MCQ Questions

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 14 Natural Resources with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Natural Resources Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Natural Resources Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Natural Resources Multiple Choice Questions of Class 9 Science Chapter 14 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Natural Resources Class 9 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 14 Science Class 9 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
What is the constitution of nitrogen in our atmosphere?
(a) 28
(b) 78
(c) 55
(d) 92

Answer

Answer: (b) 78

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Question 2.
Which of the following bacteria is responsible for nitrogen fixation?
(a) Pseudomonas
(b) Nitrosomonas
(c) Rhizobium
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Rhizobium

---

Question 3.
One of the following factors does not lead to soil formation in nature.
(a) The sun
(b) Water
(c) Wind
(d) Polythene bags

Answer

Answer: (d) Polythene bags

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Question 4.
Which step is not involved in the carbon cycle?
(a) Photosynthesis
(b) Transpiration
(c) Respiration
(d) Burning of fossil fuels

Answer

Answer: (b) Transpiration

---

Question 5.
The main function of the Rhizobium bacteria is:
(a) To convert free nitrogen into nitrates
(b) To convert the nitrates into nitrogen
(c) Decomposition of ammonium salts
(d) Denitrification

Answer

Answer: (a) To convert free nitrogen into nitrates

---

Question 6.
Soil pollution mostly occurs by:
(a) Water
(b) Fertilizers and insecticides
(c) Mining
(d) Crops

Answer

Answer: (b) Fertilizers and insecticides

---

Question 7.
What is the percentage constitution of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere of Venus and Mars?
(a) 95 – 97%
(b) 20 – 22%
(c) 35 – 40%
(d) 70 – 72%

Answer

Answer: (a) 95 – 97%

---

Question 8.
Oxygen is found in the elemental form in the atmosphere to the extent of:
(a) 78%
(b) 38%
(c) 21%
(d) 95%

Answer

Answer: (c) 21%

---

Fill in the Blanks.

Question 9.
In Venus and Mars, the major component of the atmosphere is found to be _______

Answer

Answer: carbon dioxide

---

Question 10.
Air, water, and soil are the _______ component of the biosphere.

Answer

Answer: abiotic

---

Question 11.
Biogeochemical cycles always ______ in nature.

Answer

Answer: run/operate

---

Question 12.
Carbon dioxide is one of the _______

Answer

Answer: greenhouse gas

---

Question 13.
Oxygen is returned to the atmosphere through only one major process, that is _______

Answer

Answer: photosynthesis

---

Question 14.
Elemental oxygen is normally found in the form of a _______ molecule.

Answer

Answer: diatomic

---

Question 15.
Uneven heating of air over land and water bodies causes ________

Answer

Answer: winds

---

Question 16.
The most important green house gas is ________

Answer

Answer: CO₂

---

Question 17.
Chlorofluorocarbon is destroying ________ layer.

Answer

Answer: ozone

---

Question 18.
Apart from microbes _________ are helpful in the humus formation.

Answer

Answer: earthworms

---

True/False.

Question 19.
Freshwater is found frozen in the ice-caps at the two poles and on snowcovered mountains.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 20.
Rainfall patterns depend on the prevailing wind patterns in an area.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 21.
The total momentum of an isolated system is not conserved.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 22.
The ozone layer protects us from ultraviolet radiation.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 23.
The decomposition of organic substances causes air pollution.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 24.
During the day, the direction of the wind would be from the sea to the land.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 25.
Organisms called lichens are found to be very sensitive to the levels of contaminants like sulphur dioxide in the air.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Match the Column.

Question 26.

A	B
1. Ozone layer	(i) 21%
2. Nitrogen	(ii) Rhizobium
3. Amount of CO2 in atmosphere	(iii) O3
4. Nitrogen Fixation	(iv) 0.03%
5. Amount of oxygen	(v) 78%

Answer

Answer:

A	B
1. Ozone layer	(iii) O3
2. Nitrogen	(v) 78%
3. Amount of CO2 in atmosphere	(iv) 0.03%
4. Nitrogen Fixation	(ii) Rhizobium
5. Amount of oxygen	(i) 21%

---

Answer in one Word/Sentence.

Question 27.
What is the full name of C.F.C.?

Answer

Answer: Chlorofluorocarbon

---

Question 28.
Write the chemical (molecular) formula of chlorofluorocarbon (C.F.C.)?

Answer

Answer: CCl₂F₂

---

Question 29.
What name is given to increase in general temperature of the atmosphere globally due to the activities of mankind?

Answer

Answer: Global warming

---

Question 30.
What is the chemical formula of ozone?

Answer

Answer: O₃

---

Question 31.
What is the major factor in deciding the soil structure?

Answer

Answer: Humus

---

Question 32.
What is the surface temperature of the Moon?

Answer

Answer: -190°C to 110°C

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Hope the information shared regarding the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 14 Natural Resources with Answers Pdf free download is true and genuine as far as our knowledge is concerned. If you feel any information regarding CBSE Class 9 Science Natural Resources MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers is missing do reach us and we will look into it and add it accordingly.

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 1 Reproduction in Organisms with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Reproduction in Organisms Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Reproduction in Organisms Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Reproduction in Organisms Multiple Choice Questions of Class 12 Biology Chapter 1 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Reproduction in Organisms Class 12 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 1 Biology Class 12 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Select the correct answer

Question 1.
A few statements describing certain features of reproduction are given below:
(i) Gametic fusion takes place
(ii) Transfer of genetic material takes place
(iii) Reduction division takes place
(iv) Progeny have some resemblance with parents
Select the options that are true for both asexual and sexual reproduction from the options given below:
(a) i and iii
(b) ii and iii
(c) ii and iv
(d) i and iii

Answer

Answer: (c) ii and iv

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Question 2.
The term ‘clone’ cannot be applied to offspring formed by sexual reproduction because:
(a) Offspring do not possess exact copies of parental DNA.
(b) DNA of only one parent is copied and passed on to the offspring.
(c) Offspring are formed at different times
(d) DNA of parent and DNA of offspring are completely different.

Answer

Answer: (a) Offspring do not possess exact copies of parental DNA.

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Question 3.
Amoeba and Yeast reproduce asexually by fission and budding respectively, because they are:
(a) Microscopic organisms
(b) Heterotrophic organisms
(c) Unicellular organisms
(d) Uninucleate organisms.

Answer

Answer: (c) Unicellular organisms

---

Question 4.
A few statements with regard to sexual reproduction are given below:
(i) Sexual reproduction does not always require two individuals.
(ii) Sexual reproduction generally involves gametic fusion.
(iii) Meiosis never occurs during sexual reproduction
(Iv) External fertilisation is a rule during sexual reproduction.
Choose the correct statements from the options below:
(a) i and iv
(b) i and ii
(c) ii and iii
(d) i and iv

Answer

Answer: (b) i and ii

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Question 5.
A multicellular, filamentous alga exhibits a type of sexual life cycle in which the meiotic division occurs after the formation of zygote. The adult filament of this alga has
(a) Haploid vegetative cells and diploid gametangia
(b) Diploid vegetative cells and diploid gametangia
(c) Diploid vegetative cells and haploid gametangia
(d) Haploid vegetative cells and haploid gametangia.

Answer

Answer: (d) Haploid vegetative cells and haploid gametangia.

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Question 6.
The male gametes of rice plant have 12 chromosomes in their nucleus. The chromosome number in the female gamete, zygote and the cells of the seedling will be respectively
(a) 12, 24, 12
(b) 24, 12, 12
(c) 12, 24, 24
(d) 24, 12, 24

Answer

Answer: (c) 12, 24, 24

---

Question 7.
Given below are a few statements related to external fertilisation. Choose the correct statements.
(i) The male and female gametes are formed and released simultaneously.
(ii) Only a few gametes are released into the medium.
(iii) Water is the medium in a majority of organisms exhibiting external fertilisation.
(iv) Offspring formed as a result of external fertilisation have better chance of survival than those formed inside an organism.
(a) iii and iv
(b) i and iii
(c) ii and iv
(d) i and iv

Answer

Answer: (b) i and iii

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Question 8.
The statements given below describe certain features that are observed in the pistil of flowers.
(i) Pistil may have many carpels
(ii) Each carpel may have more than one ovule
(iii) Each carpel has only one ovule
(iv) Pistil has only one carprel
Choose the statements that are true from the options below:
(a) i and ii
(b) i and iii
(c) ii and iv
(d) iii and iv

Answer

Answer: (a) i and ii

---

Question 9.
Which of the following situations correctly describe the similarity between an angiosperm egg and a human egg?
(i) Eggs of both are formed only once in a lifetime
(ii) Both the angiosperm egg and human egg are stationary
(iii) Both the angiosperm egg and human egg are motile.
(iv) Syngamy in both results in the formation of zygote
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) ii and iv
(b) iv only
(c) iii and iv
(d) i and iv

Answer

Answer: (b) iv only

---

Question 10.
Appearance of vegetative propagules from the nodes of plants such as surgarcane and ginger is mainly because:
(a) Nodes are shorter than internodes
(b) Nodes have meristematic cells
(c) Nodes are located near the soil
(d) Nodes have non-photosynthetic cells

Answer

Answer: (b) Nodes have meristematic cells

---

Question 11.
Which of the following statements supports the view that elaborate sexual reproductive process appeared much later in the organic evolution?
(i) Lower groups of organisms have simpler body design
(ii) Asexual reproduction is common in lower groups
(iii) Asexual reproduction is common in higher groups of organisms
(iv) There is high incidence of sexual reproduction in angiosperms and vertebrates.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) i and ii
(b) i and iii
(c) ii and iv
(d) ii and iii

Answer

Answer: (c) ii and iv

---

Question 12.
Offspring formed by sexual reproduction exhibit more variations than those formed by asexual reproduction because:
(a) Sexual reproduction is a lengthy process
(b) Gametes of parents have qualitatively different genetic composition
(c) Genetic material comes from parents of two different species
(d) Greater amount of DNA is involved in sexual reproduction.

Answer

Answer: (b) Gametes of parents have qualitatively different genetic composition

---

Question 13.
Choose the correct statement from amongst the following:
(a) Dioecious (hermaphrodite) organisms are seen only in animals
(b) Dioecious organisms are seen only in plants
(c) Dioecious organisms are seen in both plants and animals
(d) Dioecious organisms are seen only in vertebrates.

Answer

Answer: (c) Dioecious organisms are seen in both plants and animals

---

Question 14.
There is no natural death in single celled organisms like Amoeba and bacteria because:
(a) They cannot reproduce sexually
(b) They reproduce by binary fission
(c) Parental body is distributed among the offspring
(d) They are microscopic.

Answer

Answer: (c) Parental body is distributed among the offspring

---

Question 15.
There are various types of reproduction. The type of reproduction adopted by an organism depends on:
(a) The habitat and morphology of the organism
(b) Morphology of the organism
(c) Morphology and physiology of the organisms
(d) The organism’s habitat, physiology and genetic makeup

Answer

Answer: (d) The organism’s habitat, physiology and genetic makeup

---

Question 16.
Identify the incorrect statement.
(a) In asexual reproduction, the offspring produced are morphologically and genetically identical to the parent
(b) Zoospores are sexual reproductive structures
(c) In asexual reproduction, a single parent produces offspring with or without the formation of gametes
(d) Conidia are asexual structures in Penicillium

Answer

Answer: (b) Zoospores are sexual reproductive structures

---

Question 17.
Which of the following is a postfertilisation event in flowering plants?
(a) Transfer of pollen grains
(b) Embryo development
(c) Formation of flower
(d) Formation of pollen grains

Answer

Answer: (b) Embryo development

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Question 18.
The number of chromosomes in the shoot tip cells of a maize plant is 20. The number of chromosomes in the microspore mother cells of the same plant shall be :
(a) 20
(b) 10
(c) 40
(d) 15

Answer

Answer: (a) 20

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Assertion and Reason Type Questions

These questions consist of two statements each, printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
Question 19.
Assertion: Sexual reproduction is
advantageous than asexual reproduction. Reason: Sexual reproduction is rapid mode of reproduction, while asexual reproduction is slow mode of reproduction.

Answer

Answer: (c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.

---

Question 20.
Assertion: Individuals produced by asexual reproduction are genetically similar to parents.
Reason: Asexual reproduction involves only mitotic divisions.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

---

Question 21.
Assertion: Stigma of pistil receives the pollen during pollination.
Reason: Pollen grains are produced in ovary of gynoecium.

Answer

Answer: (c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.

---

Question 22.
Assertion: In wheat and sugarcane, pollination takes place by water.
Reason: Water is not required for irrigation of wheat and sugarcane.

Answer

Answer: (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

---

Question 23.
Assertion: Continued self-pollination generation after generation results in pure line formation.
Reason: By continued self-pollination, plant becomes pure or homozygous for its characters.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

---

Question 24.
Assertion: Many single-celled organisms reproduce by binary fission.
Reason: In binary fission a cell divides into two halves and each rapidly grows into an adult.

Answer

Answer: (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

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Question 25.
Assertion: In viviparous animals, the zygote develops into a young one inside the body of the female organism.
Reason: Because of proper embryonic care and protection, the chances of survival of young ones are greater in viviparous organisms.

Answer

Answer: (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

---

Hope the information shared regarding the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 1 Reproduction in Organisms with Answers Pdf free download is true and genuine as far as our knowledge is concerned. If you feel any information regarding CBSE Class 12 Biology Reproduction in Organisms MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers is missing do reach us and we will look into it and add it accordingly.

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 History Chapter 1 Bricks, Beads and Bones: The Harappan Civilisation with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 History with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Bricks, Beads and Bones Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Bricks, Beads and Bones Class 12 Objective Questions.

Bricks, Beads and Bones Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following items has not been found in the Harappan graves?
(a) Pottery and ornaments
(b) Iron hand axe
(c) Jewellery
(d) Copper mirrors

Answer

Answer: (b) Iron hand axe

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Question 2.
Harappa is located on the banks of which river?
(a) Indus
(b) Chenab
(c) Ravi
(d) Jhelum

Answer

Answer: (c) Ravi

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Question 3.
The ‘Great Bath’ was found in which town of the Indus Valley Civilisation?
(a) Mohenjodaro
(b) Harappa
(c) Lothal
(d) Rangpur

Answer

Answer: (a) Mohenjodaro

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Question 4.
Which town in Indus Valley Civilisation had no Citadel?
(a) Mohenjodaro
(b) Harappa
(c) Chanhudaro
(d) Lothal

Answer

Answer: (c) Chanhudaro

---

Question 5.
What was the main feature of the Harappa Civilisation?
(a) Town planning
(b) Art and architecture
(c) Administration
(d) Agriculture

Answer

Answer: (a) Town planning

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Question 6.
Where were large granaries found?
(a) Lothal and Dholavira
(b) Kalibangan
(c) Banawali
(d) Harappa and Mohenjodaro

Answer

Answer: (d) Harappa and Mohenjodaro

---

Question 7.
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the weights used during the Harappan period?
(a) The Harappan people had developed several kinds of small and heavyweights.
(b) They were cubical in shape and had no markings.
(c) These weights were mostly made of hard stones like chert.
(d) The higher denominations of weights were binary in multiples of two.

Answer

Answer: (d) The higher denominations of weights were binary in multiples of two.

---

Question 8.
Which of the following is not one of the features of Harappan writing?
(a) The Harappan script was pictographic and not alphabetical.
(b) It has been deciphered by James Prinsep.
(c) It had too many signs, somewhere between 375 and 400.
(d) The script was written from right to left.

Answer

Answer: (b) It has been deciphered by James Prinsep.

---

Question 9.
Which two strategies are adopted by the archaeologists to identify social differences among the Harappans?
(i) Study of burials
(ii) Study of script
(iii) Study of trade and commerce
(iv) Study of artifacts
Choose the correct option.
(a) Both ‘i’ and ‘ii’
(b) Both ‘i’ and ‘iv’
(c) Both ‘ii’ and ‘iii’
(d) Both ‘i’ and ‘iii’

Answer

Answer: (b) Both ‘i’ and ‘iv’

---

Question 10.
Which of the following metal was NOT known to the Harappans?
(a) Bronze
(b) Silver
(c) Copper
(d) Iron

Answer

Answer: (d) Iron

---

Question 11.
Who was the first Director-General of the Archaeological Survey of India?

Answer

Answer: Alexander Cunningham

---

Question 12.
Harappan script was written from _______

Answer

Answer: Right to left

---

Question 13.
Consider the following statements regarding the features of the Harappan settlements.
(i) The Harappan settlements were often small.
(ii) They had no large buildings
(iii) Harappan settlements had a well-planned network of roads.
(iv) Drainage system was the key feature of the Harappan settlements.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) I and II
(b) III and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) I, II and IV

Answer

Answer: (b) III and IV

---

Question 14.
Match the Harappan site with the state in which it is located.

(a) Lothal	(i) Haryana
(b) Kalibangan	(ii) Gujarat
(c) Harappa	(iii) Rajasthan
(d) Banawali	(iv) Pakistan

Answer

Answer:

(a) Lothal	(ii) Gujarat
(b) Kalibangan	(iii) Rajasthan
(c) Harappa	(iv) Pakistan
(d) Banawali	(i) Haryana

---

Question 15.
Name any two Harappan settlements which were specialized centers for making shell objects.

Answer

Answer: Nageshwar and Balakot

---

Question 16.
Identify the image and write its name.

Answer

Answer: It is the seated male sculpture or ‘Priest-King’ from Mohenjodaro.

---

Question 17.
Identify the image and write its name.

Answer

Answer: It is a terracotta bull figurine from the Harappan period.

---

Question 18.
Name the town of the Harappan Civilisation that literally means ‘Mound of Dead’?

Answer

Answer: Mohenjodaro

---

Question 19.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about the subsistence strategies of Harappa?
(i) Archaeologists have reconstructed dietary practices from finds of charred grains and seeds.
(ii) According to the archaeo-zoologists Harappans domesticated cattle, sheep, goats, buffalo, and pigs.
(iii) Archaeo-zoologists have studied grains found at Harappa like millets, barley, etc.
Choose the correct option.
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) III only

Answer

Answer: (a) I and II only

---

Question 20.
Traces of canals have been found at the Harappan site of ________ in Afghanistan.

Answer

Answer: Shortughai

---

Question 21.
Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the Harappan weights?
(a) Weights were usually made of a chert stone.
(b) They were generally circular with mark-ings.
(c) The lower denominations of weights were binary.
(d) The higher denominations followed the decimal system.

Answer

Answer: (b) They were generally circular with markings.

---

Question 22.
Who are shamans?

Answer

Answer: Shamans are men and women who claim to have magical and healing powers as well as an ability to communicate with the other world.

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Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 History Chapter 1 Bricks, Beads and Bones: The Harappan Civilisation with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 12 History Bricks, Beads and Bones MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants Multiple Choice Questions of Class 12 Biology Chapter 2 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants Class 12 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 2 Biology Class 12 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Select the correct answer

Question 1.
Among the terms listed below those that of are not correct names for a floral whorl are:
(i) Androecium
(ii) Carpel
(iii) Corolla
(iv) Sepal.
(a) (i) and (iv)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iii)

Answer

Answer: (c) (ii) and (iv)

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Question 2.
Embryo sac is to ovule as is to an anther.
(a) Stamen
(b) Filament
(c) Pollen grain
(d) Androecium.

Answer

Answer: (c) Pollen grain

---

Question 3.
in a typical complete, bisexual and hypogynous flower the arrangements of floral whorls on the thalamus from the outer most to the inner most is:
(a) Calyx, corolla, androecium and gynoecium
(b) Calyx, corolla, gynoecium and androecium
(c) Gynoecium, androecium, corolla and calyx
(d) Androecium, gynoecium, corolla and calyx

Answer

Answer: (a) Calyx, corolla, androecium and gynoecium

---

Question 4.
A dicotyledonous plant bears flowers but never produces fruits and seeds. The most probable cause for the above situation is :
(a) Plant is dioecious and bears only pistillate flowers
(b) Plant is dioecious and bears both pistillate and staminate flowers
(c) Plant is monoecious
(d) Plant is dioecious and bears only staminate flowers.

Answer

Answer: (d) Plant is dioecious and bears only staminate flowers.

---

Question 5.
The outermost and innermost wall layers of microsporangium in an anther are respectively:
(a) Endothecium and tapetum
(b) Epidermis and endodermis
(c) Epidermis and middle layer
(d) Epidermis and tapetum.

Answer

Answer: (d) Epidermis and tapetum.

---

Question 6.
During microsporogenesis, meiosis occurs in :
(a) Endothecium
(b) Microspore mother cells
(c) Microspore tetrads
(d) Pollen grains.

Answer

Answer: (b) Microspore mother cells

---

Question 7.
From among the sets of terms given below, identify those that are associated with the gynoecium.
(a) Stigma, ovule, embryo sac, placenta
(b) Thalamus, pistil, style, ovule
(c) Ovule, ovary, embryo sac, tapetum
(d) Ovule, stamen, ovary, embryo sac

Answer

Answer: (a) Stigma, ovule, embryo sac, placenta

---

Question 8.
Starting from the innermost part, the correct sequence of parts in an ovule is :
(a) egg, nucellus, embryo sac, integument
(b) egg, embryo sac, nucellus, integument
(c) embryo sac, nucellus, integument, egg
(d) egg, integument, embryo sac, nucellus.

Answer

Answer: (b) egg, embryo sac, nucellus, integument

---

Question 9.
From the statements given below choose the option that is true for a typical female gametophyte of a flowering plant:
(i) It is 8-nucleate and 7-celled at maturity
(iv) It is free-nuclear during the development
(iii) It is situated inside the integument but outside the nucellus
(iv) It has an egg apparatus situated at the chalazal end
(a) (i) and (iv)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (ii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: (c) (i) and (ii)

---

Question 10.
Autogamy can occur in a chasmogamous flower if:
(a) Pollen matures before maturity of ovule
(b) Ovules mature before maturity of pollen
(c) Both pollen and ovules mature simultaneously
(d) Both anther and stigma are of equal lengths.

Answer

Answer: (c) Both pollen and ovules mature simultaneously

---

Question 11.
Choose the correct statement from the following:
(a) Cleistogamous flowers always exhibit autogamy
(b) Chasmogamous flowers always exhibit geitonogamy
(c) Cleistogamous flowers exhibit both autogamy and geitonogamy
(d) Chasmogamous flowers never exhibit autogamy.

Answer

Answer: (b) Chasmogamous flowers always exhibit geitonogamy

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Question 12.
A particular species of plant produces light, non-sticky pollen in large numbers and its stigmas are long and feathery. These modifications facilitate pollination by:
(a) Insects
(b) Water
(c) Wind
(d) Animals.

Answer

Answer: (c) Wind

---

Question 13.
From among the situations given below, choose the one that prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy.
(a) Monoecious plant bearing unisexual flowers
(b) Dioecious plant bearing only male or female flowers
(c) Monoecious plant with bisexual flowers
(d) Dioecious plant with bisexual flowers.

Answer

Answer: (b) Dioecious plant bearing only male or female flowers

---

Question 14.
In a fertilised embryo sac, the haploid, diploid and triploid structures are :
(a) Synergid, zygote and primary endosperm nucleus
(b) Synergid, antipodal and polar nuclei
(c) Antipodal, synergid and primary endosperm nucleus
(d) Synergid, polar nuclei and zygote.

Answer

Answer: (a) Synergid, zygote and primary endosperm nucleus

---

Question 15.
In an embryo sac, the cells that degenerate after fertilisation are :
(a) Synergids and primary endosperm cell
(b) Synergids and antipodals
(c) Antipodals and primary endosperm cell
(d) Egg and antipodals.

Answer

Answer: (b) Synergids and antipodals

---

Question 16.
While planning for an artificial hybridisation programme involving dioecious plants, which of the following steps would not be relevant?
(a) Bagging of female flower
(b) Dusting of pollen on stigma
(c) Emasculation
(d) Collection of pollen.

Answer

Answer: (c) Emasculation

---

Question 17.
In the embryos of a typical dicot and a grass, true homologous structures are :
(a) Coleorhiza and coleoptile
(b) Coleoptile and scutellum
(c) Cotyledons and scutellum
(d) Hypocotyl and radicle.

Answer

Answer: (c) Cotyledons and scutellum

---

Question 18.
The phenomenon observed in some plants wherein parts of the sexual apparatus are used for forming embryos without fertilisation is called:
(a) Parthenocarpy
(b) Apomixis
(c) Vegetative propagation
(d) Sexual reproduction.

Answer

Answer: (b) Apomixis

---

Question 19.
In a flower, if the megaspore mother cell forms megaspores without undergoing meiosis and if one of the megaspore develops into an embryo sac, its nuclei would be:
(a) Haploid
(b) Diploid
(c) A few haploid and a few diploid
(d) With varying ploidy.

Answer

Answer: (b) Diploid

---

Question 20.
The phenomenon wherein the ovary develops into a fruit without fertilisation is called:
(a) Parthenocarpy
(b) Apomixis
(c) Asexual reproduction
(d) Sexual reproduction

Answer

Answer: (a) Parthenocarpy

---

Assertion and Reason Type Questions

These questions consist of two statements each, printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
Question 21.
Assertion: The first part of dicot embryo to appear above ground is the leaf.
Reason: Leaves increase the size of plant.

Answer

Answer: (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

---

Question 22.
Assertion: Megaspore mother cell undergoes meiosis to produce four megaspores.
Reason: Megaspore mother cells and megaspores both are haploid.

Answer

Answer: (c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.

---

Question 23.
Assertion: Ovule after fertilisation forms the fruit.
Reason: The fruits contain diploid endosperm.

Answer

Answer: (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

---

Question 24.
Assertion: Insects visit flowers to gather honey.
Reason: Attraction of flowers prevents the insects from damaging other parts.

Answer

Answer: (c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.

---

Question 25.
Assertion: 7-celled, 8-nucleate and monosporic embryo sac is called Polygonum type of embryo sac.
Reason: It was discovered by Hofmeister for the first time in Polygonum.

Answer

Answer: (c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.

---

Question 26.
Assertion: Seed dispersal by wind is called anemochory.
Reason: The seeds are flight, minute and may be winged.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

---

Question 27.
Assertion: If an endosperm cell of angiosperm contains 24 chromosomes, the number of chromosomes in each cell of root will be 16.
Reason: As endosperm is triploid and root cells are diploid, the chromosome number in each root cell will be 16.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

---

Question 28.
Assertion: Seeded plants are highly evolved.
Reason: In spermatophyta, seeds are formed.

Answer

Answer: (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

---

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Kings, Farmers and Towns Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
What are big rocks kept on the burial in central and south India called?
(a) Northern Black Polished Ware
(b) Pillars
(c) Boulders
(d) Megaliths

Answer

Answer: (d) Megaliths

---

Question 2.
Who was Dhamma Mahamatta?
(a) Special revenue officers appointed by Ashoka for tax collection
(b) Special officers appointed by Ashoka for maintaining law and order in the kingdom
(c) Special officers appointed by Ashoka to spread the message of dhamma
(d) Special officer appointed by Ashoka to stop the spread of dhamma

Answer

Answer: (c) Special officers appointed by Ashoka to spread the message of dhamma

---

Question 3.
Why is the sixth century BCE often considered a major turning point in Indian history?
(a) Emergence of states, cities, and towns; Use of iron
(b) Emergence of states, cities, and towns; Dominance of Hinduism
(c) Dominance of Hinduism; Use of iron
(d) Emergence of Buddhism and Jainism, Extensive use of Copper

Answer

Answer: (a) Emergence of states, cities, and towns; Use of iron

---

Question 4.
Who composed the Prayag Prashasti in praise of Samudragupta?
(a) Prabhavati Gupta
(b) Harisena
(c) Kautilya
(d) Banabhatta

Answer

Answer: (b) Harisena

---

Question 5.
Which of the following is not one of the main features of Ashoka’s dhamma?
(a) Respect the elders and be generous to the Brahmins.
(b) Consider your religion superior to the other religions.
(c) Gahapati should respect members of the family, relatives, servants, the poor, and the slaves.
(d) Follow non-violence.

Answer

Answer: (b) Consider your religion superior to the other religions.

---

Question 6.
What were the guilds of the merchants and craftsmen called?
(a) Shrenis
(b) Ur
(c) Adimai
(d) Uzhavar

Answer

Answer: (a) Shrenis

---

Question 7.
What is James Prinsep’s contribution in the development of the Indian epigraphy?
(a) He deciphered the Brahmi script used in most of the Ashokan inscriptions.
(b) He deciphered the Kharoshthi script used in most of the Ashokan inscriptions.
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) He deciphered the Brahmi script used in most of the Ashokan inscriptions.

---

Question 8.
Ventures of which of the following traders were risky but highly profitable?
(a) Peddlers
(b) Seafarers
(c) Merchants with caravans of bullock carts and pack-animals
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Seafarers

---

Question 9.
Who issued the first coins bearing the names of rulers?
(a) Mauryas
(b) Guptas
(c) Indo-Greeks
(d) Satavahanas

Answer

Answer: (c) Indo-Greeks

---

Question 10.
Ashoka is mentioned by which titles in his inscriptions?
(a) Ashoka, Piyadassi
(b) Masattuvan, Ashoka
(c) Devanampiya, Piyadassi
(d) Devaputra, Piyadassi

Answer

Answer: (c) Devanampiya, Piyadassi

---

Question 11.
Name the languages in which the Ashokan inscriptions were written.
(a) Pali, Prakrit, and Greek
(b) Pali, Sanskrit, and Aramaic
(c) Prakrit, Aramaic, and Greek
(d) Pali, Sanskrit, and Greek

Answer

Answer: (c) Prakrit, Aramaic, and Greek

---

Question 12.
______ founded the Mauryan Empire in c. 321 BCE.

Answer

Answer: Chandragupta Maurya

---

Question 13.
Who was Harisena?

Answer

Answer: Harisena was the court poet of king Samudragupta.

---

Question 14.
Match the following.

(a) Gahapati	(i) slaves
(b) Vellalar	(ii) ploughman
(c) Uzhavar	(iii) head of household
(d) Adimai	(iv) landowner

Answer

Answer:

(a) Gahapati	(iii) head of household
(b) Vellalar	(iv) landowner
(c) Uzhavar	(ii) ploughman
(d) Adimai	(i) slaves

---

Question 15.
Who was Prabhavati Gupta?

Answer

Answer: Prabhavati Gupta was the daughter of Chandragupta II.

---

Question 16.
Mention any two yajnas performed by the kings during the Vedic period.

Answer

Answer: The kings performed Rajsuya yajna and Ashwamedha yajna during the Vedic period.

---

Question 17.
Consider the following statements regarding Magadha.
(i) Magadha was the most powerful mahajanapada.
(ii) Initially Pataliputra was the capital of Magadha and later it was shifted to Rajagriha.
(iii) Elephants were found in abundance in the forests of Magadha.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) II only

Answer

Answer: (c) I and III

---

Question 18.
Identify the best reason for considering King Ashoka as ‘Devanampiya’ and ‘Piyadassi’ by his subjects.
(a) Ashoka commissioned the edicts himself
(b) He adopted the title of ‘Devaputra’.
(c) Epigraphists have concluded him as devanam priya.
(d) He did well being of society through Dhamma.

Answer

Answer: (d) He did well being of society through Dhamma.

---

Question 19.
Identify the image and write who got it installed.

Answer

Answer: This is part of an image from Mathura. This image was installed in a shrine by a woman named Nagapiya, the wife of a goldsmith (sovanika) named Dharmaka.

---

Question 20.
Look at the figure given below. Identify and name the sculpture of fourth century CE related to this figure.

Answer

Answer: This is a sandstone sculpture of a Kushana King.

---

Question 21.
Which one of the following statements was not a justified reason for Magadha being a powerful mahajana pada?
(a) Magadha was drained by several rivers which made the land very fertile.
(b) In Magadha there were rich deposits of iron ore.
(c) Pataliputra, the capital of Magadha, was fortified.
(d) Magadha was ruled by powerful kings.

Answer

Answer: (c) Pataliputra, the capital of Magadha, was fortified.

---

Question 22.
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): There are limits to what epigraphy can reveal.
Reason (R): It is not always easy to be sure about the exact meaning of the words used in inscriptions.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(d) (R) is correct but (A) is not correct.

Answer

Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

---

Question 23.
Who was the author of the book ‘Arthashastra’?

Answer

Answer: Kautilya

---

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Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Human Reproduction with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Human Reproduction Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Human Reproduction Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Human Reproduction Multiple Choice Questions of Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Human Reproduction Class 12 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 3 Biology Class 12 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Select the correct answer:

Question 1.
Choose the incorrect statement from the following:
(a) In birds and mammals internal fertilisation takes place
(b) Colostrum contains antibodies and nutrients
(c) Polyspermy is prevented by the chemical changes in the egg surface
(d) In the human female implantation occurs almost seven days after fertilisation

Answer

Answer: (c) Polyspermy is prevented by the chemical changes in the egg surface

---

Question 2.
Identify the wrong statement from the following:
(a) High levels of estrogen triggers the ovulatory phase
(b) Oogonial cells start to proliferate and give rise to functional ova in regular cycles from puberty onwards.
(c) Sperms released from seminiferous tubules are poorly motile/non-motile
(d) Progesterone level is high during the post-ovulatory phase of menstrual cycle.

Answer

Answer: (b) Oogonial cells start to proliferate and give rise to functional ova in regular cycles from puberty onwards.

---

Question 3.
Spot the odd one out from the following structures with reference to the male reproductive system:
(a) Rete testis
(b) Epididymis
(c) Vasa effereritia
(d) Isthmus

Answer

Answer: (d) Isthmus

---

Question 4.
Seminal plasma, the fluid part of semen, is contributed by
(i) Seminal vesicle
(ii) Prostate
(iii) Urethra
(iv) Bulbourethral gland
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

---

Question 5.
Spermiation is the process of the release of sperms from:
(a) Seminiferous tubules
(b) Vas deferens
(c) Epididymis
(d) Prostate gland

Answer

Answer: (a) Seminiferous tubules

---

Question 6.
Mature Graafian follicle is generally present in the ovary of a healthy human female around:
(a) 5-8 day of menstrual cycle
(b) 11-17 day of menstrual cycle
(c) 18-23 day of menstrual cycle
(d) 24-28 day of menstrual cycle

Answer

Answer: (b) 11-17 day of menstrual cycle

---

Question 7.
Acrosomal reaction of the sperm occurs due to:
(a) Its contact with zona pellucida of the ova
(b) Reactions within the uterine environment of the female
(c) Reactions within the epididymal environment of the male
(d) Androgens produced in the uterus

Answer

Answer: (a) Its contact with zona pellucida of the ova

---

Question 8.
Which one of the following is not a male accessory gland?
(a) Seminal vesicle
(b) Ampulla
(c) Prostate
(d) Bulbourethral gland

Answer

Answer: (b) Ampulla

---

Question 9.
The immature male germ celts undergo division to produce sperms by the process of spermatogenesis.
Choose the correct one with reference to above.
(a) Spermatogonia have 46 chromosomes and always undergo meiotic cell division
(b) Primary spermatocytes divide by mitotic cell division
(c) Secondary spermatocytes have 23 chromosomes and undergo second meiotic division
(d) Spermatozoa are transformed into spermatids

Answer

Answer: (c) Secondary spermatocytes have 23 chromosomes and undergo second meiotic division

---

Question 10.
Match between the following representing parts of the sperm and their functions and choose the correct option.

Column I	Column II
(a) Head	(i) Enzymes
(b) Middle piece	(ii) Sperm motility
(c) Acrosome	(iii) Energy
(d) Tail Options	(iv) Genetic material

Options:
(a) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(b) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(c) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(d) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv

Answer

Answer: (b) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii

---

Question 11.
Which among the following has 23 chromosomes?
(a) Spermatogonia
(b) Zygote
(c) Secondary oocyte
(d) Ogonia

Answer

Answer: (c) Secondary oocyte

---

Question 12.
Match the following and choose the correct options :

Column I	Column II
(a) Trophoblast	(i) Embedding of blastocyst in the endometrium
(b) Cleavage	(ii) Group of cells that would differentiate as embryo
(c) Inner cell mass	(iii) Outer layer of blastocyst attached to the endometrium
(d) Implantation	(iv) Mitotic division of zygote

Options :
(a) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(b) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(c) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(d) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i

Answer

Answer: (b) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i

---

Question 13.
Which of the following hormones is not secreted by human placenta?
(a) HCG
(b) Estrogens
(c) Progesterone
(d) LH

Answer

Answer: (d) LH

---

Question 14.
The vas deferens receives duct from the seminal vesicle and opens into urethra as:
(a) Epididymis
(b) Ejaculatory duct
(c) Efferent ductule
(d) Ureter

Answer

Answer: (b) Ejaculatory duct

---

Question 15.
Urethral meatus refers to the :
(a) Urinogenital duct
(b) Opening of vas deferens into urethra
(c) External opening of the urinogenital duct
(d) Muscles surrounding the urinogenial duct

Answer

Answer: (c) External opening of the urinogenital duct

---

Question 16.
Morula is a developmental stage :
(a) Between the zygote and blastocyst
(b) Between the blastocyst and gastrula
(c) After the implantation
(d) Between implantation and parturition

Answer

Answer: (a) Between the zygote and blastocyst

---

Question 17.
The membranous cover of the ovum at ovulation is :
(a) Corona radiata
(b) Zona radiata
(c) Zona pellucida
(d) Chorion

Answer

Answer: (a) Corona radiata

---

Question 18.
Identify the odd one from the following:
(a) Labia minora
(b) Fimbriae
(c) Infundibulum
(d) Isthmus

Answer

Answer: (a) Labia minora

---

Question 19.
Androgens are synthesised by:
(a) Sertoli Cells
(b) Leydig cells
(c) Seminal vesicles
(d) Bulbourethral gland

Answer

Answer: (b) Leydig cells

---

Assertion and Reason Type Questions

These questions consist of two statements each, printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four responses:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
Question 20.
Assertion: In morula stage, the cell divides without increase in size.
Reason: Zona pellucida remains till cleavage.

Answer

Answer: (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.

---

Question 21.
Assertion: The third cleavage in frog is latitudinal.
Reason: The mitotic spindle orients parallel to the polar axis.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.

---

Question 22.
Assertion: The development in cockroach is heterometabolous metamorphosis.
Reason: Young ones resemble the adults in all characters.

Answer

Answer: (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

---

Question 23.
Assertion: Holoblastic cleavage with almost equal sized blastomeres is a characteristic of placental mammals.
Reason: Eggs of most mammals, including humans are of centrolecithal type.

Answer

Answer: (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

---

Question 24.
Assertion: In morula stage, the cells divide without any increase in size.
Reason: Zona pellucida remains till cleavage finished.

Answer

Answer: (c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

---

Question 25.
Assertion: Generally, a woman does not conceive during lactation period.
Reason: The hormone prolactin initiates and maintain lactation in a woman.

Answer

Answer: (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.

---

Question 26.
Assertion: Mammalian ova produce hyaluronidase.
Reason: The eggs of mammals are microlecithal and telolecithal.

Answer

Answer: (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

---

Question 27.
Assertion: Cattle breeds can be improved by superovulation and embryo transplantation.
Reason: Superovulation in high milk- yielding cows is induced by hormonal injection.

Answer

Answer: (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.

---

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