MCQ Questions

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 6 Tissues

MCQ Questions /

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 6 Tissues with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Tissues Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Tissues Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Tissues Multiple Choice Questions of Class 9 Science Chapter 6 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Tissues Class 9 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 6 Science Class 9 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which tissue is present at the growing tips of stem and roots ?
(a) Permanent
(b) Meristematic
(c) Conductive
(d) Complex

Answer

Answer: (b) Meristematic

Question 2.
Blood is a type of:
(a) connective tissue
(b) muscular tissue
(c) nervous tissue
(d) epithelial tissue

Answer

Answer: (a) connective tissue

Question 3.
Brain is composed of:
(a) muscular tissue
(b) connective tissue
(c) nervous tissue
(d) epithelial tissue

Answer

Answer: (c) nervous tissue

Question 4.
The heart of organisms is made up of:
(a) muscular tissue
(b) connective tissue
(c) nervous tissue
(d) epithelial tissue

Answer

Answer: (a) muscular tissue

Question 5.
Skin of hand is composed of:
(a) muscular tissue
(b) connective tissue
(c) nervous tissue
(d) epithelial tissue

Answer

Answer: (d) epithelial tissue

Question 6.
Water and minerals are transported by:
(a) phloem
(b) cavities
(c) xylem
(d) all of them

Answer

Answer: (c) xylem

Question 7.
Stomata are found:
(a) in the epidermis of leaf
(b) in xylem
(c) in phloem
(d) collenchyma

Answer

Answer: (a) in the epidermis of leaf

Question 8.
Which muscles act involuntarily?
(i) Striated muscles
(ii) Smooth muscles
(iii) Cardiac muscles
(iv) Skeletal muscles
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: (b) (ii) and (iii)

Question 9.
Which is not a function of epidermis?
(a) Protection from adverse condition
(b) Gaseous exchange
(c) Conduction of water
(d) Transpiration

Answer

Answer: (c) Conduction of water

Question 10.
Cartilage is not found in:
(a) nose
(b) ear
(c) kidney
(d) larynx

Answer

Answer: (c) kidney

Fill in the Blanks.

Question 11.
_______ is a group of cells similar in structure and function.

Answer

Answer: Tissue

Question 12.
________ can be epithelial, connective, muscular and nervous tissue.

Answer

Answer: Animal tissues

Question 13.
________ is made of neurons that receive and conduct impulses.

Answer

Answer: Nervous tissue

Question 14.
The cells of permanent tissues do not ________

Answer

Answer: divide

Question 15.
When parenchyma contains chloroplast, then it is called _________

Answer

Answer: chlorenchyma

Question 16.
________ is the meristem at the base of the leaves or intemodes of stem.

Answer

Answer: Intercalary meristem

Question 17.
When many tissues join together, they form an _________

Answer

Answer: organ

Question 18.
Phloem ________ food from leaves to other parts of the plant.

Answer

Answer: transports

Question 19.
_______ transports the water and minerals absorbed by roots to the other parts of the plant.

Answer

Answer: Xylem

True/False.

Question 20.
Meristematic tissue is the dividing tissue present in the growing regions of the plant.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 21.
Blood and lymph are vascular connective tissue.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 22.
Heart muscles are voluntary muscles.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 23.
Cartilage is present in the nose and larynx.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 24.
Cork cambium is an example of lateral meristem.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 25.
Parenchyma with large air cavities are called aerenchyma.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 26.
Liginified thickened walls provide mechanical strength to the plant.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 27.
Heart muscles are connected with skeleton.

Answer

Answer: False

Match the Column.

Question 28.

AB
1. Connective tissue(i) Sclerenchyma
2. Nervous tissue(ii) Voluntary as well as involuntary muscles
3. Coir of coconut(iii) Involuntary muscles
4. Muscles of the heart(iv) Phloem
5. Eyelid(v) Neuron
(vi) Blood
Answer

Answer:

AB
1. Connective tissue(vi) Blood
2. Nervous tissue(v) Neuron
3. Coir of coconut(i) Sclerenchyma
4. Muscles of the heart(iii) Involuntary muscles
5. Eyelid(ii) Voluntary as well as involuntary muscles

Question 29.

AB
1. Fluid connective tissue(i) Subcutaneous layer
2. Filling of space inside the organs(ii) Cartilage
3. Striated muscle(iii) Skeletal muscle
4. Adipose tissue(iv) Areolar tissue
5. Surface of joints(v) Blood
6. Stratified squamous epithelium(vi) Skin
Answer

Answer:

AB
1. Fluid connective tissue(v) Blood
2. Filling of space inside the organs(iv) Areolar tissue
3. Striated muscle(iii) Skeletal muscle
4. Adipose tissue(i) Subcutaneous layer
5. Surface of joints(ii) Cartilage
6. Stratified squamous epithelium(vi) Skin

Answer in one Word/Sentence.

Question 30.
Which gas is required in photosynthesis?

Answer

Answer: Carbon dioxide (CO2)

Question 31.
Which tissue makes up the coir of coconut?

Answer

Answer: Sclerenchyma

Question 32.
Which connective tissue fills the space inside the organs?

Answer

Answer: Areolar connective tissue

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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 Reproductive Health with Answers

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Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 Reproductive Health with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Reproductive Health Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Reproductive Health Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Reproductive Health Multiple Choice Questions of Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Reproductive Health Class 12 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 4 Biology Class 12 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Select the correct answer:

Question 1.
The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum in assisted reproductive technology is called :
(a) GIFT
(b) ZIFT
(c) ICSI
(d) ET

Answer

Answer: (c) ICSI

Question 2.
Increased IMR and decreased MMR in a population will:
(a) Cause rapid increase in growth rate
(b) Result in decline in growth rate
(c) Not cause significant change in growth rate
(d) Result in an explosive population.

Answer

Answer: (c) Not cause significant change in growth rate

Question 3.
Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive due to the :
(a) Suppression of gonadotropins
(b) Hyper secretion of gonadotropins
(c) Suppression of gametic transport
(d) Suppression of fertilisation.

Answer

Answer: (a) Suppression of gonadotropins

Question 4.
Sterilisation techniques are generally foolproof methods of contraception with least side effects. Yet, this is the last option for the couples because :
(i) It is almost irreversible
(ii) Of the misconception that it will reduce sexual urge/drive
(iii) It is a surgical procedure
(iv) Of lack of sufficient facilities in many parts of the country Choose the correct option :
(a) i and iii
(b) ii and iii
(c) ii and iv
(d) i, ii, iii and iv

Answer

Answer: (d) i, ii, iii and iv

Question 5.
A national level approach to build up a reproductively healthy society was taken up in our country in :
(a) 1950s
(b) 1960s
(c) 1980s
(d) 1990s.

Answer

Answer: (a) 1950s

Question 6.
Emergency contraceptives are effective if used within:
(a) 72 hrs of coitus
(b) 72 hrs of ovulation
(c) 72 hrs of menstruation
(d) 72 hrs of implantation

Answer

Answer: (a) 72 hrs of coitus

Question 7.
Choose the right one among the statements given below:
(a) lUDs are generally inserted by the user herself
(b) lUDs increase phagocytosis reaction in the uterus
(c) lUDs suppress gametogenesis
(d) lUDs once inserted need not be replaced.

Answer

Answer: (b) lUDs increase phagocytosis reaction in the uterus

Question 8.
The following statements are given regarding MTP. Choose the correct options given below:
(i) MTPs are generally advised during first trimester
(ii) MTPs are used as a contraceptive method
(iii) MTPs are always surgical
(iv) MTPs require the assistance of qualified medical personnel
(a) i and iii
(b) ii and iii
(c) i and iv
(d) i and ii

Answer

Answer: (c) i and iv

Question 9.
From the sexually transmitted diseases mentioned below, identify the one which does not specifically affect the sex organs:
(a) Syphilis
(b) AIDS
(c) Gonorrhoea
(d) Genital warts

Answer

Answer: (b) AIDS

Question 10.
Condoms are one of the most popular contraceptives because of the following reasons:
(a) These are effective barriers for insemination
(b) They do not interfere with coital act
(c) These help in reducing the risk of STDs
(d) All of the above.

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above.

Question 11.
Choose the correct statement regarding the ZIFT procedure :
(a) Ova collected from a female donor are transferred to the fallopian tube to facilitate zygote formation
(b) Zygote is collected from a female donor and transferred to the fallopian tube
(c) Zygote is collected from a female donor and transferred to the uterus
(d) Ova collected from a female donor and transferred to the uterus

Answer

Answer: (b) Zygote is collected from a female donor and transferred to the fallopian tube

Question 12.
The correct surgical procedure as a contraceptive method is:
(a) Ovariectomy
(b) Hysterectomy
(c) Vasectomy
(d) Castration.

Answer

Answer: (c) Vasectomy

Question 13.
Diaphragms are contraceptive devices used by females. Choose the correct option from the statements given below :
(i) They are introduced into the uterus
(ii) They are placed to cover the cervical region
(iii) They act as physical barriers for sperm entry
(iv) They act as spermicidal agents
(a) i and ii
(b) i and iii
(c) i, ii and iii
(d) iii and iv

Answer

Answer: (c) i, ii and iii

Question 14.
A procedure that finds use in testing for genetic disorders, but is also misused for female foeticide is:
(a) Lactational amenorrhea
(b) Amniocentesis
(c) Artificial insemination
(d) Parturition

Answer

Answer: (b) Amniocentesis

Assertion and Reason Type Questions

These questions consist of two statements each, printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
Question 15.
Assertion: The annual growth rate of Indian population has declined from 2.22% in 1981 to 1.8% in 2001.
Reason: More and more Indians are adopting family planning measures.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

Question 16.
Assertion: Potential natality is never realised.
Reason: Biotic potential is resisted by environmental resistance.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

Question 17.
Assertion: Overpopulation causes a number of socio-economic problems.
Reason: A number of diseases have been controlled.

Answer

Answer: (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

Question 18.
Assertion: Test-tube baby has raised several legal problems.
Reason: Test-tube baby involves in vitro fertilisation followed by embryo transfer.

Answer

Answer: (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

Question 19.
Assertion: Nowadays, there are less childless couples.
Reason: A number of measures are now available by which even infertile couples can have child.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

Question 20.
Assertion: Copper-T is an effective contraceptive device in human females.
Reason: Copper-T prevents passage of sperms from vagina upwards into fallopian tubes.

Answer

Answer: (c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.

Question 21.
Assertion: Sex education in schools is necessary.
Reason: Sex education may eliminate certain myths and conceptions among students.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

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MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 7 Diversity in Living Organisms

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Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 7 Diversity in Living Organisms with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Diversity in Living Organisms Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Diversity in Living Organisms Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Diversity in Living Organisms Multiple Choice Questions of Class 9 Science Chapter 7 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Diversity in Living Organisms Class 9 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 7 Science Class 9 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Mammals are:
(a) warm-blooded
(b) cold-blooded
(c) both
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (a) warm-blooded

Question 2.
Reptiles are:
(a) warm-blooded
(b) cold-blooded
(c) both
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (b) cold-blooded

Question 3.
The book ‘Systema Naturae’ was written by:
(a) Carolus Linnaeus
(b) Whittaker
(c) Haeckel
(d) None of them

Answer

Answer: (a) Carolus Linnaeus

Question 4.
How many research papers of Carolus Linnaeus were published on classification?
(a) 12
(b) 13
(c) 14
(d) 16

Answer

Answer: (c) 14

Question 5.
Which among the following produce seeds?
(a) Thallophyta
(b) Bryophyta
(c) Pteridophyta
(d) Gymnosperms

Answer

Answer: (d) Gymnosperms

Question 6.
Who proposed the nomenclature system of living organisms first of all?
(a) Robert Hooke
(b) Carolus Linnaeus
(c) Leeuwenhoek
(d) Schleiden

Answer

Answer: (b) Carolus Linnaeus

Question 7.
Who is considered the father of taxonomy?
(a) Carolus Linnaeus
(b) Robert Hooke
(c) Leeuwenhoek
(d) Schleiden

Answer

Answer: (a) Carolus Linnaeus

Question 8.
Which one is a true fish?
(a) Jellyfish
(b) Starfish
(c) Dogfish
(d) Silverfish

Answer

Answer: (c) Dogfish

Question 9.
Which among the following have an open circulatory system?
(i) Arthropoda
(ii) Mollusca
(iii) Annelida
(iv) Coelenterata
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: (a) (i) and (ii)

Question 10.
Gymnosperms are kept under:
(a) Algae
(b) Bryophyta
(c) Tracheophyta
(d) None of them

Answer

Answer: (c) Tracheophyta

Question 11.
Which among the following have scales?
(i) Amphibians
(ii) Pisces
(iii) Reptiles
(iv) Mammals
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i) and (ii)

Answer

Answer: (c) (ii) and (iii)

Question 12.
The amphibian animal is:
(a) Fish
(b) Frog
(c) Lizard
(d) Bat

Answer

Answer: (b) Frog

Question 13.
Identify a member of Porifera:
(a) Spongilla
(b) Euglena
(c) Penicillium
(d) Hydra

Answer

Answer: (a) Spongilla

Question 14.
Two chambered heart occurs in:
(a) crocodiles
(b) fish
(c) aves
(d) amphibians

Answer

Answer: (b) fish

Fill in the Blanks.

Question 15.
In Amoeba, locomotory organs are _________

Answer

Answer: pseudopodia

Question 16.
Locomotory organs of Euglena are __________

Answer

Answer: flagella

Question 17.
Locomotory organs are not found in ______ types of protozoa.

Answer

Answer: sporozoan

Question 18.
Locomotory organs of paramoecium are _________

Answer

Answer: cilia

True/False.

Question 19.
Charles Darwin first described the idea of natural selection in 1859 in his book, “The origin of species.”

Answer

Answer: True

Question 20.
Whittaker proposed a five kingdom classification.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 21.
Tropical regions of the earth, between the tropic of cancer and the tropic of Capricorn, are rich in diversity of plants and animals.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 22.
An earthworm is a unisexual animal.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 23.
Monera is divided into Archaebacteria and Eubacteria.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 24.
Blue-green algae belong to the kingdom Protista.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 25.
Starting from class, species come before the Genus.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 26.
All prokaryotes are classified under Monera.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 27.
The cockroach is an example of class Insecta.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 28.
Whale fish is not a mammal.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 29.
The word Porifera means animals with holes.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 30.
Molluscans have an open circulatory system and kidney like organs for excretion.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 31.
Kangaroos give birth to underdeveloped young ones which are nurtured in a bag attached to their abdomen.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 32.
In binomial nomenclature, the first name represents the species, and the second represents the genus.

Answer

Answer: False

Match the Column.

Question 33.

AB
1. Naked seed(i) Angiosperms
2. Covered seed(ii) Gymnosperms
3. Flagella(iii) Bryophytes
4. Marchantia(iv) Euglena
5. Marsilea(v) Thallophyta
6. Cladophora(vi) Pteridophyta
7. Penicillium(vii) Fungi
Answer

Answer:

AB
1. Naked seed(ii) Gymnosperms
2. Covered seed(i) Angiosperms
3. Flagella(iv) Euglena
4. Marchantia(iii) Bryophytes
5. Marsilea(vi) Pteridophyta
6. Cladophora(v) Thallophyta
7. Penicillium(vii) Fungi

Question 34.

AB
1. Kingdom Monera(i) Rhizopus
2. Kingdom Protista(ii) Earthworm
3. Kingdom Plantae(iii) Amoeba
4. Kingdom Fungi(iv) Bacteria
5. Kingdom Animalia(v) Algae
Answer

Answer:

AB
1. Kingdom Monera(iv) Bacteria
2. Kingdom Protista(iii) Amoeba
3. Kingdom Plantae(v) Algae
4. Kingdom Fungi(i) Rhizopus
5. Kingdom Animalia(ii) Earthworm

Answer in one Word/Sentence.

Question 35.
What is the basic unit of classification?

Answer

Answer: Species

Question 36.
In which kingdom will you place an organism which is single-celled, eukaryotic, and photosynthetic?

Answer

Answer: In Protista

Question 37.
Write the scientific name of a human being.

Answer

Answer: Homo sapiens

Question 38.
Who gave the 5-kingdom classification?

Answer

Answer: R. Whittaker

Question 39.
The ‘Origin of Species’ is written by:

Answer

Answer: Charles Darwin

Question 40.
Name the locomotory organs of starfish.

Answer

Answer: Tube feet

Question 41.
Which is the largest group of animals?

Answer

Answer: Arthropoda

Question 42.
How many chambers are there in heart of aves?

Answer

Answer: Four

Question 43.
Who is the father of Binomial Nomenclature?
or
Who is the father of Taxonomy?

Answer

Answer: Carolus Linnaeus

Question 44.
How many chambers are there in the crocodile’s heart?

Answer

Answer: Four Chambers

Question 45.
In which animal does locomotion occur by pseudopodia?

Answer

Answer: Amoeba

Question 46.
How many chambers are there in the reptile’s heart?

Answer

Answer: Three chambers (Incompletely four chambers)

Question 47.
Give the name of the locomotory organ of Euglena.

Answer

Answer: Flagella

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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases with Answers

MCQ Questions /

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Breathing and Exchange of Gases Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Breathing and Exchange of Gases Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Breathing and Exchange of Gases Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Biology Chapter 17 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Breathing and Exchange of Gases Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 17 Biology Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

I. Select the correct answers from the following questions:

Question 1.
Which of the following is not a step in the process of respiration?
(a) Breathing
(b) Diffusion of oxygen from blood to tissues
(c) Production of energy
(d) Diffusion of oxygen from tissues to blood

Answer

Answer: (a) Breathing

Question 2.
The atmosphere contains CO2 by volume
(a) 0.1%
(b) 0.5%
(c) 0.03%
(d) 0.3%

Answer

Answer: (c) 0.03%

Question 3.
Sudden deep inspiration is due to
(a) Increase in concentration of O2
(b) Increase in concentration of CO2
(c) Decrease in concentration of CO2
(d) Decrease in concentration of CO2

Answer

Answer: (b) Increase in concentration of CO2

Question 4.
A man respires about
(a) 40 times per minute
(b) 72 times per minute
(c) 12-16 times per minute
(d) 100 times per minute

Answer

Answer: (c) 12-16 times per minute

Question 5.
In which form CO2 is carried in blood
(a) Sodium bicarbonate
(b) Sodium carbonate
(c) Potassium bicarbonate
(d) Potassium carbonate

Answer

Answer: (d) Potassium carbonate

Question 6.
In man, gas exchange between the environment and the body takes place in
(a) Bronchi
(b) Larynx
(c) Alveoli
(d) Trachea

Answer

Answer: (c) Alveoli

Question 7.
Inspiration would not occur if the
(a) Diaphragm is elevated
(b) Diaphragm is lowered
(c) Ribs are elevated
(d) Ribs are elevated and diaphragm is lowered

Answer

Answer: (a) Diaphragm is elevated

Question 8.
Which one of the following does not contribute to the breathing movement in mammals?
(a) Abdominal muscles
(b) Larynx
(c) Ribs
(d) Diaphragm

Answer

Answer: (c) Ribs

Question 9.
Breathing centre that controls normal breathing in mammals lies in
(a) Mid brain
(b) Cerebellum
(c) Cerebrum
(d) Medulla oblongata

Answer

Answer: (a) Mid brain

Question 10.
If a person stays on hill for some days:
(a) His body will step up production of RBCs
(b) His body will step down production of RBCs
(c) His RBCs will turn into very large cells
(d) No change in the contents of RBCs in the body

Answer

Answer: (a) His body will step up production of RBCs

Question 11.
The largest quantity of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiratory effort is
(a) Tidal volume
(b) Vital capacity of lungs
(c) Lung volume
(d) Residual volume

Answer

Answer: (c) Lung volume

Question 12.
Which of the following facts suggests that O2 is transported from lungs to the tissues combined with haemoglobin rather than dissolved in blood plasma:
(a) Oxyhaemoglobin can dissociate into haemoglobin and O2
(b) An increase in CO2 concentration decreases the O2 affinity of haemoglobin
(c) Haehaemoglobin can combine with O2
(d) O2 carrying capacity of whole blood is higher than that of plasmsa and O2 content of blood leaving the lungs is greater than that of blood entering the lungs.

Answer

Answer: (d) O2 carrying capacity of whole blood is higher than that of plasma and O2 content of blood leaving the lungs is greater than that of blood entering the lungs.

Question 13.
If a man from sea coast of Mumbai goes to Mount Everest:
(a) His breathing rate and heart beat will increase
(b) His breathing rate and heart beat will decrease
(c) His breathing rate will increase, but heart beat will decrease
(d) His breathing rate will decrease, but heart beat will increase.

Answer

Answer: (a) His breathing rate and heart beat will increase

Question 14.
Body tissues obtain oxygen from oxyhaemoglobin because of its dissociation caused by
(a) Low CO2 concentration
(b) Low O2 and high CO3 concentration
(c) High CO2 concentration
(d) Low oxygen concentration

Answer

Answer: (b) Low O2 and high CO2 concentration

Question 15.
Lungs are covered by
(a) Perichondrium
(b) Pleura
(c) Periosteum
(d) Pericardium

Answer

Answer: (d) Pericardium

Question 16.
Tidal air is
(a) Total air taken into lungs
(b) Air that comes in and goes out in normal breathing
(c) Air inhaled in deep breathing
(d) Air expelled forcibly after normal inspiration

Answer

Answer: (b) Air that comes in and goes out in normal breathing

Question 17.
Lung lobes of human being are
(a) 2 left and 3 right
(b) 3 in each
(c) 2 in each
(d) 3 left and 2 right

Answer

Answer: (a) 2 left and 3 right

Question 18.
Body cavity is divided into thoracic
(a) Heart
(b) Liver
(c) Lungs
(d) Diaphragm

Answer

Answer: (d) Diaphragm

Question 19.
Breathing becomes faster in fever because
(a) Fever stimulates the respiratory centre of the man
(b) Oxygen carrying capacity of blood becomes lower
(c) Oxygen is used in fighting germs
(d) Increase in temperature increases metabolic rate requiring more oxygen

Answer

Answer: (d) Increase in temperature increases metabolic rate requiring more oxygen

Question 20.
Excess of water absorbed by human being is passed out in urine. Other sources is
(a) Inspiration
(b) Expiration
(c) Defaecation
(d) Salivation

Answer

Answer: (b) Expiration

Question 21.
Exchange of gases between the blood and the tissue of the body is called
(a) Internal respiration
(b) Cellular respiration
(c) External respiration
(d) Counter current exchange

Answer

Answer: (a) Internal respiration

Question 22.
Respiration involves in which following step:
(a) Transport of gases by the blood
(b) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between the blood and the tissues
(c) Diffusion of gases (O2 and CO2) across alveolar membrane.
(d) All of these functions.

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these functions.

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
This process of exchange exchange of O2 from the atmosphere with CO2 produced by the cells is called …………… commonly known as …………….

Answer

Answer: breathing, respiration

Question 2.
…………… use their moist cuticle for respiration.

Answer

Answer: Earthworms

Question 3.
Among vertebrates, fishes respire through gills wheres ………….. and ………….. and ……………. use …………….

Answer

Answer: reptiles, birds, mammals, lungs

Question 4.
…………… like …………… can respire through their moist skin also.

Answer

Answer: Nasopharynsx, frogs

Question 5.
The nasal chamber opens into …………… which is a portion of pharyax, the common passage for ………….. and …………..

Answer

Answer: nasopharynx, food, air

Question 6.
Nasopharynx opens through glottis of the larynx region into the ……………..

Answer

Answer: trachea

Question 7.
The lungs are situated in the thoracic chamber which is anatomically an ………………

Answer

Answer: air-tight chamber

Question 8.
Breathing involves two stages: ……………… during which atmospheric air is drawn in and ……………. by which the alveolar air is released out.

Answer

Answer: inspiration, expiration

Question 9.
On an average, a healthy human respires …………….. times/minute.

Answer

Answer: 12-16

Question 10.
Total ……………. of air a person can inspire after a normal …………….

Answer

Answer: Volume, expiration

Question 11.
Volume of air that will remain in the ………… after a normal expiration. This includes ……………

Answer

Answer: lungs, ERV+RV

Question 12.
………….. and ……………. are exchanged in these sites by simple diffusion mainly based on pressure/concentration gradient.

Answer

Answer: O2, CO2

Question 13.
All the factors in our body are favourable for diffusion of ……………. from alveoli to tissues and that of …………… from tissues to alveoli.

Answer

Answer: O2, CO2

Question 14.
About ………….. of CO2 is carried in a dissolved state through ………….

Answer

Answer: 7 percent, plasma

Question 15.
O2 can bind with haemoglobin in a reversible manner to form ……………….

Answer

Answer: oxvhaemoglobin

III. Mark the statment True (T) or False (F)

Question 1.
Each haemoglobin molecule can carry a maximum of four molecules of O2.

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 2.
O2 is carried by haemoglobin as carbamino-haemoglobin (about 25-20 percent).

Answer

Answer: False.

Question 3.
Every 10 mL of oxygenated blood can deliver around 10 ml of O2 to the tissues under normal physiological conditions.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 4.
In the alveoli, where there is low pO2, high pCO2, higher H+ concentration and lesser temperature.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 5.
Every 100mL of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately 4 ml of CO2 to the alveoli.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 6.
The role of oxygen in the regulation of respiratory rhythm is quite insignificant.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 7.
Asthma is a difficulty in breathing causing wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 8.
In certain industries, especially those involving grinding or stone¬breaking, so much dust is produced that the defence mechanism of the body cannot fully cope with.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 9.
Emphysema is a chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are damaged due to which respiratory surface is decreased. One of the major causes of this is cigarette smoking.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 10.
The first step in respiration is breathing by which atmospheric air is taken in and the alveolar air is released out.

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 11.
It is approx 800 ml., i.e., a healthy man can inspire or expire approximately 2000 to 8000 ml of air per minute.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 12.
Volume of air remaining in the lungs even after a forcible expiration. This averages-100 mL to 200 mL.

Answer

Answer: False

IV. Match the items in column I with Column II

Column IColumn II
(a) Tidal volume1. averages 1000 ml to 1100 ml
(b) RV2. averages 2500 ml to 3000 ml
(c) ERV3. TV + IRV
(d) Inspiratory capacity4. approximately 6000 to 8000 ml of air per minute
(e) IRV5. averages 1100 ml to 1200 ml
(f) EC6. pO2 for oxygen and pCO2 for carbon dioxide
(g) FRC7. transported by RBC whereas 70 percent of it is carried as bicarbonate.
(h) Vital capacity8. TV + ERV
(i) Total lung Capacity9. transported by RBCs in the blood.
(j) Partial pressure10. for respiration
(k) About 97 percent of O2 is11. called lungs
(l) Nearly, 20-25 percent of CO2 is12. ERV + RV
(m) Gills13. This includes RV, ERV, TV and IRV
(n) Vascularised bags14. This includes ERV, TV and IRV
(o) Larynx is a cartilaginous box15. Sound box
Answer

Answer:

Column IColumn II
(a) Tidal volume4. approximately 6000 to 8000 ml of air per minute
(b) RV5. averages 1100 ml to 1200 ml
(c) ERV1. averages 1000 ml to 1100 ml
(d) Inspiratory capacity3. TV + IRV
(e) IRV2. averages 2500 ml to 3000 ml
(f) EC8. TV + ERV
(g) FRC12. ERV + RV
(h) Vital capacity14. This includes ERV, TV and IRV
(i) Total lung Capacity13. This includes RV, ERV, TV and IRV
(j) Partial pressure6. pO2 for oxygen and pCO2 for carbon dioxide
(k) About 97 percent of O2 is9. transported by RBCs in the blood.
(l) Nearly, 20-25 percent of CO2 is7. transported by RBC whereas 70 percent of it is carried as bicarbonate.
(m) Gills10. for respiration
(n) Vascularised bags11. called lungs
(o) Larynx is a cartilaginous box15. Sound box

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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation with Answers

MCQ Questions /

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Body Fluids and Circulation Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Body Fluids and Circulation Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Body Fluids and Circulation Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Biology Chapter 18 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Body Fluids and Circulation Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 18 Biology Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

I. Select the correct answer from the following questions:

Question 1.
Heart is incompletely 4 chambered in
(a) Amphibian
(b) Birds
(c) Fishes
(d) Reptiles

Answer

Answer: (d) Reptiles

Question 2.
Blood will lose maximum O2 while passing through
(a) Left atrium
(b) Arteries
(c) Tissue capillaries
(d) Alvelor capillaries

Answer

Answer: (c) Tissue capillaries

Question 3.
Ventricular systole is stimulated by
(a) S-A node
(b) A-V aperture
(c) A-V node
(d) A-V valve

Answer

Answer: (c) A-V node

Question 4.
Lymph lacks
(a) Erythrocytes
(b) Plasma proteins
(c) Platelets
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 5.
The sound dupp in heart is produced by
(a) Closure of semilunar valves
(b) Closure of A-V valves
(c) Opening of A-V Valves
(d) Opening of semilunar valves

Answer

Answer: (a) Closure of semilunar valves

Question 6.
Heart beat initiates from
(a) Bundle of his
(b) Purkinje fibres
(c) Sinuauricular node
(d) Auriculoventricular node

Answer

Answer: (c) Sinuauricular node

Question 7.
Pulmonary vein carries
(a) Pure blood from heart
(b) Impure blood from lungs
(c) Pure blood from lungs
(d) Impure blood from heart

Answer

Answer: (c) Pure blood from lungs

Question 8.
Blood and lymph differ in
(a) Blood has cells while lymph is without cells
(b) Blood has RBCs which are absent in lymph
(c) Blood has several inorganic substances which are absent in lymph
(d) Blood has WBCs which are absent in lymph

Answer

Answer: (b) Blood has RBCs which are absent in lymph

Question 9.
Blood platelets are source of
(a) Calcium
(b) Fibrinogen
(c) Haemoglobin
(d) Thrombolastin

Answer

Answer: (d) Thromboplastin

Question 10.
Pacemaker of the heart is
(a) A-V node
(b) I-A septum
(c) S-A node
(d) A-V septum

Answer

Answer: (c) S-A node

Question 11.
Valves are found in veins to check the back flow of the blood, flowing under
(a) Low pressure
(b) High pressure
(c) Very high pressure
(d) No pressure

Answer

Answer: (a) Low pressure

Question 12.
The vessel carrying blood to Bowman’s capsule is
(a) Efferent arteriole
(b) Afferent arteriole
(c) Pulmonary vein
(d) Renal vein

Answer

Answer: (b) Afferent arteriole

Question 13.
Thrombin occurs in vertebrates in
(a) Blood and important for clotting
(b) Liver and initiates secretion
(c) Stomach and digests proteins
(d) Blood and imparts red colour

Answer

Answer: (a) Blood and important for clotting

Question 14.
The blood pressure is measured by the instrument
(a) Stethoscope
(b) Echocariograph
(c) Sphymomanometer
(d) Electrocardiograph

Answer

Answer: (c) Sphymonanometer

Question 15.
Which of the following carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart
(a) Pulmonary veins
(b) Renal vein
(c) Hepatic vein
(d) Jugular vein

Answer

Answer: (a) Pulmonary veins

Question 16.
A pacemaker is meant for
(a) Transplanting heart
(b) Transplanting liver
(c) Regulation of blood flow
(d) Initiation of heart beats

Answer

Answer: (d) Initiation of heart beats

Question 17.
In which animal haemoglobin is dissolved
(a) Earthworm
(b) Frog
(c) Cockroach
(d) Rabbit

Answer

Answer: (a) Earthworm

Question 18.
Blood circulation was first discovered by
(a) His
(b) Darwin
(c) Lansteiner
(d) Harvey

Answer

Answer: (d) Harvey

Question 19.
Average heart beat/pulse rate in adult human being is
(a) 80/ minute
(b) 72/minute
(c) 100/minute
(d) 60/minute

Answer

Answer: (b) 72/minute

Question 20.
Normal blood pressure in an adult human beings is
(a) 200/110
(b) 120/80
(c) 100/60
(d) 150/100

Answer

Answer: (b) 120/80

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
…………. is the most commonly used body fluid by most of the higher organisms including ………… for this purpose.

Answer

Answer: Blood, humans

Question 2.
Another body fluid, …………. also helps in the transport of certain substances.

Answer

Answer: lumph

Question 3.
Blood is a special connective tissue consisting of a fluid matrix, …………. and formed elements.

Answer

Answer: plasma

Question 4.
…………., …………. and …………. are the major proteins.

Answer

Answer: Fibrinogen, globulins, albumins

Question 5.
Plasma is a ………… coloured, viscous fluid constituting nearly …………. percent of the blood.

Answer

Answer: straw, 55

Question 6.
Plasma also contains small amount of minerals like ……………….. etc.

Answer

Answer: Ca++, Mg++, HCO3– Cl–

Question 7.
RBCs are formed in the …………… in the adults.

Answer

Answer: red bone marrow

Question 8.
A healthy individual has ………….. gms of haemoglobin in every 100 ml of blood.

Answer

Answer: 12-16

Question 9.
………….. are also known as white blood cells.

Answer

Answer: Leucocytes

Question 10.
Both ………….. are responsible for immune responses of the body.

Answer

Answer: B and T lymphocytes

Question 11.
Platelets also called …………… are cell fragments produced from ……………. (special cells in the bone marrow).

Answer

Answer: thrombocytes, megakryocytes

Question 12.
The distribution of antigens and antibodies in the four groups of blood. ………….., ……….., ………. and …………. are given

Answer

Answer: A, B, AB, O

Question 13.
Such individuals are called ……………. and those in whom this antigen is absent are called ……………

Answer

Answer: Rh positive (Rh+ve), Rh negative (Rh-ve)

Question 14.
A specialised cardiac musculature called the ……………. is also distributed in the heart.

Answer

Answer: nodal tissue

Question 15.
These branches give rise to minute fibres throughout the ventricular musculature of the respective sides and are called ……………

Answer

Answer: purkinje fibres

III. Mark the statements True (T) or False (F):

Question 1.
The SAN can generate maximum number of action potentials i.e., 70-75 per minute and is responsible for initiating and maintaining the rhythmic contractile activity of the heart. Therefore, it is called the pacemaker.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 2.
Ventricular systole increases the ventricular pressure causing the closure of tricuspid and bicuspid valves due to attempted backflow of blood into the atria.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 3.
Our heart normally beats 50-60 times in a minute.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 4.
During a cardiac cycle, each ventricle pumps out approximately 70 ml of blood which is called the stroke volume

Answer

Answer: True

Question 5.
The cardiac output of an athlete will be much higher than that of an ordinary man

Answer

Answer: True

Question 6.
During each cardiac cycle two prominent sounds are produced which can be easily heard through a stethoscope

Answer

Answer: True

Question 7.
ECG is a graphical representation of the electrical activity of the heart during a cardiac cycle

Answer

Answer: True

Question 8.
To obtain a standard ECG, a patient is connected to the machine with three electrical leads (one to each wrist and to the left ankle) that continuosly monitor the heart activity

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 9.
The T-wave represents the electrical excitation (or depolarisation) of the atria, which leads to the contraction of both the atria.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 10.
The P-wave represents the return of the ventricles from excited to normal state (repolarisation).

Answer

Answer: False

Question 11.
A special coronary system of blood vessels is present in our body exclusively for the circulation of blood to and from the cardiac musculature.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 12.
Adrenal medullary 7 hormones can also increase the cardiac output.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 13.
Hypertension is the term for blood pressure that is higher than normal (120/80). High blood pressure leads to heart diseases and also affects vital organs like brain and kidney.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 14.
Coronary Artery Disease, often referred to as atherosclerosis, affects the vessels that supply blood to the heart muscle.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 15.
Heart failure means the state of heart which is not pumping blood effectively enough to meet the needs of the body.

Answer

Answer: True

IV. Match the items of Column I with the items of Column II Column

Column IColumn II
(a) Angina pectoris1. Systolic
(b) 120 mm Hg (milimetres of mercury pressure)2. Diastolic
(c) 80 mm Hg (milimetres of mercury pressure)3. myogenic
(d) Heart is called4. A symptom of acute chest pain appears when enough oxygen is not reaching the heart muscle.
(e) Plasme is a5. Water and proteins contribute 6-8 pecent of it.
(f) 90-92 percent of plasma is6. against the Rh antigens
(g) Erythrocytes or7. White blood cells (WBC)
(h) Leucocytes8. Straw coloured
(i) Thrombocytes9. called ‘Universal donors
(j) ‘O’ group individuals are10. Red blood ceils (RBC)
(k) AB group11. Called ‘Universal recipients
(l) An Rh-ve person if exposed to Rh+Ve blood will form specific antibodies12. Platelets
(m) Lymph is a colourless fluid containing specialised lymphocytes13. Which are responsible for the immune responses of the body.
(n) Annelids and chordates have a14. Closed circulatory system.
(o) Rh antigens of the foetus do not get exposed to the Rh-ve blood of15. the mother in the first pregnancy as the two bloods are well separated by the placenta.
Answer

Answer:

Column IColumn II
(a) Angina pectoris4. A symptom of acute chest pain appears when enough oxygen is not reaching the heart muscle.
(b) 120 mm Hg (milimetres of mercury pressure)1. Systolic
(c) 80 mm Hg (milimetres of mercury pressure)2. Diastolic
(d) Heart is called3. myogenic
(e) Plasme is a8. Straw coloured
(f) 90-92 percent of plasma is5. Water and proteins contribute 6-8 pecent of it.
(g) Erythrocytes or10. Red blood ceils (RBC)
(h) Leucocytes7. White blood cells (WBC)
(i) Thrombocytes12. Platelets
(j) ‘O’ group individuals are9. called ‘Universal donors
(k) AB group11. Called ‘Universal recipients
(l) An Rh-ve person if exposed to Rh+Ve blood will form specific antibodies6. against the Rh antigens
(m) Lymph is a colourless fluid containing specialised lymphocytes13. Which are responsible for the immune responses of the body.
(n) Annelids and chordates have a14. Closed circulatory system.
(o) Rh antigens of the foetus do not get exposed to the Rh-ve blood of15. the mother in the first pregnancy as the two bloods are well separated by the placenta.

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MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 10 Gravitation

MCQ Questions /

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 10 Gravitation with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Gravitation Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Gravitation Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Gravitation Multiple Choice Questions of Class 9 Science Chapter 10 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Gravitation Class 9 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 10 Science Class 9 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The unit of G in the S.I. system is:
(a) Newton m2/kg2
(b) Newton m2 kg2
(c) Newton m kg
(d) Newton m2/kg

Answer

Answer: (a) Newton m2/kg2

Question 2.
The gravitational constant is denoted by which symbol?
(a) g
(b) M
(c) G
(d) k

Answer

Answer: (c) G

Question 3.
The unit of weight in the S.I. system is:
(a) kg m2
(b) Newton
(c) ms-2
(d) ms

Answer

Answer: (b) Newton

Question 4.
When an object is released from a height, its initial velocity is:
(a) u = 100 ms-1
(b) u = 9.8 ms-1
(c) u = 0
(d) u = \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Answer

Answer: (c) u = 0

Question 5.
The relation between g and G is:
(a) \(g=\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{R}^{2}}\)
(b) g = GMR2
(c) \(g=\frac{M R^{2}}{G}\)
(d) \(g=\frac{\mathrm{GR}^{2}}{\mathrm{M}}\)

Answer

Answer: (a) \(g=\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{R}^{2}}\)

Question 6.
The mass of the earth is:
(a) 6.4 × 1024
(b) 6 × 1010 kg
(c) 6 × 1024 kg
(d) 6 × 1019 kg

Answer

Answer: (c) 6 × 1024 kg

Question 7.
The radius of the earth is:
(a) 6.4 × 10-6 m
(b) 6.4 × 106 m
(c) 4.6 × 106 m
(d) 6.4 × 104 m

Answer

Answer: (b) 6.4 × 106 m

Question 8.
By applying the universal law of gravitation, the weight of the object on the moon will be:
(a) \(\mathrm{W}_{m}=\frac{\mathrm{GR}_{m}^{2}}{\mathrm{M}_{m} \times m}\)
(b) \(\mathrm{W}_{m}=\frac{\mathrm{GM}_{m} \times \mathrm{R}_{m}^{2}}{m}\)
(c) \(\mathrm{W}_{m}=\mathrm{G} \frac{\mathrm{R}_{m}^{2} \times m}{\mathrm{M}_{m}}\)
(d) \(\mathrm{W}_{m}=\mathrm{G} \frac{\mathrm{M}_{m} \times m}{\mathrm{R}_{m}^{2}}\)

Answer

Answer: (d) \(\mathrm{W}_{m}=\mathrm{G} \frac{\mathrm{M}_{m} \times m}{\mathrm{R}_{m}^{2}}\)

Question 9.
The value of acceleration due to gravity:
(a) is the same on the equator and poles
(b) is least on poles
(c) is least on the equator
(d) increases from pole to equator

Answer

Answer: (c) is least on the equator

Question 10.
The value of quantity G in the law of gravitation:
(a) depends on the mass of earth only
(b) depends on the radius of the earth only
(c) depends on both the mass and radius of the earth
(d) is independent of the mass and radius of the earth

Answer

Answer: (d) is independent of the mass and radius of the earth

Question 11.
The atmosphere is held to the earth by:
(a) gravity
(b) wind
(c) clouds
(d) earth’s magnetic field

Answer

Answer: (a) gravity

Question 12.
Law of gravitation gives the gravitational force between:
(a) the earth and a point mass only
(b) the earth and sun only
(c) any two bodies having some mass
(d) two charged bodies only

Answer

Answer: (c) any two bodies having some mass

Fill in the Blanks.

Question 1.
Force of gravitation due to the earth is called _________

Answer

Answer: gravity

Question 2.
The force of gravity _______ with altitude.

Answer

Answer: decreases

Question 3.
The force of gravity _______ from poles to the equator.

Answer

Answer: decreases

Question 4.
The ______ of a body is the force with which the earth attracts it.

Answer

Answer: weight

Question 5.
The accepted value of G is _________

Answer

Answer: 6.673 × 10-11 Nm2 kg-2

Question 6.
Relative density has ______ unit.

Answer

Answer: no

Question 7.
The value of g is taken as _________

Answer

Answer: 9.8 ms-2

True/False.

Question 1.
The value of acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 ms-2

Answer

Answer: True

Question 2.
The value of acceleration due to gravity on the moon is g/6.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 3.
The value of G was found out by Henry Cavendish by using a sensitive balance.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 4.
The mass of an object is constant and does not change from place to place.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 5.
The relative density of a substance is the product of its density and that of water.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 6.
Gravitation is a weak force unless bodies of large masses are involved.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 7.
The weight of an object is equal to the ratio of its mass and acceleration due to gravity.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 8.
The weight may vary from place to place but the mass stays constant.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 9.
All objects experience a force of buoyancy when they are immersed in a fluid.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 10.
Objects having more density than that of the liquid in which they are immersed, float on the surface of the liquid.

Answer

Answer: False

Match the Column.

Question 1.

AB
1. The value of g(i) g/6
2. The value of G(ii) maximum
3. The value of g at the centre of the earth(iii) 6.673 × 10-1 Nm2 kg-2
4. The value of g at the earth’s poles(iv) 9.8 ms-2
5. The value of g on the moon(v) zero
Answer

Answer:

AB
1. The value of g(iv) 9.8 ms-2
2. The value of G(iii) 6.673 × 10-1 Nm2 kg-2
3. The value of g at the centre of the earth(v) zero
4. The value of g at the earth’s poles(ii) maximum
5. The value of g on the moon(i) g/6

Answer in one Word/Sentence.

Question 1.
Write down the formula which shows the relation between the mass of the earth M, the radius of the earth R, acceleration due to gravity g, and universal constant of gravitation G.

Answer

Answer: \(g=\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{R}^{2}}\)

Question 2.
What will be the change in the value of g while going in-depth?

Answer

Answer: The value of g decreases

Question 3.
What is the value of g on earth’s center?

Answer

Answer: Zero

Question 4.
What will be the weight of a person, sitting in a spacecraft which is revolving around the earth?

Answer

Answer: Zero

Question 5.
Write S.I. unit of G.

Answer

Answer: Nm2 kg-2 or Nm2/kg2

Question 6.
How many newtons are there in 1 kg weight?

Answer

Answer: 9.8 N

Question 7.
What is the value of acceleration due to gravity at the moon?

Answer

Answer: 1.63 ms-2

Question 8.
Write the S.I. unit of pressure.

Answer

Answer: N/m2 or Nm-2

Question 9.
Which symbol is used to show the S.I. unit of pressure?

Answer

Answer: Pa (Pascal)

Question 10.
What is the thrust on a unit area called?

Answer

Answer: Pressure

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