MCQ Questions

Are you guys looking for Chapter Wise NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography with Answers PDF Free Download? You came to the right page. We as a team researched & gathered CBSE Class 12 Geography MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. By practicing with these Class 12th Geography Objective Questions you can learn all concepts easily and score maximum marks in the MCQ sections. Go ahead and find Geography Quiz Questions with Answers for Class 12 in PDF format.

Class 12 Geography MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers

With the help of our provided Class 12 Geography MCQ, you can answer any type of questions in the final exams and competitive exams. You can learn different ways of questions for each chapter from this MCQ of Geography Class 12 with Answers along with a detailed explanation to grasp the concept behind it.

So, click on the below chapter-wise MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography with Answers links and download them offline for further practice sections.

Fundamentals of Human Geography MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography with Answers

1. Human Geography: Nature and Scope Class 12 MCQ Questions
2. The World Population: Distribution, Density and Growth Class 12 MCQ Questions
3. Population Composition Class 12 MCQ Questions
4. Human Development Class 12 MCQ Questions
5. Primary Activities Class 12 MCQ Questions
6. Secondary Activities Class 12 MCQ Questions
7. Tertiary and Quaternary Activities Class 12 MCQ Questions
8. Transport and Communication Class 12 MCQ Questions
9. International Trade Class 12 MCQ Questions
10. Human Settlements Class 12 MCQ Questions

India People and Economy MCQ Questions with Answers Class 12 Geography 

1. Population: Distribution, Density, Growth and Composition Class 12 MCQ Questions
2. Migration: Types, Causes and Consequences Class 12 MCQ Questions
3. Human Development Class 12 MCQ Questions
4. Human Settlements Class 12 MCQ Questions
5. Land Resources and Agriculture Class 12 MCQ Questions
6. Water Resources Class 12 MCQ Questions
7. Mineral and Energy Resources Class 12 MCQ Questions
8. Manufacturing Industries Class 12 MCQ Questions
9. Planning and Sustainable Development in Indian Context Class 12 MCQ Questions
10. Transport and Communication Class 12 MCQ Questions
11. International Trade Class 12 MCQ Questions
12. Geographical Perspective on Selected Issues and Problems Class 12 MCQ Questions

We wish the data shed here on Chapter Wise NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography with Answers benefits you all to some extent. If you need any kind of assistance while practicing CBSE Class 12 Geography MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, please drop your comment below and we’ll get back to you asap with a possible solution.

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 History Chapter 7 An Imperial Capital: Vijayanagara with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 History with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided An Imperial Capital: Vijayanagara Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on An Imperial Capital: Vijayanagara Class 12 Objective Questions.

An Imperial Capital: Vijayanagara Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Krishnadeva Raya belonged to which dynasty?
(a) Sangam
(b) Tuluva
(c) Saluvas
(d) Aravidu

Question 2.
Which ruler composed the work Amuktamalyada?
(a) Krishnadeva Raya
(b) Sultan of Bijapur
(c) Rama Raya
(d) Harihara

Question 3.
Harihara and Bukka belonged to which dynasty?
(a) Tuluva
(b) Saluvas
(c) Aravidu
(d) Sangam

Question 4.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding Mahanavami Dibba?
(a) It was a high platform with slots for wooden pillars at a dose and regular intervals.
(b) It was a massive platform located on one of the highest points in the city.
(c) It was a place where the king met his advisers.
(d) All of the above

Question 5.
Which Persian ambassador visited the Vijayanagara Empire?
(a) Domingo Paes
(b) Nicolo de Conti
(c) Abdur Razzaq
(d) Duarte Barbosa

Question 6.
The Battle of Talikota between Vijayanagara and the Deccan sultans took place in which year?
(a) 1550
(b) 1565
(c) 1570
(d) 1575

Question 7.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Amara-nayaka system?
(a) The Amara-nayakas were traders.
(b) Main features of this system were derived from the mansabdari system.
(c) Kings had no control over the Amara- nayakas.
(d) The Amara-nayakas were military commanders who were given territories to govern by the Raya.

Question 8.
Consider the following statements regarding the Virupaksha temple.
(i) The hall in front of the main shrine was built by Krishnadeva Raya to mark his accession.
(ii) It has a unique shrine designed as a chariot.
(iii) The principal deity of this temple was generally worshipped in Maharashtra.
(a) only ‘i’
(b) ‘i’ and ‘iii’
(c) ‘ii’ and ‘iii’
(d) All of these

Question 9.
Which traveller called the ‘Mahanavami Dibba’ as the ‘House of Victory’?
(a) Duarte Barbosa
(b) Fernao Nuniz
(c) Domingo Paes
(d) Abdur Razzaq

Question 10.
On which of the following occasions was the ceremony performed at Mahanavami Dibba?
(a) Worship of the state horse
(b) Marriage of the king
(c) Victory over the enemy
(d) All of the above

Question 11.
Where is the Hazara Rama temple situated?

Question 12.
Which dynasty did Krishnadeva Raya belong to?

Question 13.
Identify the image and write its name.

Question 14.
Identify the image and write its name.

Question 15.
The ruins at Hampi were brought to light in 1800 by an engineer and antiquarian named _________

Question 16.
Krishnadeva Raya, the most famous ruler of Vijayanagara, composed a work on statecraft in Telugu known as the _______

Question 17.
Arrange the following dynasties of the Vijayanagara Empire in chronological order:
1. Sangama
2. Aravidu
3. Tuluva
4. Saluva
Choose the correct option:
(a) 1, 3, 4 and 2
(b) 2, 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 4, 3 and 2
(d) 4, 1,2 and 3

Question 18.
Read the information given below:
Identify and name this system.

Question 19.
Match the following.

Choose the correct option
(a) i – a, ii – d, iii – b, iv – c
(b) i – c, ii – a, iii – b, iv – d
(c) i – a, ii – c, iii – d, iv – b
(d) i – d, ii – a, iii – b, iv – c

Question 20.
Consider the following statements regarding the rule of Krishnadeva Raya.
(i) Krishnadeva Raya belonged to the Tuluva dynasty.
(ii) He acquired the land between the Tungabhadra and Krishna rivers and subdued the rulers of Orissa and defeated the Sultan of Bijapur.
(iii) The hall in front of the main shrine of the Vitthala temple was built by Krishnadeva Raya.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) II only

Question 21.
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The rayas gave territories to military commanders.
Reason (R): The Amar-nayaka system was a major political innovation of the Mughal Empire.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(d) (R) is correct but (A) is not correct.

Question 22.
Who founded the Vijayanagara Empire?

Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 History Chapter 7 An Imperial Capital: Vijayanagara with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 12 History An Imperial Capital: Vijayanagara MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 7 Evolution with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Evolution Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Evolution Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Evolution Multiple Choice Questions of Class 12 Biology Chapter 7 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Evolution Class 12 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 7 Biology Class 12 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Select the correct answer

Question 1.
Which of the following is used as an atmospheric pollution indicator?
(a) Lepidoptera
(b) Lichens
(c) Lycopersicon
(d) Lycopodium.

Question 2.
The theory of spontaneous generation stated that
(a) life arose from living forms only
(b) life can arise from both living and non-living
(c) life can arise from non-living things only
(d) life arises spontaneously, neither from living nor from the non-living.

Question 3.
Animal husbandry and plant breeding programmes are the examples of
(a) reverse evolution
(b) artificial selection
(c) mutation
(d) natural selection.

Question 4.
Palaeontological evidences for evolution refer to the
(a) development of embryo
(b) homologous organs
(c) fossils
(d) analogous organs.

Question 5.
The bones of forelimbs of whale, bat, cheetah and man are similar in structure, because
(a) one organism has given rise to another
(b) they share a common ancestor
(c) they perform the same function
(d) the have biochemical similarities.

Question 6.
Analogous organs arise due to
(a) divergent evolution
(b) artificial selection
(c) genetic drift
(d) convergent evolution.

Question 7.
(p + q)² = p² + 2pq + q² = 1 represents an equation used in
(a) population genetics
(b) Mendelian genetics
(c) biometrics
(d) molecular genetics.

Question 8.
Appearance of antibiotic-resistant bacteria is an example of
(a) adaptive radiation
(b) transduction
(c) pre-existing variation in the population
(d) divergent evolution.

Question 9.
Evolution of life shows that life forms had a trend of moving from
(a) land to water
(b) dry land to wet land
(c) fresh water to sea water
(d) water to land.

Question 10.
Viviparity is considered to be more evolved because
(a) the young ones are left on their own
(b) the young ones are protected by a thick shell
(c) the young ones are protected inside the mother’s body and are looked after they are born leading to more chances of survival
(d) the embryo takes a long time to develop.

Question 11.
Fossils are generally found in
(a) Sedimentary rocks
(b) Igneous rocks
(c) Metamorphic rocks
(d) Any type of rock.

Question 12.
For the MN-blood group system, the frequencies of M and N alleles are 0.7 and 0.3, respectively. The expected frequency of MN-blood group bearing organisms is likely to be
(a) 42%
(b) 49%
(c) 9%
(d) 58%.

Question 13.
Which type of selection industrial melanism observed in moth Bistort bitularia?
(a) Stabilising
(b) Directional
(b) Disruptive
(d) Artificial.

Question 14.
The most accepted line of descent in human evolution is
(a) Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo sapiens → Homo habilis
(b) Homo erectus → Homo habilis Homo sapiens
(c) Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens
(d) Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo erectus → Homo habilis → Homo sapiens.

Question 15.
Which of the following is an example for connecting link species?
(a) Lobe fish
(b) Dodo bird
(c) Sea weed
(d) Tyrannosaurus rex.

Question 16.
Match the scientists listed under column ‘A’ with ideas listed under column ‘B’

(a) i-M; ii-P; iii-N; iv-O
(b) i-P; ii-M; iii-N; iv-O
(c) i-N; ii-P; iii-O; iv-M
(d) i-P; ii-O; iii-N; iv-M.

Question 17.
In 1953 S.L. Miller created primitive earth conditions in the laboratory and gave experimental evidence for origin of first form of life from pre-existing non-living organic molecules. The primitive earth conditions created include
(a) low temperature, volcanic storms, atmosphere rich in oxygen
(b) low temperature, volcanic storms, reducing atmosphere
(c) high temperature, volcanic storms, non-reducing atmosphere
(d) high temperature, volcanic storms, reducing atmosphere containing CH₄, NH₃ etc.

Question 18.
Variations during mutations of meiotic re-combinations are
(a) random and directionless
(b) random and directional
(c) random and small
(d) random, small and directional.

Assertion and Reason Type Questions

These questions consist of two statements each, printed as Assertion and Reason.
While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four responses:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
Question 19.
Assertion: The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes.
Reason: The first autotrophic organisms were the chemo-autotrophs that never released oxygen.

Question 20.
Assertion: Human ancestors never used their tails and so the tail expressing gene has disappeared in them.
Reason: Lamarck’s theory of evolution is popularly called theory of continuity of germplasm.

Question 21.
Assertion: Coacervates are believed to be the precursors of life.
Reason: Coacervates were self-duplicating aggregates of proteins surrounded by lipid molecules.

Question 22.
Assertion: Chimpanzee is the closest relative of present-day humans.
Reason: The banding pattern in the auto some numbers 3 and 6 is remarkably similar.

Question 23.
Assertion: King cobra is adaptive to Oriental realm.
Reason: Wallace line prevents interaction of king cobra and kangaroo.

Question 24.
Assertion: Amphibians have evolved from fishes.
Reason: Archaeopteryx is a fossil linking fishes and amphibians.

Question 25.
Assertion: Continued use of eyes leads to an improvement of eyesight.
Reason: Isolating mechanisms prevent reproduction even between the members of same species.

Question 26.
Assertion: Mutations are basically different from fluctuations.
Reason: Mutations are sudden discontinuous and large variations, while fluctuations are small and continuous variations.

Hope the information shared regarding the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 7 Evolution with Answers Pdf free download is true and genuine as far as our knowledge is concerned. If you feel any information regarding CBSE Class 12 Biology Evolution MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers is missing do reach us and we will look into it and add it accordingly.

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 History Chapter 8 Peasants, Zamindars and the State: Agrarian Society and the Mughal Empire with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 History with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Peasants, Zamindars and the State Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Peasants, Zamindars and the State Class 12 Objective Questions.

Peasants, Zamindars and the State Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
What was the basic unit of agricultural society?
(a) State
(b) City
(c) Town
(d) Village

Question 2.
Which of the following crops was introduced into India via Africa and Spain?
(a) Chillies
(b) Maize
(c) Papaya
(d) Tomatoes

Question 3.
Who was the author of Ain-i-Akbari?
(a) Akbar
(b) Abul Fazl
(c) Ibn Batuta
(d) Abdur Razzaq

Question 4.
Which of the following were the duties performed by state officials in the 16th century?
(a) Collection of land revenue
(b) Measuring the land
(c) Keeping the records
(d) All the above

Question 5.
Which of the following crops were considered as jins-i-Kamil?
(a) Cotton and sugarcane
(b) Maize and sugarcane
(c) Rice and wheat
(d) Chillies and potatoes

Question 6.
Which of the following statements regarding the roles played by women in agrarian society is incorrect?
(a) Women sowed, weeded, threshed, and winnowed the harvest.
(b) Women worked shoulder to shoulder with men in fields.
(c) During some days of the month women were not allowed to touch the plough.
(d) Women took the produce to the overseas markets for trade.

Question 7.
What do you understand by the term Khud-Kashta?
(a) Peasants who were residents of the village
(b) Non-resident cultivators
(c) Revenue collectors
(d) Head of jati panchayat

Question 8.
Which of the following crops was banned by Jahangir?
(a) Betel leaf
(b) Chillies
(c) Tobacco
(d) Maize

Question 9.
What was the village headman called?
(a) Muqaddam
(b) Asarrii
(c) Muzarian
(d) Riaya

Question 10.
Which of the following Muslim community was considered menial?
(a) Mandal
(b) Halalkhoran
(c) Majur
(d) Jangli

Question 11.
Name any two Jins-i-Kamil crops.

Question 12.
Give one point of difference between Khud- Kashta and Pahi-Kashta?

Question 13.
Find out from the following pairs which one is not correctly matched:
(a) Kharif : Autumn
(b) Rabi : Spring
(c) Makka : Maize
(d) Muqaddam : Labourer

Question 14.
Indicate which of the following statements is NOT correct.
(a) Jati Panchayat arbitrated civil disputes between members of different castes.
(b) The state respected the decisions of jati panchayat in matters related to criminal justice.
(c) Jati Panchayat mediated in contested claims on the land.
(d) Milkiyat as the extensive personal lands held by the zamindars.

Question 15.
Match the following.

Choose the correct option.
(a) i – b, ii – c, iii – a, iv – d
(b) i – c, ii – a, iii – b, iv – d
(c) i – c, ii – d, iii – b, iv – a
(d) i – d, ii – a, iii – b, iv – c

Question 16.
Look at the given painting and describe it.

Question 17.
Look at the given painting and describe it.

Question 18.
An administrative subdivision of a Mughal painting is called _________

Question 19.
_________ was a form of tribute collected by the Mughal state.

Question 20.
Consider the following statements regarding the classification of lands under Akbar.
(i) Polaj is land which is annually cultivated for each crop in succession and is never allowed to lie fallow.
(ii) Chachar is land uncultivated for five years and more.
(iii) Parauti is land left out of cultivation for a time that it may recover its strength.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) i and iii
(b) ii and iii
(c) i and ii
(d) iii only

Question 21.
Read the information given below:
Identify and name the administrative system.

Question 22.
Arrange the following events in chronological order:
1. Ahmad Shah Abdali defeated the Marathas
2. Bahadur Shah II deposed and exiled to Rangoon
3. Nadir Shah invaded India
4. Humayun regained lost territories
Choose the correct option:
(a) 4, 3, 1, and 2
(b) 4, 1, 2, and 3
(c) 3, 4, 1, and 2
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 History Chapter 8 Peasants, Zamindars and the State: Agrarian Society and the Mughal Empire with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 12 History Peasants, Zamindars and the State MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 8 Human Health and Disease with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Human Health and Disease Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Human Health and Disease Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Human Health and Disease Multiple Choice Questions of Class 12 Biology Chapter 8 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Human Health and Disease Class 12 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 8 Biology Class 12 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Select the correct answer

Question 1.
The term ‘Health’ is defined in many ways. The most accurate definition of the health would be:
(a) Health is the state of body and mind in a balanced condition
(b) Health is the reflection of a smiling face
(c) Health is a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being
(d) Health is the symbol of economic prosperity.

Question 2.
The organisms which cause diseases in plants and animals are called:
(a) pathogens
(b) vectors
(c) insects
(d) worms.

Question 3.
The chemical test that is used for diagnosis of typhoid is:
(a) ELISA Test
(b) ESR Test
(c) PCR Test
(d) Widal Test.

Question 4.
Diseases are broadly grouped into infectious and non-infectious diseases. In the list given below, identify the infectious diseases.
(i) Cancer
(ii) Influenza
(iii) Allergy
(iv) Smallpox.
(a) i and ii
(b) ii and iii
(c) iii and iv
(d) ii and iv

Question 5.
The sporozoites that cause infection when a female Anopheles mosquito bites a human being are formed in:
(a) Liver of human
(b) RBCs of mosquito
(c) Salivary glands of mosquito
(d) Intestine of human.

Question 6.
The disease chikungunya is transmitted by:
(a) Houseflies
(b) Aedes mosquitoes
(c) Cockroach
(d) Female Anopheles.

Question 7.
Many diseases can be diagnosed by observing the symptoms in the patient. Which group of symptoms are indicative of pneumonia?
(a) Difficulty in respiration, fever, chills, cough, headache
(b) Constipation, abdominal pain, cramps, blood clots
(c) Nasal congestion and discharge, cough, sore throat, headache
(d) High fever, weakness, stomach pain, loss of appetite and constipation.

Question 8.
Which type of immune response is responsible for the rejection of tissues/ organs in the patient’s body post¬transplantation?
(a) auto-immune response
(b) humoral immune response
(c) physiological immune response
(d) cell-mediated immune response.

Question 9.
In malignant tumours, the cells proliferate, grow rapidly and move to other parts of the body to form new tumours. This stage of disease is called:
(a) metagenesis
(b) metastasis
(c) teratogenesis
(d) mitosis.

Question 10.
When an apparently healthy person is diagnosed as unhealthy by a psychiatrist, the reason could be that:
(a) the patient was not efficient at his work
(b) the patient was not economically prosperous
(c) the patient shows behavioural and social maladjustment
(d) he does not take interest in sports.

Question 11.
Which of the following are the reason(s) for Rheumatoid arthritis ? Choose the correct option.
(i) Lymphocytes become more active
(ii) Body attacks self cells
(iii) More antibodies are produced in the body
(iv) The ability to differentiate pathogens or foreign molecules from self cells is lost
(a) i and ii
(b) ii and iv
(c) iii and iv
(d) i and iii

Question 12.
AIDS is caused by HIV. Among the following, which one is not a mode of transmission of HIV?
(a) Transfusion of contaminated blood
(b) Sharing the infected needles
(c) Shaking hands with infected persons
(d) Sexual contact with infected persons.

Question 13.
‘Smack’ is a drug obtained from the:
(a) latex of Papaver somniferum
(b) leaves of Cannabis sativa
(c) flowers of Dhatura
(d) fruits of Erythroxylon coca.

Question 14.
The substance produced by a cell in viral infection that can protect other cells from further infection is :
(a) serotonin
(b) colostrum
(c) interferon
(d) histamine.

Question 15.
Transplantation of tissues/organs to save certain patients often fails due to rejection of such tissues/organs by the patient. Which type of immune response is responsible for such rejections?
(a) auto-immune response
(b) humoral immune response
(c) physiological immune response
(d) cell-mediated immune response.

Question 16.
Antibodies present in colostrum which protect the newborn from certain diseases is of:
(a) Ig G type
(b) Ig A type
(c) Ig D type
(d) Ig E type.

Question 17.
Tobacco consumption is known to stimulate secretion of adrenaline and nor-adrenaline. The component causing this could be:
(a) Nicotine
(b) Tannic acid
(c) Curaimin
(d) Catechin.

Assertion and Reason Type Questions

These questions consist of two statements each, printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) if Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
Question 18.
Assertion: There is no chance of transmission of malaria to a man by the bite of a male Anopheles mosquito.
Reason: It carries a non-virulent strain of Plasmodium.

Question 19.
Assertion: Mast cells in the human body release excessive amounts of inflammatory chemicals which cause allergic reactions.
Reason: Allergens in the environment on reaching human body stimulate mast cells in certain individuals.

Question 20.
Assertion: Dope test is used to estimate the level of blood alcohol by analysing the breath of persons drinking alcohol.
Reason: A drunken person usually feels tense and less talkative.

Question 21.
Assertion: Interferons are types of antibodies produced by bacteria-infected cells of the body.
Reason: Interferons stimulate inflammation at the site of injury.

Question 22.
Assertion: LSD and marijuana are clinically used as analgesics.
Reason: Both these drugs suppress brain function.

Question 23.
Assertion: After drinking, alcohol is changed to glucose in liver.
Reason: Liver cells are able to form glucose from alcohol by reverse fermentation.

Question 24.
Assertion: Our body contains separate T-cells for every antigen the body encounters.
Reason: Each T-cell recognises a specific antigen.

Question 25.
Assertion: A person who has received a cut and is bleeding needs to be given anti-tetanus treatment.
Reason: Anti-tetanus injection provides immunity by producing antibodies for tetanus.

Hope the information shared regarding the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 8 Human Health and Disease with Answers Pdf free download is true and genuine as far as our knowledge is concerned. If you feel any information regarding CBSE Class 12 Biology Human Health and Disease MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers is missing do reach us and we will look into it and add it accordingly.

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 History Chapter 9 Kings and Chronicles: The Mughal Courts with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 History with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Kings and Chronicles Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Kings and Chronicles Class 12 Objective Questions.

Kings and Chronicles Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Who was the author of Humayun Nama?
(a) Abu’l Fazl
(b) Humayun
(c) Abdul Hamid Lahori
(d) Gulbadan Begum

Question 2.
In which year did Babur come to India?
(a) 1523
(b) 1524
(c) 1525
(d) 1526

Question 3.
Which Mughal ruler made Persian the language of the court?
(a) Babur
(b) Humayun
(c) Akbar
(d) Shah Jahan

Question 4.
Which of the following statements related to the art of painting is incorrect?
(i) The Safavid kings of Iran patronised the finest artists.
(ii) The depiction of living beings in the form of painting or sculpture was greatly promoted in Islam.
(iii) Abu’l Fazl described the painting as a ‘magical art’.
(iv) Mir Sayyed Ali and Abdus Samad accompanied Emperor Babur to Delhi.
(a) ‘i’ and ‘iv’
(b) ‘ii’ and ‘iv’
(c) ‘ii’ only
(d) ‘i’ only

Question 5.
What is the meaning of sulh-i-kul?
(a) Absolute peace
(b) Enlightened rule
(c) State is all-powerful
(d) Divine guidance

Question 6.
Buland Darwaza was built to commemorate which Mughal victory?
(a) Mughal victory in Lahore
(b) Mughal victory in Qandahar
(c) Mughal victory in Gujarat
(d) Mughal victory in Golconda

Question 7.
Shah Jahan’s jewelled throne is described in which Mughal chronicle?
(a) Badshah Nama
(b) Ain-i-Akbari
(c) Akbar Nama
(d) Humayun Nama

Question 8.
Which Mughal ruler commissioned the construction of a white marble tomb for Shaikh Salim Chisti?
(a) Babur
(b) Humayun
(c) Akbar
(d) Jahangir

Question 9.
Which of the following practices related to the Mughal court is incorrect?
(a) Once the emperor sat on the throne, none was permitted to move from his position or to leave without permission.
(b) The forms of salutation to the ruler indicated the person’s status in the hierarchy.
(c) Jharoka darshan was introduced by Akbar with the objective of broadening the acceptance of the imperial authority as part of popular faith.
(d) Under Akbar sijda or complete prostration was replaced with Chahar taslim and zaminbos.

Question 10.
Which of the following statements related to the imperial household is incorrect?
(a) In the Mughal household, wives who came from royal families were called begems.
(b) in the Mughal household wives who were not of noble birth were called aghas.
(c) The concubines occupied the lowest position.
(d) The lineage-based family structure was entirely static.

Question 11.
What is calligraphy?

Question 12.
What was tainat-i-rakab?

Question 13.
________ was the centre of manuscript production.

Question 14.
Humayun Nama was written by __________

Question 15.
Indicate which of the following statements is NOT correct.
(a) The forms of salutation to the ruler indicated the person’s status in the hierarchy.
(b) The highest form of submission was sijda or complete prostration.
(c) Akbar replaced sijda with Chahar taslim and zaminbos.
(d) Jharoka darshan was introduced by Akbar with the objective of broadening the acceptance of the imperial authority.

Question 16.
Match the following.

Choose the correct option
(a) i – b, ii – c, iii – a, iv – d
(b) i – d, ii – c, iii – a, iv – b
(c) i – c, ii – d, iii – b, iv – a
(d) i – d, ii – a, iii – b, iv – c

Question 17.
Identify the image and write its name.

Question 18.
Look at the given painting and describe it.

Question 19.
Arrange the following Mughal emperors in chronological order:
1. Nasiruddin Humayun
2. Aurangzeb
3. Zahiruddin Babur
4. Jahangir
Choose the correct option:
(a) 4, 3, 1 and 2
(b) 4, 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3, 1, 4, and 2
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 20.
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other la¬belled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Akbar was interested to spread Christianity in India and invite Jesuit Priests for the same.
Reason (R): The first Jesuit mission reached the Mughal court at Fatehpur Sikri in 1580 and stayed for about two years.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(d) (R) is correct but (A) is not correct.

Question 21.
Consider the following statements regarding the classification of lands under Akbar:
(i) In sulh-i kul some religions and schools of thought had freedom of expression.
(ii) The ideal of sulh-I Kul was implemented through state policies.
(iii) Shahjahan abolished the tax on pilgrimage in 1563 and jizya in 1564 as the two were based on religious discrimination.
Which of the following statement (s) is/are correct?
(a) I and III
(b) II and III
(c) III only
(d) II only

Question 22.
Read the information given below:
Identify and name the style of writing.

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