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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 19 Excretory Products and their Elimination with Answers

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Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 19 Excretory Products and their Elimination with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Excretory Products and their Elimination Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Excretory Products and their Elimination Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Excretory Products and their Elimination Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Biology Chapter 19 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Excretory Products and their Elimination Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 19 Biology Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

I. Select the correct answer from the following questions:

Question 1.
Blood coming out of liver has high concentration of
(a) Urea
(b) Protein
(c) Erythrocytes
(d) Oxygen.

Answer

Answer: (a) Urea.

Question 2.
Urinary bladder opens into
(a) tlreter
(b) Urethra
(c) Uterus
(d) All of these.

Answer

Answer: (b) Urethra.

Question 3.
Reabsorption of water in the kidney is under control of
(a) ACTH
(b) LH
(c) PSH
(d) ADH.

Answer

Answer: (d) ADH.

Question 4.
A normal adult excretes urine per day
(a) 3-4 litres
(b) 4-5 litres
(c) 12-i5 litres
(d) 2-3 litres.

Answer

Answer: (c) 12-15 litres.

Question 5.
Excretory product of mammals in mainly
(a) Uric acid
(b) Ammonia
(c) Urea
(d) Creatinine.

Answer

Answer: (c) Urea.

Question 6.
Loop of Henle lies in
(a) Medulla
(b) Ureter
(c) Cortex
(d) Pelvis.

Answer

Answer: (a) Medulla.

Question 7.
Removal of amino group from an amino acid is
(a) Amination
(b) Excretion
(c) Deamination
(d) Defecaetion.

Answer

Answer: (d) Defecaetion.

Question 8.
Glomerular filtrate differs from plasma
(a) Yellowish colour
(b) Presence of urea
(c) Absence of proteins
(d) Potassium concentration

Answer

Answer: (c) Absence of proteins.

Question 9.
Glomerular present in glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in
(a) Distal convoluted tubule
(b) Bowman’s capsule
(c) Loop of Henle
(d) Proximal convoluted tubule.

Answer

Answer: (d) Proximal convoluted tubule.

Question 10.
Nitrogenous wastes are excreted as uric acid in birds to help in
(a) Elimination of excess heat
(b) Conservation of body heat
(c) Reduce the change of kidney stone formation
(d) Conservation of water inside body.

Answer

Answer: (d) Conservation of water inside body.

Question 11.
Structural and functional unit of kidney is
(a) Loop of Henle
(b) Malpighian body
(c) Glomerular
(d) Nephron.

Answer

Answer: (d) Nephron.

Question 12.
Glomerular capillaries receive blood having a hydrostatic pressure of
(a) 80mm Hg.
(b) 85mm Hg.
(c) 75mm Hg.
(d) 90mm Hg.

Answer

Answer: (c) 75 mm. Hg.

Question 13.
Excretion of urea is called
(a) Ammonotelism
(b) Uricotelism
(c) Urination
(d) Ureotelism.

Answer

Answer: (d) Ureotelism.

Question 14.
In glycosuria, urine contains
(a) Glucose
(b) Inoraganic ions
(c) Amino acids
(d) Epithelial cells.

Answer

Answer: (a) Glucose.

Question 15.
The major excretory organs in mosquitoes are
(a) Flame cells
(b) Nephrons
(c) Nephridia
(d) Malpighian tubules.

Answer

Answer: (d) Malpighian tubules.

Question 16.
Filration in the nephron is brought about by
(a) Passive diffusion
(b) Active transport
(c) Secretion
(d) Blood pressure.

Answer

Answer: (d) Blood pressure.

Question 17.
The plasma resembles in its composition with the filtrate produced in glomerulus except for the presence of
(a) Amino acids
(b) Glucose
(c) Chlorides
(d) Proteins.

Answer

Answer: (d) Proteins.

Question 18.
When a person is suffering from poor renal reabsorption which one of the following will not help in maintenance of blood volume?
(a) Increased ADH secretion
(b) Decreased arterial pressure in kidneys
(c) Increased arterial pressure in kidneys
(d) Decreased glomerular filtration.

Answer

Answer: (c) Increased arterial pressure in kidneys.

Question 19.
In such patients, urea can be removed by a process called
(a) Uremia
(b) hemodialysis
(c) renal failures
(d) Glomerulonephritis

Answer

Answer: (b) Hemodialysis.

Question 20.
An adult human excretes on an average of urine per day.
(a) 1 to 1.5 litres
(b) 2 to 2.5 litres
(c) 500 gram
(d) 250 gram

Answer

Answer: (a) 1 to 1.5 litres.

II. Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
………….., …………. and …………. are the major forms of nitrogenous wastes excreted by the animals.

Answer

Answer: Ammonia, urea, uric acid

Question 2.
The process of excreting ………… is Ammonotelism.

Answer

Answer: ammonia

Question 3.
………….. are the tubular excretory structures of earthworms and other annelids.

Answer

Answer: Nephridia

Question 4.
…………… tubules are the excretory structures of most of the insects including cockroaches.

Answer

Answer: Malpighian

Question 5.
…………….. perform the excretory function in crustaceans like prawn.

Answer

Answer: Antennal glands or green glands

Question 6.
In humans, the excretory system consists of ………….., …………., …………. and …………..

Answer

Answer: a pair of kidneys, one pair of ureters, a urinary bladder, a urethra

Question 7.
Each kidney of an adult human measures ………….. in length, …………., ………… with an average weight of ………….

Answer

Answer: 10-12 cm, 5-7 cm in width, 2-3 cm in thickness, 120-170 g

Question 8.
Inside the kidney, there are two zones, an outer cortex and an inner ………….

Answer

Answer: Irrational

Question 9.
A hairpin shaped Henle’s loop is the next part of the tubule which has a ……………..

Answer

Answer: descending and ascending limb

Question 10.
Such nephrons are called ……….. nephrons.

Answer

Answer: cortical

Question 11.
The glomerular capillary blood pressure causes filtration of blood through 3 layers i.e., the …………….. the epithelium of Bowman’s capsule and a basement membrane between these two layers.

Answer

Answer: endothelium of glomerular blood vessels

Question 12.
GFR in a healthy individual is approximately …………..

Answer

Answer: 125ml/minute

Question 13.
Reabsorption of water also occur ………….. in the initial segments of the nephron.

Answer

Answer: passively

Question 14.
Large amounts of water could be reabsorbed conditionally from this region to produce a ……………

Answer

Answer: concentrated urine.

Question 15.
ANF can cause ………….. and thereby …………. the blood pressure.

Answer

Answer: vasodilation, decrease

III. Mark the statements (T) True or (F) False:

Question 1.
ADH facilitates water reabsorption from latter parts of the tubule, thereby preventing diuresis.

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 2.
Angtiotensis II, being a powerful vasoconstrictor, increases the glomerular blood pressure and therby GFR.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 3.
The process of release of urine is called the micturition reflex and the neural mechanisms causing it is called the micturition.

Answer

Answer: False.

Question 4.
The kidneys, lungs, liver and skin also help in the elimination of excretory wastes.

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 5.
Our lungs remove large amounts of CO2 (18 litres/day) and also significant quantities of water every day.

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 6.
Sweat produced by the sweat glands is a watery fluid containing NaCl. small amounts of urea, lactic acid, etc.

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 7.
Kidney transplantation is the ultimate method in the correction of acute renal failures (kidney failure).

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 8.
Stone or insoluble mass of crystallised salts (oxalates) formed within in kidney.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 9.
Human kidneys can produce urine only one tiitie concentrated than the initial filtrate formed.

Answer

Answer: False.

Question 10.
NaCl is transported by the descending limb of Henle’s loop which is exchanged with the ascending limb of vasa recta.

Answer

Answer: False.

Question 11.
Collecting duct also plays a role in the maintenance of pH and ionic balance of blood by the selective secretion of H+ and K+ ions.

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 12.
PCT is also capable of reabsorption of HCO3– and selective recretion of hydrogen and potassium ions.

Answer

Answer: False.

Question 13.
The epithelial cells of Bowman’s capsule called podocytes are arranged in an intricate manner so as to leave some minute spaces called Alteration slits or slit pores.

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 14.
The Malpighian corpuscle, PCT and DCT of the nephron are situated in the cortical region of the kidney where as the loop of Henle dips into the medulla.

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 15.
Antennal glands are the tubular exretory structures of earthworms and other annelids.

Answer

Answer: False.

IV. Match the column I with column II.

Column IColumn II
(a) Aquatic amphibians and aquatic insects are1. Cockroaches
(b) Reptiles, birds, land snails and insects2. Prawn
(c) Malpighian tubules3. Columns of Bertini
(d) Antennal glands or green glands4. Uricotelic animals.
(e) Meduallary pyramids5. ammonotelic in nature.
(f) Proximal convoluted tubule6. Vasodilation and thereby decrease the blood pressure.
(g) Distal convoluted tubule7. CNS (central nervous system)
(h) glomerular nitration rate8. in the skin can eliminate certain substances
(i) Vasa recta9. the renal tubules.
(j) Atrial Natriuretic Facter (ANF) can cause10. PCT
(k) Stretch receptors on the walls of the bladder send signals to the11. sodium-potassium balance in blood.
(l) Sweat and sebaceous glends12. 180 litres per day
(m) Ketone bodies13. DCT
(n) NH3 to maintain the pH14. counter current mechanism
(o) 99 percent of the filtrate has to be reabsorbed by15. Ketonuria
Answer

Answer:

Column IColumn II
(a) Aquatic amphibians and aquatic insects are5. ammonotelic in nature.
(b) Reptiles, birds, land snails and insects4. Uricotelic animals.
(c) Malpighian tubules1. Cockroaches
(d) Antennal glands or green glands2. Prawn
(e) Meduallary pyramids3. Columns of Bertini
(f) Proximal convoluted tubule10. PCT
(g) Distal convoluted tubule13. DCT
(h) glomerular nitration rate12. 180 litres per day
(i) Vasa recta14. counter current mechanism
(j) Atrial Natriuretic Facter (ANF) can cause6. Vasodilation and thereby decrease the blood pressure.
(k) Stretch receptors on the walls of the bladder send signals to the7. CNS (central nervous system)
(l) Sweat and sebaceous glends8. in the skin can eliminate certain substances
(m) Ketone bodies15. Ketonuria
(n) NH3 to maintain the pH11. sodium-potassium balance in blood.
(o) 99 percent of the filtrate has to be reabsorbed by9. the renal tubules.

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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement with Answers

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Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Locomotion and Movement Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Locomotion and Movement Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Locomotion and Movement Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Biology Chapter 20 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Locomotion and Movement Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 20 Biology Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

I. Select the correct answer from the following questions:

Question 1.
Human skull is
(a) Tricondylic
(b) Acondvlic
(c) Dicondylic
(d) Monocondylic

Answer

Answer: (c) Dicondylic.

Question 2.
Cranium of man is formed of bones
(a) 8
(b) 6
(c) 2
(d) 4

Answer

Answer: (a) 8.

Question 3.
Face of skull is formed of bones
(a) 28
(b) 10
(c) 8
(d) 14

Answer

Answer: (d) 14.

Question 4.
Curves in the vertebral column are
(a) 8
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 1

Answer

Answer: (b) 4.

Question 5.
Which vertebra is commonly called yesbone?
(a) Thoracic
(b) Axis
(c) Atlas
(d) Typical carvical.

Answer

Answer: (c) Atlas.

Question 6.
Axis vertebra is characterised by the presence of
(a) Transverse
(b) Odontoid process
(c) Neural spine
(d) Pre and post zygapophysis.

Answer

Answer: (b) Odontoid process.

Question 7.
Total number of cervical vertebrae in human vertebral column are
(a) 3
(b) 12
(c) 7
(d) 5.

Answer

Answer: (c) 7.

Question 8.
Total number of thoracic vertebrae in human vertebral column are
(a) 3
(b) 12
(c) 5
(d) 7

Answer

Answer: (b) 12.

Question 9.
Total number of lambar vertebrae in human vertebral column are
(a) 3
(b) 12
(c) 5
(d) 7

Answer

Answer: (c) 5.

Question 10.
Xiphoid process is the lowest part of
(a) Pectoral girdle
(b) Pelvic girdle
(c) Lumbar vertebrae
(d) Sternum.

Answer

Answer: (d) Sternum.

Question 11.
Trochlea is a part of
(a) Pectoral girdle
(b) Pelvic girdle
(c) Femur
(d) Humerus bone.

Answer

Answer: (d) Humerus bone.

Question 12.
Sigmoid notch is a part of
(a) Ulna bone
(b) Humerus bone
(c) Tibia bone
(d) Radius bone.

Answer

Answer: (d) Radius bone.

Question 13.
Innominate bone is also known as
(a) Pelvic girdle
(b) Pectoral girdle
(c) Clavicle
(d) Sternum

Answer

Answer: (a) Pelvic girdle.

Question 14.
Acetabulum is a part of
(a) Humerus bone
(b) Pelvic girdle
(c) Femur bone
(d) Pectoral girdle

Answer

Answer: (b) Pelvic girdle.

Question 15.
The obturator foramen is a part of
(a) Skull
(b) Spinal cord
(c) Pelvic girdle
(d)Vertebral column.

Answer

Answer: (c) Pelvic girdle.

Question 16.
Articulation of femur with pelvic girdle is an example of
(a) Pivot joint
(b) Hinge joint
(c) Gliding joint
(d) Ball and socket join.

Answer

Answer: (d) Ball and socket join.

Question 17.
Obturator foramen occurs in
(a) Skull
(b) Pelvic girdle
(c) Vertebrae
(d) Pectoral girdle

Answer

Answer: (d) Pelvic girdle.

Question 18.
The total number of bones in human skeleton is
(a) 305
(b) 206
(c) 205
(d) 306

Answer

Answer: (b) 206.

Question 19.
Cervical vertebrae occur in
(a) Neck
(b) Abdomen
(c) Thorax
(d) Tail.

Answer

Answer: (a) Neck.

Question 20.
Knee joint is
(a) Angular joint
(b) Pivot joint
(c) Hinge joint
(d) Ball and socked joint.

Answer

Answer: (c) Hinge joint.

Question 21.
The ions that play an important role in muscle contraction are
(a) Ca++
(b) K+
(c) Na++
(d) Mg++

Answer

Answer: (a) Ca++

Question 22.
Myoglobin is found in
(a) Slow muscle fibres
(b) Blood
(c) Lymph
(d) Fast muscle fibres.

Answer

Answer: (a) Slow muscle fibres

Question 23.
Which of the following proteins is associated with the primary (thick) myofilaments:
(a) Tropomyosin
(b) Actin
(c) Tropoin
(d) Meromyosin.

Answer

Answer: (d) Meromyosin.

Question 24.
The synovial fluid is found in
(a) Internal ear
(b) Freely movable joints
(c) Around the brain
(d) Intercellular spaces.

Answer

Answer: (b) Freely movable joints.

Question 25.
Number of ribs in man is
(a) 16 pairs
(b) 10 pairs
(c) 14 pairs
(d) 12 pairs

Answer

Answer: (d) 12 pairs.

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Human beings can move ……….., …………, …………, ………… etc. Such voluntary movements are called locomotion.

Answer

Answer: limbs, jaws, eyelids, tongue

Question 2.
Cells of the human body exhibit three main types of movements, namely, ……….., …………. and …………..

Answer

Answer: amoeboid, ciliary, muscular

Question 3.
Based on their location, three types of muscles are identified, (i) ………… (ii) ………… and (iii) ………….

Answer

Answer: Skeletal, Visceral, Cardiac

Question 4.
……………. are the muscles of heart. Based on appearance, cardiac muscles are ………….

Answer

Answer: Cardiac muscles, striated

Question 5.
Muscle fibre is a …………. as the sarcoplasm contains many nuclei.

Answer

Answer: syncitium

Question 6.
Each myofibril has alternate …………. and ………… bands on it.

Answer

Answer: dark, light

Question 7.
The thin filaments are firmly attached to the …………..

Answer

Answer: ‘Z’ line.

Question 8.
A complex protein …………… is distributed at regular intervals on the …………..

Answer

Answer: Troponin, tropomyosin

Question 9.
Each meromyosin has two important parts, a …………. with a short arm and a ………….

Answer

Answer: globular head, tail

Question 10.
Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent by the …………… via a motor neuron.

Answer

Answer: central nervous system (CNS)

Question 11.
Muscle contains a red coloured oxygen storing pigment called …………….

Answer

Answer: myoglobin

Question 12.
Skeletal system consists of a framework of bones and …………..

Answer

Answer: few cartilages

Question 13.
Axial skeleton comprises …………. distributed along the main axis of the body.

Answer

Answer: 80 bones

Question 14.
Each middle ear contains three tiny bones- …………., ………….. and stapes, collectively called …………..

Answer

Answer: Malleus, Incus, Ear Ossicles

Question 15.
Our vertebral column is formed by 26 serially arranged units called ………….. and is …………. placed.

Answer

Answer: vertebrae, dorsally

III. Mark the statements (T) True or (F) False

Question 1.
First seven pairs of ribs are called true ribs.

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 2.
The 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs do not articulate directly with the help of hyaline cartilage. These are called vertebrochondral ribs.

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 3.
The bones of the limbs along with their girdles constitute the appendicular skeletion. Each limb is made of 30 bones.

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 4.
The fore limb (hand) bones are humerus, radius and ulna, carpals (wrist bones-8 in number), meta carpals (palm bones – 5 in number) and phalanges (digits- 14 in number).

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 5.
A cup shaped bone called patella cover the knee ventrally (knee cap).

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 6.
Joints are essential for all types of movements involving the bony parts of the body.

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 7.
Auto immune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle. (Myasthenia gravis).

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 8.
Arthritis : Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid crystals.

Answer

Answer: False.

Question 9.
Tetany : Rapid spasms (wild contractions) in muscle is due to lesser Ca++ in body fluid.

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 10.
Human beings can move limbs, jaws, eyelids, tongue etc. Some of the movements result in a change of place or location. Such voluntary movements are called locomotion.

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 11.
Walking, running, climbing, flying, swimming are all some forms of locomotory movements.

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 12.
Only 10 percent of body weight of a human adult is contributed by muscles.

Answer

Answer: False.

Question 13.
Each myosin (thick) filament is also a polymerised protein. Many monomeric proteins called meromyosins constitute one thick filament.

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 14.
The junction between a motor neuron and the sarcolemma of the muscle fibre is called the neuromuscular junction or motor-end plate.

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 15.
Red muscles also contain plenty of mitochondria which can utilise the large amount of oxygen stored in them for ATP production. These muscles, therefore, can also be called aerobic muscles.

Answer

Answer: True.

IV. Match the items of column I with the items of column II

Column IColumn II
(a) Walking1. muscles of heart
(b) Microfilaments2. in the inner walls of hollow
(c) Passage of ova through the female reproductive tract.3. Voluntary muscles.
(d) Striated muscles4. fascia
(e) Cardiac muscles5. locomotory movements.
(f) Visceral muscles6. ciliary movement
(g) Muscle bundles or fascicles7. a globular head with a short arm and a tail.
(h) Actin8. amoeboid movement
(i) Myosin9. Malleus, Incus and stapes
(j)  Meromyosin10. A or Anisotropic band
(k) Ear ossicles11. appendicular skeleton
(l) Thoracic12. I band or Isotropic band
(m) Bones of the limbs13. is a large triangular flat bone
(n) Scapula14. Decreased levels of estrogen is a common cause.
(o) Osteoporosis15. 12.
Answer

Answer:

Column IColumn II
(a) Walking5. locomotory movements.
(b) Microfilaments8. amoeboid movement
(c) Passage of ova through the female reproductive tract.6. ciliary movement
(d) Striated muscles3. Voluntary muscles.
(e) Cardiac muscles1. muscles of heart
(f) Visceral muscles2. in the inner walls of hollow
(g) Muscle bundles or fascicles4. fascia
(h) Actin12. I band or Isotropic band
(i) Myosin10. A or Anisotropic band
(j)  Meromyosin7. a globular head with a short arm and a tail.
(k) Ear ossicles9. Malleus, Incus and stapes
(l) Thoracic15. 12.
(m) Bones of the limbs11. appendicular skeleton
(n) Scapula13. is a large triangular flat bone
(o) Osteoporosis14. Decreased levels of estrogen is a common cause.

Hope the information shared regarding the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement with Answers Pdf free download is true and genuine as far as our knowledge is concerned. If you feel any information regarding CBSE Class 11 Biology Locomotion and Movement MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers is missing do reach us and we will look into it and add it accordingly.

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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 21 Neural Control and Coordination with Answers

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Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 21 Neural Control and Coordination with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Neural Control and Coordination Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Neural Control and Coordination Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Neural Control and Coordination Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Biology Chapter 21 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Neural Control and Coordination Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 21 Biology Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

I. Select the correct answer from the following questions:

Question 1.
Humain brain has greater development of
(a) Optic lobes
(b) Medullu oblongata
(c) Cerebrum
(d) Cerebellum

Answer

Answer: (c) Cerebrum

Question 2.
Outer most covering of brain is
(a) Pia mater
(b) White matter
(c) Arachnoid
(d) Dura mater

Answer

Answer: (d) Dura mater

Question 3.
Third ventricle occurs in
(a) Brain
(b) Skull
(c) Bones
(d) Heart

Answer

Answer: (a) Brain

Question 4.
Tree like branched structure found in cerebellum is
(a) Areole
(b) Arachnoid
(c) Arboreal
(d) Arbor

Answer

Answer: (a) Areole

Question 5.
Number of spinal nerves in human being is
(a) 31
(b) 37
(c) 14
(d) 20

Answer

Answer: (a) 31

Question 6.
Fourth cranial nerve is
(a) Trochlear (Pathetic)
(b) Optic
(c) Oculomotor
(d) Trigeminal

Answer

Answer: (a) Trochlear (Pathetic)

Question 7.
Auditory nerve is responsible for
(a) Sight
(b) Hearing
(c) Smell
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Hearing

Question 8.
Synapse is a dose proximity of
(a) Two veins
(b) Two lymphatics
(c) Two neurons
(d) Two arteries

Answer

Answer: (c) Two neurons

Question 9.
Outer region of spinal cord is
(a) White matter
(b) Grey matter
(c) Pia mater
(d) Dura matere

Answer

Answer: (a) White matter

Question 10.
A nerve impulse leaves a neuron via the
(a) Dendrites
(b) Axon
(c) Cyton
(d) Nucleus

Answer

Answer: (b) Axon

Question 11.
Regulatory control of temperature
(a) Hypothalamus
(b) Cerebellum
(c) Superior
(d) Inferior colliculi

Answer

Answer: (a) Hypothalamus

Question 12.
Endolymph is found in
(a) Internal ear
(b) Cnidoblast
(c) Synovial cavity
(d) Posterior chamber of eye

Answer

Answer: (a) Internal Ear

Question 13.
Sequence of ear ossicles is
(a) Stapes, malleus, incus
(b) Malleus, stapes, incus
(c) malleus, incus, stapes
(d) Incus, stapes, malleus

Answer

Answer: (c) malleus, incus, stapes

Question 14.
Pupil is regulated by
(a) Radial and circular muscles
(b) Meridional muscles
(c) Radial muscles
(d) Circular muscles

Answer

Answer: (d) Circular muscles

Question 15.
The hair cells in the ear are stimulated by movements of
(a) Lymph
(b) Endolymph
(c) Perilymph
(d) Haemolymph

Answer

Answer: (b) Endolymph

Question 16.
Cochlea of mammalian ear helps in
(a) Phonoreception
(b) Sound production
(c) Equilibrium & hearing
(d) Equilibrium

Answer

Answer: (a) Phonoreception

Question 17.
Fovea centralis lacks
(a) Rod ceils
(b) Blood vessels
(c) Covering of nerve fibres
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 18.
Iris is an extension of
(a) Sclera
(b) Retina
(c) Cornea
(d) Choroid and retina

Answer

Answer: (d) Choroid and retina

Question 19.
The optic disc is also called
(a) Blind spot
(b) Fovea
(c) Ora serrata
(d) Optic chiasma

Answer

Answer: (a) Blind spot

Question 20.
The rods are receptors for
(a) Vision
(b) Taste
(c) Smell
(d) Hearing
(e) Touch

Answer

Answer: (a) Vision

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
…………….. is the process through which two or more organs interact and complement the functions of one another.

Answer

Answer: Coordination

Question 2.
The neural system of all animals is composed of highly specialised cells called ‘…………..’ which can detect, receive and transmit different kinds of stimuli.

Answer

Answer: neurons

Question 3.
The human neural system is divided into two parts, namely, (i) ……………. and (ii) …………….

Answer

Answer: the central neural system (CNS), the peripheral neural system.

Question 4.
The nerve fibres of the PNS are of two types, namely, (a) ………….. and (b) …………..

Answer

Answer: afferent fibres, efferent fibres.

Question 5.
The PNS is divided into two divisions called ………….. and …………..

Answer

Answer: somatic neural system, autonomic neural system

Question 6.
A neuron is a microscopic structure composed of three major parts, namely, ……….., …………. and …………

Answer

Answer: cell body, dendrites, axon.

Question 7.
There are two types of axons, namely, ………….. and ………….

Answer

Answer: myelinated, non-myelinated

Question 8.
The brain can be divided into three major parts: (i) ………….., (ii) …………., and (iii) …………..

Answer

Answer: forebrain, midbrain, hind brain

Question 9.
The midbrain is located betwen the …………….. of the forebrain and pons of the hind brain.

Answer

Answer: thalamus/hypothalamus,

Question 10.
The hind brain comprise ……….., …………… and …………

Answer

Answer: pones, cerebellum, medulla.

Question 11.
The iris is called the ………….

Answer

Answer: pupil.

Question 12.
There are two types of photoreceptor cells, namely ………….

Answer

Answer: rods and cones

Question 13.
The photosensitive compounds in the human eyes is composed of ………… (a protein) and …………. (an aldehyde of vitamin A).

Answer

Answer: opsin, retinal

Question 14.
The ear can be divided into three major sections called the …………, the …………. and the ………….

Answer

Answer: outer ear, middle ear, inner ear

Question 15.
The coiled portion of the labyrinth is called ……………

Answer

Answer: cochlea.

III. Mark the statements True (T) or False (F)

Question 1.
The waves in the lymphs induce a ripple in the basilar membrane.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 2.
The saccula and utricle contain a projecting ridge called macula.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 3.
The inner ear also contains a complex system called hair cells.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 4.
The hair cells are present in rows on the internal side of the organ of corti.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 5.
At the base of the cochlea, the scala vestibuli ends at the otolith organ.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 6.
The fluid filled inner ear called labyrinth consists of two parts, the bony and the membranous labyrinths.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 7.
The malleus is attached to the tympanic membrane and the stapes is attached to the oval window of the cochlea.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 8.
The space between the lens and the retina is called aqueous chamber.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 9.
The space between the cornea and the lens is called vitreous chamber

Answer

Answer: False

Question 10.
The ciliary body itself continues forwards to form a pigmented and opaque structure called the iris.

Answer

Answer: True

IV. Match the column I with column II.

Column IColumn II
(a) Photoreceptor cells1. Cerebrum, thalamus and hypothalamus
(b) Dense connective tissue2. Corpus callosum
(c) Choroid3. reflex action
(d) Central nervous system4. rods and cones
(e) Hind brain5. Passes through the mid brain
(f) Cerebral aqueduct6. sclera
(g) Forebrain7. Hypothalamic hormones.
(h) Neurosecretory cells8. Contain many blood vessels
(i) Hemispheres9. Cranial meninges
(j) The brain10. pons, cerebellum and medulla
(k) Neurotransmitters bind11. plasma membrane
(l) Plasma membrane12. resting potential
(m) Nerve impulse13. myelinated and non-myeli nated.
(n) axons14. receptors
(o) neuron15. cell body, dendrites and axon
Answer

Answer:

Column IColumn II
(a) Photoreceptor cells4. rods and cones
(b) Dense connective tissue6. sclera
(c) Choroid8. Contain many blood vessels
(d) Central nervous system3. reflex action
(e) Hind brain10. pons, cerebellum and medulla
(f) Cerebral aqueduct5. Passes through the mid brain
(g) Forebrain1. Cerebrum, thalamus and hypothalamus
(h) Neurosecretory cells7. Hypothalamic hormones.
(i) Hemispheres2. Corpus callosum
(j) The brain9. Cranial meninges
(k) Neurotransmitters bind14. receptors
(l) Plasma membrane12. resting potential
(m) Nerve impulse11. plasma membrane
(n) axons13. myelinated and non-myeli nated.
(o) neuron15. cell body, dendrites and axon

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MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Sound

MCQ Questions /

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Sound with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Sound Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Sound Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Sound Multiple Choice Questions of Class 9 Science Chapter 12 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Sound Class 9 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 12 Science Class 9 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
For hearing a distinct sound, the time interval between the original sound and the reflected one must be at least:
(a) 1 s
(b) 0.1 s
(c) 2 s
(d) 0.2 s

Answer

Answer: (b) 0.1 s

Question 2.
The persistence of sound in an auditorium is the result of repeated reflections of sound and is called:
(a) reverberation
(b) audible
(c) distinct sound
(d) reflection

Answer

Answer: (a) reverberation

Question 3.
The speed v, frequency υ, and wavelength λ, of sound are related by the equation:
(a) v = λυ
(b) υ = λv
(c) λ = υv
(d) v = \(\frac{\lambda}{υ}\)

Answer

Answer: (a) v = λυ

Question 4.
The speed of sound is maximum in:
(a) solids
(b) liquids
(c) gases
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) solids

Question 5.
Our ears are sensitive to sound frequencies between:
(a) 20 Hz to 20 kHz
(b) 2 Hz to 20 Hz
(c) 20 kHz to 200 kHz
(d) 2000 kHz to 20000 kHz

Answer

Answer: (a) 20 Hz to 20 kHz

Question 6.
Which of the following waves are produced by bats?
(a) Infrasonic waves
(b) Ultrasonic waves
(c) Audible waves
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Ultrasonic waves

Question 7.
Maximum tolerable sound is:
(a) 0 dB
(b) 10 dB
(c) 60 dB
(d) 120 dB

Answer

Answer: (d) 120 dB

Question 8.
Sound waves are:
(a) magnetic waves
(b) electric waves
(c) electromagnetic waves
(d) mechanical waves

Answer

Answer: (d) mechanical waves

Question 9.
In SONAR, we use:
(a) ultrasonic waves
(b) infrasonic waves
(c) radio waves
(d) audible sound waves

Answer

Answer: (a) ultrasonic waves

Question 10.
Sound travels in the air if:
(a) particles of medium travel from one place to another
(b) there is no mixture in the atmosphere
(c) disturbance moves
(d) both particles as well as disturbance travel from one place to another

Answer

Answer: (c) disturbance moves

Question 11.
When we change feeble sound to loud sound we increase its:
(a) frequency
(b) amplitude
(c) velocity
(d) wavelength

Answer

Answer: (b) amplitude

Question 12.
In the curve half the wavelength is:
MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Sound Q12
(a) AB
(b) BD
(c) DE
(d) AE

Answer

Answer: (b) BD

Question 13.
An earthquake produces which kind of sound before the mainshock wave begins:
(a) ultrasound
(b) infrasound
(c) audible sound
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) infrasound

Question 14.
Infrasound can be heard by:
(a) dog
(b) bat
(c) rhinoceros
(d) human beings

Answer

Answer: (c) rhinoceros

Fill in the blanks.

Question 15.
Sound travels as a _______ wave through a material medium.

Answer

Answer: longitudinal

Question 16.
The change in density from one maximum value to the minimum value and again to the maximum value makes one complete ________

Answer

Answer: oscillation

Question 17.
Sound waves with frequencies below the audible range are termed as ________

Answer

Answer: infrasonic

Question 18.
Sound waves with frequencies above the audible range are termed as ________

Answer

Answer: ultrasonic

Question 19.
________ is produced due to reflections of sound from obstacles.

Answer

Answer: Echo

Question 20.
Wave velocity = Frequency × ________

Answer

Answer: wavelength

Question 21.
Sound frequencies greater than 20,000 Hz are known as ________

Answer

Answer: ultrasonic sound

Question 22.
Echo can be heard clearly if the minimum distance between the source of the sound and the obstacle is ________

Answer

Answer: 17.2 meter

Question 23.
Echo is produced due to _______ of sound from obstacles.

Answer

Answer: reflection

True/False.

Question 24.
Sound is produced due to the vibration of different objects.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 25.
Sound travels as successive compressions and rarefactions in the medium.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 26.
In sound propagation, it is the energy of the sound that travels and not the particles of the medium.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 27.
Sound propagates in a vacuum.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 28.
The speed of sound does not depend primarily on the nature and the temperature of the transmitting medium.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 29.
Loudness is a physiological response of the ear to the intensity of sound.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 30.
The audible range of hearing for average human beings is in the frequency range of 20Hz – 20kHz.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 31.
Sound frequencies above 20 Hz are known as inaudible sound.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 32.
Rhino can hear the sound frequency of 5 Hz.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 33.
SONAR is used to determine the depth of the sea.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 34.
The transverse and longitudinal waves are called progressive waves.

Answer

Answer: True

Match the Column.

Question 35.

AB
1. Frequency below 20 Hz(i) 120 dB
2. Heartbeat(ii) Audible sounds
3. Maximum tolerable sound(iii) Infrasonic sounds
4. Frequency of 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz(iv) Stethoscope
5. Uses of SONAR(v) Decibel
6. The unit of intensity of sound(vi) Depth of sea
Answer

Answer:

AB
1. Frequency below 20 Hz(iii) Infrasonic sounds
2. Heartbeat(iv) Stethoscope
3. Maximum tolerable sound(i) 120 dB
4. Frequency of 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz(ii) Audible sounds
5. Uses of SONAR(vi) Depth of sea
6. The unit of intensity of sound(v) Decibel

Answer in Word/Sentence.

Question 36.
What is the term given to the distance between two consecutive compression or two consecutive rarefactions?

Answer

Answer: Wavelength (λ)

Question 37.
What is the term given to the time taken by the wave for one complete oscillation of the density of the medium?

Answer

Answer: Time Period (T)

Question 38.
What is the amount of sound energy passing each second through the unit area?

Answer

Answer: The intensity of sound

Question 39.
Which technique is used to locate underwater hills, valleys, submarines, icebergs, sunken ships, etc.?

Answer

Answer: The SONAR

Question 40.
What type of mechanical waves are produced in the air (gases)?

Answer

Answer: Longitudinal waves

Question 41.
What type of mechanical waves are produced on the surface of the water?

Answer

Answer: Transverse waves

Question 42.
What type of waves are sound waves?

Answer

Answer: Longitudinal mechanical waves

Question 43.
What type of waves are produced by the bats while flying?

Answer

Answer: Ultrasound waves

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MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 13 Why do we Fall Ill

MCQ Questions /

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 13 Why do we Fall Ill with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Why do we Fall Ill Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Why do we Fall Ill Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Why do we Fall Ill Multiple Choice Questions of Class 9 Science Chapter 13 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Why do we Fall Ill Class 9 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 13 Science Class 9 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which one of the following is not a viral disease?
(a) Dengue
(b) AIDS
(c) Typhoid
(d) Influenza

Answer

Answer: (c) Typhoid

Question 2.
Which one of the following is not a bacterial disease?
(a) Cholera
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Anthrax
(d) Influenza

Answer

Answer: (d) Influenza

Question 3.
Which one of the following causes Kala-azar?
(a) Ascaris
(b) Trypanosoma
(c) Leishmania
(d) Bacteria

Answer

Answer: (c) Leishmania

Question 4.
AIDS cannot be transmitted by:
(a) sexual contact
(b) hugs
(c) breastfeeding
(d) blood transfusion

Answer

Answer: (b) hugs

Question 5.
Which one of the following diseases is not caused by bacteria?
(a) Typhoid
(b) Anthrax
(c) Tuberculosis
(d) Malaria

Answer

Answer: (d) Malaria

Question 6.
Viruses, which causes hepatitis are transmitted through:
(a) air
(b) water
(c) food
(d) personal contact

Answer

Answer: (b) water

Question 7.
The name of bacterial disease is
(a) Ringworm
(b) Measles
(c) Typhoid
(d) Malaria

Answer

Answer: (c) Typhoid

Question 8.
T.B. (Tuberculosis) is caused by:
(a) Vibrio Cholerae
(b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(c) HIV virus
(d) Salmonella typhi (bacteria)

Answer

Answer: (b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Fill in the Blanks.

Question 9.
Common cold is a/an _______ disease.

Answer

Answer: communicable infections

Question 10.
Many skin diseases are caused by ________

Answer

Answer: fungi

Question 11.
Typhoid fever, cholera, tuberculosis and anthrax are caused by _________

Answer

Answer: bacteria

Question 12.
__________ cause many familiar diseases, such as malaria and Kala-azar.

Answer

Answer: Protozoans

Question 13.
Elephantiasis is caused by a _________

Answer

Answer: worm

Question 14.
Cholera is a __________ disease.

Answer

Answer: communicable

Question 15.
Malaria is caused by a _________

Answer

Answer: protozoan

Question 16.
An example of chronic diseases is worm infestation named ________

Answer

Answer: elephantiasis

True/False.

Question 17.
The health of all individuals depends on their surroundings or their environment.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 18.
Common examples of diseases caused by viruses are the common cold, influenza, dengue fever, and AIDS.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 19.
All diseases can be transmitted from a sick person to healthy people.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 20.
Making anti-viral medicines is more difficult than making anti-bacterial medicines.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 21.
Malaria is a communicable disease.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 22.
Health is a state of physical, mental, and social well-being.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 23.
Infectious diseases can not be prevented by using immunisation.

Answer

Answer: False

Match the Column.

Question 24.

AB
1. Mosquito(i) Acne
2. Leishmania(ii) Cowpox
3. Staphylococci(iii) Peptic ulcers
4. Marshall and Warren(iv) Vector
5. Edward Jenner(v) Kala-azar
Answer

Answer:

AB
1. Mosquito(iv) Vector
2. Leishmania(v) Kala-azar
3. Staphylococci(i) Acne
4. Marshall and Warren(iii) Peptic ulcers
5. Edward Jenner(ii) Cowpox

Answer in one Word/Sentence.

Question 25.
Write the full form of AIDS?

Answer

Answer: Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome

Question 26.
Name the vaccine used to prevent T. B. (Tuberculosis).

Answer

Answer: B.C.G. Vaccination

Question 27.
Who received Nobel Prize in 2005 for their contribution related to the cause of peptic ulcers?

Answer

Answer: Marshall and Warren

Question 28.
What type of organism Helicobacter pylori is that causes peptic ulcers?

Answer

Answer: A bacterium

Question 29.
Name the target organ in hepatitis?

Answer

Answer: Liver

Question 30.
Name the target organ in pneumonia?

Answer

Answer: Lungs

Question 31.
Name the most common target organ in fungal disease?

Answer

Answer: Skin

Question 32.
Who discovered ‘vaccine’?

Answer

Answer: Edward Jenner

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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination and Integration with Answers

MCQ Questions /

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination and Integration with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Chemical Coordination and Integration Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Chemical Coordination and Integration Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

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I. Select the correct answer from the following questions:

Question 1.
Blood pressure is under the control of
(a) Pituitary
(b) Adrenal
(c) Thyroid
(d) Thymus

Answer

Answer: (b) Adrenal

Question 2.
Master endocrine gland is
(a) Pituitary
(b) Parathyroid
(c) Thyroid
(d) Pineal

Answer

Answer: (a) Pituitary

Question 3.
Largest completely endocrine gland is
(a) Adrenal
(b) Thyroid
(c) Pituitary
(d) Parathyroid

Answer

Answer: (b) Thyroid

Question 4.
Implantation of embryo and production of placenta in controlled
(a) FSH
(b) Oestrogen
(c) Progesterone
(d) Estradiol

Answer

Answer: (c) Progesterone

Question 5.
Insulin is secreted by pancreas in
(a) Acinus
(b) a cells
(c) P cells
(d) y cells

Answer

Answer: (c) P-cells

Question 6.
Hormone is
(a) Nerve impulse
(b) Chemical messenger
(c) Excretory product
(d) Enzymatic product

Answer

Answer: (b) Chemical messenger

Question 7.
The hormone that causes change in appearance of males during puberty is
(a) Thyroxine
(b) Progesterone
(c) Testosterone
(d) Oestrogen

Answer

Answer: (c) Testosterone.

Question 8.
Diabetes insipides is caused by reduced activity in
(a) Thyroid
(b) Anterior lobe of pituitary
(c) Intermediate pituitary lobe
(d) Posterior lobe of pituitary

Answer

Answer: (d) Posterior lobe of pituitary

Question 9.
The hormone converts glucose to glycogen inside liver, is pro-duced in
(a) Thymus
(b) Pancreas
(c) Parathyroid
(d) Adrenal

Answer

Answer: (b) Pancreas

Question 10.
Iodine of iodised salt is stored in
(a) Pituitary
(b) Thyroid
(c) Liver
(d) Parathyroid

Answer

Answer: (b) Thyroid

Question 11.
Hormone produced during emotional stress is
(a) Adrenaline
(b) Melatoijiri
(c) Calcitonin
(d) Norepinephrine

Answer

Answer: (a) Adrenaline

Question 12.
Which of the following is a hormonal disease
(a) Scurvy
(b) Malaria
(c) Prolactin
(d) Insulin

Answer

Answer: (d) Insulin

Question 13.
Adrenaline is secreted by
(a) Adrenal medulla
(b) Thymus
(c) Pineal
(d) Adrenal cortex

Answer

Answer: (a) Adrenal medulla

Question 14.
Control of body temperature depends on the
(a) Pancreas
(b) Medulla
(c) Pituitary
(d) Hypothalamus

Answer

Answer: (b) Medulla

Question 15.
Which of the following is not an endocrine gland:
(a) Thyroid
(b) Pancreas
(c) Pituitary
(d) Sebaceous

Answer

Answer: (d) Sebaceous

Question 16.
The excess secretion of a growth hormone during adulthood produces
(a) Acromegaly
(b) Myxoedema
(c) Dwarf
(d) Giant

Answer

Answer: (a) Acromegaly

Question 17.
Estrogen is produced by
(a) Liver
(b) Ovary
(c) Testosterone
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Ovary

Question 18.
Hormone secreted by thyroid gland
(a) Thyroxin
(b) Tryoxin
(c) Insulin
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Thyroxin

Question 19.
Hormones are carried around in the body by
(a) blood
(b) nerves
(c) Lymph
(d) both blood and lymph

Answer

Answer: (d) Both blood and lymph

Question 20.
Pituitary gland is found:
(a) in the neck
(b) at the base of the brain
(c) beneath the stomach
(d) near the kidneys

Answer

Answer: (b) At the base of the brain

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Endocrine glands lack ducts and are hence, called ………….

Answer

Answer: ductless glands

Question 2.
The endocrine glands and hormone producing diffuse ………… located in different parts of our body constitute the …………

Answer

Answer: tissues/cells, endocrine system

Question 3.
Hypothalamus is the basal part of ……….., ………….. and it regulates a wide spectrum of body functions.

Answer

Answer: diencephalon, forebrain

Question 4.
The …………… is under the direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus.

Answer

Answer: posterior pituitary

Question 5.
Pituitary gland is divided into ………… and …………

Answer

Answer: adenohypophysis, a neurohypophysis

Question 6.
…………. stimulates synthesis and secretion of thyroid hormones from the thyroid gland.

Answer

Answer: TSH

Question 7.
ACTH stimulates the synthesis and secretion of steroid hormones called ………….. from the adrenal cortex.

Answer

Answer: glucocorticoids

Question 8.
………….. stimulate gonadal activity and hence are called gonadotrophins.

Answer

Answer: FSH

Question 9.
The …………. is located on the dorsal side of forebrain.

Answer

Answer: pineal gland

Question 10.
Pineal secretes a hormone called …………..

Answer

Answer: melatonin

Question 11.
Thyroid hormones control the metabolism of …………, …………. and ………….

Answer

Answer: carbohydrates, proteins, fats

Question 12.
The parathyroid glands secrete a peptide hormone called ………….

Answer

Answer: parathyroid hormone (PTH).

Question 13.
Thymosins play a major role in the differentiation of Tlymphocytes, which provide …………..

Answer

Answer: cell-mediated immunity.

Question 14.
The centrally located tissue is called the …………, and outside this lies the ……………

Answer

Answer: adrenal medulla, adrenal cortex

Question 15.
The two main types of cell in the Islet of langerhans are called ………… and ………..

Answer

Answer: α-cell, ß-cells.

III. Mark the statement True (T) or False (F):

Question 1.
Glucagon is a hyperglycemic hormone.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 2.
Pupilary dilation, piloerection, sweating the hormones increase the heart beat, the strength of heart contraction and the rate of respiration.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 3.
Ovary is composed of ovarian follicles and stromal tissues.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 4.
The atrial wall of our heart secretes a very important peptide hormone called atrial natriuretic factor

Answer

Answer: True

Question 5.
Secretion acts on the exocrine pancreas and stimulates secretion of water and bicarbonate ions.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 6.
CCK inhibits gastric secretion and motility

Answer

Answer: False

Question 7.
On the basis of their chemical nature, hormones can be divided into groups, (i) Peptide, polypeptide, protein hormones.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 8.
Kidney produces erythropoietin which stimulates erythropoiesis.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 9.
Adenohypophysis consist of two portions, pars distalis and pars inter media.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 10.
In males, FSH and androgens regulate the corpus Iuteum

Answer

Answer: False

Question 11.
Parathyroid hormone (PTH) increases Ca2+ levels in the blood.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 12.
The thymus gland is a lobular structure located on the dorsal side of the heart and the aorta.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 13.
In our body, cortisol is the main glucocorticoid.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 14.
Heart patients are successfully treated with insulin therapy.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 15.
Due to the action of GIP, the blood vessels are dilated and consequently the blood pressure declines.

Answer

Answer: False

IV. Match the items of the column I with appropriate items of Column II.

Column IColumn II
(a) Pineal gland1. Lower blood glucose levels
(b) Insulin2. Secreted by the adrenal medulla
(c) Hormone3. steroid
(d) Adrenaline4. Product of an endocrine gland
(e) Lipid-soluble hormones5. Source of melationin
(f) Parathyroid hormone6. ß-cells
(g) Adrenal cortex7. α-cells
(h) Insulin8. Stimulates secretion of milk
(i) Glucagon9. androgens, testosterone
(j) Insulin therapy10. GIP
(k) Ovary11. Zona reticularis, zona fasciculata
(l) Testis12. Estrogen and progesterone
(m) Gastric inhibitory peptide13. Diabetes mellitus
(n) When blood pressure is increased14. anti-diurectic hormone
(o) ADH15. special cells secrete ANF
Answer

Answer:

Column IColumn II
(a) Pineal gland5. Source of melationin
(b) Insulin1. Lower blood glucose levels
(c) Hormone4. Product of an endocrine gland
(d) Adrenaline2. Secreted by the adrenal medulla
(e) Lipid-soluble hormones3. steroid
(f) Parathyroid hormone8. Stimulates secretion of milk
(g) Adrenal cortex11. Zona reticularis, zona fasciculata
(h) Insulin6. ß-cells
(i) Glucagon7. α-cells
(j) Insulin therapy13. Diabetes mellitus
(k) Ovary12. Estrogen and progesterone
(l) Testis9. androgens, testosterone
(m) Gastric inhibitory peptide10. GIP
(n) When blood pressure is increased15. special cells secrete ANF
(o) ADH14. anti-diurectic hormone

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