MCQ Questions

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 1 Planning in Sports Part 2

Planning in Sports Class 12 MCQ Questions Part 2

Question 1.

In which tournament, strong teams may have the possibility to be eliminated in the preliminary round?

(a) League tournament
(b) Knock-out tournament
(c) Challenge tournament
(d) League cum league tournament
Answer:
(b) Knock-out tournament

Question 2.

Which among the following is not the type of tournament?

(a) Elimination
(b) Knock-in
(c) Round-robin
(d) Combination
Answer:
(b) Knock-in

Question 3.

To avoid competing in the initial round which of the following is correct?

(a) Bye
(b) Special seeding
(c) Seeding
(d) Fixture
Answer:
(c) Seeding

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 1 Planning in Sports Part 2

Question 4.

Schedules fixed for the matches to be played their time, place, date and court, et(c) known as:

(a) bye
(b) fixture
(c) advantage
(d) seeding
Answer:
(b) fixture

Question 5.

Generally in a knock-out tournament, the fixture is drawn by:

(a) by team performance
(b) lots
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Lots

Question 6.

Consolation tournament is a type of:

(a) knock-out tournament
(b) league tournament
(c) combination
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) knock-out tournament

Question 7.

Bye is given when:

(a) there are a large number of teams
(b) league tournament
(c) advantage not to play in the first round
(d) there are an odd number of teams
Answer:
(d) there are an odd number of teams

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 1 Planning in Sports Part 2

Question 8.

In knock-out tournament team must:

(a) play a large number of matches
(b) play one match
(c) get bye
(d) play till they are winning
Answer:
(d) play till they are winning

Question 9.

Allotment of the bye is on basis of:

(a) performance
(b) random draws
(c) first came first serve
(d) pre-decided sequence

Answer:
(b) random draws

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 1 Planning in Sports Part 2

Question 10.

If there are Seven total matches in a single knock-out tournament. The total number of teams are:

(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 6
(d) 7
Answer:
(a) 8

Question 11.

Once the team is defeated and eliminated out of the tournament is called:

(a) League tournament
(b) Knock-out tournament
(c) Combination tournament
(d) Challenge tournament
Answer:
(b) Knock-out tournament

Question 12.

If the total no. of teams are 11 in a league tournament, then the total no. of rounds are:

(a) 11
(b) 10
(c) 9
(d) 12
Answer:
(a) 11

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 1 Planning in Sports Part 2

Question 13.

Seeding is a procedure by which good teams are placed in fixtures in such a way that stronger teams do not meet each other at the of a tournament.

(a) start
(b) middle
(c) end
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) start

Question 14.

Special seeding is a method of seeding in which certain players of teams participate in the

(a) Quarter-final
(b) semi-final
(c) Both (a) and
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 1 Planning in Sports Part 2

Question 15.

…………. is a privilege given to a team which is decided generally by seeding it or by drawing of lots.

(a) Leg bye
(b) Bye
(c) Extra
(d) Wide
Answer:
(b) Bye

Question 16.

………… committees need to form organising committee of a tournament.

(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Five
(d) Many
Answer:
(d) Many

Question 17.

Seeding is decided on the basis of:

(a) previous performance
(b) advance performance
(c) good performance
(d) bad Performance
Answer:
(a) previous performance

Question 18.

In the placement of Byes, IV Bye is given to whom:

(a) 1st team of the lower half
(b) 1st team of the upper half
(c) Last team of the upper half
(d) Last team of the lower half
Answer:
(c) Last team of the upper half

Question 19.

The privilege given to outstanding teams to straight away compete in Quarter-finals or semi-finals is:

(a) special seeding
(b) consolation
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) special seeding

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 1 Planning in Sports Part 2

Question 20.

Which of the following is not a type of tournament?

(a) Knock-out tournament
(b) League tournament
(c) Cash tournament
(d) Challenge tournament
Answer:
(c) Cash tournament

Question 21.

Which is the odd one in terms of various causes?

(a) Knock-out
(b) League
(c) Combination of tournament
(d) Challenging tournament
Answer:
(d) Challenging tournament

Question 22.

If 8 teams are participating in single league tournaments. What would be the total number of matches?

(a) 24
(b) 26
(c) 30
(d) 28
Answer:
(d) 28

Question 23.

Which of the following is not a type of tournament?

(a) Round-robin
(b) Knock-out
(c) Challenge
(d) Staircase
Answer:
(d) Staircase

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 1 Planning in Sports Part 2

Question 24.

A ……….. tournament is a form of combination tournament.

(a) double elimination
(b) league-cum-knock-out
(c) consolation
(d) staircase
Answer:
(b) league-cum-knock-out

Question 25.

Which of the following is not a form of the league-type tournament?

(a) Round-robin
(b) Double league
(c) Cyclic
(d) Single league
Answer:
(c) Cyclic

Question 26.

Out of the following methods, by which one is, the winner of a single league tournament decided?

(a) British method
(b) Consolation method
(c) American method
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (c)

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 1 Planning in Sports Part 2

Question 27.

Which of the following procedures is not used for drawing up fixtures in a league tournament?

(a) Tabular method
(b) Seeding method
(c) Staircase method
(d) Cyclic method
Answer:
(b) Seeding method

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 1 Planning in Sports Part 2

Question 28.

In a double league tournament, a total of how many matches are played during the league phase if 7 teams participate?

(a) 72
(b) 42
(c) 21
(d) 32 .
Answer:
(b) 42

Question 29.

Which of these is also known as round-robin tournament?

(a) League
(b) Consolation
(c) Combination
(d) Challenge
Answer:
(a) League

Question 30.

In which method, no bye is given?

(a) Staircase
(b) Cyclic
(c) Round-robin
(d) Combination
Answer:
(a) Staircase

Question 31.

What is the formula to determine the number of matches in a league fixture for an even number of teams?

(a) N +1/2
(b) N -1/2
(c) N(N -1)/2
(d) N(N + 1)/2
Answer:
(c) N(N -1)/2

Question 32.

………. is not the form of league type tournament.

(a) Cyclic
(b) Double league
(c) Round-robin
(d) Single league
Answer:
(a) Cyclic

Question 33.

In a single league tournament, a total of how many matches are to be played if 11 teams participate?

(a) 44
(b) 55
(c) 100
(d) 110
Answer:
(b) 55

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 1 Planning in Sports Part 2

Question 34.

In a single knock-out tournament, how many byes need to be given if 17 teams are participating?

(a) 17
(b) 16
(c) 15
(d) 14
Answer:
(c) 15

Question 35.

How many byes will be there in a fixture of 10 teams?

(a) 6
(b) 5
(c) 8
(d) 3
Answer:
(a) 6

Question 36.

By which method the winner of a single league tournament is decided?

(a) Percentage of matches won and drawn
(b) Number of matches won
(c) Percentage of matches won
(d) Any of the above
Answer:
(d) Any of the above

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 1 Planning in Sports Part 2

Question 37.

League cum knock-out is a part of the tournament.

(a) Knock-out
(b) Round-robin
(c) Combination
(d) Consolation
Answer:
(c) Combination

Question 38.

Which of the following methods is used for drawing up fixtures in league tournaments?

(a) Cyclic method
(b) Staircase method
(c) Tabular method
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) Tabular method

Question 39.

In a consolation tournament, an additional chance is given to the team.

(a) winning
(b) defeated
(c) any
d, last
Answer:
(b) defeated

Question 40.

How many matches will be played in a league format consisting of 10 teams?

(a) 45
(b) 48
(c) 46
(d) 40
Answer:
(a) 45

Question 41.

In which one of these tournament types of competition does each team play at least two games before being eliminated?

(a) Round robin
(b) Ladder
(c) Single elimination
(d) Pyramid
Answer:
(a) Round robin

Question 42.

In round-robin league of 10 teams, how many matches will be played?

(a) 45
(b) 90
(c) 180
(d) 360
Answer:
(b) 90

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 1 Planning in Sports Part 2

Question 43.

How many matches are required to be played in a league tournament in which Eleven (11) teams participate?

(a) 50 matches
(b) 55 matches
(c) 10 matches
(d) 20 matches
Answer:
(b) 55 matches

Question 44.

How many methods can be used for preparing fixtures in a league tournament?

(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 3

Question 45.

Which of the following methods is not used for preparing fixtures in the league or round-robin tournament?

(a) Staircase method
(b) Cyclic method
(c) Combination method
(d) Tabular form
Answer:
(c) Combination method

Question 46.

Tabular method is used for fixtures in:

(a) knock-out tournament
(b) challenge tournament
(c) league tournament
(d) None of these ‘
Answer:
(c) league tournament

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 1 Planning in Sports Part 2

Question 47.

How many byes are given in league tournament when 8 teams are participating?

(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
Answer:
(b) 1

Question 48.

Which of these is not one of the methods used for fixtures in league of round robin tournaments?

(a) Cyclic method
(b) Staircase method
(c) Tabular method
(d) Spiral method
Answer:
(d) Spiral method

Question 49.

Cycling method is used in

(a) knock-out
(b) consolation
(c) double league
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) double league

Question 102.

TP X100 is a formula of:

(a) American Methods
(b) consolation
(c) V02 Max
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) British Method

Question 50.

In British method how many points are given to the winner?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 51.

Points obtained is divided by total possible points and percentage is find out in:

(a) British method
(b) American method
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) British method

Question 52.

In British method, winner of the match in a league tournament is given:

(a) 1 point
(b) 0 point
(c) 2 points
(d) 3 points

Answer:
(c) 2 points

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 1 Planning in Sports Part 2 Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 1 Planning in Sports Part 1

Planning in Sports Class 12 MCQ Questions Part 1

Question 1.

First step in sports management is:

(a) planning
(b) organising
(c) execution
(d) coordination
Answer:
(a) planning

Question 2.

The first step in planning is:

(a) identification of target group
(b) determination of goals
(c) mobilisation of resources
(d) provision of facilities
Answer:
(b) determination of goals

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 1 Planning in Sports Part 1

Question 3.

Planning is:

(a) an Art
(b) a Science
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and,(b)

Question 4.

Training session is a part of:

(a) planning
(b) fixture
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d)None of these
Answer:
(a) planning

Question 5.

Which one of the following is not an objective of planning in sports?

(a) Management of a tournament
(b) Reducing unnecessary pressure of immediacy
(c) Reducing the chances of mistakes
(d) Facilitating proper coordination among various members of committees
Answer:
(a) Management of a tournament

Question 6.

is a process of setting objectives and deciding how to accomplish them.

(a) Planning
(b) Organising
(c) Learning
(d) Working
Answer:
(a) Planning

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 1 Planning in Sports Part 1

Question 7.

Which one of the following is an objective of planning in sports?

(a) Finding out the causes of failure
(b) Timely achievements of targets
(c) Distribution of work as per ability
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 8.

What is planning?

(a) Motivating the training
(b) Meeting with students
(c) Thinking about past
(d) Deciding in advance what to be done
Answer:
(d) Deciding in advance what to be done

Question 9.

The Reception Committee for a tournament is responsible for.

(a) welcoming the participants
(b) arranging accommodation and meals for the participants
(c) proper upkeep of the venues
(d) welcoming the Chief Guest and spectators at the opening and closing ceremonies
Answer:
(d) welcoming the Chief Guest and spectators at the opening and closing ceremonies

Question 10.

The Boarding and Lodging Committee for a tournament arranges

(a) the making of the budget for boarding and lodging
(b) meals, refreshment, and stay of the Chief Guest
(c) accommodation and meals for the participants
(d) refreshments for the participants and officials
Answer:
(c) accommodation and meals for the participants

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 1 Planning in Sports Part 1

Question 11.

Which committee looks after things Like a camera, microphone, et(c)?

(a) Administrative
(b) Technical
(c) Security
(d) Health
Answer:
(b) Technical

Question 12.

Which of these committees is headed by a Qualified doctor?

(a) Reception
(b) Security
(c) First aid
(d) Lodging
Answer:
(c) First aid

Question 13.

The head of a sports committee is ………. director.

(a) technical
(b) administrative
(c) purchasing
(d) recording
Answer:
(b) administrative

Question 14.

Which one of the following is not a pre-work of the finance committee of a tournament?

(a) To get details of approximate expenses under various heading
(b) To get approvals and sections from higher authorities
(c) Plans for raising funds
(d) Plans for the good meals to the team
Answer:
(d) Plans for the good meals to the team

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 1 Planning in Sports Part 1

Question 15.

Which committee selects various officials such as referees, judges, et(c) in the tournament?

(a) Committee for publicity
(b) Reception committee
(c) Committee for officials
(d) Transport committee
Answer:
(c) Committee for officials

Question 16.

Which of the following is not a committee of a sports event?

(a) Reception committee
(b) Technical committee
(c) Discipline committee
(d) Standing committee ‘
Answer:
(d) Standing committee

Question 17.

Which committee resolves the dispute related to the field of play during competitions?

(a) Organising committee
(b) Technical committee
(c) Award committee
(d) Finance committee ‘
Answer:
(b) Technical committee

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 1 Planning in Sports Part 1

Question 18.

The Finance committee manages ………. of the event.

(a) organisation
(b) budget
(c) implementation
(d) management
Answer:
(b) budge

Question 19.

What is the role of the committee for publicity?

(a) Organise
(b)Advertise
(c) Advertise
d Selection
(c) Advertise

Question 20

Match the following:

List 1List II
(a)  Technical committee1. to provide shifting facility
(b) Finance committee2. to resolve the dispute
(c) Transport committee3. to deal with money and expenditure
(d) First aid committee4. to provide medical facility

(a) A-2, B-3, C-1. D-4
(b) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
(c) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
(d) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
Answer:
(a) A-2, B-3, C-1. D-4

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 1 Planning in Sports Part 1

Question 21.

Match the following:

List 1List II
(a) Cyclic1. Resolve dispute
(b) Technical2. Arranging team
(c) Fixture3. To avoid meeting in 1st round
(d) Seeding4. League tournament

(a) D-3, C-2, B-1, A-4
(b) D-2, C-3, B-1, D-4
(c) D-3, C-2, A-1, B-4
(d) D-4, B-3, C-2, A-1
Answer:
(a) D-3, C-2, B-1, A-4

Question 22.

Which committee is responsible for maintaining decorum of tournaments and moral values?

(a) Transport committee
(b) Discipline committee
(c) Decoration committee
(d) Official committee
Answer:
(b) Discipline committee

Question 23.

Out of them which is not the work of organising committee?

(a) To draw fixture
(b) To decorate the tournament venue
(c) To select referee panel for match
(d) To conduct the matches
Answer:
(b) To decorate the tournament venue

Question 24.

Technical committee work is:

(a) to look after the stay arrangement of players
(b) to provide transportation to the players
(c) to conduct matches as per rules of the game
(d) to provide the first date to the players during the match
Answer:
(c) to conduct matches as per rules of the game

Question 25.

To avoid careless mistake under pressure and to achieve the goal, which of them should be more valuable?

(a) Planning
(b) Supervision
(c) Budgeting
(d) Staffing
Answer:
(a) Planning

Question 26.

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List I
Committee
List II

Function

(a) Boarding and Lodging(i) Welcoming the chief guest
(b) Publicity(ii) Making several announce¬ments during the game
(c) Announcement(iii) Providing accommodation and serving meals
(d) Reception(iv) Announcement of date, venue to the public

A B C D
(a) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(b) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(c) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(d) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
Answer:
(c) A-(iii); B-(iv); C-(ii); D-(i)

Question 27.

Tournaments are helpful for the development of:

(a) Social Qualities
(b) Selection of players
(c) Sports skills
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) Sports skills

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 1 Planning in Sports Part 1

Question 28.

The procedure of arranging team in systematic order:

(a) tournament
(b) fixture
(c) seeding
(d) bye
Answer:
(b) Fixture

Question 29.

The objective of the tournament is:

(a) to find out the best team
(b) to provide a source of recreation for the public
(c) to learn new skills
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 30.

Supervision is one of the tasks:

(a) during tournament
(b) pre-tournament
(c) post-tournament
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) during tournament

Question 31.

Financial arrangement for any tournament can be through:

(a) Alumni Associations
(b) Donations
(c) Funds from Government and Private Agencies
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 32.

Pre-tournament tasks are done:

(a) During the tournament
(b) Before the tournament
(c) After the tournament
(d) After the award ceremony
Answer:
(b) Before the tournament

Question 33.

Auditing of the tournament is part of the responsibility of the committee:

(a) pre-tournament
(b) during tournament
(c) after tournament
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) after tournament

Question 34

………. is the procedure of arranging teams in a systematic order.

(a) Tournament
(b) Fixture
(c) Seeding
(d) Bye
Answer:
(b) Fixture

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 1 Planning in Sports Part 1

Question 35.

The total number of matches in a knock-out tournament of 34 teams are: (CBSE2020)

(a) 31
(b) 32
(c) 33
(d) 35
Answer:
(c) 33

Question 36.

In a single knock-out tournament, how many byes will be allocated to the upper half if 21 teams are participating?

(a) 7
(b) 6
(c) 5
(d) 4
Answer:
(c) 5

Question 37.

How many byes will be given if 21 teams are participating in a knock-out tournament?

(a) 11
(b) 12
(c) 10
(d) 13
Answer:
(a) 11

Question 38.

Consider the following tournaments:

I. Single league
II. Knock-out cum knock-out
III. League cum knock-out
IV. Ladder
Out of these, the types of combination tournaments are:

(a) I, II, and III
(b) II. Ill and IV
(c) Both II and III
(d) Both I and IV
Answer:
(c) Both II and III

Question 39.

If 17 teams are participating then how many byes are needed to be given in a single knock-out tournament?

(a) 16
(b) 14
(c) 15
(d) 17
Answer:
(c) 15

Question 40.

Which teams are usually left out in the first round of the knock-out tournament in case of byes?

(a) Strong
(b) Weak
(c) High
(d) Low
Answer:
(a) Strong

Question 41.

Which one of the following are the advantages of knock-out tournaments?

(a) Minimum number of officials
(b) Require more money
(c) Maximum number of officials
(d) Maximum number of matches
Answer:
(a) Minimum number of officials

Question 42.

Which is another name of elimination tournaments?

(a) Knock-out tournaments
(b) League tournaments
(c) Combination tournaments
(d) Challenge tournaments
Answer:
(a) Knock-out tournaments

Question 43.

Which of the following procedure is not used for drawing up fixtures for a knock-out tournament?

(a) Bye
(b) Staircase
(c) Special seeding
(d) Seeding
Answer:
(b) Staircase

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 1 Planning in Sports Part 1

Question 44.

A tournament in which one team get eliminated once they are defeated is known as:

(a) Round-robin
(b) Knock-out
(c) Ladder
(d) League
Answer:
(b) Knock-out

Question 45.

How many byes will be given if 19 teams are participating in a knock-out tournament?

(a) 12
(b) 13
(c) 14
(d) 15
Answer:
(b) 13

Question 46.

Which is the formula for calculating the total number of matches in a knock-out tournament?

(a) N + 1
(b) N-1
(c) N + 1/2
(d) N – 1/2
Answer:
(b) N -1

Question 47.

If 8 teams are participating, the number of Knock-out matches will be:

(a) 16
(b) 8
(c) 7
(d) 9
Answer:
(c) 7

Question 48.

How many matches will be there in the fixture league of five teams?

(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 15
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 10

Question 49.

How many matches are required to be played in a knock-out tournament in which thirty-three (33) teams participate?

(a) 32 matches
(b) 33 matches
(c) 34 matches
(d) 31 matches
Answer:
(a) 32 matches

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 1 Planning in Sports Part 1

Question 50.

What do you mean by a bye?

(a) Not play the first round match
(b) Not play the second-round match
(c) Directly play in Quarter-final
(d) Directly play in the semi-final
Answer:
(a) Not play the first round match

Question 51.

How many teams will be placed in the 3rd Quarter if 31 teams are participating in the knock-out tournament?

(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) 8

Question 52.

In which type of tournament, a team once defeated gets eliminated from the tournament?

(a) League tournament
(b) Knock-out tournament
(c) Challenge tournament
(d) Round Robin tournament
Answer:
(b) Knock-out tournament

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 1 Planning in Sports Part 1 Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Chemical Reactions and Equations Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Question 1.

Which of the following is not a physical change?

(A) Boiling of water to give water vapour
(B) Melting of ice to give water
(C) Dissolution of salt in water
(D) Combustion of liquified petroleum gas
Answer:
(D) Combustion of liquified petroleum gas

Explanation:
During combustion of liquified I petroleum gas, it forms CO2 and H2O.

Question 2.

Which one of the following processes involve chemical reactions?

(A) Storing of oxygen gas under pressure in a gas cylinder
(B) Liquification of air
(C) Keeping petrol in a china dish in the open
(D) Heating copper wire in presence of air at high temperature
Answer:
(D) Heating copper wire in presence of air at high temperature

Explanation:
Chemical changes involve formation of new compounds from one or more substances. On heating copper wire in presence of air at high temperature copper oxide is formed.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Question 3.

In which of the following chemical equations, the abbreviations represent the correct states of the reactants and products involved at reaction temperature?

(A) 2H2(L) + O2(Z) → 2H2O(g)
(B) 2H2(g) + O2(l) → 2H2O(l)
(C) 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(l)
(D) 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(g)
Answer:
(C) 2H2(g) + O2(g) →2H2O(l)

Explanation:
It is because, the standard state for hydrogen and oxygen is gas and for water is liquid at reaction temperature.

Question 4.

The reaction in which a substance or substances undergo change to produce new substances with new properties is called

(A) A biochemical reaction
(B) A nuclear reaction
(C) A physical reaction
(D) A chemical reaction
Answer:
(D) A chemical reaction

Explanation:
A reaction in which a substance I is changed to one or more new substances is I called a chemical reaction.

Question 5.

Which of the following conditions is necessary for a chemical reaction?

(A) It must be accompanied with change in temperature and pressure.
(B) At least one of the reactants must be in a fixed quantity.
(C) It must follow the law of conservation of mass.
(D) All of the above.
Answer:
(C) It must follow the law of conservation of mass.

Explanation:
A chemical reaction must follow the law of conservation of mass.

Question 6.

There is an equation ‘X’, which contains equal number of atoms of each element on both the sides. What is ‘X’?

(A) A balanced equation
(B) An unbalanced equation
(C) A chemical equation
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(A) A balanced equation

Explanation:
A balanced equation is the one in which the atoms of every element will be the same on both the sides of the equation.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Question 7.

Which among the following is not a physical change ?

(A) Evaporation of petrol
(B) Burning of liquified petroleum gas
(C) Heating of an iron rod to red hot.
(D) Sublimation of solid ammonium chloride
Answer:
(B) Burning of liquified petroleum gas

Explanation:
Changes which are temporary with no new substance being formed, are known as physical changes. Change in which one or more new substances are formed is known as chemical change.

Question 8.

The given equation, what does ‘X’ stand for? (2)Al + (X)H2SO4 → Al2(SO4)3 + (3)H2

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 5
Answer:
(B) 3

Explanation:
The X value is 3 because, to balance the given equation, the number of atoms of each element should be same on both the sides. 2Al + 3H2SO4 → Al2(SO4)3 + 3H2

Question 9.

Which of the following reactions is an endothermic reaction?

(A) Burning of coal.
(B) Decomposition of vegetable matter into compost.
(C) Process of respiration.
(D) Decomposition of calcium carbonate to form quick lime and carbon dioxide.
Answer:
(D) Decomposition of calcium carbonate to form quick lime and carbon dioxide.

Explanation:
The reactions which require energy in the form of heat, light or electricity to break reactants are called endothermic reactions.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Question 10.

The following reaction is an example of a 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g)→4NO(g) + 6H2O(g)

(i) Displacement reaction
(ii) Combination reaction
(iii) Redox reactio
(iv) Neutralisation reaction

(A) (i) and (iv)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
(B) (ii) and (iii)

Explanation:
The given reaction is a redox reaction because oxidation and reduction both take place simultaneously. Also, it is a displacement reaction because hydrogen of NH3 has been displaced by oxygen.

Question 11.

Three beakers labelled as A, B and C each containing 25 mL of water were taken. A small amount of NaOH, anhydrous CuSO4 and NaCl were added to the beakers A, B and C respectively. It w as observed that there was an increase in the temperature of the solutions contained in beakers A and B, whereas in case of beaker C, the temperature of the solution falls. Which one of the following statement(s) is (are) correct?

(i) In beakers A and B, exothermic process has occurred.
(ii) In beakers A and B, endothermic process has occurred.
(iii) In beaker C, exothermic process has occurred.
(iv) In beaker C, endothermic process has occurred.

(A) (i) only
(B) (ii) only
(C) (i) and (iv)
(D) (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(C) (i) and (iv)

Explanation:
In beakers A and B, heat is given out, so the temperature of the solution increases, hence it is an exothermic reaction while in beaker C, heat is absorbed from water, so temperature falls, hence it is an endothermic process.

Question 12.

A dilute ferrous sulphate solution was gradually added to the beaker containing acidified perman-ganate solution. The light purple colour of the solution fades and finally disappears. Which of the following is the correct explanation for the observation?

(A) KMnO4 is an oxidising agent, it oxidises FeSO4
(B) FeSO4 acts as an oxidising agent and oxidises KMnO4
(C) The colour disappears due to dilution; no reaction is involved.
(D) KMnO4 is an unstable compound and decomposes in presence of FeSO4 to a colourless compound.
Answer:
(A) KMnO4 is an oxidising agent, it oxidises FeSO4

Explanation:
A dilute ferrous sulphate solution was gradually added to the beaker containing acidified permanganate solution. A permanganate solution is usually purple in colour. The light purple colour of the solution fades and finally disappears. This is because potassium permanganate (KMnO4) is relatively an unstable compound, it tends to decompose in the presence of ferrous sulphate (FeSO4). This changes the colour of the solution from purple to colourless. FeSO4 gets oxidised to Fe2(SO4) as KMnO4 acts as a good oxidising agent in an acidic medium.

Question 13.

Which among the following is (are) double displacement reaction(s)?

(i) Pb + CuCl2 → PbCl2 + Cu
(ii) Na2SO3 + BaCl2→ BaSO4 + 2NaCl
(iii) C + O2 → CO2
(iv) CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O

(A) (i) and (iv)
(B) (ii) only
(C) (i) and (ii)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
(B) (ii) only

Explanation:
Double displacement reaction is the reaction in which two different atoms or group of atoms are mutually exchanged. In this reaction (Na2SO4 + BaCl2 → BaSO4+ 2NaCl), sodium and barium were mutually exchanged.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Question 14.

Barium chloride on reacting with ammonium sulphate forms barium sulphate and ammonium chloride. Which of the following correctly represents the type of the reaction involved?

(i) Displacement reaction
(ii) Precipitation reaction
(iii) Combination reaction
(iv) Double displacement reaction

(A) (i) only
(B) (ii) only
(C) (iv) only
(D) (ii) and (iv)
Answer:
(D) (ii) and (iv)

Explanation:
The reaction is a double displacement reaction as: BaCl2 + (NH4)2SO4 → BaSO4l + 2NH4Cl It is also called precipitation reaction due to the formation of white precipitate of barium sulphate.

Question 15.

What happens when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to iron filings? Choose the correct answer.

(A) Hydrogen gas and iron chloride are produced.
(B) Chlorine gas and iron hydroxide are produced.
(C) No reaction takes place.
(D) Iron salt and water are produced.
Answer:
(A) Hydrogen gas and iron chloride are produced.

Explanation:
When dilute hydrochloric acid is added to iron filings, hydrogen gas and iron chloride are produced. The reaction is as follows: Fe(s) + 2HCl(aq) → FeCl2(aq) + H2

Question 16.

Which among the following statement(s) is (are) true? Exposure of silver chloride to sunlight for a long duration turns grey due to

(i) The formation of silver by decomposition of silver chloride
(ii) Sublimation of silver chloride
(iii) Decomposition of chlorine gas from silver chloride
(iv) Oxidation of silver chloride

(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (iv) only
Answer:
(A) (i) only

Explanation:
In the presence of sunlight, the heavy amount of energy of light decomposes AgCl to silver (Ag+) and chloride (Cl) ions. The silver flakes are truly black which when fully spread over white silver chloride looks grey.

Assertion And Reason Based MCQs

Directions : In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.

(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D)A is false and R is true.

Question 1.

Assertion (A): Carbon dioxide turns lime water milky.
Reason (R): Carbon dioxide sullies the water.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Carbon dioxide reacts with lime 1 water (calcium hydroxide) to form milky I precipitate of calcium carbonate.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): A chemical reaction becomes faster at higher temperatures.
Reason (R): At higher temperatures, molecular motion becomes more rapid.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
A chemical reaction becomes faster at higher temperatures because at high temperature, the movement of particles are greater.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Question 3.

Assertion (A): After white washing the walls, a shiny white finish on walls is obtained after two to three days.
Reason (R): Calcium oxide reacts with carbon dioxide to form calcium hydrogen carbonate which gives shiny white finish.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Calcium hydroxide is present in whitewash. It reacts slowly with the carbon dioxide in air to form a thin layer of calcium carbonate on the walls. Calcium carbonate is formed after two to three days of white washing. Hence the shiny white finish appears after two to three days on the walls.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Burning of candle is a physical change.
Reason (R): In physical change, no new substance is formed.

Answer:
(D)A is false and R is true.

Explanation:
Burning of candle is chemical change. Burning of candle melts the wax and hence physical state of wax has changed from solid to liquid. Again the wax combines with the atmosphere oxygen and changes to carbon dioxide, heat and light.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): Sodium metal is stored under kerosene.
Reason (R): Metallic sodium melts when exposed to air.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Sodium is a very reactive metal. It is kept in kerosene to prevent it from coming in contact with oxygen and moisture. If this happens, it will react with the moisture present in air and form sodium hydroxide. This is a strongly exothermic reaction, and lot of heat is generated.

Question 6.

Assertion (A): To dilute sulphuric acid, acid is added to water and not water to acid.
Reason (R): Specific heat of water is quite large.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
The mixing of water to an acid is highly exothermic in nature. If water is added to an acid it produces very large amount of heat which can break the container and some times even causes burning. So it is advised to add concentrated acid to water in very slow manner.

Question 7.

Assertion: In the reaction : MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2 HCl is getting oxidized while MnO2 is getting reduced.
Reason: The process in which oxygen is added to a substance is called oxidation, whereas the process in which oxygen is removed from a substance is called reduction.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
In the given reaction, HCl is oxidized to Cl2 while MnO2 is reduced to MnCl2.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Question 8.

Assertion (A): Chips manufacturers usually flush bags of chips with gas such as nitrogen.
Reason (R): Nitrogen gas prevents the oil and fats of the chips from being oxidized.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Chips manufacturers usually flush bags of chips with gas such as nitrogen to prevent the oil and fats of the chips from being oxidized or become rancid.

Case-Based MCQ

Attempt any 4 sub-parts from each question. Each sub-part carries 1 mark.

I. Read the following and answer any four questions from Question l. to Question 5.
Marble’s popularity began in ancient Rome and Greece, where white and off-white marble were used to construct a variety of structures, from handheld sculptures to massive pillars and buildings.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations o

Question 1.

The substance not likely to contain CaCO3 is

(A) Dolomite
(B) A marble statue
(C) Calcined gypsum
(D) Sea shells.
Answer:
(C) Calcined gypsum

Explanation:
The composition of gypsum is  CaSO4 .2H2O.It does not have CaCO3.

Question 2.

A student added lOg of calcium carbonate in a rigid container, secured it tightly and started to heat it. After some time, an increase in pressure was observed, the pressure reading was then noted at intervals of 5 minutes and plotted against time, in a graph as shown below. During which time interval did maximum decomposition took place?

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 11

(A) 15-20 min
(B) 10-15 min
(C) 5-10 min
(D) 0-5 min
Answer:
(D) 0-5 min

Explanation:
The maximum decomposition is when the pressure is maximum. As we can see in graph that from 0 to 5 minutes, the pressure increases from 0 to 0.625 atm.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Question 3.

Gas A, obtained above is a reactant for a very important biochemical process which occurs in the presence of sunlight. Identify the name of the process

(A) Respiration
(B) Photosynthesis
(C) Transpiration
(D) Photolysis
Answer:
(B) Photosynthesis

Explanation:
When CaCO3 is heated, the following reaction takes place: CaCO3 → CaO + CO2 The gas evolved is carbon dioxide, which is utilised in the process of photosynthesis.

Question 4.

Marble statues are corroded or stained rain water. Identify the main reason.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 3

(A) decomposition of calcium carbonate to calcium oxide
(B) polluted water is basic in nature hence it reacts with calcium carbonate
(C) polluted water is acidic in nature he
(D) calcium carbonate dissolves in water to give calcium hydroxide.
Answer:
(B) polluted water is basic in nature hence it reacts with calcium carbonate

Explanation:
Chemically, marble is Calcium Carbonate. The atmosphere contains many oxides, which dissolve in water forming acids like sulfuric; nitric which are common due to modern pollution. Even carbon dioxide forms carbonic acid which also does damage. These will react with marble and result in formation of calcium salt, carbon dioxide and water. So, under extended periods, the wear of marble statues is expected.

Question 5.

Calcium oxide can be reduced to calcium, by heating with sodium metal. Which compound would act as an oxidizing agent in the above process?

(A) sodium
(B) sodium oxide
(C) calcium
(D) calcium oxide
Answer:
(D) calcium oxide

Explanation:
A substance that undergoes reduction is an oxidizing agent. Here, CaO is losing oxygen and undergoing reduction. So, CaO is the oxidizing agent.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 12

II. Read the following and answer any four questions from Question 1. to Question 5.

Chemistry in Automobiles: For an internal combustion engine to move a vehicle down the road, it must convert the energy stored in the fuel into mechanical energy to drive the wheels. In your car,the distributor and battery provide this starting energy by creating an electrical “spark”,which helps in combustion of fuels like gasoline. Below is the reaction depicting complete combustion of gasoline in full supply of air:

2C8H8(l) + 25O2(g)→ 16 ‘X’ + Y

Question 1.

Which of the following are the products obtained from the reaction mentioned in the above case? Product ‘X Product ‘Y

(A) CO2 – H2O2
(B) H2O- CO
(C) CH3OH – H2O
(D) CO2 – H2O
Answer:
(D) CO2 – H2O

Explanation:
The complete combustionof gasoline in full supply of air results in production of carbon dioxide and water. The chemical reaction is as follows: 2C8H18 (l) + 25O2(g) → 16CO2(g) + 18J2P(g)

Question 2.

Identify the types of chemical reaction occurring during the combustion of fuel:

(A) Oxidation & Endothermic reaction
(B) Decomposition & Exothermic reaction
(C) Oxidation & Exothermic reaction
(D) Combination & Endothermic reaction
Answer:
(C) Oxidation & Exothermic reaction

Explanation:
The addition of oxygen to a substance or removal of hydrogen from a substance is called oxidation. The reaction in which the heat energy is produced is called exothermic reaction.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Question 3.

On the basis of evolution absorption of energy, which of the following processes are similar to combustion of fuel?

(i) Photosynthesis in plants
(ii) Respiration in the human body
(iii) Decomposition of vegetable matter
(iv) Decomposition of ferrous sulphate.

(A) (ii) & (iii)
(B) (i) & (ii)
(C) (iii) & (iv)
(D) (ii) & (i)
Answer:
(A) (ii) & (iii).

Explanation:
The process of respiration in the human body and decomposition of vegetable matter involves evolution of energy.

Question 4.

A student while walking on the road observed that a cloud of black smoke belched out from the exhaust stack of moving trucks on the road.’ Choose the correct reason for the production of black smoke:

(A) Limited supply of air leads to incomplete combustion of
(B) Rich supply of air leads to complete combustion of fuel.
(C) Rich supply of air leads to a combination reaction.
(D) Limited supply of air leads to complete combustion of fuel.
Answer:
(A) Limited supply of air leads to incomplete combustion of

Explanation:
The limited supply of air leads to incomplete combustion of fuel, which in turn leads to the production of black smoke.

Question 5.

Although nitrogen is the most abundant gas in the atmosphere, it does not combustion’. Identify the correct reason for this statement.

(A) Nitrogen is a reactive gas
(B) Nitrogen is an inert gas
(C) Nitrogen is an explosive gas
(D) Only hydrocarbons can take part in combustion
Answer:
(B) Nitrogen is an inert gas

Explanation:
The triple bond in nitrogen is too strong to be broken and hence it is an inert gas which does not take part in combustion.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

III. Read the given passage and answer any four questions from Question 1 to Question 5.
The physical states of the reactants and products can be represented by using the symbols (s) for solids, (l) for liquids, (g) for gases and (aq) for aqueous solution along with their respective formulae. The word aqueous is written if the reactant or product is present as a solution in water. Precipitate can also be represented by using an arrow pointing downwards (↓) instead of using symbol (s). In the same way, the gaseous state of an evolved gas can be represented by using an arrow pointing upward direction (↑) instead of using symbol (g). The specific condition of the reaction like temperature, pressure, catalyst etc. is written above or below the arrow in the chemical equation.

Question 1.

If the reactant or product is present as a solution of water, it is represented as:

(A) (s)
(B) (1)
(C) (aq)
(D) ↓
Answer:
(C) (aq)

Explanation:
The word aqueous is written if I the reactant or product is present as a solution in water.

Question 2.

The correct way to represent the evolution of gas, is to use which of the following symbol:

(A) ↓
(B) →
(C) ↑
(D) (g)
Answer:
(C) ↑

Explanation:
The gaseous state of an evolved gas can be represented by using an arrow pointing upward direction (t) instead of using symbol (g).

Question 3.

Complete the missing variable given as X and Y in the following reaction:
2Na (s) + 2H2O (l) → 2NaOH (X) + H2 (Y)

(A) (aq) and (g)
(B) (s) and (g)
(C) (g) and (l)
(D) (g) and (aq)
Answer:
(A) (aq) and (g)

Explanation:
The complete reaction is : 2Na(s) + 2H20 (l) → 2NaOH(s) + H2(g)

Question 4.

Which of the following reaction is balanced?

(A) NaCl + 2H2O → 2NaOH + 2C2 + H2
(B) 2NaCl + H2O → 2NaOH + 2Cl2 + H2
(C) 2NaCl + 2H2O → 2NaOH + Cl2 + H2
(D) 2NaCl + 2H2O → NaOH + Cl2 + H2
Answer:
(C) 2NaCl + 2H2O → 2NaOH + Cl2 + H2

Explanation:
The equation in which atoms of various elements on both sides of a chemical equation are equal in accordance with the law of conservation of mass are said to be balance. Hence, 2NaCl + 2H2O > 2NaOH + Cl2 + H2 represents the correct balanced equation.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Question 5.

Which of the following reaction is balanced?

(A) Mg (aq) + H2SO4 (aq) → MgSO4 (aq) + H2
(B) Mg (s) + H2SO4 (aq) → MgSO4 (aq) + H2
(C) Mg (s) + H2SO4 (l) → MgSO4 (l) + H2
(D) Mg (s) + H2SO4 (l) →MgSO4 (s) + H2
Answer:
(B) Mg (s) + H2SO4 (aq) → MgSO4 (aq) + H2 H2

Explanation:
Mg (s) + H2SO4 (aq) → MgSO4(aq) + H2 T is the balanced chemical reaction.A balanced equation is the one in which the atoms of every element will be the same on both the sides of the equation.

IV. Read the given passage and answer any four questions from Question l to Question 5.

In the following chemical reaction “zinc oxide reacts with carbon to produce zinc metal and carbon monoxide.” Answer any four question from (1) to (5).
ZnO +C→ Zn + CO

Question 1.

Name the substance getting oxidised and reduced in the above reaction:

(A) C and ZnO
(B) Zn and C
(C) ZnO and CO
(D) CO and ZnO
Answer:
(A) C and ZnO

Explanation:
C is getting oxidized to CO, ZnO I is getting reduced to Zn, as carbon is gaining I oxygen and ZnO is losing oxygen.

Question 2.

Name the type of reaction:

(A) oxidation reaction
(B) reduction reaction
(C) redox reaction
(D) decomposition reaction
Answer:
(C) redox reaction

Explanation:
It is a redox reaction or oxidation and reduction reaction.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Question 3.

The reduction reaction involves:

(A) gain of electrons
(B) loss of electrons
(C) increase in oxidation state
(D) addition of oxygen
Answer:
(A) gain of electrons

Explanation:
Reduction is just reverse of oxidation. It is the process of gain of electron and losing oxygen or gaining hydrogen.

Question 4.

The reactions used in black and white photography:

(A) Decomposition of silver bromide
(B) Decomposition of silver chloride
(C) Both
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Both

Explanation:
Decomposition reactions of silver chloride and silver bromide in presence of sunlight are used in black and white photography.
2AgCl(s) → 2Ag(s) + Cl2(g)
2AgBr → 2Ag + Br2

V. P, Q and R are three elements which undergo chemical reactions according to the following equations. Answer any four question from Question 1. to Question 5.

(i) P2O3 + 2Q → Q2O3 + 2P
(ii) 3RSO2 + 2Q → Q2(SO4)3 + 3R
(iii) 3RO + 2P → P2O3 + 3R

Question 1.

The most reactive and the least reactive elements are:

(A) Q and P
(B) Q and R
(C) R and Q
(D) R and P
Answer:
(B) Q and R

Explanation:
Q is the most reactive as it has replaced both P and R from their compounds and R is least reactive element as it has been replaced by both P and Question

Question 2.

The type of reaction is :

(A) Displacement reaction
(B) Combination reaction
(C) Neutralisation reaction
(D) Substitution reaction
Answer:
(A) Displacement reaction

Explanation:
Displacement reaction is a type of reaction in which more active element displaces a less reactive element from its compound.

Question 3.

3RSO4+ 2Q → Q2(SO4)3 + 3R The given reaction shows:

(A) Q is more reactive than R
(B) Q is less reactive than R
(C) Q and R are equally reactive
(D) none of the above
Answer:
(A) Q is more reactive than R

Explanation:
The given reaction shows that is the most reactive as it has replaced both P and R from their compounds.

Question 4.

Choose the correct statement:

(A) Zinc and lead are more reactive elements than copper.
(B) Zinc and lead are less reactive elements than copper.
(C) Zinc and copper are more reactive elements than lead.
(D) Copper and lead are more reactive elements than zinc.
Answer:
(A) Zinc and lead are more reactive elements than copper.

Explanation:
A more reactive metal has a tendency to get oxidized and a less reactive metal ion has a tendency to get reduced. Therefore, a more reactive metal displaces a less reactive metal from its salt solution.

Question 5.

Na2SO4 (aq) + BaC2(aq) → BaSO2 (s) + 2NaCl(aq) The above reaction is an example of:

(A) Double displacement reaction.
(B) Displacement reaction.
(C) Can be both.
(D) None of the above.
Answer:
(A) Double displacement reaction.

Explanation:
Double displacement reaction is a reaction in which two different ions or group of atoms in the reactant molecules are displaced by each other. Na+ being more reactive than Ba2+ displaces Ba2+ from its compound BaCl2 and form NaCl.

VI. The following diagram displays a chemical reaction. Observe carefully and answer any four questions from Question l. to Question 5.The following diagram displays a chemical reaction. Observe carefully and answer any four questions from (1) to (5).
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 5

Question 1.

The type of chemical reaction that will take place is

(A) Photochemical decomposition
(B) Displacement reaction
(C) Reduction reaction
(D) Combination reaction
Answer:
(A) Photochemical decomposition

Explanation:
The type of chemical reaction that will take place is photochemical decomposition. This is a type of decomposition reaction which involves the use of light energy for decomposition.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Question 2.

What colour change is observed in silver chloride?

(A) Silver chloride turns white.
(B) Silver chloride turns brown.
(C) Silver chloride shows no colour change.
(D) White silver chloride changes to grey.
Answer:
(A) Silver chloride turns white.

Explanation:
When silver chloride is exposed to sunlight, it decomposes to give silver metal and chlorine gas. In this reaction white color of silver chloride changes to grayish white due to the formation of silver metal.

Question 3.

The correct balanced chemical equation involves:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 6
(B) Ag + Cl → AgCl
(C) AgCl2 → Ag2 + Cl2
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 8
Answer:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 9

 

Explanation:
The decomposition reaction of silver chloride into silver and chlorine by light can be depicted as:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 9

Question 4.

When decomposition is carried out by heating, it is called as:

(A) Heat decomposition
(B) Photolytic decomposition
(C) Electrolytic decomposition
(D) Thermal decomposition
Answer:
(D) Thermal decomposition

Explanation:
Thermal decomposition reaction uses the energy in the form of heat. For example.
Calcium carbonate on heating decomposes to give calcium oxide and carbon dioxide.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 7

Question 5.

The other silver salt which behaves like silver chloride in sunlight is:

(A) silver hydride
(B) silver bromide
(C) silver iodide
(D) silver nitrite
Answer:
(B) silver bromide

Explanation:
silver bromide gives silver metal and bromine gas on photolytic decomposition. Decomposition reactions of silver chloride and silver bromide in presence of sunlight are used in black and white photography.
2AgCl(s) → 2Ag(s) + Cl2(g)
2AgBr → 2Ag + Br2

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Acids, Bases and Salts Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Question 1.

An aqueous solution A turns phenolphthalein solution pink. On addition of an aqueous solution ‘B’ to A, the pink colour disappears. The following statement is true for solution A and ‘B’.

(A) A is strongly basic and B is a weak base.
(B) A is strongly acidic and B is a weak acid.
(C) A has pH greater than 7 and B has pH less than 7.
(D) A has pH less than 7 and B has pH greater than 7.
Answer:
(C) A has pH greater than 7 and B has pH less than 7.

Question 2.

Identify the basic salt from the following salts:

(A) Na2CO3
(B) NH4 Cl
(C) NaNO3
(D) KCl
Answer:
(A) Na2CO3

Explanation:
Na2 CO3 is a basic salt.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 ScienceChapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 3.

Which one of the following can be used as an acid- base indicator by a visually impaired student?

(A) Litmus
(B) Turmeric
(C) Vanilla essence
(D) Petunia leaves
Answer:
(C) Vanilla essence

Explanation:
Vanilla essence can be used as an acid-base indicator by visually impaired students as it is an olfactory indicator whose odour changes in acidic or basic media.

Question 4.

Which of the following is acidic in nature?

(A) Lime juice
(B) Human blood
(C) Lime water
(D) Antacid
Answer:
(A) Lime juice

Explanation:
Lime juice is acidic in nature as the juice is obtained from lime, a citrus fruit. This contains citric acid, and is therefore sour in taste.

Question 5.

During the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas on a humid day, the gas is usually passed through the guard tube containing calcium chloride. The role of calcium chloride taken in the guard tube is to

(A) absorb the evolved gas.
(B) moisten the gas.
(C) absorb moisture from the gas.
(D) absorb Cl ions from the evolved gas.
Answer:
(C) absorb moisture from the gas.

Explanation:
The role of calcium chloride taken : in the guard tube is to absorb moisture from ; the gas. This is because calcium chloride is used as a drying agent which absorbs moisture from the hydrogen chloride (HCl) gas.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 ScienceChapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 6.

Which of the following are present in a dilute aqueous solution of hydrochloric acid?

(A) H3O+ + CL
(B) H3O+ + OH
(C) Cl+ OH
(D) Unionized HCl
Answer:
(A) H3O+ + CL

Explanation:
In a dilute aqueous solution of hydrochloric acid, H3O++ Cl ions are present.

Question 7.

What happens when a solution of an acid is mixed with a solution of a base in a test tube?

(i) The temperature of the solution increases
(ii) The temperature of the solution decreases
(iii) The temperature of the solution remains the same
(iv) Salt formation takes place

(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i) and (iv)
Answer:
(D) (i) and (iv)

Explanation:
When a solution of acid is mixed with a solution of base in a test tube then the temperature of the solution increases and salt formation takes place. This is because the process is exothermic that is excess heat is produced by the acid-base reaction which is the net result of the processes of bond-breaking and bond-making.

Question 8.

Which of the following is used for dissolution of gold?

(A) Hydrochloric acid
(B) Sulphuric acid
(C) Nitric acid
(D) Aqua regia
Answer:
(D) Aqua regia

Explanation:
Aqua Regia is a mixture of concentrated HNO3 and concentrated HCl. Concentrated HNOs acts as a very strong oxidising agent which ionises Au atoms and Concentrated HCl produces nascent chlorine which in turn reacts with ionised Au atoms thus forming auric chloride.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 ScienceChapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 9.

Which of the following salts does not contain water of crystallisation?

(A) Blue vitriol
(B) Baking soda
(C) Washing soda
(D) Gypsum
Answer:
(B) Baking soda

Explanation:
Water of crystallisation is the fixed number of water molecules present in one formula unit of a salt. Potassium nitrate, barium sulphate, potassium chloride, sodium nitrate, baking soda, etc., are the salts that do not contain water of crystallisation.

Question 10.

Sodium carbonate is a basic salt because it is a salt of

(A) strong acid and strong base.
(B) weak acid and weak base.
(C) strong acid and weak base.
(D) weak acid and strong base.
Answer:
(D) weak acid and strong base.

Explanation:
Sodium carbonate is a basic salt of weak acid i.e. carbonic acid and a strong base i.e. sodium hydroxide.

Question 11.

Common salt besides being used in kitchen can also be used as the raw material for making

(i) washing soda,
(ii) bleaching powder,
(iii) baking soda.
(iv) slaked lime.

(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (i), (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
(C) (i) and (iii)

Explanation:
The common salt obtained is an important raw material for various materials of daily use, such as sodium hydroxide, baking soda, washing soda and many more.

Question 12.

One of the constituents of baking powder is sodium hydrogen carbonate, the other constituent is

(A) hydrochloric acid.
(B) tartaric acid.
(C) acetic acid.
(D) sulphuric acid.
Answer:
(B) tartaric acid.

Explanation:
Baking powder is a mixture of baking soda (sodium hydrogen carbonate) and a mild edible acid such as tartaric acid.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 ScienceChapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 13.

Which of the following is not a salt?

(A) Sodium chloride
(B) Slaked lime
(C) Lead sulphide
(D) Zinc nitrate
Answer:
(B) Slaked lime

Explanation:
Slaked lime or Ca(OH)2 is not a salt.

Question 14.

A compound is prepared from gypsum upon heating to a temperature of 373 K and it changes back to gypsum on adding water. Which is the incorrect statement about the compound?

(A) The compound is used for setting fractured bones.
(B) The compound is called plaster of Paris which is calcium sulphate dehydrate with a formula CaSO4.2H0.
(C) If heated at higher temperature, the compound becomes dehydrated and is called dead burnt plaster.
(D) Both (A) and (B).
Answer:
(B) The compound is called plaster of Paris which is calcium sulphate dehydrate with a formula CaSO4.2HO.

Explanation:
The compound is called plaster of Paris which is calcium sulphate hemihydrate with a formula CaSO4.2H2O.

Question 15.

A milk man adds a very small amount of baking soda to fresh milk. Why?

(A) To increase the rate of fermentation
(B) To decrease the rate of fermentation
(C) To increase its quality
(D) To make paneer
Answer:
(B) To decrease the rate of fermentation

Explanation:
A milk man adds a very small amount of baking soda to fresh milk to decrease the rate of fermentation.

Question 16.

Which of the given substances is used in the following applications?

I. It is used as a fire proofing material.
II. It is used for sealing gaps in laboratory apparatus.
III. It is used in making toys.

(A) Bleaching powder
(B) Plaster of Paris
(C) Baking soda
(D) Washing soda
Answer:
(B) Plaster of Paris

Explanation:
The chemical formula for Plaster of paris is (Ca(SO4).2H2O) which is commonly used as fire proofing insulating material on walls, for casting toys and can be used in sealing pots and lab apparatus.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 ScienceChapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions : In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is True.

Question 1.

Assertion (A): After white washing the walls, a shiny white finish on walls is obtained after two to three days.
Reason (R): Calcium Oxide reacts with Carbon dioxide to form Calcium Hydrogen Carbonate which gives shiny white finish.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Calcium hydroxide is obtained by reaction of calcium oxide and water.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): When zinc is added to dilute hydrochloric acid, hydrogen is given off.

Reason (R): Hydrogen chloride molecules contain hydrochloric acid and hydrogen atoms.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
The metal zinc readily reacts with hydrochloric acid to produce hydrogen gas (H2) and zinc chloride (ZnCl2).

Question 3.

Assertion (A): Gas bubbles are observed when sodium carbonate is added to dilute hydrochloric acid.
Reason (R): Carbon dioxide is given off in the reaction.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Sodium carbonate reacts with excess hydrochloric acid to form sodium chloride, water and carbon dioxide. In this reaction, bubbles of carbon dioxide are observed.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 ScienceChapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Ammonia solution is an alkali.
Reason (R): Ammonia solution turns blue litmus paper red.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Ammonia solution, which is I alkaline, turn the red litmus paper blue.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): When common salt is kept open, it absorbs moisture from the air.
Reason (R): Common salt contains magnesium chloride.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Magnesium chloride present in common salt is deliquescent substance i.e., it absorbs moisture from the air when kept in open.

Question 6.

Assertion (A): Baking soda creates acidity in the stomach.
Reason (R): Baking soda is alkaline.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is True.

Explanation:
Baking soda, being alkaline, neutralises the acidity in the stomach and removes it.

Question 7.

Assertion (A): Plaster of Paris is used by doctors for setting fractured bones.
Reason (R): When Plaster of Paris is mixed with water and applied around the fractured limbs, it sets into a hard mass.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Plaster of Paris when mixed with water and applied around the fractured limbs, it sets in to a hard mass and keeps the bone joints in a fixed position. So, it is commonly used for setting fractured bones.

Question 8.

Assertion: Sodium hydrogen carbonate is an acidic salt.
Reason: It is a salt produced by the neutralization reaction between a strong base (NaOH) and a weak acid (H2CO3).

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Sodium hydrogen carbonate is a basic salt. It is produced by the neutralization reaction between a strong base (NaOH) and a weak acid (H2CO3).

Case-Based MCQs

Attempt any 4 sub-parts from each question. Each sub-part carries 1 mark.

I. Read the following and answer any four questions from Question l to Question 5.
The reaction between MnO2 with HCl is depicted in the following diagram. It was observed that a gas with bleaching abilities was released.
HCl (aq)
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 2

Question 1.

The chemical reaction between MnO2 and HCl is an example of:

(A) displacement reaction
(B) combination reaction
(C) redox reaction
(D) decomposition reaction.
Answer:
(C) redox reaction

Explanation:
MnO2gets reduced as it loses  oxygen while HCl gets oxidized to H2O.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 ScienceChapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 2.

Chlorine gas reacts with to form bleaching powder.

(A) dry Ca(OH)2
(B) dil. solution of Ca(OH)2
(C) cone, solution of Ca(OH)2
(D) dry CaO
Answer:
(A) dry Ca(OH)2

Explanation:
Chlorine gas reacts with dry Ca(OH)2 to form bleaching powder. Ca(OH)2 + Cl2   → CaOCl2 + H2O Calcium hydroxide Chlorine Calcium Oxychloride Water (Slaked lime) (Bleaching Powder)

Question 3.

Identify the correct statement from the following:

(A) MnO2 is getting reduced whereas HCl is getting oxidized.
(B) MnO2 is getting oxidized whereas HCl is getting reduced.
(C) MnO2 and HCl both are getting reduced.
(D) MnO3 and HCl both are getting oxidized.
Answer:
(A) MnO2 is getting reduced whereas HCl is getting oxidized.

Explanation:
When manganese dioxide reacts with hydrochloric acid, the manganese dioxide (MnO2) reduces to MnCl2 while hydrochloric acid (HCl) oxidizes to chlorine gas (Cl2).

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 12

Question 4.

In the above discussed reaction, what is the nature of MnO2 ?

(A) Acidic oxide
(B) Basic oxide
(C) Neutral oxide
(D) Amphoteric oxide
Answer:
(B) Basic oxide

Explanation:
Manganese is a metal and Metal oxides are basic oxides.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 ScienceChapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 5.

What will happen if we take dry HCl gas instead of aqueous solution of HCl?

(A) Reaction will occur faster.
(B) Reaction will not occur.
(C) Reaction rate will be slow.
(D) Reaction rate will remain the same.
Answer:
(B) Reaction will not occur.

Explanation:
Dry HCl will not dissociate to produce H+ ions thus reaction will not occur. MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2+ Cl2 + 2H2O Aqueous MnO2 + HCl → No Reaction Dry

II. Read the following and answer any four questions from Question l to Question 5.
Frothing in Yamuna:The primary reason behind the formation of the toxic foam is high phosphate content in the wastewater because of detergents used in dyeing industries, dhobi ghat Yamuna’s pollution level is so bad that parts of it have been labelled ‘dead’ as there is no oxygen in it for aquatic life to survive.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 3

Question 1.

Predict the pH value of the water of river Yamuna if the reason for froth is high content of detergents dissolved in it.

(A) 10-11
(B) 5-7
(C) 2-5
(D) 7
Answer:
(A) 10-11

Explanation:
Detergents are bases and bases have pH greater than 7

Question 2.

Which of the following statements is correct for the water with detergents dissolved in it?

(A) low concentration of hydroxide ion (OH )and high concentration of hydronium ion (H3O+).
(B) high concentration of hydroxide ion (OH) and low concentration of hydronium ion (H3O+).
(C) high concentration of hydroxide ion (OH) as well as hydronium ion (H3O+).
(D) equal concentration of both hydroxide ion (OH) and hydronium ion (H3O+).
Answer:
(B) high concentration of hydroxide ion (OH) and low concentration of hydronium ion (H3O+).

Explanation:
Detergents are bases. Bases ionise to form OH and thus there will be high concentration of

OH. BOH → B+ + OH

Question 3.

The table provides the pH value of four solutions P, Q, R and S

 SolutionpH value
P2
Q9
R5
S11

(A) P>Q>R>S
(B) P>S>Q>R
(C) S<Q<R<P
(D) S<P<Q<R
Answer:
(C) S<Q<R

Explanation:
The pH value and hydrogen ion concentration are inversely proportional. This means if hydronium concentration increases, the pH decreases, causing solution to become more acidic. So hydronium ion concentration will be of the order: S<Q<P

Question 4.

High content of phosphate ion in river Yamuna may lead to:

(A) decreased level of dissolved oxygen and increased growth of algae.
(B) decreased level of dissolved oxygen and no effect of growth of algae.
(C) increased level of dissolved oxygen and increased growth of algae.
(D) decreased level of dissolved oxygen and decreased growth of algae.
Answer:
(A) decreased level of dissolved oxygen and increased growth of algae.

Explanation:
The phosphate ion promote the growth of algae in water. So, the high level of phosphate ion in river Yamuna may lead to decreased level of oxygen and increased growth of algae. This process is known as eutrophication.

Question 5.

If a sample of water containing detergents is provided to you, which of the following methods will you adopt to neutralize it?

(A) Treating the water with baking soda
(B) Treating the water with vinegar
(C) Treating the water with caustic soda
(D) Treating the water with washing soda
Answer:
(B) Treating the water with vinegar

Explanation:
Neutralisation takes place when acid and base react to form salt and water. Since, detergent is a base and vinegar is an acid, thus neutralization takes place.

III. Read the following and answer any four questions from Question l to Question 5.
Study the given table and answer the following questions. It shows the pH value of the plaque (which collects around teeth) surrounding the teeth of a child over 3 hrs.

Time/hpH
0.007.0
1.07.0
2.07.1
3.07.2
4.04.1

Question 1.

The three constituents of plaque are

(A) Acid
(B) Saliva
(C) Bacteria
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Explanation:
The constituents of plaque are acid, saliva, bacteria and food.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 ScienceChapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 2.

The pH which leads to tooth decay?

(A) above 7
(B) at 7
(C) below 5.5
(D) above 5.5
Answer:
(C) below 5.5

Explanation:
A lower pH below 5.5, leads to tooth decay. At this pH, the calcium phosphate of enamel of tooth gets corroded.

Question 3.

State the time during the day when condition is most favourable for process of tooth decay.

(A) 1.0
(B) 2.0
(C) 3.0
(D) 4.0
Answer:
(D) 4.0

Explanation:
Time 4.0, lowest pH indicates the highest amount of acid produced by the bacteria.

Question 4.

The nature of toothpastes commonly used to protect tooth decay is:

(A) acidic
(B) basic
(C) neutral
(D) none of the above
Answer:
(B) basic

Explanation:
The tooth paste commonly used is basic so that the extra acid formed during tooth decay is neutralised and prevent tooth decay.

IV. Suhana takes three beakers A, B and C filled with aqueous solutions of glucose, alcohol and hydrochloric acid respectively as shown in the following figure:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 4
Question 1.

Which of the following statement is correct in terms of glowing of bulb when the switch is ON?

(A) Bulb A and B do not glow but bulb C glows.
(B) Bulb A and C do not glow but bulb B glows.
(C) Bulb B and C do not glow but bulb A glows.
(D) All the bulbs glow.
Answer:
(A) Bulb A and B do not glow but bulb C glows.

Explanation:
Glucose and alcohol solutions do not conduct electricity as they do not have ions. Dil. HC1 contains ions so the flow of ions is responsible for the flow of current.

Question 2.

The bulb glows in a solution depending on whether the solution is:

(A) acidic
(B) an electrolyte
(C) basic
(D) a non electrolyte
Answer:
(B) an electrolyte

Question 3.

Which of the following are present in a dilute aqueous solution of hydrochloric acid?

(A) H3O+ + Cl
(B) H3O+ + OH
(C) Cl + OH
(D) Unionized HCl
Answer:
(A)H3O+ + Cl

Explanation:
In a dilute aqueous solution of hydrochloric acid, H3O+ + Cl ions are present.

Question 4.

Which of the following statement is true if alcohol is replaced with NaOH solution:

(A) bulb glows in alcohol but not in NaOH solution.
(B) bulb will glow in NaOH solution but not in alcohol.
(C) bulb does not glow in alcohol and neither will it glow in NaOH solution.
(D) bulb glows in NaOH solution as well as in alcohol.
Answer:
(B) bulb will glow in NaOH solution but not in alcohol.

Explanation:
After replacement, bulb glows in B as NaOH solution contains Na+ and OH’ ions, which are responsible for electrical conductivity.

V. Study the given experimental set-up and answer the following questions.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 5

Question 1.

The above experimental set up shows reaction between metal and

(A) Acid
(B) Metal carbonate
(C) Metal hydrogen carbonate
(D) Metal oxide
Answer:
(A) Acid

Explanation:
It is a reaction between a metal (Zn) and an acid (H2SO4)

Question 2.

Which gas is liberated during the process?

(A) Hydrogen gas
(B) Carbon dioxide gas
(C) Nitrogen gas
(D) Hydrogen sulphide gas
Answer:
(A) Hydrogen gas

Explanation:
During the reaction between a metal and an acid, hydrogen gas is released.

Question 3.

Write the products formed in the above process:

(A) Zinc sulphate only
(B) Only hydrogen gas
(C) Zinc sulphate and hydrogen gas
(D) Zinc sulphide and hydrogen gas
Answer:
(C) Zinc sulphate and hydrogen gas
Explanation:
During the reaction between a zinc and sulphuric acid, zinc sulphate and hydrogen gas is released.
Zn + H2SO2 → ZnSO4 + H2

MCQ Questions for Class 10 ScienceChapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 4.

A new product sodium zincate is formed if sulphuric acid is replaced with:

(A) Sodium hydroxide
(B) Sodium oxide
(C) Zinc oxide
(D) water
Answer:
(A) Sodium hydroxide

Explanation:
If sulphuric acid is replaced with sodium hydroxide, it will produce sodium zincate (Salt) and hydrogen gas.
Zn(s) + 2NaOH(aq) → Na2ZnO2(aq) + H2 (g)

VI. Read the given passage and answer any four questions from Question l to Question 5.
P, Q, R are different colourless solids, while S is a colourless solution. They are (in random order) Sodium chloride (NaCl), Calcium Carbonate (CaCO3), Acetic acid (CH3COOH) and Phenolphthalein indicator. Small amount of the above substances were added in pairs (e.g. P with Q; Q with R etc.) to a small amount of water in a test tube. They give the following results as shown in the observation table.

Observation Table:

PQR
QNo reactionNo reaction
RDark Pink ColourNo reaction
S No reactionNo reactionEffervescence

Question 1.

The chemicals are:

PQRS
(A)NaClCaC3CH3COOHPhenolphthalein
(B)PhenolphthaleinNaClCaCO3CH3COOH
(C)CH3COOHPhenolphthaleinNaClCaCO3
(D)CaCO3CH3COOHPhenolphthaleinNaCl

Answer:
(B) Phenolphthalein NaCl CaCO3CH3COOH

Explanation:
The chemical P is Phenophthalein, Q is NaCl, R is CaCO3, and S→ is CH3COOH.

Question 2.

Which of the following reaction is incorrect ?

(A) Phenolphthalein (P) + NaCl (Q) → No reaction
(B) Phenolphthalein + CaCO3 (R) → Alkaline medium (Dark Pink Colour)
(C) Phenolphthalein + NaCl → Acidic medium (Blue colour)
(D) CaCO3 (R) + 2CH3COOH (S) → (CH3COO)2Ca + CO2(effervescence) + 2H2O
Answer:
(C) Phenolphthalein + NaCl → Acidic medium (Blue colour)

Explanation:
The correct reactions are:
(i) Phenophthalein (P) + NaCl (Q) → Noreaction
(ii) Phenolphthalein + CaCO3 (R) → Alkaline medium (Dark Pink Colour)
(iii) CaCO3 (R) + 2CH3COOH (S) → (CH3COO)2Ca + CO2 (effervescence) + 2H2O

Question 3.

The chemicals that can be used as an acid- base indicator by a visually impaired student is

(A) Petunia leaves
(B) Vanilla essence
(C) Phenolphthalein
(D) Turmeric
Answer:
(B) Vanilla essence

Explanation:
Vanilla essence can be used as an acid-base indicator by visually impaired students as it is an olfactory indicator whose odour changes in acidic or basic media.

Question 4.

If acetic acid and hydrochloric acid of same concentration are taken, HCl is a stronger acid because it contains:

(A) more of Cl ions.
(B) more of H+ ions.
(C) less of H+ ions
(D) more of CH2 COOl ions.
Answer:
(B) more of H+ions.

Explanation:
HCl is stronger because it gives rise to more H+ ions than acetic acid.

VII. A metal is treated with dilute sulphuric acid. The gas evolved is collected by the method shown in the figure:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts 6

Question 1.

Name the gas evolved:

(A) Hydrogen
(B) Oxygen
(C) Sulphur dioxide gas
(D) Carbon dioxide
Answer:
(A) Hydrogen

Explanation:
Hydrogen gas. It is soluble in water.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 ScienceChapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 2.

The gas evolved is :

(A) Lighter than air
(B) Heavier than air
Answer:
(A) Lighter than air

Explanation:
Lighter than air. When a burning splinter is brought near the gas it burns with a pop sound.

Question 3.

If the metal used above is zinc, choose the correct balanced chemical equation for the evolution of gas?

(A) 2Zn(s) + H2 SO4(dil) → 2ZnSO4(aq) + H2(g)
(B) Zn(s) + H2 SO4(dil) → 2ZnSO4(aq) + H2(g)
(C) Zn(s) + 2H2 SO4(dil) → 2ZnSO4(aq) + H2(g)
(D) 2Zn(s) + H2 SO4(dil) →  2ZnSO4(aq) + 2H2(g)
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.

Explanation:
Thhe balanced chemical equation is : Zn(s) + H2SO4(dil) → ZnSO4(aq) + H2(g)

Question 4.

What nature of hydrogen is used as a fuel in rocket ?

(A) solid
(B) liquid
(C) gaseous
(D) all of the above
Answer:
(B) liquid

Explanation:
Liquid hydrogen is used as a fuel in rockets.

Question 1.

Name the product when water is added to quicklime.

(A) Calcium oxide
(B) Calcium hydroxide
(C) Calcium dioxide
(D) Calcium carbonate
Answer:
(B) Calcium hydroxide

Explanation:
Calcium hydroxide, Ca(OH)2 CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2 + Heat

Question 2.

The common name for quick lime is:

(A) Calcium hydroxide
(B) Calcium oxide
(C) Calcium dioxide
(D) Calcium carbonate
Answer:
(B) Calcium oxide

Explanation:
The common name for quick lime is CaO.

Question 3.

The correct formula for calcium hydroxide is:

(A) Ca(OH)
(B) Ca(OH2)
(C) Ca(OH)2
(D) Ca2OH2
Answer:
(C) Ca(OH)2

Explanation:
The chemical formula for calcium hydroxide is Ca(OH)2 CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2 + Heat

Question 4.

Which of the following statements is correct about the above reaction based on your observations?

(i) It is an endothermic reaction.
(ii) It is an exothermic reaction
(iii) The pH of the resulting solution will be more than seven.
(iv) The pH of the resulting solution will be less than seven.

(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (iv)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
(B) (ii) and (iii)

Explanation:
It is an exothermic reaction because heat is given out. The resulting compound is Ca(OH)2 which is basic in nature.So the pH of the resulting solution will be more than seven.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 ScienceChapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

IX. Read the given passage and answer the following questions from Question l. to Question 4.
Sanjana while preparing cake used baking soda in small amounts. It helps to make the cake soft and spongy. An aqueous solution of baking soda also turns red litmus blue. It is also used in soda acid extinguisher.

Question 1.

Name the gas produced by the reaction of baking soda and acid which helps as fire extinguisher:

(A) Carbon monoxide
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Hydrogen
(D) Oxygen
Answer:
(B) Carbon dioxide

Explanation:
The CO2 gas produced by the reaction of baking soda and acid in the soda acid fire extinguisher, helps in extinguishing fire.
2NaHCO3 (s) + H7SO4 (aq) → Na,SO4 (s) +2H20 (l) + 2CO2 (g)

Question 2.

Name the products formed when baking soda is heated:

(A) Sodium sulphate and carbon dioxide gas.
(B) Sodium carbonate and water.
(C) Sodium carbonate, carbon dioxide and water.
(D) Sodium oxide carbon dioxide and water.
Answer:
(C) Sodium carbonate, carbon dioxide and water.

Explanation:
When it is heated, it disintegrates into sodium carbonate, water and carbon dioxide.
2NaHCO3 (s) → Na2CO3 (s) + H2O) + CO2 (g)

Question 3.

The pH of baking soda solution is :

(A) more than 7
(B) less than 7
(C) equal to 7
(D) less than 7 but more than 3.
Answer:
(A) more than 7

Explanation:
pH value of baking soda solution  I is higher than 7 i.e., it is alkaline.

Question 4.

What is the chemical name for baking soda?

(A) Sodium carbonate
(B) sodium bicarbonate
(C) calcium carbonate
(D) calcium bicarbonate.
Answer:
(B) sodium bicarbonate

Explanation:
The chemical name for baking soda is sodium bicarbonate.

X. Read the given passage and answer the following questions from Question l. to Question 5.
A dry pellet of a common base B when kept in open absorbs moisture and turns sticky. The compound is also a by-product of chloro-alkali process.

Question 1.

Identify B:

(A) Sodium chloride
(B) Sodium hydroxide
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Sodium carbonate
Answer:
(B) Sodium hydroxide

Explanation:
B is sodium hydroxide (NaOH). It is obtained by the electrolytic decomposition of solution of sodium chloride (brine). When electricity is passed through an aqueous solution of sodium chloride (brine), it decomposes to form sodium hydroxide. Chlorine gas is given off at the anode, and the hydrogen gas at the cathode. The process is called chlor – alkali process because of the products formed Chlor for chlorine and alkali for sodium hydroxide.

Question 2.

What type of reaction occurs when B is treated with an acidic oxide?

(A) Neutralisation
(B) Double decomposition
(C) Combination
(D) Displacement
Answer:
(A) Neutralisation

Explanation:
Neutralisation reaction occurs when B is treated with an acidic oxide.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 ScienceChapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 3.

What is the raw material used in chloro-alkali?

(A) Aqueous solution of sodium chloride
(B) Sodium chloride in dry form
(C) Sodium hydroxide
(D) Sodium carbonate
Answer:
(A) Aqueous solution of sodium chloride

Explanation:
The raw material used in chloro- alkali is NaOH. 2NaOH (s) + CO2 (g)→ Na2CO2 (s) + H2O(l)

Question 4.

When aqueous sodium carbonate (Na2 CO2) reacts with HCl (aq), it gives

(A) NaOH, H2 and CO2
(B) NaCl, H2O and CO2
(C) NaHCO3, H2 and CO2
(D) NaHCO3 , H2O and CO2
Answer:
(B) NaCl, H2 0 and CO2

Explanation:
The chemical reaction is as follows:
Na2 CO2(aq) + 2HCl(aq) → 2NaCl + H2 O + CO2 .

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

Metals and Non-metals Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Question 1.

Which one of the following metals does not react with cold as well as hot water?

(A) Na
(B) Ca
(C) Mg
(D) Fe
Answer:
(D) Fe
Explanation:
Metals like aluminium, zinc, iron do not react with hof/cold water. They react with water only when water is in the form of steam.
3Fe + 4H2O → Fe3O4 + 4H2.

Metals and Non-metals

Question 2.

What happens when calcium is treated with water?

(i) It does not react with water.
(ii) It reacts violently with water.
(iii) It reacts less violently with water.
(iv) Bubbles of hydrogen gas formed stick to the surface of calcium.

(A) (i) and (iv)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (ii)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
(D) (iii) and (iv)

Explanation:
Calcium reacts slowly with water. The reaction forms calcium hydroxide, Ca(OH)2 and hydrogen gas (H2). The calcium metal sinks in water and after an hour or so bubbles of hydrogen are observed, stuck to the surface of the metal.

Question 3.

Generally, non-metals are not lustrous. Which of the following non-metal is lustrous?

(A) Sulphur
(B) Oxygen
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Iodine
Answer:
(D) Iodine

Explanation:
Iodine is a non-metal but it is lustrous.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

Question 4.

An element A is soft and can be cut with a knife. This is very reactive to air and cannot be kept open in air. It reacts vigorously with water. Identify the element from the following:

(A) Mg
(B) Na
(C) P
(D) Ca M
Answer:
(B) Na

Explanation:
Sodium is so soft that can be cut using a knife. It reacts with oxygen or moisture present in air readily and reacts with water vigorously. Because of this sodium is stored in kerosene oil to prevent any reaction or accident.

Question 5.

Which among the following statements is incorrect for magnesium metal?

(A) It burns in oxygen with a dazzling white flame
(B) It reacts with cold water to form magnesium oxide and evolves hydrogen gas
(C) It reacts with hot water to form magnesium hydroxide and evolves hydrogen gas
(D) It reacts with steam to form magnesium hydroxide and evolves hydrogen gas
Answer:
(B) It reacts with cold water to form magnesium oxide and evolves hydrogen gas

Explanation:
Magnesium when reacts with water gives magnesium hydroxide and hydrogen gas and not magnesium oxide.

Question 6.

Electrical wires have a coating of an insulating material. The material, generally used is

(A) Sulphur
(B) Graphite
(C) PVC
(D) All can be used
Answer:
(C) PVC

Explanation:
PVC is a polymer and bad conductor of electricity. It is used as an insulating material for covering electric wires. Graphite is good conductor of electricity, so cannot be used as insulating material. Sulphur is a non-metal although non-conductor of electricity but brittle in nature. So, cannot be used as insulating material.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

Question 7.

Food cans are coated with tin and not with zinc because

(A) zinc is costlier than tin
(B) zinc has a higher melting point than tin
(C) zinc is more reactive than tin
(D) zinc is less reactive than tin A
Answer:
(C) zinc is more reactive than tin

Explanation:
Food cans are coated with tin and not with zinc because zinc is more reactive than tin.

Question 8.

Which of the given metals is stored under kerosene to prevent oxidation?

(A) Copper
(B) Potassium
(C) Magnesium
(D) Calcium
Answer:
(B) Potassium

Explanation:
Potassium and Sodium react vigorously with oxygen in air and catch fire. These metals are stored under kerosene oil to prevent oxidation.

Question 9.

Which of the following metals exist in their native state in nature?

(i) Cu
(ii) Au
(iii) Zn
(iv) Ag

(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iv)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
(C) (ii) and (iv)
Explanation:
Metals such as gold and silver are found as native metals.

Question 10.

Galvanization is a method of protecting iron from rusting by coating with a thin layer of

(A) Gallium
(B) Aluminium
(C) Zinc
(D) Silver
Answer:
(C) Zinc

Explanation:
In the process of galvanization, iron is covered by a coat of zinc. This layer of zinc prevents iron from getting rusted.

Question 11.

Which of the following metals are obtained by electrolysis of their chlorides in molten state?

(i) Na
(ii) Ca
(iii) Fe
(iv) Cu

(A) (i) and (iv)
(B) (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (i) and (ii)
Answer:
(D) (i) and (ii)

Explanation:
Sodium and calcium fall towards the top of reactivity series. Since, sodium and calcium are very reactive, these metals cannot be reduced to pure form, from their oxides or carbonates.
Thus, sodium and calcium are obtained by the process of electrolysis of their chlorides.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

Question 12.

An electrolytic cell consists of

(i) positively charged cathode
(ii) negatively charged anode
(iii) positively charged anode
(iv) negatively charged cathode

(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iv)
Answer:
(B) (iii) and (iv)

Explanation:
Positively charged ions are called cations as they are deposited at negatively charged pole. Negatively charged ions are called anions as these are deposited at positively charged pole. That’s why the negatively charged pole is called cathode and positively charged pole is called anode.

Question 13.

Alloys are homogeneous mixtures of a metal with a metal or non-metal. Which among the following alloys contain non-metal as one of its constituents?

(A) Brass
(B) Bronze
(C) Amalgam
(D) Steel
Answer:
(D) Steel

Explanation:
Steel is an alloy of iron and carbon. Mixing of carbon gives strength to iron.

Question 14.

Which of the following are not ionic compounds?

(i) KCl
(ii) Hll
(iii) CCl4
(iv) NaCl

(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iii)
Answer:
(B) (ii) and (iii)

Explanation:
HC1 and CCl4 are not ionic compounds because they are formed by sharing of electrons. These are covalent compounds.

Question 15.

Metals are refined by using different methods. Which of the following metals are refined by electrolytic refining?

(i) Au
(ii) Cu
(iii) Na
(iv) K

(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
(A) (i) and (ii)

Explanation:
Sodium and potassium are extracted by electrolytic reduction. Metals obtained after electrolytic reduction are in pure form. But, copper and gold are in impure form after extraction. Copper and gold are refined by electrolytic refining methods.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

Question 16.

During electrolytic refining of zinc, it gets

(A) deposited on cathode
(B) deposited on anode
(C) deposited on cathode as well as anode
(D) remains in the solution
Answer:
(A) deposited on cathode

Explanation:
Ions of zinc are positively charged, thus while electrolytic refining of zinc, zinc is deposited at cathode (negatively charged pole).

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions : In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is true.

Question 1.

Assertion (A): When a piece of copper metal is added to dilute sulphuric acid, the solution turns blue.
Reason (R): Copper reacts with dilute sulphuric acid to form blue copper (II) sulphate solution.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is true.

Explanation:
When a piece of copper metal is added to dilute sulphuric acid, then it shows no reaction at normal temperature. It is because, copper reacts only with heated sulphuric acid to form blue copper (II) sulphate solution.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): Metals are sonorous.
Reason (R): They are generally brittle in the solid state; they break into pieces when hammered.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Metals are sonorous, malleable I and ductile while non-metals are brittle.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): Gas bubbles are observed when sodium carbonate is added to dilute hydrochloric acid.
Reason (R): Carbon dioxide is given off in the reaction.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Gas bubbles are observed when sodium carbonate is added to dilute hydrochloric acid as CO2 gas is released.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): A mineral is called ore, when metal is extracted from it conveniently and economically.
Reason (R): All ores are minerals but all minerals are not ores.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Minerals are naturally occurring chemical substances in the earth’s crust obtained by mining. But a mineral is called an ore only when the metal can be extracted from it conveniently and economically. Thus, all ores are minerals but all minerals are not ores.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): Usually the sulphide ore is converted to oxide before reduction.
Reason (R): Reduction of oxides occurs easier.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Usually the sulphide ore is converted to oxide before reduction as oxides are easier to reduce.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

Question 6.

Assertion (A): While the extraction of copper, one of the steps involved is Cu2S + 2CU2 O → 6Cu + SO2
Reason (R): In this reaction Cu2S is the reducing agent whereas Cu22O is the oxidising agent.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
The Cu2+ ion in both the compounds gets reduced while sulphur gets oxidised.

Question 7.

Assertion (A): In alumino thermite process, the metals like iron melts due to the heat evolved in the reaction.
Reason (R): The reaction is: Fe2O3 + 2Al → Al2O2 + 2Fe

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Large amount of heat is evolved I which melts iron and can be used for welding.

Case-Based MCQs
Attempt any 4 sub-parts from each question. Each sub-part carries 1 mark.
I. Read the following and answer any four questions from Q.l. to Q.5.
A student took the samples of four metals A, B, C and D and added following solutions one by one. The results obtained have been tabulated as follows:

MetalIron (II) SulphateCopper (II) SulphatZinc SulphateSilver Nitrate
ANo reactionDisplacement
BDisplacementNo reaction
CNo reactionNo reactionNo reactionDisplacement
DNo reactionNo reactionNo reactionNo reaction

Question 1.

Choose the most reactive metal:

(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
Answer:
(B) B

Explanation:
B is the most reactive metal as it I displaces iron from its salt solution.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

Question 2.

Which of the following will displace Cu from its solution of sulphate:

(A) A only
(B) B only
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) B only

Explanation:
B will displace Cu from CuSO4  solution because B is more reactive than copper.

Question 3.

Which is the correct decreasing order of reactivity?

(A) B > A > C > D
(B) A > B > D > C
(C) D > B > A > C
(D) B > A > D > C
Answer:
(A) B > A > C > D

Explanation:
The order of decreasing reactivity is: B > A > C > D B will displace Cu from CuSO4 solution because B is more reactive than copper.

Question 4.

The gas produced when dil. HCl is added to a reactive metal:

(A) Oxygen
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Hydrogen
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Hydrogen

Explanation: Hydrogen gas is produced when dilute HQ is added to a reactive metal.

Question 5.

On the basis of sequence of reactions, identify the most and least reactive elements.
A + BX → AX + B C + AY→ CY + A

(A) Most reactive: C; Least reactive: B
(B) Most reactive: B; Least reactive: C
(C) Most reactive: A; Least reactive: B
(D) Most reactive: B; Least reactive: A
Answer:
(A) Most reactive: C; Least reactive: B

Explanation:
The most reactive metal is C and 1 the least reactive metal is B.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

II. Read the following and answer any four questions from Question l. to Question 5.
When a silvery grey powder of a solid (A) is mixed with a powder of solid (B) no reaction occurs. But if the mixture is ignited and lighted using magnesium ribbon a reaction occurs with evolution of large amount of heat forming product (C) which settles down as liquid metal and the solid product (D) formed floats on the liquid (C). (C) in solid form reacts with moisture to form rust. The amount of heat generated during the reaction is so high that the reaction is used in welding of electric conductors, joints in railway tracks. Based on this information, answer any four questions from Question 1. to Question 5.

Question 1.

Identify A and C?

(A) A-AlandC-Fe
(B) A-Fe and C – Al
(C) A – Mg and C- Al
(D) A – A1 and C – Cu
Answer:
(A) A-AlandC-Fe

Explanation:
A is Al, and C is Fe,O3
2Al (A) + Fe2O3 → 2Fe (C) + 2Al2O3

Question 2.

Identify B and D which are oxides of:

(A) B-Fe, D – Al
(B) B-Mg,D-Al
(C) B – Al, D-Cu
(D) B – Al, D – Fe
Answer:
(B) B-Mg,D-Al

Explanation:
B is Fe2O3, and D is Al2O3
2A1 + Fe2O3 (B) → 2Fe + 2A12O2 (D)

Question 3.

Amphoteric oxides are:

(A) Metal oxides which do not react with acids but reacts with bases.
(B) Metal oxides which reacts with both acids as well as bases.
(C) Metal oxides which reacts with acids but do not react with bases.
(D) Metal oxides which shows no reaction with either acids or bases.
Answer:
(B) Metal oxides which reacts with both acids as well as bases.

Explanation:
Metal oxides which react with both acids as well as bases to produce salt and water are called amphoteric oxides.
Examples:
Al2O3 + 6HCl →2AlCl3 + 3H2O
Al2O3 + 2NaOH → 2NaAlO2 + H2O

Question 4.

Which of the following is amphoteric in nature ?

(A) Both aluminium oxide and zinc oxide
(B) Only zinc oxide
(C) Only aluminium oxide
(D) Neither of them.
Answer:
(A) Both aluminium oxide and zinc oxide

Explanation:
Aluminium oxide reacts with hydrochloric add to produce aluminium chloride (salt) and behaves as basic oxide. Similarly, it also reacts with sodium hydroxide (base) to produce sodium aluminate (salt) and behaves as addic oxide.
Al2O3 + 6HCl → 2AlCl3 + +3H2O
Al2O3 + 2NaOH → 2NaAlO2 + H2O
Zinc oxide reacts with hydrochloric add to produce zinc chloride and behaves as basic oxide. Similarly, it also reacts with sodium hydroxide to produce sodium zincate and behaves as addic oxide.

Question 5.

The reaction in which heat is generated is called as:

(A) Exothermic reaction
(B) Endothermic reaction
(C) Decomposition reaction
(D) Precipitation reaction
Answer:
(A) Exothermic reaction

Explanation:
Reaction in which heat is released along with formation of products are called exothermic reactions..
Example: Burning of natural gas.

CH2 (g) + 2O2(g)  CO(g) + 2HO + Heat

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

III. Read the following and answer any four questions from Question l. to Question 5.

Sohan went door to door posing as a goldsmith. He promised to bring back the glitter of old and dull gold ornaments. An unsuspecting lady gave a set of gold bangles to him which he dipped in a particular solution. The bangles sparkled like new but their weight was reduced drastically. The lady was sad but after a futile argument, the man beat a hasty retreat.

Question 1.

Which of the following is used for dissolution of gold?

(A) Hydrochloric acid
(B) Sulphuric acid
(C) Nitric acid
(D) Aqua regia
Answer:
(D) Aqua regia

Explanation:
Aqua Regia is a mixture of concentrated HNO3 and concentrated HCl. It is used for dissolution of gold.

Question 2.

The composition of aqua-regia is

(A) Dil. HCl: Cone. HNO3 3:1
(B) Cone. HCl: Dil. HNO3 3:1
(C) Cone. HCl: Cone. HNO3 3:1
(D) Dil. HCl: Dil. HNO3 3:1
Answer:
(C) Cone. HCl: Cone. HNO3 3:1

Explanation:
Aqua regia is a mixture of nitric acid and hydrochloric acid, that is 3 part cone. HCl and one part cone. HNO3 (3:1).

Question 3.

Which of the following is incorrect?

(A) Aqua regia is a strong oxidising agent.
(B) Aqua regia is a strong reducing agent.
(C) Aqua regia dissolves gold in it.
(D) Aqua regia is a mixture of hydrochloric acid and nitric acid.
Answer:
(B) Aqua regia is a strong reducing agent.

Explanation:
Aqua Regia is a strong oxidizing agent due to the formation of NOCl (Nitrosyl chloride) and chlorine produced by reaction of two acids.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

Question 4.

Aqua regia dissolves:

(A) Gold and platinum
(B) Gold and silver
(C) Platinum and silver
(D) Only gold
Answer:
(A) Gold and platinum

Explanation:
Aqua Regia is a mixture of concentrated HNO3 and concentrated HCl. Concentrated HNO3 acts as a very strong oxidising agent which ionises Au atoms and Concentrated HCl produces nascent chlorine which in turn reacts with ionised Au atoms thus forming auric chloride.

Question 5.

Examples of Noble metals are:

(A) Gold
(B) Silver
(C) Platinum
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Explanation:
The noble metals are a group of metals that resist oxidation and corrosion in moist air. The noble metals are not easily attacked by adds. Gold, silver and copper are noble metals.

lV. Read the following and answer any four questions from Question l. to Question 5.
During extraction of metals, electrolytic refining is used to obtain pure metals. During the process, the impure metal is made the anode and a thin strip of pure metal is made the cathode. The solution of the metal salt is used as an electrolyte. On passing the current through the electrolyte, the pure metal from the anode dissolves from the electrolyte. An equivalent of pure metal from the electrolyte is deposited on the cathode.

Question 1.

The process of purification of the metal obtained after reduction, is called:

(A) Extraction
(B) Refining
(C) Froth floatation
(D) Electrolysis
Answer:
(B) Refining

Explanation:
Refining of metal is the process of purification of the metal obtained after reduction.

Question 2.

Which of the metals are refined by electrolytic refining?

(i) Au
(ii) Cu
(iii) Na
(iv) K

(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iv)
Answer:
(A) (i) and (ii)

Explanation:
Metals like Cu, Zn, Ag and Au are refined by electrolytic refining.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

Question 3.

During electrolytic refining of zinc, it gets

(A) deposited on cathode.
(B) deposited on anode.
(C) deposited on cathode as well as anode.
(D) remains in the solution.
Answer:
(A) deposited on cathode.

Explanation:
Ions of zinc are positively charged, thus while electrolytic refining of zinc, zinc is deposited at cathode (negatively charged pole).

Question 4.

In electrolytic refining of copper, impure copper act as ……….. and pure copper as ………… :

(A) cathode, anode
(B) cathode, electrolyte
(C) anode, cathode
(D) electrolyte, cathode
Answer:
(C) anode, cathode

Explanation:
In electrolytic refining of copper, anode act as impure copper while cathode is a strip of pure copper.
At anode: Cu(s) Cu,2+ (aq) + 2e
At cathode: Cu2+ (aq) + 2e + Cu (s)

Question 5.

The anode is ………….. and the reaction at the anode is………… .

(A) negative, oxidation
(B) negative, reduction
(C) positive, oxidation
(D) positive, reduction
Answer:
(C) positive, oxidation

Explanation:
The anode is positive and cathode is negative electrode. The reaction at the anode is oxidation and that at the cathode is reduction.

V. Read the following and answer any four questions from Question l. to Question 5.
Metallic Character:
The ability of an atom to donate electrons and form positive ion (cation) is known as electro-positivity or metallic character. Down the group, metallic character increases due to increase in atomic size and across the period, from left to right electro¬positivity decreases due to decrease in atomic size.

Non-Metallic Character:
The ability of an atom to accept electrons to form a negative ion (anion) is called non-metallic character or electronegativity. The elements having high electro-negativity have a higher tendency to gain electrons and form anion.
Down the group, electronegativity decreases due to increase in atomic size and across the period, from left to right electro -negativity increases due to decrease in atomic size.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals 1

Question 1.

Which of the following correctly represents the decreasing order of metallic character of Alkali metals plotted in the graph?

(A) Cs>Rb>Li>Na>K
(B) K>Rb>Li>Na>Cs
(C) Cs>Rb>K>Na>Li
(D) Cs>K>Rb>Na>Li
Answer:
(C) Cs>Rb>K>Na>Li

Explanation:
As we move down the group atomic radius increases so the metallic character also increases. So, the correct sequence is : Cs>Rb>K>Na>Li

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

Question 2.

Hydrogen is placed along with Alkali metals in the modern periodic table though it shows non-metallic character:

(A) as Hydrogen has one electron & readily loses electron to form negative ion.
(B) as Hydrogen can easily lose one electron like alkali metals to form positive ion.
(C) as Hydrogen can gain one electron easily like Halogens to form negative ion.
(D) as Hydrogen shows the properties of non-metals,
Answer:
(B) as Hydrogen can easily lose one electron like alkali metals to form positive ion.

Explanation:
Hydrogen is placed along with Alkali metals in the modern periodic table though it shows non-metallic character as Hydrogen can easily lose one electron like alkali metals to form positive ion.

Question 3.

Which of the following has highest electronegativ-ity?

(A) F
(B) Cl
(C) Br
(D) I
Answer:
(A) F

Explanation:
Electronegativity increases when moves towards period and decrease when toward group.

Question 4.

Identify the reason for the gradual change in electronegativity in halogens down the group.

(A) Electronegativity increases down the group due to decrease in atomic size.
(B) Electronegativity decreases down the group due to decrease in tendency to lose electrons.
(C) Electronegativity decreases down the group due to increase in atomic radius/ tendency to gain electron decreases.
(D) Electronegativity increases down the group due to increase in forces of attractions between nucleus & valence electrons.
Answer:
(C) Electronegativity decreases down the group due to increase in atomic radius/ tendency to gain electron decreases.

Explanation:
Electronegativity decreases down the group due to increase in atomic radius/ tendency to gain electron decreases.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

Question 5.

Which of the following reason correctly justifies that “Fluorine (72pm) has smaller atomic radius than Lithium (152pm)”?

(A) F and Li are in the same group. Atomic size increases down the group
(B) F and Li are in the same period. Atomic size increases across the period due to increase in number of shells
(C) F and Li are in the same group. Atomic size decreases down the group
(D) F and Li are in the same period and across the period atomic size/radius decreases from left to right.
Answer:
(D) F and Li are in the same period and across the period atomic size/radius decreases from left to right.

Explanation:
F and Li are in the same period and across the period atomic sizeadius decreases from left to right.

VI. In a thermite reaction, a compound of iron reacts with a metal.

Question 1.

The metal used is:

(A) Zinc
(B) Aluminium
(C) Magnesium
(D) None of these.
Answer:
(B) Aluminium

Explanation:
Aluminium (Al) is used in thermite process. Al is the reducing agent.

Question 2.

After completion of this reaction, a metal is obtained in the molten state. Identify the metal:

(A) Zinc
(B) Aluminium
(C) Iron
(D) Magnesium
Answer:
(C) Iron

Explanation:
Al reacts with oxygen to form aluminium oxide (Al22O3) which is amphoteric in nature.

Question 3.

The correct equation to justify thermite reaction is:

(A) Fe2O2+ 2Al → 2Fe + Al2O2 – Heat.
(B) Fe22O2 + 2Al → 2Fe + Al2O2 + Heat.
(C) Al22O2+ 2Fe → 2Al + Fe2O2+ Heat.
(D) Fe22O2+ 2Al → 2Fe + A12O2.
Answer:
(B) Fe22O2 + 2Al → 2Fe + Al2O2 + Heat.
Explanation:
In the thermite process, iron (III) oxide is heated with aluminium, which results in evolution of high amount of heat which melts iron. This molten iron is used to fill the cracked machine parts. Fe2O3 (s) + 2Al(s) → 2Fe(l) + Al2O3  (s) + Heat

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

Question 4.

The correct name for Fe2O3 is:

(A) Ferrous oxide
(B) Ferric oxide
(C) Ferrous hydroxide
(D) Ferric hydroxide
Answer:
(B) Ferric oxide
Explanation:
The correct name for Fe2O2 is ferric oxide.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

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MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 11 Work and Energy

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 11 Work and Energy with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Work and Energy Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Work and Energy Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Work and Energy Multiple Choice Questions of Class 9 Science Chapter 11 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Work and Energy Class 9 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 11 Science Class 9 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
When a body falls freely towards the earth, then its total energy:
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) first increases and then decreases

Answer

Answer: (c) remains constant


Question 2.
In case of negative work, the angle between the force and displacement is:
(a) 0°
(b) 45°
(c) 90°
(d) 180°

Answer

Answer: (d) 180°


Kinetic Energy Calculator calculates the kinetic energy as well as mass and velocity of an object.

Question 3.
Water stored in a dam possesses:
(a) no energy
(b) electrical energy
(c) kinetic energy
(d) potential energy

Answer

Answer: (d) potential energy


Question 4.
Which one of the following is not the unit of energy?
(a) Joule
(b) Newton meter
(c) Kilowatt
(d) Kilowatt hour

Answer

Answer: (c) Kilowatt


Question 5.
A body is falling from a height h, After it has fallen a height \(\frac{h}{2}\), it will possess:
(a) only potential energy
(b) only kinetic energy
(c) half potential and half kinetic energy
(d) more kinetic and less potential energy

Answer

Answer: (c) half potential and half kinetic energy


Question 6.

The capacity of a body to perform work is called:
(a) Energy
(b) Work
(c) Power
(d) Heat

Answer

Answer: (a) Energy


Question 7.
The rate of work done is called:
(a) Energy
(b) Power
(c) Capacity
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Power


Question 8.
The capacity to perform work is obtained from :
(a) Food
(b) Energy
(c) Power
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Energy


Question 9.
An object of mass, m moving with velocity v has a kinetic energy of:
(a) \(\frac{1}{2} m v^{2}\)
(b) mgh
(c) \(\frac{2 m}{v^{2}}\)
(d) 2mv2

Answer

Answer: (a) \(\frac{1}{2} m v^{2}\)


Question 10.
The gravitational potential energy of an object of mass, m raised through a height, h from the earth’s surface is given by:
(a) \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2
(b) mgh
(c) \(\frac{1}{2}\) mgh
(d) 2mgh

Answer

Answer: (b) mgh


Question 11.
If the displacement of the object is zero then the work done on an object by a force would be:
(a) 1 Joule
(b) 0.1 Joule
(c) 3.6 × 106 Joule
(d) zero

Answer

Answer: (d) zero


Question 12.
What is the energy possessed by an object due to its motion?
(a) Potential energy
(b) Electrical energy
(c) Kinetic energy
(d) None of them

Answer

Answer: (c) Kinetic energy


Fill in the Blanks.

Question 13.
1 kJ equals ______

Answer

Answer: 1000 J


Question 14.
_______ formulated a law for the heating effect of electric current.

Answer

Answer: James Prescott Joule


Question 15.
The kinetic energy of an object ______ with its speed.

Answer

Answer: increases


Question 16.
An object in motion possesses what is known as the ________ of the object.

Answer

Answer: kinetic energy


Question 17.
The S.I. unit of power is ________

Answer

Answer: Watt


Question 18.
The energy total of every system always remains _________

Answer

Answer: constant


Question 19.
The energy stored in the water-filled in the dam is _________

Answer

Answer: potential energy


Question 20.
The S.I. unit of kinetic energy is ________

Answer

Answer: Joule


Question 21.
The S.I. unit of work is ________

Answer

Answer: Joule


Question 22.
The rate of work done is called _______

Answer

Answer: power


True/False.

Question 23.
The energy used in one hour at the rate of 1 kW is called 1 kWh.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 24.
James Prescott Joule is best known for his research in electricity and thermodynamics.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 25.
Any object that does not possess energy can do work.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 26.
The unit of energy is, the same as that of work.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 27.
Work = Force × Displacement along the direction of the force.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 28.
The formula of kinetic energy is EK = mgh.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 29.
Work is a vector quantity.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 30.
The unit of energy in the C.G.S. system is erg.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 31.
The palm gets warmed while rubbing due to performing work.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 32.
Work has only magnitude and no direction.

Answer

Answer: True


Match the Column.

Question 33.

AB
1. 1 Joule(i) Scalar quantity
2. Work(ii) 746 Watt
3. Power(iii) Force × Displacement
4. 1 horsepower(iv) 1 Newton × 1 meter
5. Energy(v) Work/Time
Answer

Answer:

AB
1. 1 Joule(iv) 1 Newton × 1 meter
2. Work(iii) Force × Displacement
3. Power(v) Work/Time
4. 1 horsepower(ii) 746 Watt
5. Energy(i) Scalar quantity

Answer in one Word/Sentence.

Question 34.
Is work done or energy a scalar or a vector quantity?

Answer

Answer: Scalar


Question 35.
Is power is a scalar or a vector quantity?

Answer

Answer: Scalar


Question 36.
Who verified experimentally the law of conservation of energy and discovered the value of the mechanical equivalent of heat?

Answer

Answer: James Prescott Joule


Question 37.
Write an expression for the kinetic energy of an object.

Answer

Answer: Kinetic energy, EK = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2


Question 38.
What is called the sum of the kinetic and potential energies of an object?

Answer

Answer: Mechanical energy


Question 39.
Write the S.I. unit of power.

Answer

Answer: Watt


Question 40.
What is defined as the capacity of doing work?

Answer

Answer: Energy


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