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Two Stories about Flying Class 10 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 3

MCQ Questions for Class 10 English First Flight Chapter 3 Two Stories about Flying with Answers

I. The day before, all day long, he had watched his parents flying about with his brothers and sister, perfecting them in the art of flight, teaching them how to skim the waves and how to dive for fish. He had, in fact, seen his older brother catch his first herring and devour it, standing on a rock, while his parents circled arouxad raising a proud cackle. And all the morning the whole family had walked about on the big plateau midway down the opposite cliff taunting him with his cowardice.

Question 1.

Based on the given sentence, pick the option that corresponds to what human parents would say. ‘While his parents circled around raising a proud cackle.’

(A) Well done!
(B) Oh no!
(C) Ready?
(D) Really!
Answer:
(A) Well done!

Explanation:
‘Well done!’ is said to encourage the child after successfully doing something. ‘Oh No!’ will be Isaid if the child is not able to do something. ‘Ready?’ will be said before starting of the event and not after the completion. ‘Really!’ will be said when the parents do not expect or trust that their child will be able to do this.

Question 2.

Which option lists the image nearest to ‘skim the waves’

(A) Image (i)
(B) Image (ii)
(C) Image (iii)
(D) Image (iv)
Answer:
(D) Image (iv)
Explanation:
‘Skim the waves’ means to test the level of movement of waves which is best depicted in option (D). In Option (A), there is no water around the bird, in (B) the bird is already swimming confidently in the ( water and in (G), the bird is flying high in the sky.

Question 3.

Imagine that the young gull attended a workshop on inspiration and confidence building and received a couple of pieces of advice.

Explanation:
The young bird knew that birds are meant to fly, so he already knew about himself. It also is not about how early or late he should start flying so as to benefit. The extract is about the young bird whose siblings had already learnt flying, but he was having the first flight, so he need not bother himself about what others were doing, it was important for the young bird as being the First flight. Also, he was earlier afraid of flying, but when he overcame his fear, he learnt the art of flying.

Question 4.

Which of the following feelings did the young gull, NOT feel according to the given context?
“…all day long, he had watched his parents flying about with his brothers and sister…”

(i) sad
(ii) incompetent
(iii) excluded
(iv) ungrateful
(v) inspired
(vi) jealous
(vii) anxious

(A) (i), (iii), (vi)
(B) (ii), (v), (vii)
(C) (ii), (iii), (vii)
(D) (iv), (v), (vi)
Answer:
(D) (iv), (v), (vi)

Explanation:
The young bord was full of feelings of sadness (for not able to enjoy flying from one place to another), incompetence (as he thought that he cannot fly), excluded (as others enjoyed in water and he used to sit alone outside) and anxious (as he also wanted to fly). However, he never felt ungrateful, inspired and jealous of his parents or siblings.

Question 5.

Select the most appropriate option for the following: devour: guzzle: nibble :

(A) chew
(B) savour
(C) peck
(D) gulp
Answer:
(C) peck

Explanation:
Devour and Guzzle refer to eating in big bites and quick swallowing. Nibble and Peck refer to eating in small tit bits and lazily eating. Chew refers to biting and grinding with teeth the bite taken. Savour refers to enjoying food. Gulp also refers to eating big bites and quick swallowing, so does not match with Nibble.

II. He just felt a bit dizzy. Then he flapped his wings once and he soared upwards. ”Ga, ga, ga, Ga, ga, ga, Gaw- col-ah,” his mother swooped past him, her wings making a loud noise. He answered her with another scream. Then his father flew over him screaming. He saw his two brothers and his sister flying around him curveting and banking and soaring and diving. Then he completely forgot that he had not always been able to fly, and commended himself to dive and soar and curve, shrieking shrilly.

Question 1.

Pick the most appropriate reason why the young gull felt dizzy.

(A) He hadn’t eaten anything for a day.
(B) He was dizzy with excitement.
(C) He was wary of heights.
(D) He was flying for the first time.
Answer:
(D) He was flying for the first time.

Explanation:
Dizzy here means giddy, a feeling which one experiences when someone is doing a new thing for the first time. Here, the young bird was flying for the first time.

Question 2.

How would you describe the screams of the gulls in the given extract?

(A) Elation
(B) Bewilderment
(C) Shock
(D) Protection
Answer:
(C) Shock

Explanation:
His parents were delighted and overjoyed, that is elated, when the young bird started flying. They were not bewildered or shocked (as they knew that he can fly). They were not trying to protect him by I flying over him, they were just expressing their joy.

Question 3.

The line “he completely forgot that he had not always been able to fly” implies the:

(A) great confidence the young gull had in his skills.
(B) naturalness of the act of flying for the young gull.
(C) satisfaction and joy of flying together as a family.
(D) desire of the young gull to leave his fears behind.
Answer:
(B) naturalness of the act of flying for the young gull.

Explanation:
Flying is natural to birds. It was just that the young bird learnt it later that the birds are made for flying.

Question 4.

The extract refers to the many movements of the young gull’s brothers and sister. Choose the option that correctly sequences these movements.

(A) The young gull’s brothers and sister flew by tilting their wings, rose high, made darting movements and plunged headfirst.
(B) The young gull’s brothers and sister flew by plunging headfirst, making darting movements, titled their wings and rose high.
(C) The young gull’s brothers and sister flew with darting movements’, titled their wings, rose high and plunged headfirst.
(D) The young gull’s brothers and sister flew by rising high, plunging headfirst, making darting movements and tilting their wings.
Answer:
(C) The young gull’s brothers and sister flew with darting movements’, titled their wings, rose high and plunged headfirst.

Explanation:
Curveting – flying with tilted wings, Banking – quick darting movements, Soaring – rising high in sky, Diving – plunging headfirst into water (to catch fish).

Question 5.

Which of the following mirrors the use of the literary device in “shrieking shrilly”?

(A) Sparkling saga
(B) Singing soft
(C) Slippery sloppily
(D) Sneeze silently
Answer:
(D) Sneeze silently

Explanation:
‘Shrieking shrilly’ and ‘Sneeze silently’ are use of alliterations.

(B) Black Aeroplane

I. Everything was going well — it was an easy flight. Paris was about 150 kilometers behind me when I saw the clouds. Storm clouds. They were huge. They looked like black mountains standing in front of me across the sky. 1 knew I could not fly up and over them, and I did not have enough fuel to fly around them to the north or south. “I ought to go back to Paris,” I thought, but I wanted to get home. 1 wanted that breakfast. ‘I’ll take the risk,’ I thought and flew that old Dakota straight into the storm.

Question 1.

Based on the given extract, choose the option that lists the name which would be the most appropriate response to “…it was an easy flight”?

(A) Option (i)
(B) Option (ii)
(C) Option (iii)
(D) Option (iv)
Answer:
(C) Option (iii)

Explanation: Before completing the flight, the narrator mentioned it as ‘an easy flight’. The later incidents show that the flight was full of adventure and suspense. So, ‘You spoke too soon’ is the best response to the comment.

Question 2.

How would you describe the “risk” the narrator took?

(A) Calculated
(B) Impetuous
(C) Unavoidable
(D) Navigable
Answer:
(B) Impetuous

Explanation:
Impetuous means impulsive or hasty. Flying the Dakota into the storm was an impulsive | decision. He could not calculate in advance the risk that he might have to face, it was avoidable as he could return to Paris and it was not navigable as he could not see far due to thick and heavy clouds.

Question 3.

In what way might the reference to the Dakota as “old” be relevant?

(A) Its antique value made it expensive and precious to the narrator.
(B) It is employed by the narrator as a term of endearment.
(C) It did not have enough fuel to fly around the storm clouds.
(D) Its ability to negotiate the storm clouds might have been suspected.
Answer:
(D) Its ability to negotiate the storm clouds might have been suspected.

Explanation:
‘Old’ here has been used to refer to its inability to stand heavy storms during flight as estimated by the narrator.

Question 4.

Read the statements given below, and then select the option that best describes the given statements.
Statement I – The narrator’s desire to reach home and see his family made him complacent.
Statement II – The narrator was unaware of the threat that the adversarial storm clouds presented.
Statement III – The narrator’s decision making was quick, but irresponsible as well as dangerous.

(A) Statement I is False, Statement II is True, Statement III cannot be inferred.
(B) Statement I and III are True, Statement II cannot be inferred.
(C) Statement I cannot be inferred, Statement II is False, Statement III is True.
(D) Statement I and II are False, Statement III is True.
Answer:
(C) Statement I cannot be inferred, Statement II is False, Statement III is True.

Explanation:
The passage does not mention that the narrator was content satisfied, that is complacent or not before reaching and meeting his family, so, Statement cannot be inferred. The narrator was aware of 8 the threat he might have to face. The phrases like ‘old Dakota’ and ‘ will take the risk’ indicate the fact. So, statement II is false. The narrator’s decision was impulsive, so statement III is true.

Question 5.

Select the correct option to fill in the blanks below
risk:……………. risky:…………..

(A) danger: dangerously
(B) hazard: hazardous
(C) peril: imperilled
(D) caution : precaution
Answer:
(B) hazard: hazardous

Explanation:
Following the pattern of risk: risky, the correct patterns would be danger: dangerous, hazard : hazardous, peril: perilous and caution: cautious. So, option (b) is correct.

II. I was safe! turned to look for my friend in the black aeroplane, but the sky was empty. There was nothing there. The black aeroplane was gone. i could not see it anywhere. I landed and was not sorry to walk away from the old Dakota near the control tower. I went and asked a woman in the control centre where I was and who the other pilot was. I wanted to say Thank you’. She looked at me very strangely, and then laughed. “Another aeroplane? Up there in this storm? No other aeroplanes were flying tonight. Yours was the only one I could see on the radar.” So, who helped me…

Question 1.

Select the option that correctly tracks the progression of emotions experienced by the narrator in the given extract.

(A) excited – surprised – relieved – grateful – perplexed
(B) relieved – confused – curious – dejected – panic-stricken
(C) optimistic – lonely – calm – elated – appreciative
(D) triumphant – reassured- inquisitive – thankful – uncertain
Answer:
(A) excited – surprised – relieved – grateful – perplexed

Explanation:
The correct track of expressions is excited (to come out of the storm), surprised (to see the empty sky and at absence of the black aeroplane), relieved (to land safely in old Dakota), grateful (towards the other pilot who guided him to safety) and perplexed (to know-that there were no other aeroplanes flying that night).

Question 2.

Why do you think the woman in the control centre laughed?

(A) She found the narrator funny.
(B) She thought his question preposterous.
(C) She thought he was teasing her.
(D) She was relieved the narrator was safe.
Answer:
(B) She thought his question preposterous.

Explanation:
She thought that the narrator was an experienced pilot and yet, he wanted to meet the other pilot, scheduled to land at the same time when there was no aeroplane in sight. So, she thought that he was trying to be funny. Preposterous means absurd, she had no sympathy with safe landing of narrator as she was not aware of the danger he had faced and he was surely not trying to tease her as indicated in the story.

Question 3.

Filled with questions, the narrator decides to place an advertisement in the local newspaper to look for his “friend”. Read the advertisement given below and select the option that includes the most appropriate solutions for the blanks:

Looking for a pilot of a black aeroplane who (i)…………. an old Dakota out of storm clouds late last night, but (ii)………….. before the Dakota pilot could express his gratitude after landing. Though control centre and radar did not (iii)…………….its presence, the Dakota pilot would really appreciate if his friend reached out. Please contact the Dakota pilot at 5200100110. In deep gratitude and eager (iv) ………….. XXX.

(A) (i) guided; (ii) disappeared; (iii) register; (iv) anticipation
(B) (i) took; (ii) landed; (iii) acknowledge; (iv) appreciation
(C) (i) brought; (ii) went away; (iii) confirm; (iv) expectation
(D) (i) helped; (ii) vanish; (iii) make note; (iv) excitement

Answer:
(C) (i) brought; (ii) went away; (iii) confirm; (iv) expectation
Explanation:
The black aeroplane helped and showed way – guided Later on, the narrator was not able to see the aeroplane because it – disappeared The radar and control centre did not know about its presence, they did not – registerThe narrator expected to hear about the pilot and the black aeroplane – anticipation

Question 4.

The narrator exclaimed that he was “safe”. Which of the following represented the most immediate threat to the narrator’s safety?

(A) The black mountain-like storm cloud
(B) The depletion of fuel in the last fuel tank
(C) Being lost due to non-functioning equipment
(D) The old rattling Dakota aeroplane
Answer:
(B) The depletion of fuel in the last fuel tank

Explanation:
The pilots are used to flying in bad weather conditions also, so storm cloud was not a major threat. The non-functioning equipment was also not a threat. The narrator was comfortable in flying the Dakota, so he was not afraid of that too. The near empty fuel tank was a major threat to the safety of the I narrator.

Question 5.

Choose the option that correctly matches the idioms in Column A to the story’s events in Column B:

Column A – Idioms	Column B – Story events
1. Every cloud has a silver lining.	(i) The narrator really wanted to have a hearty English breakfast, even though he really ought to have turned back.
2. To be on cloud nine.	(ii) The man in the other plane waved at the narrator and asked him to follow closely, drawing him out.
3. To have your head in the clouds.	(iii) The compass and other instruments stopped working. The radio was dead too.
4. Gathering clouds.	(iv) And there it was – the well-lit runway. An airport. The narrator could safely land.

1. Every cloud has a silver lining. (i) The narrator really wanted to have a hearty English breakfast, even though he really ought to have turned back.
2. To be on cloud nine. (ii) The man in the other plane waved at the narrator and asked him to follow closely, drawing him out.
3. To have your head in the clouds. (iii) The compass and other instruments stopped working. The radio was dead too.
4. Gathering clouds. (iv) And there it was – the well-lit runway. An airport. The narrator could safely land.

(A) l-(iv); 2-(iii); 3-(ii); 4-(i)
(B) l-(iii); 2-(i); 3-(iv); 4-(ii)
(C) l-(i); 2-(ii); 3-(iii); 4-(iv)
(D) l-(ii); 2-(iv); 3-(i); 4-(iii)
Answer:
(C) l-(i); 2-(ii); 3-(iii); 4-(iv)

Explanation:
Every cloud has a silver lining means – every difficult situation has some hope – the narrator was lost in storm clouds and the black aeroplane came to guide him. To being on cloud nine means – being elated or feeling too happy – the narrator saw the airport and runway and landed safely.To have your head in clouds means – being absent minded – the narrator should have turned back but absentmindedly moved forward to have a hearty breakfast at home.Gathering clouds means – upcoming dangers – the equipment of narrator’s plane have stopped working.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 English with Answers

Two Stories about Flying Class 10 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 3 Read More »

Nelson Mandela Long Walk to Freedom Class 10 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 2

MCQ Questions / Prasanna

MCQ Questions for Class 10 English First Flight Chapter 2 Nelson Mandela Long Walk to Freedom with Answers

I. “We, who were outlaws not so long ago, have today been given the rare privilege to be host to the nations of the world on our own soil. We thank all of our distinguished international guests for having come to take possession with the people of our country of what is, after all, a common victory for justice, for peace, for human dignity.”

Question 1.

The guests at the spectacular ceremony are being called distinguished because :

(A) they have been invited as guests to attend it.
(B) they are eminent world leaders witnessing it.
(C) they are visiting the country for this purpose.
(D) they have resumed diplomatic relations with the country.
Answer:
(B) they are eminent world leaders witnessing it.

Explanation:
‘Distinguished’ here means ‘someone different from the common’. The guest list consisted of some prominent and well-known leaders of the world.

Question 2.

It is a victory for ‘human dignity’. Pick the option that lists the correct answer for what ‘human dignity would include.

(A) (i) equality (ii) liberty (iii) indecency
(B) (i) liberty (ii) indecency (iii) self-respect
(C) (i) immorality (ii) self-respect (iii) equality
(D) (i) equality (ii) liberty (iii) self-respect
Answer:
(D) (i) equality (ii) liberty (iii) self-respect

Explanation:
In Options (A) and (B), indecency means not decent, which is against human dignity. In Option (C) immorality or not being moral is also against human dignity. The virtues of equality, liberty and selfrespect best define human dignity.

Question 3.

Why does the speaker say that it is a ‘rare privilege’? He says this as they have

(A) been deprived of this honour.
(B) seldom been given this honour.
(C) experienced it for the first time.
(D) been chosen over other countries, for this honour.
Answer:
(C) experienced it for the first time.

Explanation:
After decades of resentment, the Blacks have got equal rights as the Whites. It was the first time that those generations were experiencing this.

Question 4.

How do you think the speaker feels? Choose the option that best fits his state of mind.

(A) (i) emotional (ii) elated (iii) unmindful
(B) (i) elated (ii) unmindful (iii) overwhelmed
(C) (i) overwhelmed (ii) elated (iii) honoured
(D) (i) elated (ii) honoured (iii) unmindful
Answer:
(C) (i) overwhelmed (ii) elated (iii) honoured

Explanation:
Unmindful means careless or forgetful. The speaker is recalling years of struggle and is asking his fellow citizens to maintain this freedom carefully. So, all the options (A), (B) and (D) express unmindfulness as feeling of the speaker which is not correct.

Question 5.

Pick the option that showcases the usage of ‘host’ as in the extract.

(A) He was praised for his hospitality as the host of the party.
(B) She was able to host the event without any hindrance.
(C) She met the host and apologised for her friend’s misbehaviour.
(D) He is the best host that one can ever come across.
Answer:
(B) She was able to host the event without any hindrance.

Explanation:
In options, (A), (C) and (D), ‘host’ is used as a noun and referring to a person. In the extract, ‘host’ is used as a verb meaning organising an event and inviting others to join which is the same as used in option (B).

II. “It was only when began to learn that my boyhood freedom was an illusion, when discovered as a young man that my freedom had already been taken from me, that began to hunger for it. At first as a student, wanted freedom only for myself, the transitory freedoms of being able to stay out at night, read what pleased and go where chose. Later, as a young man in Johannesburg, yearned for the basic and honourable freedoms…”

Question 1.

The title that best suits this extract is;

(A) Freedom for Everything
(B) Knowledge about Freedom
(C) Significance of Freedom
(D) Realisation of Freedom
Answer:
(C) Significance of Freedom

Explanation:
The extract explains why freedom is important and what it means to those who are not free. So, significance of freedom is the correct title for the extract.

Question 2.

Why do you think the speaker mentions some freedoms as ‘transitory?

(A) The freedoms are momentary and keep changing with time.
(B) The definition of freedom is constant but perspectives differ.
(C) Freedom means different things to different people.
(D) Freedom is not that important after a certain age.
Answer:
(A) The freedoms are momentary and keep changing with time.

Explanation:
‘Transitory’ means ‘temporary’ or ‘passing7. So, option (A) that states freedoms as momentary or temporary, and changing with time correct.

Question 3

Choose the option that best fits the usage of the word ‘illusion1 as used in the extract.

(A) He was never able to get past the illusion.
(B) The illusion! experienced was quite intriguing.
(C) A large mirror in the room creates an illusion.
(D) I was living under the illusion that this is possible.
Answer:
(D) I was living under the illusion that this is possible.

Explanation:
In the passage, the narrator had been living a life under a deception or misapprehension – an illusion. This similar meaning is conveyed in option (D).

Question 4

The speaker says, ’at first as a student I wanted freedom only for myself.’ Why do you think he only thought about himself?

(A) He didn’t want to think about the freedom denied to others.
(B) He was being selfish and was only bothered about himself.
(C) He didn’t think that freedom denied to him was important for others.
(D) He was too young to realise that freedom was denied to others as well. ‘
Answer:
(D) He was too young to realise that freedom was denied to others as well. ‘

Explanation:
When he was a young boy, he did not have a wider vision – he was more concerned about his personal freedom. He could not look from other people’s perspective that they too were deprived of freedom in much more important aspects than his boyish perspective.

Question 5

A part of the extract has been paraphrased. Choose the option that includes the most appropriate solution to the blanks in the given paraphrase of the extract.

The speaker’s belief about freedom, since childhood proved false. It was not until the speaker grew up to be a it.young man when it (i)…………. on him that he was (ii)……………….. of freedom. Then he began (iii)……………….

(A) (i) desired (ii) dawned (iii) depriving
(B) (i) dawned (ii) deprived (iii) desiring
(C) (i) dawned (ii) arrived (iii) desiring
(D) (i) arrived (ii) deprived (iii) dawned
Answer:Option (B) is correct. N

Explanation: Here, Dawned means emergence of a thought, Deprived means denied and desiring means wanting to have. These meanings best fit the given part of the extract.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 English with Answers

Nelson Mandela Long Walk to Freedom Class 10 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 2 Read More »

A Letter to God Class 10 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 1

MCQ Questions / Prasanna

MCQ Questions for Class 10 English First Flight Chapter 1 A Letter to God with Answers

I. The house – the only one in the entire valley – sat on the crest of a low hill. From this height one could see the river and the field of ripe corn dotted with the flowers that always promised a good harvest. The only thing the Earth needed was a downpour or at least a shower. Throughout the morning, Lencho, who knew his fields intimately-had done nothing else but see the sky towards the north-east.

Question 1.

Based on the details of the house’s location, how can it best be described?

(A) Majestic
(B) Imposing
(C) Solitary
(D) Unique
Answer:
(C) Solitary

Explanation:
The words “only one in the entire valley” mean solitary.

Question 2.

The field of corn dotted with flowers means that:

(A) not a single flower was bigger than a dot.
(B) the flowers were scattered across.
(C) the flowers were shaped like dots.
(D) the flowers had shrunk in size.
Answer:
(B) the flowers were scattered across.

Explanation:
When seen from a height, the corn field flowers appeared like dots spread or scattered all across the field.

Question 3.

Lencho wished for a downpour or a heavy shower. Pick the option that correctly lists the correct match for different kinds of rain.

(1) heavy rain	(i) light rain that falls in very fine drops
(2) thunderstorm	(ii) very heavy rain, tropical rain
(3) drizzle	(iii) it’s coming down quite strong and you get very wet very quickly
(4) torrential rain	(iv) really heavy rain that comes very suddenly
(5) downpour	(v) is a violent, short-lived weather disturbance associated with lightning, thunder and strong, gusty winds.

(A) (l)-(ii), (2)-(iv), (3)-(v), (4)-(i), 5-(iii)
(B) (l)-(iv), (2)-(i), (3)-(iii), (4)-(v), 5-(ii)
(C) (l)-(v), (2)-(iii), (3)-(iv), (4)-(ii), 5-(i)
(D) (l)-(iii), (2)-(v), (3)-(i), (4)-(ii), 5-(iv)
Answer:
(D) (l)-(iii), (2)-(v), (3)-(i), (4)-(ii), 5-(iv)

Explanation:
The correct sequence from light to heavy rainfall is – drizzle (meaning very few and fine drops of rain), heavy rain (meaning one can get easily wet in that rain), downpour (meaning heavy rain that comes suddenly and one does not have chance to reach safe dry place), torrential rain (meaning very heavy and continuous rain for a long time) and thunderstorm (meaning violet rainfall accompanied with lightning, thunder and forceful winds).

Question 4.

Based on the given extract, what is Lencho NOT likely to think while looking at his field?

(A) Option (i)
(B) Option (ii)
(C) Option (iii)
(D) Option (iv) .
Answer:
(D) Option (iv) .

Explanation:
Lencho is hopeful that after the rains, he will have a good harvest which will be more than enough than his personal requirement OF food. So, he will surely not be hoping to have a scarce harvest which will leave him arranging for more food.

Question 5.

Which quote supports the idea in the given extract? –

(A) “Farming is a profession of hope.”
(B) “I would rather be on my farm than be emperor of the world.”
(C) “Farming looks mighty easy when your plough is a pencil, and you’re a thousand miles from the corn field.”
(D) “Those too lazy to plough in the right season will have no food at the harvest.”
Answer:
(A) “Farming is a profession of hope.”

Explanation:
Option (B) is not correct as he is not thinking about any emperor or like. Option (C) is not I correct as he is not looking for a profession as a writer.

He enjoys being a farmer. Option (D) is not correct as 1 he is not thinking about anyone else’s effort but his own. So, option (A) is the correct answer.

II. When he finished, he went to the window to buy a stamp which he licked and then affixed to the envelope with a blow of his fist. The moment the letter fell into the mailbox the postmaster went to open it. It said: “God: Of the money that asked for, only seventy pesos reached me. Send me the rest, since need it very much. But don’t send it to me through the mail because the post office employees are a bunch of crooks. Lencho.

Question 1.

…bunch of crooks.’ Pick the option that DOES NOT collate with ‘bunch of, correctly.

(A) Option (i)
(B) Option (ii)
(C) Option (iii)
(D) Option (iv)
Answer:
(D) Option (iv)

Explanation:
A chain of islands is called archipelago.

Question 2.

What was the most likely response that the postmaster expected in Lencho’s second letter?

(i) Sorrowful
(ii) Gratitude
(iii) Disappointment
(iv) Elation
(v) Shock

(A) Option (ii) and (v)
(B) Option (i) and (iii)
(C) Option (ii) and (iv)
(D) Option (iii) and (v)
Answer:
(C) Option (ii) and (iv)

Explanation:
As Lencho had got some money, supposedly from God, the postmaster expected him to be thankful (full of gratitude) and delighted (full of elation). He had no reasons to be sorrowful (sad), disappointed (disheartened) and shocked (as he himself had written to God to send some money).

Question 3.

Pick the option that lists the option corresponding to—’with a blow of his fist.’

(A) Option (i)
(B) Option (ii)
(C) Option (iii)
(D) Option (iv)
Answer:
(D) Option (iv)

Explanation:
Option (i) is Good Luck or Good Job Done. Option (ii) is to show fist for punching out of anger, Option (iii) is to hit fists or getting ready to compete. Option (iv) shows punching something by blowing fist over it.

Question 4.

Lencho’s letter included :

(A) details of his problems.
(B) description of the post office.
(C) belief of being looted.
(D) List of further demands.
Answer:
(D) List of further demands.

Explanation:
He thought that God is already aware of his problems, so he need not bother God with the details. As he thought that God has fulfilled some of his demands (or rather all demand of 100 pesos out of which 30 had been retained by post office staff, he told God about what more he needed.

Question 5.

Pick the most suitable quote for this extract.

(A) “It is easier to fool people than to convince them that they have been fooled.” – Mark Twain
(B) “Real knowledge is to know the extent of one’s ignorance.”- Confucius
(C) “You see a person’s true colours when you are no longer beneficial to their life.”- Anonymous
(D) “True generosity means accepting ingratitude.” Coco Channel
Answer:
(D) “True generosity means accepting ingratitude.” Coco Channel

Explanation:
Generosity means doing good without expecting good in return. So accepting ingratitude or thanklessness is also a part of true generosity.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 English with Answers

A Letter to God Class 10 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 1 Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy

MCQ Questions / Prasanna

Globalisation and the Indian Economy Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Question 1.

Read the given statements in context of ‘globalization’ and choose the correct option:

(A) It is the only way for economic development of the country
(B) Interlinks only production based activities in dispersed locations in the world
(C) It has always given only positive results in all the countries
(D) Leads to spread of technology, cultures and diseases from one region to another
Answer:
(D) Leads to spread of technology, cultures and diseases from one region to another

Explanation:
Due to intermingling of people from different parts of the world, not only does the spread of technology takes place but it also leads to the intermixing of culture and spread of diseases to various parts of the world.

Question 2.

What is foreign investment?

(A) Investment made by the foreign governments
(B) Investment made by the foreign banks
(C) Investment made by the MNCs
(D) Investment made by the IMF and World Bank
Answer:
(C) Investment made by the MNCs

Question 3.

An organization whose aim is to liberate international trade is

(A) World Bank
(B) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
(C) World Trade Organisation (WTO)
(D) United Nations Organisation (UNO)
Answer:
(C) World Trade Organisation (WTO)

Explanation:
The World Trade Organization provides a common platform to negotiate trade agreements among member countries and to resolve any trade disputes.

Question 4.

What is the idea behind the development of Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in India?

(A) To boost Indian industries
(B) To solve the problem of unemployment
(C) To produce handicrafts
(D) To attract foreign investment
Answer:
(D) To attract foreign investment

Question 5.

Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government is known as

(A) Privatisation
(B) Liberalisation
(C) Globalisation
(B) Industrialisation
Answer:
(B) Industrialisation

Question 6.

When and where did the Ford Motors set up their large plant in India?

(A) In 1975 at Chennai
(B) In 1985 at Chennai
(C) In 1995 at Chennai
(D) In 2005 at Chennai
Answer:
(C) In 1995 at Chennai

Question 7.

Column A	Column B
(i) MNCs buy at cheap rates from small producers	(A) Automobiles
(ii) Quotas and taxes on imports are used to regulate trade	(B) Garments, foot-wear,sports items
(iii) Indian companies who have invested abroad	(C) Tata Motors, In- fosys, Ranbaxy
(iv) Several MNCs have invested in setting up factories in India for production	(D) Trade barriers

(A) (i)-(A),(ii)-(B),(iii)-(C),(iv)-(D)
(B) (i)-(B),(ii)-(C),(iii)-(A),(iv)-(D)
(C) (i)-(B),(ii)-(D),(iii)-(C),(iV)-(A)
(D) (i)-(A),(ii)-(C),(iii)-(D),(iv)-(B)
Answer:
(C) (i)-(B),(ii)-(D),(iii)-(C),(iV)-(A)

Explanation:
MNCs buy garments, footwear, sports items at cheap rales from small producers. because it reduces Lheir cost of production and using their brand value they sell them lhigh prices and earn profits. Quotas and taxes on imports are used to regulate trade items received through import.

Question 8.

Column A	Column B
(i) Tata Motors	(A) Nuts and Bolts
(ii) Asian Paints	(B) IT
(iii) Infosys	(C) Automobiles
(iv) Sundaram Fasten-ers	(D) Paints

(A) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)
(B) (i)-(A), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(B)
(C) (i) -(D), (ii) -(A), (iii)-(C), (iv)-(B)
(D) (i)-(C), (ii)-(B), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(D)
Answer:
(A) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)

Question 9.

Arrange the following in the correct Sequence:

(i) Meanwhile, the company’s customer care is carried out through call centres located in India.
(ii) And then has the components manufactured in China.
(iii) A large MNC, Producing industrial equipment, designs its products in research centres in the United States.
(iv) These are then shipped to Mexico and Eastern Europe where the products are assembled and the finished products are sold all over the world.
Options:
(A) (iv) – (iii) – (ii) – (i)
(B) (i) – (ii) – (iii) – (iv)
(C) (ii) – (iii) – (i) – (iv)
(D) (iii) – (ii) – (iv) – (i)
Answer:
(D) (iii) – (ii) – (iv) – (i)

Explanation:
The manufacturing process of industrial equipment begins with designing, manufacturing of components, assembling of the machine and then selling the finished product.

Question 10.

Arrange the following in the correct Sequence:

(i) A news magazine published for London readers is to be designed and printed in Delhi.
(ii) The designing is done on a Computer. After printing the magazines are sent by air to London.
(iii) The payment of money for designing and printing from a bank in London to a bank in Delhi is done instantly through the Internet (E-banking)
(iv) The text of the magazines is sent through is sent through Internet to the Delhi office The designers in Delhi office get orders on how to design the magazine from the office in London using telecommunication facilities.
Options:
(A) (iii) – (iv) – (i) – (ii)
(B) (i) – (iv) – (ii) – (iii)
(C) (iv) – (i) – (ii) – (iii)
(D) (ii) – (iv) – (iii) – (i)
Answer:
(B) (i) – (iv) – (ii) – (iii)

Explanation:
lechnological advancements have reduced the costs of transportation and communication across nations and thereby facilitate global sourcing of raw materials and other inputs. the technological advancement has helped a lot in creation and growth of a global market.

Question 11.

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options:
Though WTO is supposed to allow free trade for all, in practice, it is seen that the developed countries have unfairly retained trade barriers. On the other hand, WTO rules have forced the developing countries to remove trade barriers. An example of this is the current debate on trade in agricultural products.

(A) Trade and Commerce
(B) Agricultural products
(C) Trade barriers
(D) World Trade Organization
Answer:
(D) World Trade Organization

Question 12.

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options:
A news magazine published for London readers is to be designed and printed in Delhi. The text of the magazine is sent through Internet to the Delhi office. The designers in the Delhi office get orders on how to design the magazine from the office in London using telecommunication facilities. The designing is done on a computer. After printing, the magazines are sent by air to London. Even the payment of money for designing and printing from a bank in London to a bank in Delhi is done

(A) Fair globalisation would create opportunities for all.
(B) MNCs are playing a major role in the globalisation process.
(C) Globalisation has led to improvement in living conditions of all the people.
(D) MNCs have increased their investment in India over the past 20 years.
Answer:
(C) Globalisation has led to improvement in living conditions of all the people.

Explanation:
Globalization has led to improvement in living condition of educated, skilled and wealthy people as now they have access to the best facilities available across the globe.

Question 13.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

Explanation:
Globalization has led to improve¬ment in living condition of educated, skilled and wealthy people as now they have access to the best facilities available across the globe.

Question 14.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) MNCs play an important role in the liberalization process.
(B) MNCs control production in more than one instantly through the Internet (e-banking)
(C) MNCs compete with the local producers directly.
(D) MNCs set up their production units close to market.
Answer:
(A) MNCs play an important role in the liberalization process.

Explanation:
MNCs is not only selling its finished products globally, but more important, the goods and services are produced globally. The production process is divided into small parts and spread out across the global. Due to MNCs more and more technology, services, goods etc. are moving between countries.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions: In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is true.

Question 1.

Assertion (A): The Indian government, after independence, had put barriers to foreign trade and foreign investment.
Reason (R): The government considered it necessary to protect the producers within the country from foreign competition.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): The car manufacturing plant of Maruti Udyog Ltd in India produces cars for Indian markets.
Reason (R): It also exports cars to other developing countries and exports car components for its many factories around the world.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
It was established with the objectives of producing indigenous utility cars for the growing needs of the Indian population.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): Global production has a complex structure.
Reason (R): Production of one good may take place in different parts of the world. For instance, an equipment may be formed by combining components produced in different countries.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Globalization leads to connectivity of different countries and goods and services can be transported across the world. Goods, components produced in different parts of the world can be used for production in any country.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Local businesses may set up joint production process with MNCs and earn higher profits.
Reason (R): MNCs can provide money for additional investments, like buying new machines for faster production.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
At times, MNCs set up production jointly with some of the local companies of the host countries. The benefit to the local company from such joint production is two-fold as MNCs can provide for additional investments and can bring in newer technology of production that result in fast-paced production.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): MNCs can exert a strong influence on production at distant locations.
Reason (R): MNCs set up partnerships with local companies, use local companies for supplies, compete with the local companies or buy them up.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
By setting up partnerships with local companies, by using the local companies for supplies, by closely competing with the local companies or buying them up, MNCs are exerting a strong influence on production at distant locations. As a result, production in widely dispersed locations is getting interlinked.

Question 6.

Assertion (A): Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets.
Reason (R): Foreign trade expands the choice of goods beyond what is domestically produced.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets and thus expands the choices available for consumers.

Case-Based MCQs

I. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
India has become a second home to many multinationals’ over the years. MNCs set up offices and factories for production in regions where they can get cheap labour and other resources. This is done so that the cost of production is low and the MNCs can earn greater profits. MNCs set up production where it is close to the markets; where there is skilled and unskilled labour available at low costs; and where the availability of other factors of production is assured. But the most common route for MNC investments is to buy up local companies and then to expand production.
MNCs with huge wealth can quite easily do so. To take an example, Cargill Foods, a very large American MNC, has bought over smaller Indian companies such as Parakh Foods. Parakh Foods had built a large marketing network in various parts of India, where its brand was well-reputed. Also, Parakh Foods had four oil refineries, whose control has now shifted to Cargill.

Cargill is now the largest producer of edible oil in India, with a capacity to make 5 million pouches daily. Large MNCs in developed countries place orders for production with small producers. Garments, footwear, sports items are examples of industries where production is carried out by a large number of small producers around the world. The products are supplied to the MNCs, which then sell these under their own brand names to the customers. These large MNCs have tremendous power to determine price, quality, delivery, and labour conditions for these distant producers. Ford Motors, an American company, is one of the world’s largest automobile manufacturers with production spread over 26 countries of the world. Ford Motors came to India in 1995 and spent Rs. 1700 crore to set up a large plant near Chennai. This was done in collaboration with Mahindra and Mahindra, a major Indian manufacturer of jeeps and trucks.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option

Question 1.

In which regions MNCs set up offices and factories for production?

(A) Close to the market.
(B) Availability of skilled/unskilled labour at low cost.
(C) Favourable government policies.
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Explanation:
MNCs set up their offices and factories in those regions where they get cheap labour and other resources because they bring down the cost of production and ensure more profits for themselves.

Question 2.

Ford Motors entered the Indian automobile business in collaboration with which Indian manufacturer?

(A) Mahindra and Mahindra
(B) Tata Motors
(C) Maruti Suzuki
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Mahindra and Mahindra

Question 3.

Investment made by MNCs is called

(A) Investment
(B) Foreign trade
(C) Foreign investment
(D) Foreign direct investment
Answer:
(C) Foreign investment

Explanation:
Foreign investment refers to the investment in domestic companies and assets of another country by a foreign investor.

Question 4.

MNCs do not increase

(A) Competition
(B) Price war
(C) Quality
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(D) None of the above

II. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follows:
Globalization expands and accelerates the movement and exchange of ideas and commodities over vast distances. Globalisation has created more competitive environment in India. In the past two to three decades, more and more MNCs have been looking for locations around the world which would be cheap for their production. Foreign investment by MNCs in these countries has been rising. At the same time, foreign trade between countries has been rising rapidly. A large part of the foreign trade is also controlled by MNCs. The result of greater foreign investment and greater foreign trade has been greater integration of production and markets across countries. Globalisation is this process of rapid integration or interconnection between countries. MNCs are playing a major role in the globalisation process.

More and more goods and services, investments and technology are moving between countries. Besides the movements of goods, services, investments and technology, there is one more way in which the countries can be connected. This is through the movement of people between countries. People usually move from one country to another in search of better income, better jobs or better education. Rapid improvement in technology has been one major factor that has stimulated the Globalisation process. Even more remarkable have been the developments in information and communication technology. Globalisation and greater competition among producers both local and foreign producers – has been of advantage to consumers, particularly the well-off sections in the urban areas. There is greater choice before these consumers who now enjoy improved quality and lower prices for several products. As a result, these people today, enjoy much higher standards of living than was possible earlier. Globalisation has also created new opportunities for companies providing services, particularly those involving IT.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option

Question 1.

Process of integration of different countries is called

(A) Liberalization
(B) Privatization
(C) Globalization
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Globalization

Explanation:
Globalisation is the process of rapid integration. It integrates the country with other economies of the world through trade, capital flow and technology.

Question 2.

Globalisation has led to higher standards of living of:

(A) Well-off consumers
(B) Poor consumers
(C) Big producers
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Well-off consumers

Explanation:
There is greater choice before these consumers who now enjoy improved quality and lower prices for several products.

Question 3.

Globalisation has created new opportunities of:

(A) Employment
(B) Emerging multinationals
(C) Providing services
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Question 4.

Globalisation has posed major challenges for:

(A) Big Producers
(B) Small Producers
(C) Rural Poor
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Small Producers

Explanation:
Globalization has posed a major challenge to the small scale producers having low capital investment and poor strategies to develop. They have been hit hard due to severe competition. Several units have been shut down rendering many workers jobless.

III. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follows:
In the last twenty years, globalisation of the Indian economy has come a long way. What has been its effect on the lives of people? Let us look at some of the evidence. Globalisation and greater competition among producers – both local and foreign producers – has been of advantage to consumers, particularly the well-off sections in the urban areas. There is greater choice before these consumers who now enjoy improved quality and lower prices for several products. As a result, these people today, enjoy much higher standards of living than was possible earlier. Among producers and workers, the impact of globalisation has not been uniform. Firstly, MNCs have increased their investments in India over the past 20 years, which means investing in India has been beneficial for them. MNCs have been interested in industries such as cell phones, auto mobiles, electronics, soft drinks, fast food orservices such as banking in urban areas.

These products have a large number of well-off buyers. In these industries and services, new jobs have been created. Also, local companies supplying raw materials, etc. to these industries have prospered. Secondly, several of the top Indian companies have been able to benefit from the increased competition. They have invested in newer technology and production methods and raised their production standards. Some have gained from successful collaborations with foreign companies.

Moreover, globalisation has enabled some large Indian companies to emerge as multinationals themselves! Tata Motors (automobiles), Infosys(IT), Ranbaxy (medicines), Asian Paints (paints), Sundaram Fasteners (nuts and bolts) are some Indian companies which are spreading their operations worldwide. Globalisation has also created new opportunities for companies providing services, particularly those involving IT. The Indian company producing a magazine for the London based company and call centres are some examples. Besides, a host of services such as data entry, accounting, administrative tasks, engineering are now being done cheaply in countries such as India and are exported to the developed countries.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option

Question 1.

Why have MNCs have increased their investments in India over the past 20 years?

(A) To attract costumers
(B) To evade taxes
(C) To make use of the market potential
(D) To do social service
Answer:
(C) To make use of the market potential

Explanation:
India’s market potential, skilled workforce and political stability are the three key reasons that make India a favoured MNC destination.

Question 2.

Why do people have a preference for foreign products?

(A) They think foreign products are of better quality.
(B) They think it will improve their social status.
(C) They think the product is much cheaper than Indian product.
(D) None of the Above.
Answer:
(A) They think foreign products are of better quality.

Explanation:
Various companies and brands make similar products and this has made the consumer very confused. But people prefer to buy foreign products thinking that it is of better quality.

Question 3.

How several of the top Indian companies have been able to benefit from the increased competition?

(A) They have invested in newer technology
(B) They have no rivals in the market
(C) They get to travel the world
(D) They can work in isolation
Answer:
(A) They have invested in newer technology

Explanation:
Investment in newer technology has helped in increasing the efficiency of the companies.

Question 4.

Globalisation has been advantageous to :

(A) Consumers
(B) Producers
(C) Consumers and producers
(D) Limited sector of the society
Answer:
(C) Consumers and producers

Explanation:
Consumers now enjoy numerous choices as well as better quality since it is now an international market. Many domestic companies have improved technology and production methods due to competition from MNCs.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 3 Money and Credit

MCQ Questions / Prasanna

Money and Credit Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Question 1.

Which one of the following options describe ‘Collateral’?

(A) Double coincidence of wants
(B) Certain products for barter system
(C) Trade in barter system
(D) Asset as guarantee for loan
Answer:
(D) Asset as guarantee for loan

Explanation:
The collateral acts as a form of protection for the lender. That is, if the borrower defaults on their loan payments, the lender can seize the collateral and sell it to recoup some or all of its losses.

Question 2.

Which one of the following is not a limitation of the barter system?

(A) lack of double coincidence of wants
(B) certain products can’t be divided
(C) most often double coincidence of wants is not available
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(D) None of the above

Explanation:
Barter system had many limitations like lack of double coincidence of wants, lack of a common unit of value, difficulty of future payments or contractual payments and difficulty of storage of value and transfer of value.

Question 3.

Which one of the following was not a traditional form of money?

(A) Grains
(B) Paper notes
(C) Cattle
(D) Gold coins
Answer:
(B) Paper notes

Explanation:
Paper notes were introduced very late. Sheep, camels, and other livestock, were the first and oldest form of money.

Question 4.

Who issues currency notes in India?

(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) State Bank of India
(C) Ministry of Finance
(D) Government of India
Answer:
(A) Reserve Bank of India

Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India is Central bank. It is responsible for the issue and supply of the Indian rupee and the regulation of the Indian banking system.

Question 5.

A cheque like currency notes act as

(A) cash
(B) a store of value
(C) a medium of exchange
(D) a demand deposit
Answer:
(C) a medium of exchange

Explanation:
Money is accepted as a medium of exchange because: The currency is authorised by the government of the country. The Reserve Bank of India issues currency notes on behalf of the Central Government.

Question 6.

A deposit with a bank that can be withdrawn whenever the depositor likes to do so, is termed as-

(A) a demand deposit
(B) a time deposit
(C) a fixed deposit
(D) a legitimate deposi
Answer:
(A) a demand deposit

Question 7.

Which of the following does not constitute a part of informal credit in India?

(A) Commercial Bank
(B) Moneylenders
(C) Friends and relatives
(D) Zamindars
Answer:
(A) Commercial Bank

Explanation:
Commercial banks are a part of formal credit as the bank’s funds come from money deposited by the bank customers in saving accounts, checking accounts, money market accounts.

Question 8.

The functioning of the formal source of credit are supervised by

(A) Government of India
(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) Ministry of Finance
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) Reserve Bank of India

Explanation:

The RBI supervises the functioning of formal sources of credit in India. The RBI monitors that the banks actually maintain the required cash balance out of the deposits they receive.

Question 9.

Banks do not give loans to

(A) small farmer
(B) marginal farmers
(C) industries
(D) people without proper collateral and documents
Answer:
(D) people without proper collateral and documents

Explanation:
Banks require it to know financial condition of borrower and make sure he/ she can pay loan on time .

Question 10.

The number of members in a typical SHG varies between

(A) 5 and 10
(B) 15 and 20
(C) 15 and 25
(D) 20 and 30
Answer:
(B) 15 and 20

Explanation:
A Self-help group (SHG) is a financial intermediary committee usually composed of 15 to 20 local women or men.

Question 11.

Column A	Column B
(i) Barter system	(A) Supervises the functioning of banks
(ii) Debt-trap	(B) Commodity for commodity ex-change system
(iii) Formal sector loans	(C) Pushes the bor-rower into a situation from which recovery is very painful
(iv) Reserve Bank of India	(D) Loans from banks and coop-eratives

(A) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)
(B) (i)-(A), (ii)-(B), (iii)-(C), (iv)-(D)
(C) (i)-(B), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(C)
(D) (i)-(D), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)
Answer:
(A) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)

Question 12.

Column A	Column B
(i) Financial Formal Institutions	(A) Payments which are to be made in future
(ii) Financial Informal Institutions	(B) The actual amount of investment
(iii) Actual Investment	(C) Commercial banks, coopera-tives, Rural Banks
(iv) Deferred Payments	(D) Moneylenders, landlords, employers, rela-tives, friends etc

(A) (i)-(c), (ii) (D),-(iii) (B), (iv)-(A)
(B) (i)-(B), (ii)-(B), (iii)-(C), (iv)-(D)
(C) (i)-(B), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(C)
(D) (i)-(D), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(A),(iv)-(B)
Answer:
(A) (i)-(c), (ii) (D),-(iii) (B), (iv)-(A)

Question 13.

Arrange the following in the correct sequence:

(i) Online payment, Debit card, Credit cards
(ii) Precious metal coins (gold, silver, copper)
(iii) Grain and Cattle
(iv) Modern Currency-Paper notes and coins

Options:
(A) (iv) – (i) – (ii) – (iii)
(B) (iii) – (ii) – (i) – (iv)
(C) (iii) – (ii) – (iv) – (i)
(D) (ii) – (iv) – (iii) – (i)
Answer:
(C) (iii) – (ii) – (iv) – (i)

Explanation:
Initially grains and cattle were used as money. Before the introduction of coins, a variety of objects was used as money. Thereafter came the use of metallic coins. As time progressed, trade increased and a global market was created. With the global market came the need for a more convenient medium of exchange. Thus was born the modern forms of money – paper notes (currency) and coin. With the advancement of technology, online payments have become the new form of contactless payment.

Question 14.

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options: Rita has taken a loan of ₹ 7 lakhs from the bank to purchase a car. The annual interest rate on the loan is 14.5 per cent and the loan is to be repaid in 3 years in monthly instalments. The bank retained the papers of the new car as collateral, which will be returned to Rita only when she repays the entire loan with interest.

(A) Mode of re-payment
(B) Terms of credit
(C) Interest on loan
(D) Deposit criteria
Answer:
(B) Terms of credit

Explanation:
Terms of credit are the requirements need to be satisfied for any credit arrangements. It includes interest rate, collateral, documentation and mode of repayment. However the terms of credit vary depending upon the nature of lender, borrower and loan.

Question 15.

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options: Mohan is an agricultural labourer. There are several months in a year when he has no work and needs credit to meet his daily expenses. He depends upon his employer, the landowner for credit who charges an interest rate of 5 per cent per month. Mohan repays the money by working physically for the landowner on his farmland. Over the years his debt will

(A) Increase – because of increasing interest and non-payment of monthly amount
(B) Remain constant – as he is working for the employer but is repaying less
(C) Reduce – as amount equivalent to his salary is being counted as monthly repayment
(D) Be totally repaid – as he is repaying the debt in the form of physical labour
Answer:
(A) Increase – because of increasing interest and non-payment of monthly amount

Explanation:
Compared to the formal lenders, most of the informal lenders charge a much higher interest on loans. Thus, the cost to the borrower of informal loans is much higher.

Question 16.

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options:
Mahesh is a small farmer. He has taken a loan of ₹2 lakhs from the money leader to meet the expenses of cultivation. The annual interest rate on the loan is very high, so he is unable to repay the loan and he is caught in a debt. He has to sell a part of the land to pay off the debt.

(A) Terms of credit
(B) Interest on loan
(C) Debt-trap
(D) Mode of repayment
Answer:
(C) Debt-trap

Explanation:
Debt -trap is a situation in which a poor person falls in dept i.e he/she is not able to pay the interest rate or loans .

Question 17.

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options: Ramu is a shoe manufacturer and he wants to directly exchange shoes for rice without the use of money. Now he will have to look for a rice growing farmer who not only wants to sell rice but also wants to buy the shoes in exchange.

(A) Double coincidence of wants
(B) Goods exchange with goods
(C) Goods exchange with money
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Double coincidence of wants

Question 18.

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options: Megha has taken a loan of ₹ 6 lakhs from the bank to purchase a house. The annual interest rate on the loan is 14 per cent and the loan is to be repaid in 12 years in monthly installments. Megha had to submit to the bank, documents showing her employment records and salary before the bank agreed to give her the loan.

(A) Interest on loan
(B) Formal source of loan
(C) Informal source of loan
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) Formal source of loan

Explanation:
Formal source of loan demands the submission of collateral and all loan related documentation before processing the loan.

Question 19.

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options : A shopkeeper Sudha has to make a payment to the wholesaler and writes a cheque for a specific amount to the wholesaler. The wholesaler takes this cheque, and deposits it in his own account in the bank. The money is transferred form one bank account to another bank account in a couple of days. The transaction is completed without any payment of cash.

(A) Check payment
(B) Interest on deposits
(C) Demand deposit
(D) Money transfer
Answer:
(C) Demand deposit

Explanation:
In case of Demand Deposit deposited funds can be withdrawn at any time, without advance notice.

Question 20.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) Demand deposit share the essential features of money
(B) With demand deposit payments can be made without cash
(C) Demand deposits are safe way of money transformation
(D) Demand deposit facility is like cheque
Answer:
(D) Demand deposit facility is like cheque

Explanation:
The facility of cheques against demand deposits makes it possible to directly settle payments without the use of cash. Since demand deposits are accepted widely as a means of payment, along with currency, they constitute money in the modern economy.

Question 21.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) Banks accept deposit and also pay an amount as interest.
(B) People’s money is safe with banks.
(C) Banks provide loans only to profit-making businesses.
(D) It is easy for individuals to get credit who have savings and current account in the banks.
Answer:
(C) Banks provide loans only to profit-making businesses.

Question 22.

Find the incorrect option from the following :

(A) Poor households still depend on informal sources of credit.
(B) RBI supervises the functioning of informal sources of loans.
(C) Banks are not present everywhere in the rural areas.
(D) RBI monitors the banks in actually maintaining cash balance.
Answer:
(B) RBI supervises the functioning of informal sources of loans.

Explanation:
The RBI monitors the banks in actually maintaining cash balance. Periodically banks have to submit information to the RBI on how much they are lending to whom at what interest rate etc.

Assertion and Raeson Based MCQs

Question 1.

Assertion (A): No individual or organisation is allowed to issue currency notes in India.
Reason (R): In India, only RBI issues currency notes on behalf of the Central Government.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): Banks keeps a small proportion of their deposits as cash with themselves.
Reason (R): This is kept to meet the loan requirements of the people.

Answer:
(C) A is correct but R is wrong.

Explanation:
Banks keep only a small proportion of their deposits as cash with themselves. This is kept as a provision to pay the depositors who might come to withdraw money from the bank on any given day.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): Banks give loans not only to profit-making businesses but also to small cultivators.
Reason (R): The RBI supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
The RBI sees the the banks give loan not just to profit -‘making business and traders but also to small cultivators, small-scale industries, small borrowers, etc. Periodically, banks have to submit information to the RBI on how much they are lending, to whom, at what interest rate, etc.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Periodically, banks have to submit information to the Finance Minister on how much they are lending, to whom, at what interest rate, etc.
Reason (R): The Finance Minister monitors the banks in actually maintaining cash balance.

Answer:
(D) A is wrong and R is correct.

Explanation:
The RBI monitors that the banks actually maintain the cash balance.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): The facility of demand deposits makes it possible to settle payments without the use of cash.
Reason (R): Demand deposits are paper orders which make it possible to transfer money from one person’s account to another person’s account.

Answer:
(D) A is wrong and R is correct.

Explanation:

The facility of cheques against demand deposits makes it possible to directly settle payments without the use of cash. Since demand deposits are accepted widely as a means of payment, along with currency; they constitute money in the modern economy.

Question 6.

Assertion (A): Banks charge a higher interest rate on loans than what they offer on deposits.
Reason (R): The difference between what is charged from borrowers and what is paid to depositors is their main source of income.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Case-Based MCQs

I. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follows:
Bartering is the act of trading one good or service for another without using a medium of exchange such as money. A bartering economy differs from a monetary economy in a variety of ways. When barter was used as an exchange medium, the needs of people were very limited. This trading method doesn’t involve money and it relies solely on exchanging goods and services for other services and goods in return. The use of money spans a very large part of our everyday life. To understand the usefulness of money, we must consider what the world would be like without money. How would people exchange goods and services? Economies without money typically engage in the barter system.

Barter is highly inefficient for trying to coordinate the trades in a modern advanced economy. In an economy without money, an exchange between two people would involve a double coincidence of wants, a situation in which both the parties have to agree to sell and buy each other’s commodities. This is known as double coincidence of wants. What a person desires to sell is exactly what the other wishes to buy. In a barter system where goods are directly exchanged without the use of money, double coincidence of wants is an essential feature.

Another problem with the barter system is that it does not allow us to easily enter into future contracts for purchasing many goods and services. Money solves the problems that the barter system creates. Money serves as a medium of exchange, which means that money acts as an intermediary between the buyer and the seller. Modem forms of money include currency paper notes and coins. The other form in which people hold money is as deposits with banks.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option

Question 1.

Which of the following can be considered as modern form of Money?

(A) Paper note
(B) Gold Coins
(C) Silver Coins
(D) Copper coins
Answer:
(B) Gold Coins

Explanation:
They are accepted as a modern form of money because of government authorization.

Question 2.

Which of the following has an essential feature of double coincidence?

(A) Money system
(B) Barter system
(C) Financial system
(D) Banking system
Answer:
(B) Barter system

Explanation:
Barter system is direct exchange of goods and services. It requires the double coincidence of wants. Barter system eliminates the use of money. It generally flourishes among uncivilized and backward communities. Barter system is possible where the area of exchange is limited.

Question 3.

In a barter system:

(A) Goods are exchanged for money
(B) Goods are exchanged for foreign currency
(C) Goods are exchanged without the use of money
(D) Goods are exchanged on credit.
Answer:
(C) Goods are exchanged without the use of money

Explanation:
Barter is an act of trading goods or services between two or more parties without the use of money. Barter system involves the provision of one good or service by one party in return for another good or service from another party.

Question 4.

Which of the following feature of money acts as an intermediate in the exchange process?

(A) Medium of exchange
(B) Unit of value
(C) Store of value
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Medium of exchange

Explanation:
By serving as a medium of exchange money removes the difficulties associated with the Barter System. Money is authorised by the government of the country and nobody can legally refuse it as a medium of exchange for goods or services.

II. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
Banks use the major portion of the deposits to extend loans. There is a huge demand for loans for various economic activities. Banks make use of the deposits to meet the loan requirements of the people. In this way, banks mediate between those who have surplus funds (the depositors) and those who are in need of these funds (the borrowers). Banks charge a higher interest rate on loans than what they offer on deposits. A large number of transactions in our day-to-day activities involve credit in some form or the other. Credit (loan) refers to an agreement in which the lender supplies the borrower with money, goods or services in return for the promise of future payment. In rural areas, the main demand for credit is for crop production. Crop production involves considerable costs on seeds, fertilisers, pesticides, water, electricity, repair of equipment, etc. he various types of loans can be conveniently grouped as formal sector loans and informal sector loans. Among the former are loans from banks and cooperatives.

The informal lenders include moneylenders, traders, employers, relatives and friends, etc. The Reserve Bank of India supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans. For instance, we have seen that the banks maintain a minimum cash balance out of the deposits they receive. The RBI monitors the banks in actually maintaining cash balance. There is no organisation which supervises the credit activities of lenders in the informal sector. They can lend at whatever interest rate they choose. There is no one to stop them from using unfair means to get their money back. Compared to the formal lenders, most of the informal lenders charge a much higher interest on loans. Thus, the cost to the borrower of informal loans is much higher. In recent years, people have tried out some newer ways of providing loans to the poor. The idea is to organise rural poor, in particular women, into small Self-Help Groups (SHGs) and pool (collect) their savings.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option

Question 1.

Compared to the formal lenders, most of the informal lenders charge a much interest on loans

(A) Lower
(B) Constant
(C) Higher
(D) No interest
Answer:
(C) Higher

Explanation:
Informal lenders charges high rate interest. They make loans very expensive as they are no external organizations controlling the credit activities of lenders

Question 2.

Formal sector loans include loans from

(I) Banks
(II) Moneylenders
(ID) Cooperatives
(IV) Traders

(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (ii) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i) and (iv)
Answer:
(A) (i) and (iii)

Explanation:
These organizations provide cheap and affordable loans and their rate of interest is monitored by RBI.

Question 3.

An agreement in which the lender supplies the borrower with money, goods or services in return for the promise of future payment.

(A) Credit (loan)
(B) Chit fund
(C) Bank
(D) Cheque
Answer:
(A) Credit (loan)

Explanation:
Credit is generally defined as a contract agreement in which a borrower receives a slim of money or something of value and repays the lender at a later date, generally with interest.

Question 4.

Banks use the major portion of the deposits to

(A) Keep as a reserve so that people may withdraw
(B) Meet their routine expenses
(C) Extend loans
(D) Meet renovation of the bank
Answer:
(C) Extend loans

Explanation:
Major portion of the deposits is used by banks for extending loans to borrowers.

III. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
The use of money spans a very large part of our everyday life. Look around you and you would easily be able to identify several transactions involving money in any single day, Gan you make a list of these? In many of these transactions, goods are being bought and sold with the use of money. In some of these transactions, services are being exchanged with money. For some, there might not be any actual transfer of money taking place now but a promise to pay money later- Hayq you ever wondered why transactions are made in money? The reason is simple. A person holding money can easily exchange it for any commodity or service that he or she might want. Thus everyone prefers to receive payments in money and then exchange the money for things that they want. Take the case of a shoe manufacturer. He wants to sell shoes in the market and buy wheat. The shoe manufacturer will first exchange shoes that he has produced for money, and then exchange the money for wheat.

Imagine how much more difficult it would be if the shoe manufacturer had to directly exchange shoes for wheat without the use of money. He would have to look for a wheat growing farmer who not only wants to sell wheat but also wants to buy the shoes in exchange. That is, both parties have to agree to sell and buy each other’s commodities. This is known as double coincidence of wants. What a person desires to sell is exactly what the other wishes to buy. In a barter system where goods are directly exchanged without the use of money, double coincidence of wants is an essential feature. In contrast, in an economy where money is in use, money by providing the crucial intermediate step eliminates the need for double coincidence of wants. It is no longer necessary for the shoe manufacturer to look for a farmer who will buy his shoes and at the same time sell him wheat. All he has to do is find a buyer for his shoes. Once he has exchanged his shoes for money, he can purchase wheat or any other commodity in the market. Since money acts as an intermediate in the exchange process, it is called a medium of exchange.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option Question 1. Why transactions are made in money?

(A) Money is easy to get.
(B) Money is accepted as a medium of exchange.
(C) Everyone has money reserves in their house.
(D) All of the Above.
Answer:
(B) Money is accepted as a medium of exchange.

Explanation:
Money is accepted as a medium of exchange because the currency is authorised by the Government of India.

Question 2.

In …….. both parties have to agree to sell and buy each other’s commodities.

(A) Double Coincidence of wants
(B) Barter System
(C) Bank Regulation
(D) Personal Agreements
Answer:
(B) Barter System

Explanation:
Barter svstem is exchange of commodities of two parties, without paying or? taking money. In double coincidence of wants a person willing to sell something is bought by another person.

Question 3.

How would had the shoe manufacturer directly exchanged shoes for wheat without the use of money?

(A) Both parties have to agree to sell and buy each other’s commodities.
(B) He compels the farmer to give him wheat on compassionate grounds.
(C) He forces the farmer to take the shoes from him in exchange of wheat.
(D) He approaches the bank authorities.
Answer:
(A) Both parties have to agree to sell and buy each other’s commodities.

Explanation:
When two parties agree to sell and buy each other’s commodities, this situation is known as ‘double coincidence of wants*; That is, what a person desires to sell is exactly what the other wishes to buy. Such a situation is a feature of the barter system.

Question 4.

Why barter system is no longer practiced?

(A) Considered illegal
(B) People do not have that much things to exchange
(C) It is difficult to find two parties that have something they both want to trade
(D) Government keeps a check on such an activity
Answer:
(C) It is difficult to find two parties that have something they both want to trade

Explanation:
A barter system lacked not only a common medium of exchange but also a standard unit of account in which prices could be measured and quoted.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 3 Money and Credit Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy

MCQ Questions / Prasanna

Sectors of Indian Economy Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Question 1.

Which of the following profession belongs to the Tertiary sector of economy?

(A) Fisherman
(B) Farmer
(C) Factory worker
(D) Teacher
Answer:
(D) Teacher

Explanation:
Tertiary jobs involve providing a I service, hence teaching falls in tertiary sector.

Question 2.

Most of the agricultural labourers like Mohan depend upon loans from informal sector. Which of the following statements about this sector is correct?

(A) There are govt, bodies to supervise informal sector
(B) Money lenders ask for a reasonable rate of interest
(C) Cost of informal loans to the borrower is quite high
(D) Money lenders use fair means to get their money back.
Answer:
(C) Cost of informal loans to the borrower is quite high

Explanation:
It is because the lender in the informal sector give more money, without any collateral. In the informal sector the lender asks for a huge interest which the borrower is unable to sometimes pay back eventually falls into debt trap.

Question 3.

Production of a commodity, mostly through the natural process, is an activity in…….. sector.

(A) primary
(B) secondary
(C) tertiary
(D) information technology
Answer:
(A) primary

Explanation:
Primary activity includes those occupations which are closely related to man’s natural environment.

Question 4.

GDP is the total value of……… produced during a particular year.

(A) all goods and services
(B) all final goods and services
(C) all intermediate goods and services
(D) all intermediate and final goods and services
Answer:
(B) all final goods and services

Explanation:
GDP represents the total monetary value of all final goods and services produced (and sold on the market) within a country during a period of time (typically 1 year).

Question 5.

In terms of GDP the share of tertiary sector in 2013-14 is:

(A) between 20 to 30 percent
(B) between 30 to 40 percent
(C) between 50 to 60 percent
(D) between 60 to 70 percent
Answer:
(D) between 60 to 70 percent

Question 6.

Economic Survey is published by the:

(A) National Sample Survey Organisation
(B) Ministry of Statistics and Planning
(C) Ministry of Finance
(D) Ministry of Commerce and Trade
Answer:
(C) Ministry of Finance

Explanation:
The Economic Survey published by the Ministry of Finance presents a review of how the Indian economy performed in the financial year, features the performance of major development programmes and highlights the policy initiatives of the government.

Question 7.

The sector which has emerged as the largest producing sector in India is:

(A) Primary sector
(B) Secondary sector
(C) Tertiary sector
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Tertiary sector

Explanation:
This has happened because the demand for Tertiary sector activities like transport, storage and trade have increased substantially with the development of the Primary and Secondary sectors.

Question 8.

In our country, NREGA 2005 aims to provide to all those who are able to, and are willing to work, a minimum of

(A) 200 days of employment in a year.
(B) 100 days of employment in a year.
(C) 300 days of employment in a year.
(D) 365 days of employment in a year.
Answer:
(B) 100 days of employment in a year.

Explanation:
The mandate of the MGNREGA is to provide at least 100 days of guaranteed wage employment in a financial year to every rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work. This Act is an important step towards the realization of the right to work.

Question 9.

The sectors are classified into Public and Private sector on the basis of

(A) employment conditions
(B) the nature of economic activity
(C) ownership of enterprises
(D) number of workers employed in the enterprise
Answer:
(C) ownership of enterprises

Question 10.

Which sector of economy is the largest employer?

(A) Industrial sector
(B) Agriculture sector
(C) Primary sector
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Primary sector

Explanation:
More than half of the workers in the country are working in the primary, mainly in agriculture, producing only a quarter of the GDP

Question 11.

Which one of the following occupations suffers from underemployment?

(A) Teacher
(B) Casual labour
(C) Bank employee
(D) Police constable

Explanation:
Casual labour suffers from under employment because sometimes the supply of labourers is greater than its demand.

Question 12.

Column-I	Column-II
(i) Organised sector	(A) Railways
(ii) Public sector	(B) Tata Iron and Steel Company Limited
(iii) Private sector	(C) Agriculture and farming
(iv) Primary sector	(D) Job security

(A) (i)-(D), (ii)-(A), (iii) -(B), (iv)-(C)
(B) (i)-(D), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)
(C) (i)-(C), (ii)-(A),(iii)-(B), (iv)-(D)
(D) (i) -(B), (ii)-(c ), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(A)
Answer:
(A) (i)-(D), (ii)-(A), (iii) -(B), (iv)-(C)

Explanation:
In terms of operations, the Indian economy is divided into organized and unorganized. While for ownership, it is divided into the public sector and the private sector.

Question 13

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(i) Primary Sector	(A) Service Sector
(ii) Tertiary Sector	(B) Industrial Sector
(iii) Secondary Sector	(C) Unorganised Sector
(iv) Small and scat-tered units	(D) Agriculture and related sector

(A) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(A),(iv)-(B)
(B) (i)-(D), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(C)
(C) (i)-(C), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(D)
(D) (i)-(D), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(A),(iv)-(B)
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.

Explanation: They are three sectors in the Indian economy- primary economy, secondary economy, and tertiary economy. The various production activities in the primary, secondary and tertiary sectors produce a very large number of goods and services. All the three sectors are interdependent on each other.

Question 14.

Arrange the following in the correct sequence:

(i) Transporting cloth to the workshops
(ii) Sale in shops and showrooms
(iii) Spinning the yarn
(iv) Weaving of the fabric

Options:
(A) (i) – (iv) – (iii) – (ii)
(B) (iii) – (iv) – (i) – (ii)
(C) (iv) – (i) – (ii) – (iii)
(D) (iii) – (iv) – (ii) – (i)
Answer:
(B) (iii) – (iv) – (i) – (ii)

Explanation:
These activities contribute to the 5 textile industry which is categorized under the secondary sector. ‘I Once the raw materials are received, the process of spinning starts to convert it into varn which is the predecessor of the fabric to be created.The fibres could be natural or man-made.

Question 15.

Arrange the following in the correct sequence:

(i) Harvesting the crop
(ii) Selling the surplus production in the market
(iii) Sowing the seeds in the soil
(iv) Cultivating the soil Options:

(A) (iii) – (i) – (ii) – (iv)
(B) (i) – (ii) – (iii) – (iv) ‘
(C) (iv) – (iii) – (ii) – (i)
(D) (iii) – (iv) – (i) – (ii)
Answer:
(D) (iii) – (iv) – (i) – (ii)

Explanation:
These activities contribute to the agriculture sector which is categorized under the primary sector of the economy.

Question 16.

Arrange the following in the correct sequence:

(i) Transporting flowers to the vendors.
(ii) Plucking flowers from the plants
(iii) Selling garlands at the shops
(iv) Making garlands with flowers

Options:
(A) (ii) – (iv) – (i) – (iii)
(B) (ii) – (i) – (iv) – (iii)
(C) (i) – (ii) – (iii) – (iv)
(D) (iii) – (i) – (ii) – (iv)
Answer:
(B) (ii) – (i) – (iv) – (iii)

Explanation:
These activities belong to horticulture industry. The horticulture industry embraces the production, processing and shipping of and the market for fruits and vegetables. It is part of agriculture which falls under primary sector.

Question 17.

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options: Sushila is a worker in garment export industry of Agra. She gets facilities like health insurance provident fund, overtime at a double rate, medical leave, etc. She is working in :

(A) Tertiary sector
(B) Organised sector
(C) Unorganised sector
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) Organised sector

Explanation:
Sushila is employed in an organised sector where she works under fixed terms of employment and cannot he terminated in a casual manner without notice.

Question 18.

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options: There are many activities that are undertaken by directly using natural resources. For example, the cultivation of cotton beekeeping, dairy farming, etc.

(A) Tertiary sector
(B) Private sector
(C) Secondary sector
(D) Primary sector
Answer:
(D) Primary sector

Explanation:
The primary sector of the economy includes any industry involved in ; the extraction and prod uction of raw materials, such as farming, logging, hunting, fishing, and V mining.

Question 19.

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options: Laxmi, owning about three hectares of unirrigated land dependent only on rain and growing crops like jowar and arhar. All seven members of her family work in the field throughout the year. You will see that everyone is working, none remains idle, but in actual fact their labour effort gets divided. Each one is doing some work but no one is fully employed.

(A) Underemployment
(B) Disguised unemployment
(C) Seasonal unemployment
(D) Both (A) and (B).
Answer:
(D) Both (A) and (B).

Question 20.

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options: Kamal works in rice mill. Jobs here are low-paid and often not regular. There is no provision for overtime paid leave holidays, etc. Employment is not secure. People can be asked to leave without any reason.

(A) Organised sector
(B) Private sector
(C) Unorganized sector
(D) Joint sector
Answer:
(C) Unorganized sector

Explanation:
Unorganised sector is one where the employment terms are not fixed and regular, as well as the enterprises, are not registered with the government.

Question 21.

Rakesh works in a automobile unit in Gurugram. But he does not get any facility like health insurance, medical leave provident fund, gratuity, etc.

(A) Public sector
(B) Organised sector
(C) Private sector
(D) Unorganised sector
Answer:
(D) Unorganised sector

Explanation:
Rakesh’s works in an unorganised sector wherein his employment is not secure , he is generally low paid and is not regularly paid. His employers do not make provision for overtime payment, paid leaves or holidays, medical facilities, gratuity and provident fund.

Question 22.

Choose the incorrect option from the following :

List-I	List-II
(A) Courier	(i) Tertiary Sector
(B) Fisherman	(ii) Primary Sector
(C) Carpenter	(iii) Primary Sector
(D) Banker	(iv) Tertiary Sector

Answer:
Option (C) is correct.

Explanation:
Since carpenters use woods or timber as the main raw materials(provided by the timber industry which belongs to primary sector) to produce or manufacture furniture and other wooden structures, it falls in primary sector.

Question 23.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) Secondary sector provides employment to a large number of people.
(B) Secondary sector is also called the service sector.
(C) Secondary sector uses mechanical power and modern use of labour.
(D) Secondary sector produces goods for local and international consumers.
Answer:
(B) Secondary sector is also called the service sector.

Explanation:
Secondary sector is also called industrial because the secondary sector is mostly associated with industries.

Question 24.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) MGNREGA has been implemented in 625 districts of India
(B) MGNREGA guarantees 200 days of assured work to the people who are able and in need of work
(C) If the government fails to provide unemployment allowances to the people.
(D) One third of the jobs are reserved for women.
Answer:
(B) MGNREGA guarantees 200 days of assured work to the people who are able and in need of work

Question 25.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) Underemployment means more people engaged in a job than needed.
(B) Underemployment is found only in agricultural sector
(C) Underemployment is also called disguised unemployment.
(D) Underemployment is also found in other sectors.
Answer:
(B) Underemployment is found only in agricultural sector

Explanation:
Population pressure, landlessness, environmental constraints, and technological changes in agriculture are some of the causes of underemployment in agriculture.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions: In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as. [U]
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is true.

Question 1.

Assertion (A): Not every good or service that is produced and sold needs to be counted to know the total production in each sector.
Reason (R): The value of final goods already includes the value of all the intermediate goods.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
The value of final goods already includes the value of all intermediate goods that are being used in the process of producing the final good, e.g. a farmer sold wheat to a flourmill for Rs. 10 per kg. The mill grinds the wheat and sold the flour to a biscuit company for Rs. 12 per kg.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): Under MGNREGA 2005, those who are able to, and are in need to work in rural areas are guaranteed 100 days of employment in a year.
Reason (R): The Central government in India made a law implementing the Right to work in about 625 districts of India.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): Rakesh is an educated and skilled worker who earns a high monthly salary as he is employed in a private bank in a city.
Reason (R): All service sectors in India are growing extremely well and each individual engaged in any kind of tertiary activity earns a high income.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
In India, not the entire service sector is growing equally well. Service sector in India employs many different kinds of people. At one end there are a limited number of services that employ highly skilled and educated workers. At the other end, there are a very large number of workers engaged in services such as small shopkeepers, repair persons, transport persons, etc. These people barely manage to earn a living and yet they perform these services because no alternative opportunities for work are available to them.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): The development of agriculture and industry leads to the development of service sector.
Reason (R): As the primary and secondary sectors develops, the demand for transport, storage structures, banks, insurance, etc., increases.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): In India, over the forty years between 1973-74 and 2013-14, while production in all the three sectors has increased, it has increased the most in the tertiary sector.
Reason (R): Tertiary sector is the only organized sector in the economy so the government spends a lot of money for creating jobs in tertiary sector.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation: There are several reasons for increased production in tertiary sector such as increase in demand for education, health, communication and transportation, development of agriculture sector, increase in level of income and development of information and technology sector.

Question 6.

Assertion (A): Reliance industries is a privately- owned firm.
Reason (R): Government is a major stakeholder is reliance industries.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Reliance industry is a privately- owned firm as the assets and delivery of goods and services in Reliance is controlled by private individuals.

Case-Based MCQs

I. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follows:
There are many activities that are undertaken by directly using natural resources. When we produce a good by exploiting natural resources, it is an activity of the primary sector. Since most of the natural products we get are from agriculture, dairy, fishing, forestry, this sector is also called agriculture and related sector. The secondary sector covers activities in which natural products are changed into other forms through ways of manufacturing that we associate with industrial activity. It is the next step after primary. The product is not produced by nature but has to be made and therefore some process of manufacturing is essential. After Primary and Secondary, there is a third category of activities that falls under Tertiary sector and is different from the above two. These are activities that help in the development of the Primary and Secondary sectors. These activities, by themselves, do not produce a good but they are an aid or a support for the production process.

The various production activities in the Primary, Secondary and Tertiary sectors produce a very large number of goods and services. Also, the three sectors have a large number of people working in them to produce these goods and services. The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year provides the total production of the sector for that year. And the sum of production in the three sectors gives what is called the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of a country. It is the value of all final goods and services produced within a country during a particular year. GDP shows how big the economy is.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option

Question 1.

Production of a commodity, mostly through ways of manufacturing is an activity of which sector?

(A) Primary sector
(B) Secondary sector
(C) Tertiary sector .
(D) Norie of the above
Answer:
(B) Secondary sector

Explanation:
The secondary sector of the economy is an economic sector that describes the role of manufacturing. It encompasses industries that produce a finished, usable product or are involved in construction.

Question 2.

Which of the following is an example of Tertiary activities?

(A) Cotton
(B) Transport
(C) Sugar
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(B) Transport

Question 3.

Which of the following statement is not true?

(A) When we produce a good by exploiting natural resources, it is an activity of the Primary Sector.
(B) The Secondary sector covers activities in which natural products are changed into other forms through ways of manufacturing.
(C) Service sector is also called the industrial sector.
(D) None of the above.
Answer:
(C) Service sector is also called the industrial sector.

Explanation:
Secondary sector is also called industrial because the secondary sector is mostly associated with industries. For example, textile industry, steel industry, etc.

Question 4.

Match the following list of occupations with their sectors:

Occupation	Sector
1. Workers in wood factory	(i) Primary
2. Dairy	(ii) Secondary
3. Banking	(iii) Tertiary

(A) 1 – (i), 2 – (iii), 3 – (ii)
(B) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iii)
(C) 1 – (iii), 2 – (ii), 3 – (i)
(D) None of the above.
Answer:
(B) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iii)

I. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
Rajesh works in a bank as a bank manager. He goes regularly to his bank and attends his bank services from 9.00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m. He gets his salary at the end of every month. In addition to the salary he also gets provident fund as per the rules laid down by the government. He also gets earned leaves, sick leaves and casual leaves. Apart from leaves, he receives medical and other allowances. Rajesh does not go to bank on Saturdays and Sundays. This is a paid holiday. When he joined bank, he was given an appointment letter stating all the terms and conditions of work and his job is secure.

Ram is Rajesh’s neighbour. He is a daily wage labourer in a nearby grocery shop. He goes to the shop at 7:00 am in the morning and works till 10:00 p.m. in the evening. He gets no other allowances apart from his wages. He is not paid for the days he does not work. He has therefore no leave or paid holidays. Nor was he given any formal appointment letter saying that he has been employed in the shop. He can be asked to leave anytime by his employer if his job is not found satisfactory. His job is not secure. Rajesh works in the organized sector whereas Ram works in an unorganized sector.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option

Question 1.

Which of the following statement is not true with respect to organized sector?

(A) Organized sector is registered by the government
(B) In organized sector the workers enjoy the security of employment
(C) In organized sector workers does not get several benefits
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(C) In organized sector workers does not get several benefits

Explanation:
Workers in the organised sector get paid leave, payment during holidays, provident fund, gratuity etc

Question 2.

Which of the following statements is an example of unorganised sector activities?

(A) A teacher taking classes in a school
(B) A daily wage labourer working under a contractor
(C) A doctor in a hospital treating a patient
(D) A factory worker going to work in a big factory
Answer:
(B) A daily wage labourer working under a contractor

Explanation:
The unorganized sector jobs are mostly exemplified by daily wage employment or temporary hired labor work which usually does not have a fixed salary or income such as in any organized employment.

Question 3.

In the rural areas, the unorganized sector mostly comprises of

(A) Landless agricultural labourers
(B) Small and marginal farmers
(C) Sharecroppers and artisans
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Explanation:
Most of the people working in unorganised sector belong to backward communities. These workers face social discrimination. Their terms of employment render them liable to be terminated at any time.

Question 4.

In the urban areas, unorganised sector comprises mainly of

(A) Workers in small-scale industry
(B) Casual workers in construction
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Both (A) and (B)

Explanation:
These workers come to rural areas in search of employment.

II. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
With so many thousands of goods and services produced, you might think this is an impossible task! Not only would the task be enormous, you might also wonder how we can add up cars and computers and nails and furniture. It won’t make sense You are right in thinking so. To get around this problem, economists suggest that the values of goods and services should be used rather than adding up the actual numbers. For example, if 10,000 kgs of wheat is sold at Rs 8 per kg, the value of wheat will be Rs 80,000. The value of 5000 coconuts at Rs 10 per coconut will be Rs 50,000. Similarly, the value of goods and services in the three sectors are calculated, and then added up. Remember, there is one precaution one has to take. Not every good (or service) that is produced and sold needs to be counted. It makes sense only to include the final goods and services.

Take, for instance, a farmer who sells wheat to a flour mill for Rs 8 per kg. The mill grinds the wheat and sells the flour to a biscuit company for Rs 10 per kg. The biscuit company uses the flour and things such as sugar and oil to make four packets of biscuits. It sells biscuits in the market to the consumers for Rs 60 (Rs 15 per packet). Biscuits are the final goods, i.e., goods that reach the consumers. Why are only ‘final goods and services’ counted? In contrast to final goods, goods such as wheat and the wheat flour in this example are intermediate goods. Intermediate goods are used up in producing final goods and services. The value of final goods already includes the value of all the intermediate goods that are used in making the final good. Hence, the value of Rs 60 for the biscuits (final good) already includes the value of flour (Rs 10). Similarly, the value of all other intermediate goods would have been included. To count the value of the flour and wheat separately is therefore not correct because then we would be counting the value of the same things a number of times.

First as wheat, then as flour and finally as biscuits. The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year provides the total production of the sector for that year. And the sum of production in the three sectors gives what is called the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of a country. It is the value of all final goods and services produced within a country during a particular year. GDP shows how big the economy is. In India, the mammoth task of measuring GDP is undertaken by a central government ministry. This Ministry, with the help of various government departments of all the Indian states and union territories, collects information relating to total volume of goods and services and their prices and then estimates the GDP

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option

Question 1.

What method does the Economists suggest in counting the various goods and services?

(A) Value of goods and services should be used rather than adding up the actual numbers.
(B) Values of actual numbers to be used.
(C) Values of intermediate goods to be used.
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(A) Value of goods and services should be used rather than adding up the actual numbers.

Explanation:
The value of final goods already includes the value of all intermediate goods that are being used in the process of producing the final good, e.g. a farmer sold wheat to a flour mill for Rs. 10 per kg. The mill grinds the wheat and sold the flour to a biscuit company for Rs. 12 per kg.

Question 2.

What is the role of Central government Ministry in measuring GDP?

(A) Collects information relating to total volume of goods and services and their prices and then estimates the GDP
(B) Collects targets relating to total volume of goods and services and their prices and then defines the GDP
(C) Collects estimates relating to total volume of goods and services and their prices and then sums up the GDE
(D) Collects information relating to GDP then estimates the total value of goods and services.
Answer:
(A) Collects information relating to total volume of goods and services and their prices and then estimates the GDP

Explanation:
In India, the task of measuring GDP is undertaken by a Central Government Ministry. This ministry, with the help of various government departments of all the Indian states and union territories, collects information relating to total volume of goods and services and their prices and then estimates the GDP ‘

Question 3.

Why not every good (or service) that is produced and sold needs to be counted?

(A) Because the value of intermediate goods only includes the value of all the intermediate goods
(B) Because the value of final goods already includes the value of all the intermediate goods.
(C) Because the value of intermediate goods already includes the value of all the final goods.
(D) Because the valueof services goods already includes the value of all the intermediate goods.
Answer:
(B) Because the value of final goods already includes the value of all the intermediate goods.

Question 4.

Give an example of intermediate goods.

(A) Wheat
(B) Flour
(C) Bread
(D) Biscuit
Answer:
(A) Wheat

Explanation:
Wheat used by a flour mill is an intermediate product since wheat is used as raw material by flour mill. Value is yet to be added to wheat by converting it into flour.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy Read More »

MCQ Questions

MCQ Questions for Class 10 English First Flight Chapter 3 Two Stories about Flying with Answers

Based on the given sentence, pick the option that corresponds to what human parents would say. ‘While his parents circled around raising a proud cackle.’

Which option lists the image nearest to ‘skim the waves’

Imagine that the young gull attended a workshop on inspiration and confidence building and received a couple of pieces of advice.

Which of the following feelings did the young gull, NOT feel according to the given context? “…all day long, he had watched his parents flying about with his brothers and sister…”

Select the most appropriate option for the following: devour: guzzle: nibble :

Pick the most appropriate reason why the young gull felt dizzy.

How would you describe the screams of the gulls in the given extract?

The line “he completely forgot that he had not always been able to fly” implies the:

The extract refers to the many movements of the young gull’s brothers and sister. Choose the option that correctly sequences these movements.

Which of the following mirrors the use of the literary device in “shrieking shrilly”?

Based on the given extract, choose the option that lists the name which would be the most appropriate response to “…it was an easy flight”?

How would you describe the “risk” the narrator took?

In what way might the reference to the Dakota as “old” be relevant?

Select the correct option to fill in the blanks below risk:……………. risky:…………..

Select the option that correctly tracks the progression of emotions experienced by the narrator in the given extract.

Why do you think the woman in the control centre laughed?

Filled with questions, the narrator decides to place an advertisement in the local newspaper to look for his “friend”. Read the advertisement given below and select the option that includes the most appropriate solutions for the blanks:

The narrator exclaimed that he was “safe”. Which of the following represented the most immediate threat to the narrator’s safety?

Choose the option that correctly matches the idioms in Column A to the story’s events in Column B:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 English First Flight Chapter 2 Nelson Mandela Long Walk to Freedom with Answers

The guests at the spectacular ceremony are being called distinguished because :

It is a victory for ‘human dignity’. Pick the option that lists the correct answer for what ‘human dignity would include.

Why does the speaker say that it is a ‘rare privilege’? He says this as they have

How do you think the speaker feels? Choose the option that best fits his state of mind.

Pick the option that showcases the usage of ‘host’ as in the extract.

The title that best suits this extract is;

Why do you think the speaker mentions some freedoms as ‘transitory?

Choose the option that best fits the usage of the word ‘illusion1 as used in the extract.

The speaker says, ’at first as a student I wanted freedom only for myself.’ Why do you think he only thought about himself?

A part of the extract has been paraphrased. Choose the option that includes the most appropriate solution to the blanks in the given paraphrase of the extract.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 English First Flight Chapter 1 A Letter to God with Answers

Based on the details of the house’s location, how can it best be described?

The field of corn dotted with flowers means that:

Lencho wished for a downpour or a heavy shower. Pick the option that correctly lists the correct match for different kinds of rain.

Based on the given extract, what is Lencho NOT likely to think while looking at his field?

Which quote supports the idea in the given extract? –

…bunch of crooks.’ Pick the option that DOES NOT collate with ‘bunch of, correctly.

What was the most likely response that the postmaster expected in Lencho’s second letter?

Pick the option that lists the option corresponding to—’with a blow of his fist.’

Lencho’s letter included :

Pick the most suitable quote for this extract.

Globalisation and the Indian Economy Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Read the given statements in context of ‘globalization’ and choose the correct option:

What is foreign investment?

An organization whose aim is to liberate international trade is

What is the idea behind the development of Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in India?

Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government is known as

When and where did the Ford Motors set up their large plant in India?

Arrange the following in the correct Sequence:

Arrange the following in the correct Sequence:

Find the incorrect option from the following:

Find the incorrect option from the following:

Assertion (A): The Indian government, after independence, had put barriers to foreign trade and foreign investment. Reason (R): The government considered it necessary to protect the producers within the country from foreign competition.

Assertion (A): The car manufacturing plant of Maruti Udyog Ltd in India produces cars for Indian markets. Reason (R): It also exports cars to other developing countries and exports car components for its many factories around the world.

Assertion (A): Global production has a complex structure. Reason (R): Production of one good may take place in different parts of the world. For instance, an equipment may be formed by combining components produced in different countries.

Assertion (A): Local businesses may set up joint production process with MNCs and earn higher profits. Reason (R): MNCs can provide money for additional investments, like buying new machines for faster production.

Assertion (A): MNCs can exert a strong influence on production at distant locations. Reason (R): MNCs set up partnerships with local companies, use local companies for supplies, compete with the local companies or buy them up.

Assertion (A): Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets. Reason (R): Foreign trade expands the choice of goods beyond what is domestically produced.

In which regions MNCs set up offices and factories for production?

Ford Motors entered the Indian automobile business in collaboration with which Indian manufacturer?

Investment made by MNCs is called

MNCs do not increase

Process of integration of different countries is called

Globalisation has led to higher standards of living of:

Globalisation has created new opportunities of:

Globalisation has posed major challenges for:

Why have MNCs have increased their investments in India over the past 20 years?

Why do people have a preference for foreign products?

How several of the top Indian companies have been able to benefit from the increased competition?

Globalisation has been advantageous to :

Money and Credit Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Which one of the following options describe ‘Collateral’?

Which one of the following is not a limitation of the barter system?

Which one of the following was not a traditional form of money?

Who issues currency notes in India?

A cheque like currency notes act as

A deposit with a bank that can be withdrawn whenever the depositor likes to do so, is termed as-

Which of the following does not constitute a part of informal credit in India?

Which of the following feelings did the young gull, NOT feel according to the given context?
“…all day long, he had watched his parents flying about with his brothers and sister…”

Select the correct option to fill in the blanks below
risk:……………. risky:…………..

Assertion (A): The Indian government, after independence, had put barriers to foreign trade and foreign investment.
Reason (R): The government considered it necessary to protect the producers within the country from foreign competition.

Assertion (A): The car manufacturing plant of Maruti Udyog Ltd in India produces cars for Indian markets.
Reason (R): It also exports cars to other developing countries and exports car components for its many factories around the world.

Assertion (A): Global production has a complex structure.
Reason (R): Production of one good may take place in different parts of the world. For instance, an equipment may be formed by combining components produced in different countries.

Assertion (A): Local businesses may set up joint production process with MNCs and earn higher profits.
Reason (R): MNCs can provide money for additional investments, like buying new machines for faster production.

Assertion (A): MNCs can exert a strong influence on production at distant locations.
Reason (R): MNCs set up partnerships with local companies, use local companies for supplies, compete with the local companies or buy them up.

Assertion (A): Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets.
Reason (R): Foreign trade expands the choice of goods beyond what is domestically produced.

Assertion (A): No individual or organisation is allowed to issue currency notes in India.
Reason (R): In India, only RBI issues currency notes on behalf of the Central Government.

Assertion (A): Banks keeps a small proportion of their deposits as cash with themselves.
Reason (R): This is kept to meet the loan requirements of the people.

Assertion (A): Banks give loans not only to profit-making businesses but also to small cultivators.
Reason (R): The RBI supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans.

Assertion (A): Periodically, banks have to submit information to the Finance Minister on how much they are lending, to whom, at what interest rate, etc.
Reason (R): The Finance Minister monitors the banks in actually maintaining cash balance.

Assertion (A): The facility of demand deposits makes it possible to settle payments without the use of cash.
Reason (R): Demand deposits are paper orders which make it possible to transfer money from one person’s account to another person’s account.

Assertion (A): Banks charge a higher interest rate on loans than what they offer on deposits.
Reason (R): The difference between what is charged from borrowers and what is paid to depositors is their main source of income.

Assertion (A): Not every good or service that is produced and sold needs to be counted to know the total production in each sector.
Reason (R): The value of final goods already includes the value of all the intermediate goods.

Assertion (A): Under MGNREGA 2005, those who are able to, and are in need to work in rural areas are guaranteed 100 days of employment in a year.
Reason (R): The Central government in India made a law implementing the Right to work in about 625 districts of India.