercial farming?
Answer:
Main features of commercial farming are:
(i) Crops are grown and animals are reared for sale in the market.
(ii) The area cultivated and the amount of capital used is large.
(iii) Most of the work is done by machines.

Question 27.
What is mixed farming? In which parts of the world is it practised?
Answer:
(i) In the mixed farming, the land is used for growing food and fodder crops and rearing livestock.
(ii) It is practised in Europe, Eastern USA, Argentina, South-east Australia, New Zealand and South Africa.

Question 28.
Why do is development of a transport network essential for plantation farming?
Answer:
Development of a transport network is essential for plantation farming because the produce is processed on the farm itself or in nearby factories.

Question 29.
Mention the geographical requirements for the cultivation of rice.
Answer:
(i) It is mainly grown in tropical and sub-tropical regions.
(ii) Rice needs high temperature, high humidity and rainfall.
(iii) It grows well in alluvial clayey soil.

Question 30.
Write the geographical requirements for wheat cultivation.
Answer:
(i) Wheat requires moderate temperature and rainfall during growing season and bright sunshine at the time of harvest.
(ii) It thrives best in well-drained loamy soil.

Question 31.
Mention the geographical conditions required for maize cultivation.
Answer:
(i) Maize requires moderate temperature.
(ii) It also needs well-drained fertile soils,

Question 32.
Write the geographical conditions required for cotton.
Answer:
(i) Cotton requires high temperature, light rainfall, two hundred and ten frost-free days and bright sunshine.
(ii) It grows best on black and alluvial soils.

Question 33.
Mention the geographical conditions required for coffee cultivation.
Answer:
(i) Coffee requires warm and wet climate and well-drained loamy soil.
(ii) Hill slopes are more suitable for the growth of this crop.

Question 34.
What is agricultural development? Also, write its ultimate aim.
Answer:
(i) Agricultural development refers to the efforts made to increase farm production in order to meet the growing demand of increasing population.
(ii) Its ultimate aim is to increase food security.

Question 35.
How can farm production be increased?
or
How can the ultimate aim of agricultural development be increased?
Answer:
Farm production can be increased in the following ways:

1. Increasing the cropped area.
2. The number of crops grown.
3. Improving irrigation facilities.
4. Use of fertilizers and high yielding variety of seeds.

Question 36.
On the outline map of India show the following places. Coffee producing state.
Answer:
Coffee producing state

Question 37.
What is sericulture? Name the factors influencing agriculture?
Answer:
Commercial rearing of silkworms is called sericulture. Factors influencing agriculture are as follows :
(i) Favourable topography
(ii) Soil
(iii) Climate

NCERT Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 Extra Questions Long Answers Type

Question 38.
Write the main features of intensive subsistence agriculture.
Answer:
(i) The farmer cultivates a small plot of land using simple tools and more labour.
(ii) Climate with large number of days with sunshine and fertile soil permit growing of more than one crop annually on the same field.
(iii) Major crops grown are rice, wheat, maize, pulses etc.
(iv) Intensive subsistence agriculture is practised in thickly populated areas of the monsoon regions of South, South-East and East Asia.

Question 39.
Write the main features of nomadic herding.
Answer:
(i) Herdsmen move from place to place with their animals in search of fodder and water.
(ii) Herders have to move from one place to another due to climatic constraints and terrain.
(iii) Sheep, camel, cattle, yak and goats are the most commonly reared.
(iv) Animals provide milk, meat, wool, hides and other products to herders and their families.

Question 40.
Describe the regions where commercial grain farming is practised.
Answer:
(i) Commercial grain farming is practised in the temperate grasslands of North America, Europe and Asia.
(ii) These regions are sparsely populated with large farms spreading over hundreds of hectares.
(iii) Due to severe winters only a single crop can be grown.

Question 41.
Write a short note on millets.
Answer:
(i) Millets are also known as coarse grains and can be grown on less fertile and sandy soils.
(ii) It is a hardy crop that needs low rainfall and high to moderate temperature and adequate rainfall.
(iii) Millets are grown in India, Nigeria, China and Niger.

Question 42.
Write the geographical conditions required for the cultivation of tea.
Answer:
(i) Tea requires cool climate and well-distributed high rainfall throughout the year for the growth of its tender leaves.
(ii) It needs well-drained loamy soils and gentle slopes.
(iii) Large number of labour is required to pick the leaves.

Hope the data shared above regarding the NCERT Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Agriculture PDF has aided in your exam preparation. If you ever need any assistance you can always reach us and our team will guide you at the soonest possibility.

Make your learning experience enjoyable by preparing from the Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Answers Mineral and Power Resources available on this page. All the Solutions are covered as per the latest syllabus guidelines. Knowing the Answers to the Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 3 Answers Mineral and Power Resources helps students to attempt the exam with confidence.

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions Answers Mineral and Power Resources

Extra Questions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Mineral and Power Resources

NCERT Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions Very Short Answers Type

Question 1.
Mention the physical properties of minerals.
Answer:
Colour, density and hardness.

Question 2.
Write any one chemical property of minerals.
Answer:
Solubility.

Question 3.
Classify the minerals on the basis of composition.
Answer:
Metallic and non-metallic.

Question 4.
Into which two types can metallic minerals be divided.
Answer:
(i) Ferrous
(ii) Non-ferrous.

Question 5.
How are minerals extracted?
Answer:
Minerals are extracted by mining, drilling or quarrying.

Question 6.
Which continent produces more than half of the world’s tin?
Answer:
Asia.

Question 7.
Which countries are the leading producers of tin in the world?
Answer:
China, Malaysia and Indonesia.

Question 8.
Which country is the largest producer of high grade iron-ore?
Answer:
Brazil.

Question 9.
Which countries of South America are the leading producers of copper 7
Answer:
Chile and Peru.

Question 10.
Which countries of South America are the world’s largest producers of tin?
Answer:
Brazil and Bolivia.

Question 11.
Which two areas of Australia are rich in gold deposits?
Answer:
Kalgoorlie and Coolgardie.

Question 12.
Which country is the largest producer and exporter of mica in the world?
Answer:
India.

Question 13.
In which part of India deposits of gold are found?
Answer:
Kolar in Karnataka.

Question 14.
Which minerals are obtained from quartz and bauxite?
Answer:
Mineral obtained from quartz is silicon and aluminium from bauxite.

Question 15.
Into which two categories can power resources be classified?
Answer:
Conventional and non-conventional resources.

Question 16.
Name two main conventional energy sources.
Answer:
Firewood and fossil fuels.

Question 17.
Give two examples of fossil fuels.
Answer:
Coal, petroleum.

Question 18.
How is wind energy generated?
Answer:
The high speed winds rotate the windmill which is connected to a generator to produce electricity.

Question 19.
Name the greatest producers of nuclear power in the world. »
Answer:
USA and Europe.

Question 20.
Where do geothermal plants are located in India?
Answer:
(i) Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh
(ii) Puga Valley in Ladakh.

Question 21.
Which type of resources are coal and petroleum?
Answer:
Non-renewable.

NCERT Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions Short Answers Type

Question 22.
What are minerals? How do they form?
Answer:
A naturally occurring substance that has a definite chemical composition is a mineral. They are formed in different types of geological environments under varying conditions.

Question 23.
Write two characteristics of metals.
Answer:
(i) Metals are hard substances that conduct heat and electricity.
(ii) They have a characteristic lustre or shine. For example, iron, aluminium, copper, etc.

Question 24.
Distinguish between open-cast mining and shaft mining.
Answer:

1. Open-cast mining: When minerals lie at shallow depths, they are taken out by removing the surface layer. This is called open-cast mining.
2. Shaft mining: When minerals lie at the great depth deep bores, are made to extract. This is called shaft mining.

Question 25.
Certain minerals are found in igneous and metamorphic rocks. Give three such examples.
Answer:

1. Iron-ore in north Sweden.
2. Copper and nickel in Ofitario, Canada.
3. Iron, nickel, chromites and platinum in South Africa.

Question 26.
Name the minerals found in sedimentary rocks along with their location.
Answer:

1. Limestone in Caucasus region of France.
2. Manganese deposits of Georgia and Ukraine.
3. Phosphate beds of Algeria.

Question 27.
Name the minerals found in Europe.
Answer:
(i) Iron-ore is found in Russia, Ukraine, Sweden and France.
(ii) Copper, lead, zinc, manganese and nickel are found in eastern Europe and European Russia.

Question 28.
Mention the three zones of North America where mineral deposits are located.
Answer:
(i) The Canadian region north of the Great Lakes.
(ii) The Appalachian region.
(iii) The mountain ranges of the West.

Question 29.
Name the four countries of South America where mineral oil is found.
Answer:

1. Venezuela,
2. Argentina,
3. Chile,
4. Peru,
5. Columbia.

Question 30.
Write the minerals which have been predicted to be found in Antarctica.
Answer:

1. Deposits of coal in the Trans-Antarctic Mountains.
2. Iron near the Prince Charles Mountains of East Antarctica.
3. Iron-ore, gold, silver and oil are also present.

Question 31.
Where is iron found in India?
Answer:
Jharkhand, Orissa, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Goa, Maharashtra and Karnataka.

Question 32.
In which states of India is bauxite found?
Answer:
Jharkhand, Orissa, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu.

Question 33.
Write two advantages and disadvantages of petroleum.
Answer:
Advantages of petroleum:
(i) It is easier to transport.
(ii) It is the basis of petro-chemical industry.

Disadvantages of petroleum:
(i) Oxygen gets depleted due to oil spillage and gas leakage.
(ii) Pollutants released while burning, cause acid rain.

Question 34.
Write two advantages and disadvantages of firewood.
Answer:
Advantages of firewood:
(i) It is easily accessible.
(ii) It provides energy to a large number of people.

Disadvantages of firewood:
(i) Collection of fire-wood is time-consuming.
(ii) It causes air pollution.

Question 35.
Write two merits and demerits of coal.
Answer:
Advantages of coal:
(i) It is extensively available.
(ii) It can efficiently be converted into electricity.

Disadvantages of coal:
(i) It pollutes the environment.
(ii) It is bulky to transport.

Question 36.
How are fossil fuels formed?
Answer:
Remains of plants and animals which are buried under the earth for millions of years get converted by the heat and pressure into the fossil fuels.

Question 37.
Write four uses of coal.
Answer:
(i) It is used as a domestic fuel.
(ii) It is used in industries such as iron and steel industry, brick industry etc.
(iii) Coal is used to run steam engines.
(iv) It is used to generate electricity.

Question 38.
Why is coal referred to as Buried Sunshine?
Answer:
The coal was formed millions of years ago when giant ferns and swamps got buried under the layer of the earth. Therefore, coal is referred to as Buried Sunshine.

Question 39.
Name four coal producing countries of the world.
Answer:
(i) China,
(ii) USA,
(iii) Germany,
(iv) Russia,
(v) South Africa,
(vi) France.

Question 49.
Name the major coal-producing areas of India.
Answer:
Raniganj, Jharia, Dhanbad and Bokaro.

Question 41.
Name the products produced from crude oil.
Answer:
Diesel, petrol, kerosene, wax, plastics and lubricants.

Question 42.
Name the chief petroleum-producing countries.
Answer:
Iran, Iraq, Saudi Arabia, Qatar, USA, Russia, Venezuela and Algeria.

Question 43.
Name the leading oil producer states of India.
Answer:
(i) Digboi in Assam.
(ii) Bombay High in Mumbai.
(iii) Deltas of Krishna and Godavari rivers.

Question 44.
Where is natural gas found in India?
Answer:
(i) Jaisalmer
(ii) Krishna-Godavari .delta
(iii) Tripura
(iv) Offshore in Mumbai

Question 45.
Name the leading producers of hydel power in the world.
Answer:
Paraguay, Norway, Brazil and China.

Question 46.
Write the advantages and disadvantages of solar energy.
Answer:
Advantages of solar energy
(i) It is inexhaustible.
(ii) It does not cause pollution.

Disadvantage of solar energy.
The method of extracting solar energy is costly.

Question 47.
Write one advantage and disadvantage of each tidal and nuclear energy.
Answer:
Tidal energy – Advantage – It is non-polluting and inexhaustible.
Disadvantage – It destroys wildlife habitat. It is also difficult to harness tidal energy.
Nuclear energy – Advantage – It emits large amount of energy.
Disadvantage – It generates radioactive wastes.

Question 48.
Write the uses of solar energy.
Answer:
(i) Solar energy is used in solar heaters, solar cookers, solar dryers.
(ii) It is also used for community lighting and traffic signals.

Question 49.
Name the countries which are noted for their wind energy production.
Answer:
Netherlands, Germany, Denmark, UK, USA and Spain are noted for their wind energy production.

Question 50.
How is nuclear power generated?
Answer:
Nuclear power is obtained from energy stored in the nuclei of atoms of radioactive elements like uranium and thorium. These fuels undergo nuclear fission in nuclear reactors and emit power.

Question 51.
In which states of India are deposits of uranium and thorium found?
Answer:
Uranium is found in Rajasthan and Jharkhand. Thorium is found in the monozite sands of Kerala.

Question 52.
Name four hydel power stations of India.
Answer:

1. Bhakra Nangal
2. Gandhi Sagar
3. Nagarjuna Sagar
4. Damodar Valley

Question 53.
Mention the major nuclear power stations of India.
Answer:

1. Kalpakkam in Tamil Nadu
2. Tarapur in Maharashtra
3. Rana Pratap Sagar near Kota in Rajasthan
4. Narora in Uttar Pradesh
5. Kaiga in Karnataka.

Question 54.
Write the uses of geothermal energy.
Answer:
Geothermal energy in the form of hot springs is used for cooking, heating and bathing.

Question 55.
Name the countries where geothermal plants are located.
Answer:

1. USA has the world’s largest geothermal power plant.
2. New Zealand
3. Iceland
4. Philippines
5. Central America.

Question 56.
Locate on the outline map of the world.

NCERT Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions Long Answers Type

Question 57.
Show the following on the outline map of the world.
(i) South Africa
(ii) China
(iii) India
(iv) USA
(v) Australia
Answer:

Question 58.
Describe the distribution of minerals in North America.
Answer:
In North America mineral deposits are found in three zones:
(i) The Canadian Shield – Iron-ore, nickel, gold, uranium and copper are found.
(ii) Appalachian region – Coal
(iii) Western Cordilleras – Copper, lead, zinc, gold and silver.

Question 59.
Africa is rich in mineral resources. Justify.
Answer:
(i) Africa is the world’s largest producer of diamonds, gold and platinum.
(ii) South Africa, Zimbabwe and Zaire produce a large portion of the world’s gold.
(iii) Copper, iron-ore, chromium, uranium, cobalt and bauxite are the other minerals found in Africa.
(iv) Oil is found in Nigeria, Libya and Angola.

Question 60.
Give a brief account of minerals found in Australia.
Answer:
(i) Australia is the largest producer of bauxite in the world.
(ii) It is a leading producer of gold, diamond, iron-ore, tin and nickel.
(iii) Rich deposits of copper, lead, zinc and manganese are also found.
(iv) Large deposits of gold are found in Kalgoorlie and Coolgardie.

Question 61.
Name two metallic and non- metallic minerals found in India. Also, mention the areas where they are found.
Answer:
Two metallic minerals’of India are:
(i) Copper: It is found in Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
(ii) Manganese: It is found in Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Orissa, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.

Two non-metallic minerals of India are:
(i) Limestone: Major limestone producing states are Bihar, Jharkhand, Orissa, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Rajasthan, Gujarat and Tamil Nadu.
(ii) Salt: It is obtained from seas, lakes and rocks. Salt is extracted in Rajasthan and Gujarat.

Question 62.
Why is conservation of minerals necessary? Mention two ways by which minerals can be conserved.
Answer:
Conservation of minerals is important because:
(i) It takes thousands of years for the formation and concentration of minerals.
(ii) The rate of formation of minerals is much slow in comparison to their consumption.

Two ways by which minerals can be conserved are:
(i) To reduce the wastage in the process of mining.
(ii) Recycling of metals.

Question 63.
Write the advantages and disadvantages of hydel power.
Answer:
Advantages:
(i) It does not cause environmental pollution.
(ii) It promotes irrigation and fishing.
(iii) It is cheap.
Disadvantages:
(i) It leads to the displacement of local community.
(ii) It is expensive to set-up a hydel power project.
(iii) It affects the natural flow of the rivers. It also causes excessive sedimentation at the bottom of the reservoir.

Question 64.
Where are the reserves of natural gas found? Mention its uses. Also mention the major natural gas producing countries.
Answer:
(i) Natural gas is found with petroleum deposits and is released when crude oil is brought to the surface.
(ii) It can be used as a domestic and industrial fuel.
(iii) The major natural gas producing countries are Russia, Norway, UK and Netherlands.

Question 65.
How is the hydel power produced?
Answer:
Water stored in the dams is made to fall from heights. The falling water flows through pipes inside the dam over turbine blades placed at the bottom of the dam. The moving blades then turn the generator to produce electricity.

Question 66.
Why is there need for using non- conventional sources of energy?
Answer:
(i) The sharp increase in the consump-tion of fossil fuels has led to their depletion at an alarming rate.
(ii) The toxic pollutants released from burning the fuels cause environmental pollution.
(iii) The conventional sources are non-renewable.
(iv) It takes millions of years for the formation of fossil fuels.
Therefore, there is need for using non- conventional sources such as solar energy, wind energy. These sources are renewable.

Question 67.
Write the advantages and dis-advantages of wind energy.
Answer:
Advantages:
(i) It does not cause environmental pollution.
(ii) Once the windmill is set up, the cost of production of electricity is less.
(iii) It is safe and does not leave any waste.

Disadvantages:
(i) It causes noise pollution.
(ii) Windmills are costly to set-up.
(iii) Windmills disturb radio and TV reception.
(iv) Windmills are harmful to birds.

Question 68.
What is biogas? How is it obtained? Write its two uses.
Answer:
(i) Organic wastes such as dead plant and animal material, animal dung and kitchen waste can be converted into a gaseous fuel called biogas.
(ii) The organic waste is decomposed by bacteria in biogas digesters to emit biogas which is essentially a mixture of methane and carbon dioxide.
Uses of biogas:
(a) Biogas is used for cooking and lightening.
(b) It produces huge amount of organic manure

Hope the data shared above regarding the NCERT Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Mineral and Power Resources PDF has aided in your exam preparation. If you ever need any assistance you can always reach us and our team will guide you at the soonest possibility.