MCQ Questions

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 12 Biotechnology and its Applications with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Biotechnology and its Applications Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Biotechnology and its Applications Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Biotechnology and its Applications Multiple Choice Questions of Class 12 Biology Chapter 12 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Biotechnology and its Applications Class 12 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 12 Biology Class 12 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Select the correct answer:

Question 1.
Bt cotton is not:
(a) A GM plant
(b) Insect resistant
(c) a bacterial gene expression system
(d) Resistant to all pesticides.

Answer

Answer: (c) a bacterial gene expression system

---

Question 2.
C-peptide of human insulin is:
(a) A part of mature insulin molecule
(b) Responsible for formation of disulphide bridges
(c) Removed during maturation of pro-insulin to insulin
(d) Responsible for its biological activity.

Answer

Answer: (c) Removed during maturation of pro-insulin to insulin

---

Question 3.
GEAC stands for:
(a) Genome Engineering Action Committee
(b) Ground Environment Action Committee
(c) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
(d) Genetic and Environment Approval committee.

Answer

Answer: (c) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee

---

Question 4.
a-1 antitrypsin as:
(a) An antacid
(b) An enzyme
(c) Used to treat arthritis
(d) Used to treat emphysema.

Answer

Answer: (d) Used to treat emphysema.

---

Question 5.
A probe which is a molecule used to locate specific sequences in a mixture of DNA or RNA molecules could be:
(a) A single-stranded RNA
(b) A single-stranded DNA
(c) Either RNA or DNA
(d) Can be ss DNA but not ss RNA.

Answer

Answer: (c) Either RNA or DNA

---

Question 6.
Choose the correct option regarding Retrovirus.
(a) An RNA virus that can synthesise DNA during infection
(b) A DNA virus that can synthesise RNA during infection
(c) An ssDNA virus
(d) AdsRNA virus.

Answer

Answer: (a) An RNA virus that can synthesise DNA during infection

---

Question 7.
The site of production of ADA in the body is:
(a) Bone marrow
(b) Lymphocytes
(c) Blood plasma
(d) Monocytes.

Answer

Answer: (a) Bone marrow

---

Question 8.
A protoxin is:
(a) A primitive toxin
(b) A denatured toxin
(c) Toxin produced by protozoa
(d) Inactive toxin.

Answer

Answer: (d) Inactive toxin.

---

Question 9.
Pathophysiology is the:
(a) Study of physiology of pathogen
(b) Study of normal physiology of host
(c) Study of altered physiology of host
(d) None of the above.

Answer

Answer: (c) Study of altered physiology of host

---

Question 10.
The trigger for activation of toxin of Bacillus thuringiensis is:
(a) Acidic pH of stomach
(b) High temperature
(c) Alkaline pH of gut
(d) Mechanical action in the insect gut.

Answer

Answer: (c) Alkaline pH of gut

---

Question 11.
Golden rice is:
(a) A variey of rice grown along the yellow river in China
(b) Long stored rice having yellow colour tint
(c) A transgenic rice having gene for p-carotene
(d) Wild variety of rice with yellow coloured grains.

Answer

Answer: (c) A transgenic rice having gene for p-carotene

---

Question 12.
In RNAi, genes are silenced using:
(o) ssDNA
(b) dsDNA
(c) dsRNA
(d) ssRNA.

Answer

Answer: (c) dsRNA

---

Question 13.
The first clinical gene therapy was done for the treatment of:
(a) AIDS
(b) Cancer
(c) Cystic fibrosis
(d) SCID.

Answer

Answer: (d) SCID.

---

Question 14.
ADA is an enzyme which is deficient in a genetic disorder SCID. What is the full form of ADA?
(a) Adenosine deoxy aminase
(b) Adenosine deaminase
(c) Aspartate deaminase
(d) Arginine deaminase.

Answer

Answer: (b) Adenosine deaminase

---

Question 15.
Silencing of a gene could be achieved through the use of:
(a) Short interfering RNA (RNAi)
(b) Antisense RNA
(c) By Both
(d) None of the above.

Answer

Answer: (c) By Both

---

Assertion and Reason Type Questions

These questions consist of two statements each, printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
Question 16.
Assertion: Indian Government has set up organisations such as GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval Committee), which will make decisions regarding the validity of GM research and the safety of introducing GM-organisms for public services.
Reason: Genetic modification of organisms can have unpredicatable results when such organisms are introduced into the ecosystem.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

---

Question 17.
Assertion: Gene therapy is a collection of methods that allows correction of a gene defect that has been diagnosed in a child/ embryo.
Reason: In gene therapy genes are inserted into a person’s cells and tissues to treat a disease.

Answer

Answer: (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

---

Question 18.
Assertion: ELISA is widely used for the detection of infectious diseases like AIDS.
Reason: ELISA is very sensitive and selective test and needs very small amount of reagents.

Answer

Answer: (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

---

Question 19.
Assertion: Vaccination is also called preventive inoculation.
Reason: A vaccine prevents the formation of antibodies inside the body.

Answer

Answer: (c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.

---

Question 20.
Assertion: Humulin is more effective than the insulin produced by conventional methods.
Reason: Humulin is absorbed rapidly in the blood than the conventionally produced insulin.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

---

Question 21.
Assertion: Interferons are a type of antibodies produced by cells infected by bacteria.
Reason: Interferons stimulate inflammation at the site of injury.

Answer

Answer: (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

---

Question 22.
Assertion: Agrobacterium tumefaciens is popular in genetic engineering because this bacterium is associated with roots of all cereals and pulse crops.
Reason: A gene incorporated in the bacterial chromosomal genome gets automatically transferred to the crop with which the bacterium is associated.

Answer

Answer: (c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.

---

Question 23.
Assertion: DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence.
Reason: In repetitive DNA sequences, a small stretch of DNA is repeated many times.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

---

Hope the information shared regarding the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 12 Biotechnology and its Applications with Answers Pdf free download is true and genuine as far as our knowledge is concerned. If you feel any information regarding CBSE Class 12 Biology Biotechnology and its Applications MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers is missing do reach us and we will look into it and add it accordingly.

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 13 Organisms and Populations with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Organisms and Populations Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Organisms and Populations Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Organisms and Populations Multiple Choice Questions of Class 12 Biology Chapter 13 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Organisms and Populations Class 12 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 13 Biology Class 12 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Select the correct answer

Question 1.
Autecology is the
(a) relation of a population to its environment
(b) relation of an individual to its environment
(c) relation of a community to its environment
(d) relation of a biome to its environment.

Answer

Answer: (b) relation of an individual to its environment

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Question 2.
Ecotone is:
(a) A polluted area
(b) The bottom of a lake
(c) A zone of transition between two communities
(d) A zone of developing community.

Answer

Answer: (c) A zone of transition between two communities

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Question 3.
Biosphere is:
(a) A component in the ecosystem
(b) Composed of the plants present in the soil
(c) Life in the outer space
(d) Composed of all living organisms present on the earth which interact with the physical environment.

Answer

Answer: (d) Composed of all living organisms present on the earth which interact with the physical environment.

---

Question 4.
Ecological niche is:
(a) the surface area of the ocean
(b) a an ecologically adapted zone
(c) the physical position and functional role of a species within the community
(d) formed of all plants and animals living at the bottom of a lake.

Answer

Answer: (c) the physical position and functional role of a species within the community

---

Question 5.
According to Allen’s Rule, the mammals from colder climates have:
(a) shorter ears and longer limbs
(b) longer ears and shorter limbs
(c) longer ears and longer limbs
(d) shorter ears and shorter limbs.

Answer

Answer: (d) shorter ears and shorter limbs.

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Question 6.
Salt concentration (salinity) of the sea measured in parts per thousand is:
(a) 10-15
(b) 30-70
(c) 0-5
(d) 30-35.

Answer

Answer: (d) 30-35.

---

Question 7.
Formation of tropical forests needs mean annual temperature and mean annual precipitation as:
(a) 18-25°C and 150-400 cm
(b) 5-15°C and 50-100 cm
(c) 30-50°C and 100-150 cm
(d) 5-15°C and 100-200 cm.

Answer

Answer: (a) 18-25°C and 150-400 cm

---

Question 8.
Which of the following forest plants controls the light conditions at the ground?
(a) Lianas and climbers
(b) Shrubs
(c) Tall trees
(d) Herbs.

Answer

Answer: (c) Tall trees

---

Question 9.
What will happen to a well growing herbaceous plant in the forest if it is transplanted outside the forest in a park?
(a) It will grow normally
(b) It will grow well because it is planted in the same locality
(c) It may not survive because of change in its microclimate
(d) It grows very well because the plant gets more sunlight.

Answer

Answer: (c) It may not survive because of change in its microclimate

---

Question 10.
If a population of 50 Paramoecium present in a pool increases to 150 after an hour, what would be the growth rate of population?
(a) 50 per hour
(b) 200 per hour
(c) 5 per hour
(d) 100 per hour.

Answer

Answer: (d) 100 per hour.

---

Question 11.
What would be the per cent growth or birth rate per individual per hour for the same population mentioned in the previous question?
(a) 100
(b) 200
(c) 50
(d) 150.

Answer

Answer: (b) 200

---

Question 12.
A population has more young individuals compared to the older individuals. What would be the status of the population after some years?
(a) It will decline.
(b) It will stabilise.
(c) It will increase.
(d) It will first decline and then stabilise.

Answer

Answer: (c) It will increase.

---

Question 13.
What parameters are used for tiger census in our country’s national parks and sanctuaries?
(a) Pugmarks only
(b) Pug marks and faecal pellets
(c) Faecal pellets only
(d) Actual head counts.

Answer

Answer: (b) Pug marks and faecal pellets

---

Question 14.
Which of the following would necessarily decrease the density of a population in a given habitat?
(a) Natality > mortality
(b) Immigration > emigration
(c) Mortality and emigration
(d) Natality and immigration.

Answer

Answer: (c) Mortality and emigration

---

Question 15.
A protozoan reproduces by binary fission. What will be the number of protozoans in its population after six generations?
(a) 128
(b) 24
(c) 64
(d) 32.

Answer

Answer: (c) 64

---

Question 16.
In 2005, for each of the 14 million people present in a country, 0.028 were born and 0.008 died during the year. Using exponential equation, the number of people present in 2015 is predicted as:
(a) 25 millions
(b) 17 millions
(c) 20 millions
(d) 18 millions.

Answer

Answer: (b) 17 millions

---

Question 17.
Amensalism is an association between two species where :
(a) one species is harmed and other is benefitted
(b) one species is harmed and other is unaffected
(c) one species is benefitted and other is unaffected
(d) both the species are harmed.

Answer

Answer: (b) one species is harmed and other is unaffected

---

Question 18.
Lichens are the associations of:
(a) bacteria and fungus
(b) algae and bacterium
(c) fungus and algae
(d) fungus and virus.

Answer

Answer: (c) fungus and algae

---

Question 19.
Which of the following is a partial root parasite?
(a) Sandal wood
(b) Mistletoe
(c) Orobanche
(d) Ganoderma.

Answer

Answer: (b) Mistletoe

---

Question 20.
Which one of the following organisms reproduces sexually only once in its life time?
(a) Banana plant
(b) Mango
(c) Tomato
(d) Eucalyptus.

Answer

Answer: (a) Banana plant

---

Assertion and Reason Type Questions

The questions given below consist of an assertion and a reason. Use the following key to choose the appropriate answer.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Question 21.
Assertion: In India, the human population is currently undergoing the lag phase.
Reason: 90% portion of Indian population is still below poverty line.

Answer

Answer: (d) Both assertion and reason are false.

---

Question 22.
Assertion: Gene flow increases genetic variations.
Reason: The random introduction of new alleles into recipient population and their removal from the donor population affect allele frequency.

Answer

Answer: (b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

---

Question 23.
Assertion: Smaller the organism, the higher is the rate of metabolism per gram weight.
Reason: The heart rate of a six-month baby is much higher than that of an old person.

Answer

Answer: (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

---

Question 24.
Assertion: Allelopathy is a form of ammensalism that occurs in plants.
Reason: Association of rooting plants with fungal hyphae, is an important example of ammensalism.

Answer

Answer: (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.

---

Question 25.
Assertion: Animals adopt different strategies to survive in hostile environment.
Reason: Praying mantis is green in colour which merges with plant foliage.

Answer

Answer: (b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

---

Question 26.
Assertion: Age-sex structure of human population in France and Sweden forms a steep pyramid.
Reason: In countries like Sudan and India, the population is increasing at a rapid rate.

Answer

Answer: (b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

---

Question 27.
Assertion: Cold-blooded animals have no fat layer.
Reason: Cold-blooded animals use their fat for metabolic processes during hibernation.

Answer

Answer: (b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

---

Question 28.
Assertion: Migration is an important factor which determines both population size and population density.
Reason: In migration, a major part of population goes from one area to another area.

Answer

Answer: (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

---

Hope the information shared regarding the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 13 Organisms and Populations with Answers Pdf free download is true and genuine as far as our knowledge is concerned. If you feel any information regarding CBSE Class 12 Biology Organisms and Populations MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers is missing do reach us and we will look into it and add it accordingly.

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 14 Ecosystem with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Ecosystem Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Ecosystem Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Ecosystem Multiple Choice Questions of Class 12 Biology Chapter 14 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Ecosystem Class 12 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 14 Biology Class 12 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Select the correct answer

Question 1.
Decomposers like fungi and bacteria are:
(i) autotrophs
(ii) heterotrophs
(iii) saprotrophs
(iv) chemo-autotrophs
Choose the correct answer:
(a) i and iii
(b) i and iv
(c) ii and iii
(d) i and ii.

Answer

Answer: (c) ii and iii

---

Question 2.
The process of mineralisation by micro organisms helps in the release of:
(a) inorganic nutrients from humus
(b) both organic and inorganic nutrients from detritus
(c) organic nutrients from humus
(d) inorganic nutrients from detritus and formation of humus.

Answer

Answer: (a) inorganic nutrients from humus

---

Question 3.
Productivity is the rate of production of biomass expressed in terms of:
(i) (kcal m^-1) yr^-1
(ii) g^-2yr^-1
(iii) g^-1 yr^-1
(iv) (kcal m^-2 yr^-1
(a) ii
(b) iii
(c) ii and iv
(d) i and iii.

Answer

Answer: (c) ii and iv

---

Question 4.
An inverted pyramid of biomass can be found in which ecosystem?
(a) Forest
(b) Marine
(c) Grassland
(d) Tundra.

Answer

Answer: (b) Marine

---

Question 5.
Which of the following is not a producer?
(a) Spirogyra
(b) Agaricus
(c) Volvox
(d) Nostoc.

Answer

Answer: (b) Agaricus

---

Question 6.
Which of the following ecosystems is most productive in terms of net primary production?
(a) Deserts
(b) Tropical rainforests
(c) Oceans
(d) Estuaries.

Answer

Answer: (b) Tropical rainforests

---

Question 7.
Pyramid of numbers is:
(a) Always upright
(b) Always inverted
(c) Either upright or inverted
(d) Neither upright nor inverted.

Answer

Answer: (c) Either upright or inverted

---

Question 8.
Approximately how much of the solar energy that falls on the leaves of a plant is converted to chemical energy by photosynthesis?
(a) Less than 1%
(b) 2-10%
(c) 30%
(d) 50%.

Answer

Answer: (b) 2-10%

---

Question 9.
Among the following, where do you think the process of decomposition would be the fastest?
(a) Tropical rainforest
(b) Antarctic
(c) Dry arid region
(d) Alpine region.

Answer

Answer: (a) Tropical rainforest

---

Question 10.
How much of the net primary productivity of a terrestrial ecosystem is eaten and digested by herbivores?
(a) 1%
(b) 10%
(c) 40%
(d) 90%.

Answer

Answer: (b) 10%

---

Question 11.
During the process of ecological succession the changes that take place in communities are :
(a) Orderly and sequential
(b) Random
(c) Very quick.
(d) Not influenced by the physical environment

Answer

Answer: (a) Orderly and sequential

---

Question 12.
Climax community is in a state of:
(a) non-equilibrium
(b) equilibrium
(c) disorder
(d) constant change.

Answer

Answer: (b) equilibrium

---

Question 13.
Among the following biogeochemical cycles which one does not have losses due to respiration?
(a) Phosphorus
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Sulphur
(d) All of the above.

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above.

---

Question 14.
The sequence of communities of primary succession in water is:
(a) phytoplankton, sedges, free-floating hydrophytes, rooted hydrophytes, grasses and trees.
(b) phytoplankton, free-floating hydrophytes, rooted hydrophytes, sedges, grasses and trees.
(c) free-floating hydrophytes, sedges, phytoplankton, rooted hydrophytes, grasses and trees.
(d) phytoplankton, rooted submerged hydrophytes, floating hydrophytes, reed swamp, sedges, meadow and trees.

Answer

Answer: (b) phytoplankton, free-floating hydrophytes, rooted hydrophytes, sedges, grasses and trees.

---

Question 15.
The reservoir for the gaseous type of bio-geochemical cycle exists in
(a) stratosphere
(b) atmosphere
(c) ionosphere
(d) lithosphere.

Answer

Answer: (b) atmosphere

---

Question 16.
If the carbon atoms fixed by producers already have passed through three species, the trophic level of the last species would be
(a) scavenger
(b) tertiary producer
(c) tertiary consumer
(d) secondary consumer.

Answer

Answer: (c) tertiary consumer

---

Question 17.
Which of the following types of ecosystem is expected in an area where evaporation exceeds precipitation, and mean annual rainfall is below 100 mm.
(a) Grassland
(b) Shrubby forest
(c) Desert
(d) Mangrove.

Answer

Answer: (c) Desert

---

Question 18.
The zone at the edge of a lake or ocean which is alternatively exposed to air and immersed in water is called:
(a) Pelagic zone
(b) Benthic zone
(c) Lentic one
(d) Littoral zone.

Answer

Answer: (d) Littoral zone.

---

Question 19.
Edaphic factor refers to:
(a) Water
(b) Soil
(c) Relative humidity
(d) Altitude.

Answer

Answer: (b) Soil

---

Question 20.
Which of the following is an ecosystem service provided by a natural ecosystem?
(a) Cycling of nutrients
(b) Prevention of soil erosion
(c) Pollutant absorption and reduction of the threat of global warming
(d) All of the above.

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above.

---

Assertion and Reason Type Questions

The questions given below consist of an assertion and a reason. Use the following key to choose the appropriate answer.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
Question 21.
Assertion: Energy pyramid is slopping.
Reason: The energy of one trophic level is lower than the preceding trophic level.

Answer

Answer: (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

---

Question 22.
Assertion: Alpine forests consist of dwarf shrubs mainly of junipers, silver firs and Rhododendrons.
Reason: Alpine forests occur in the Himalayas above the altitude of 3500 metres.

Answer

Answer: (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

---

Question 23.
Assertion: In a food chain, members of successive higher levels are fewer in number.
Reason: Number of organisms at any trophic level depends upon the availability of organisms which serve as food at the lower level.

Answer

Answer: (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

---

Question 24.
Assertion: Tropical rainforests are disappearing fast from developing countries such as India.
Reason: No value is attached to these forests because these are poor in biodiversity.

Answer

Answer: (c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

---

Question 25.
Assertion: No two species within a given community can have exactly the same niche.
Reason: The hahitat of a species together with the functions forms its niche.

Answer

Answer: (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

---

Question 26.
Assertion: Red algae contribute in producing coral reefs.
Reason: Some red algae secrete and deposit calcium carbonate over their walls.

Answer

Answer: (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

---

Question 27.
Assertion: A network of food chains existing together in an ecosystem is known as a food web.
Reason: An animal like kite cannot be a part of a food web.

Answer

Answer: (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

---

Question 28.
Assertion: Animals adapt different strategies to survive in hostile environment.
Reason: Praying mantis is green in colour which merges with plant foliage.

Answer

Answer: (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

---

Hope the information shared regarding the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 14 Ecosystem with Answers Pdf free download is true and genuine as far as our knowledge is concerned. If you feel any information regarding CBSE Class 12 Biology Ecosystem MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers is missing do reach us and we will look into it and add it accordingly.

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 15 Biodiversity and Conservation with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Biodiversity and Conservation Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Biodiversity and Conservation Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Biodiversity and Conservation Multiple Choice Questions of Class 12 Biology Chapter 15 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Biodiversity and Conservation Class 12 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 15 Biology Class 12 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Select the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which of the following countries has the highest biodiversity?
(a) Brazil
(b) South Africa
(c) Russia
(d) India.

Answer

Answer: (a) Brazil

---

Question 2.
Which of the following is not a cause for loss of biodiversity?
(a) Destruction of habitat
(b) Invasion by alien species
(c) Keeping animals in zoological parks
(d) Over-exploitation of natural resources.

Answer

Answer: (c) Keeping animals in zoological parks

---

Question 3.
Which of the following is not an invasive alien species in the Indian context?
(a) Lantana
(b) Cynodon
(c) Parthenium
(d) Eichhornia.

Answer

Answer: (b) Cynodon

---

Question 4.
Where among the following will you find pitcher plant?
(a) Rain forest of North-East India
(b) Sunderbans
(c) Thar Desert
(d) Western Ghats.

Answer

Answer: (a) Rain forest of North-East India

---

Question 5.
Which one of the following is not a major characteristic feature of biodiversity hotspots?
(a) Large number of species
(b) Abundance of endemic species
(c) Large number of exotic species
(d) Destruction of habitat.

Answer

Answer: (d) Destruction of habitat.

---

Question 6.
Match the animals given in column A with their location in column B:

Column I	Column II
(i) Dodo	(a) Africa
(ii) Quagga	(b) Russia
(iii) Thylacine	(c) Mauritius
(iv) Stellar’s sea cow	(d) Australia

Choose the correct match from the following:
(a) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d
(b) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b
(c) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d
(d) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b.

Answer

Answer: (d) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b.

---

Question 7.
What is common to the following plants: Nepenthes, Psilotum, Rauwolfia and Acontium?
(a) All are ornamental plants
(b) All are phylogenic link species
(c) All are prone to over-exploitation
(d) All are exclusively present in the Eastern Himalayas.

Answer

Answer: (c) All are prone to over-exploitation

---

Question 8.
The most important cause of biodiversity loss is:
(a) Over exploitation of economic species
(b) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(c) Invasive species
(d) Breakdown of plant-pollinator relationships

Answer

Answer: (b) Habitat loss and fragmentation

---

Question 9.
Amongst the animal groups given below, which one has the highest percentage of endangered species?
(a) Insects
(b) Mammals
(c) Amphibians
(d) Reptiles.

Answer

Answer: (c) Amphibians

---

Question 10.
Which one of the following is an endangered plant species of India?
(a) Rauwolfia serpentina
(b) Santalum album (Sandal wood)
(c) Cycas beddonei
(d) All of the above.

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above.

---

Question 11.
What is common to Lantana, Eichhornia and African catfish?
(a) All are endangered species of India
(b) All are key stone species
(c) All are mammals found in India
(d) All the species are neither threatened nor indigenous species of India.

Answer

Answer: (d) All the species are neither threatened nor indigenous species of India.

---

Question 12.
The extinction of passenger pigeon was due to:
(a) Increased number of predatory birds.
(b) Over-exploitation by humans
(c) Non-availability of the food
(d) Bird flu virus infection

Answer

Answer: (b) Over-exploitation by humans

---

Question 13.
Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Parthenium is an endemic species of our country.
(b) African catfish is not a threat to indigenous catfishes.
(c) Steller’s sea cow is an extinct animal.
(d) Lantana is popularly known as carrot grass.

Answer

Answer: (b) African catfish is not a threat to indigenous catfishes.

---

Question 14.
Among the ecosystem mentioned below, where can one find maximum biodiversity?
(a) Mangroves
(b) Desert
(c) Coral reefs
(d) Alpine meadows

Answer

Answer: (c) Coral reefs

---

Question 15.
Which of the following forests is known as the ‘lungs of the planet Earth’?
(a) Tiaga forest
(b) Tundra forest
(c) Amazon rain forest
(d) Rain forests of North East India

Answer

Answer: (c) Amazon rain forest

---

Question 16.
The active chemical drug reserpine is obtained from:
(a) Datura
(b) Rauwolfia
(c) Atropa
(d) Papaver

Answer

Answer: (b) Rauwolfia

---

Question 17.
Which of the following groups of plants exhibit more species diversity?
(a) Angiosperms
(b) Algae
(c) Bryophytes
(d) Fungi

Answer

Answer: (d) Fungi

---

Question 18.
Which of the below-mentioned regions exhibit less seasonal variations?
(a) Tropics
(b) Temperates
(c) Alpines
(d) Both (a) & (b).

Answer

Answer: (a) Tropics

---

Question 19.
The historic convention on Biological Diversity held in Rio Janeiro in 1992 is known as:
(a) CITES Convention
(b) The Earth Summit
(c) G-16 Summit
(d) AAAB Programme

Answer

Answer: (b) The Earth Summit

---

Question 20.
What is common to the techniques
(i) in-vitro fertilisation
(ii) cryopreservation and
(iii) tissue culture?
(a) All are in situ conservation methods.
(b) All are ex situ conservation methods
(c) All require ultra modern equipment and large space
(d) All are methods of conservation of extinct organisms

Answer

Answer: (b) All are ex situ conservation methods

---

Question 21.
Select the incorrect statement.
(a) Species diversity increases as we move away from the equator towards the poles.
(b) Stellar’s sea cow and passenger pigeon got extinct due to over-exploitation by man.
(c) Lantana and Eichhornia are invasive weed species in India.
(d) Among animals, insects are the most species-rich taxonomic group.

Answer

Answer: (a) Species diversity increases as we move away from the equator towards the poles.

---

Assertion and Reason Type Questions

In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) followed by statement of Reason(R) is given. Choose the correct option out of the choices given below each question.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
Question 22.
Assertion: With few exceptions, tropics harbour more species than temperate or polar areas.
Reason: Species diversity decreases as we move away from the equator towards the poles.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

---

Question 23.
Assertion: In wildlife conservation, micro-organisms are not considered to be conserved.
Reason: Micro-organisms are not of much importance to mankind.

Answer

Answer: (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

---

Question 24.
Assertion: Rate of extinction of wildlife has become rapid in the last one hundred years.
Reason: Unplanned human activities have destroyed the natural habitats of many species of wildlife.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

---

Question 25.
Assertion: Golden langur is a vulnerable species.
Reason: Number of Golden langur has reduced and their natural habitat is also affected.

Answer

Answer: (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

---

Question 26.
Assertion: In India many national parks have been set up to protect wildlife.
Reason: Biosphere reserves have greater importance than the national parks.

Answer

Answer: (c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

---

Question 27.
Assertion: Cotton and jute are fibre-yielding plants.
Reason: Cotton is obtained from seed hair (lint) and jute fibres are obtained from stalks of retted jute.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

---

Question 28.
Assertion: For the management of wildlife, environmental pollution must be checked.
Reason: Environment provides the life-supporting systems to wildlife.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

---

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Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 16 Environmental Issues with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Environmental Issues Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Environmental Issues Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Environmental Issues Multiple Choice Questions of Class 12 Biology Chapter 16 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Environmental Issues Class 12 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 16 Biology Class 12 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Non-biodegradable pollutants are created by:
(a) nature
(b) excessive use of resources
(c) humans
(d) natural disasters.

Answer

Answer: (c) humans

---

Question 2.
According to the Central Pollution Control Board, particles that are responsible for causing great harm to human health are of diameter:
(a) 2.50 micrometres
(b) 5.00 micrometres
(c) 10.00 micrometres
(d) 7.5 micrometres.

Answer

Answer: (a) 2.50 micrometres

---

Question 3.
The material generally used for sound proofing of rooms like a recording studio and auditorium, etc. is:
(a) cotton
(b) coir
(c) wood
(d) styro foam.

Answer

Answer: (d) styro foam.

---

Question 4.
Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) is:
(a) propane
(b) methane
(c) ethane
(d) butane.

Answer

Answer: (b) methane

---

Question 5.
World’s most problematic aquatic weed is:
(a) Azolla
(b) Woiffia
(c) Eichhomia
(d) Trapa.

Answer

Answer: (c) Eichhomia

---

Question 6.
Which of the following causes biomagnification?
(a) SO₂
(b) Mercury
(c) DDT
(d) Both B and C.

Answer

Answer: (d) Both B and C.

---

Question 7.
The expanded form of DDT is:
(a) dichloro diphenyl trichloroethane
(b) dichloro diethyl trichloroethane
(c) dichloro dipyrydyl trichloroethane
(d) dichloro diphenyl tetrachloroacetate.

Answer

Answer: (a) dichloro diphenyl trichloroethane

---

Question 8.
Which of the following material takes the longest time for biodegradations ?
(a) Cotton
(b) Paper
(c) Bone
(d) Jute.

Answer

Answer: (c) Bone

---

Question 9.
Choose the incorrect statement.
(a) The Montreal protocol is associated with the control of emission of ozone depleting substances.
(b) Methane and carbon dioxide are greenhouse gases.
(c) Dobson units are used to measure oxygen content.
(d) Use of incinerators is crucial to disposal of hospital wastes.

Answer

Answer: (c) Dobson units are used to measure oxygen content.

---

Question 10.
Among the following which one causes more indoor chemical pollution?
(a) Burning coal
(b) Burning cooking gas
(c) Burning mosquito coil
(d) Room spray.

Answer

Answer: (a) Burning coal

---

Question 11.
The green scum seen in the fresh water bodies is:
(a) blue green algae
(b) red algae
(c) green algae
(d) Both (a) and (c).

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (c).

---

Question 12.
The loudness of a sound that a person can withstand without discomfort is about
(a) 150 dB.
(b) 215 dB.
(c) 30 dB.
(d) 80 dB.

Answer

Answer: (d) 80 dB.

---

Question 13.
The major source of noise pollution world wide is due to:
(a) office equipment
(b) transport system
(c) sugar, textile and paper industries
(d) oil refineries and thermal power plants.

Answer

Answer: (b) transport system

---

Question 14.
Match correctly the following and choose the correct option.

Column I	Column II
(i) Environment Protection Act	a. 1974
(ii) Air Prevention a Control of Pollution Act	b. 1987
(iii) Water Act	c. 1986
(iv) Amendment of Air Act to include noise	d. 1981

The correct matches is:
(a) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
(b) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d
(c) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c
(d) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a.

Answer

Answer: (a) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b

---

Question 15.
Catalytic converters are fitted into automobiles to reduce emission of harmful gases. Catalytic converters change unburnt hydrocarbons into:
(a) carbon dioxide and water
(b) carbon monoxide
(c) methane
(d) carbon dioxide and methane.

Answer

Answer: (a) carbon dioxide and water

---

Question 16.
Why is it necessary to remove sulphur from petroleum products?
(a) To reduce the emission of sulphur dioxide in exhaust fumes
(b) To increase efficiency of automobiles engines
(c) To use sulphur removed from petroleum for commercial purposes
(d) To increase the life span of engine silencers.

Answer

Answer: (a) To reduce the emission of sulphur dioxide in exhaust fumes

---

Question 17.
Which one of the following impurities is easiest to remove from waste water?
(o) Bacteria
(b) Colloids
(c) Dissolved solids
(d) Suspended solids.

Answer

Answer: (d) Suspended solids.

---

Question 18.
Which one of the following diseases is not due to contamination of water ?
(a) Hepatitis-B
(b) Jaundice
(c) Cholera
(d) Typhoid.

Answer

Answer: (a) Hepatitis-B

---

Question 19.
Nuisance growth of aquatic plants and bloom-forming algae in natural waters is generally due to high concentrations of :
(a) carbon
(b) sulphur
(c) calcium
(d) phosphorus.

Answer

Answer: (d) phosphorus.

---

Question 20.
Algal blooms impart a distinct colour to water due to:
(a) their pigments
(b) excretion of coloured substances
(c) formation of coloured chemicals in water facilitated by physiological degradation of algae.
(d) absorption of light by algal cell wall.

Answer

Answer: (a) their pigments

---

Question 21.
Match the items in column I and column II and choose the correct option:

Column I	Column II
(a) UV	(i) Biomagnification
(b) Biodegradable Organic matter	(ii) Eutrophication
(c) DDT	(iii) Snow blindness
(d) Phosphates	(iv) BOD

The correct matches is:
(a) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(b) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
(c) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(d) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-i.

Answer

Answer: (c) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

---

Question 22.
In the textbook you came across Three Mile Island and Chernobyl disasters associated with accidental leakage of radioactive wastes. In India we had Bhopal gas tragedy. It is associated with which of the following?
(a) CO₂
(b) Methyl Iso-Cyanate
(c) CFCs
(d) Methy Cyanate.

Answer

Answer: (b) Methyl Iso-Cyanate

---

Question 23.
Match the items of column I with column II and select the correct option.

Column I	Column II
(a) Electrostatic precipitator	(i) Removes gases like SO2
(b) Scrubber	(ii) Reduces automobile emission
(c) Catalytic converter	(iii) Removes particulate matter

(a) a -1, b – 3, c – 1
(b) a – 3, b – 2, c – 1.
(c) a – 1, b – 2, c – 3
(d) a – 3, b – 1, c – 2.

Answer

Answer: (d) a – 3, b – 1, c – 2.

---

Assertion and Reason Type Questions

These questions consist of two statements each, printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
Question 24.
Assertion: Agriculture production increased several times after introduction of DDT.
Reason: DDT was first insecticide used on a wide scale.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

---

Question 25.
Assertion: Suspended particulate matter (SPM) is an important pollutant released by diesel vehicles.
Reason: Catalytic converters greatly reduce pollution caused by automobiles.

Answer

Answer: (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

---

Question 26.
Assertion: Inhabitants close to busy airports are likely to experience health hazards.
Reason: Sound levels of jet aeroplanes usually exceed 160 dB.

Answer

Answer: (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

---

Question 27.
Assertion: Deforestation is one main factor contributing to global warming.
Reason: Besides CO₂, two other gases methane and CFCs are also included in GHGs.

Answer

Answer: (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

---

Question 28.
Assertion: UV radiations cause photodissociation of ozone into O₂ and O thus causing damage to stratospheric ozone layer.
Reason: Ozone hole is resulting due to global warming and climatic change.

Answer

Answer: (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

---

Question 29.
Assertion: Presently the global atmosphere is warming up.
Reason: The depletion of stratospheric ozone layer has resulted in increase in UV radiations reaching earth.

Answer

Answer: (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

---

Question 30.
Assertion: Concentration of methane in atmosphere has more than doubled in the last 250 years.
Reason: Wetlands and rice fields are major sources of methane.

Answer

Answer: (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

---

Hope the information shared regarding the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 16 Environmental Issues with Answers Pdf free download is true and genuine as far as our knowledge is concerned. If you feel any information regarding CBSE Class 12 Biology Environmental Issues MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers is missing do reach us and we will look into it and add it accordingly.

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 1 Electric Charges and Fields with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Electric Charges and Fields Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Electric Charges and Fields Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Electric Charges and Fields Multiple Choice Questions of Class 12 Physics Chapter 1 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Electric Charges and Fields Class 12 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 1 Physics Class 12 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
In figure (a) two positive charges q₂ and q₃, fixed along the y-axis, exert a net electric force in the +x direction on a charge q₁ fixed along the x-axis. If a positive charge Q is added at (x, 0) shown in figure (b), the force on q₁.

(a) shall increase along the positive x-axis.
(b) shall decrease along the positive x-axis.
(c) shall point along the negative x-axis.
(d) shall increase but the direction changes because of the intersection of Q with q₂ and q₃

Answer

Answer: Irrational

---

Question 2.
Suppose the charge of a proton and an electron differ slightly. One of them is -e, the other is (e + Δe). If the net of electrostatic force and gravitational force between two hydrogen atoms placed at a distance d (much greater than atomic size) apart is zero, then Δe is of the order of [Given mass of hydrogen mh = 1.67 × 10^-27 kg]
(a) 10^-23 C
(b) 10^-37 C
(c) 10^-47 C
(d) 10^-20 C

Answer

Answer: Irrational

---

Question 3.
Consider two concentric spherical metal shells of radii r₁ and r₂ (r₂ > r₁). If the outer shell has a charge q and the inner one is grounded, the charge on the inner shell is
(a) \(\frac { -r_2q }{r_1}\)
(b) zero
(c) \(\frac { -r_1q }{r_2}\)
(d) -q

Answer

Answer: Irrational

---

Question 4.
Four charges equal to -Q are placed at the four corners of a square and a charge q is at its centre. If the system is in equilibrium the value of q is
(a) \(\frac { -Q }{4}\) (1 + 2√2)
(b) \(\frac { Q }{4}\) (1 + 2√2)
(c) \(\frac { -Q }{2}\) (1 + 2√2)
(d) \(\frac { Q }{2}\) (1 + 2√2)

Answer

Answer: Irrational

---

Question 5.
A point positive charge is brought near an isolated conducting sphere. The electric field is best given by

(a) figure (i)
(b) figure (ii)
(c) figure (iii)
(d) figure (iv)

Answer

Answer: Irrational

---

Question 6.
Five charges q₁, q₂, q₃, q₄ and q are fixed at their positions as shown in figure S is a Gaussian surface. The Gauss’s law is given by \(\oint_{s}\) \(\vec{E} \cdot \overrightarrow{d s}\) = \(\frac { q }{ε_0}\)

Which of the following statements is, correct?
(a) E on the LHS of the above equation will have a contribution from q₁, q₅ and q₃ while q on the RHS will have a contribution from q₂ and q₄ only.
(b) E on the LHS of the above equation will have a contribution from all charges while q on the RHS will have a contribution from q₂ and q₄ only.
(c) E on the LHS of the above equation will have a contribution from all charges while q on the RHS will have a contribution from q₁, q₃ and q₅ only.
(d) Both E on the LHS and q on the RHS will have contributions from q₂ and q₄ only.

Answer

Answer: Irrational

---

Question 7.
A long cylindrical shell carries positive surface charge σ in the upper half and negative surface charge -σ in the lower half. The electric field lines around the cylinder will look like figure given in: (figure are schematic and not drawn to scale)

Answer

Answer:

---

Question 8.
Three infinitely charged sheets are kept parallel to X-Y plane having charge densities as shown in figure. Then, the value of electric field at P is

(a) \(\frac { -4σ }{ε_0}\)
(b) \(\frac { σ }{ε_0}\)
(c) \(\frac { -2σ }{ε_0}\)
(d) \(\frac { 2σ }{ε_0}\)

Answer

Answer: Irrational

---

Question 9.
Which one of the following graphs represents the variation of electric field strength E with distance r from the centre of a uniformly charged non-conducting sphere?

Answer

Answer:

---

Question 10.
A metallic solid sphere is placed in a uniform electric field. The lines of force follow the path (s) shown in the figure as

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer

Answer: Irrational

---

Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
The possessing of charge by a body, which is an integral multiple of some smallest charge, is called ……………. of charge.

Answer

Answer: Quantisation

---

Question 2.
Two unequal charges exert …………… magnitude force on each other.

Answer

Answer: Equal

---

Question 3.
If a silk cloth rubbed with a glass rod has a charge q = -1.6 × 10^-19 C, then the charge on the glass rod will be …………..

Answer

Answer: +1.6 × 10^-19 C

---

Question 4.
The net charge in a system remains conserved. This is called ………….. of charge.

Answer

Answer: Conservation

---

Question 5.
…………. is a simple apparatus to detect charge on a body.

Answer

Answer: Gold-leaf electroscope

---

Question 6.
Those substances which do not allow electricity to pass through them easily are called …………..

Answer

Answer: Insulators

---

Question 7.
A process in which a body is charged by another body without coming in contact is called …………

Answer

Answer: Induction

---

Question 8.
Charges are added ………….

Answer

Answer: Algebraically

---

Question 9.
…………. due to a charge Q at a point in space may be defined as the force that a unit positive charge would experience if placed at that point.

Answer

Answer: Electric field

---

Question 10.
Two point charges are separated by some distance inside vacuum. When space between the charges is filled by some dielectric, the force between two point charges …………..

Answer

Answer: Decreases

---

Question 11.
The SI unit of electric field is …………….

Answer

Answer: N C^-1 or V m^-1

---

Question 12.
Electric field lines never …………. each other.

Answer

Answer: Intersect

---

Question 13.
Electric dipole moment is a ………….. quantity.

Answer

Answer: Vector

---

Question 14.
The torque acting on an electric dipole will tend to align the dipole ……………. with the field E.

Answer

Answer: Parallel

---

Question 15.
An electric dipole is placed inside a uniform electric field. When it is rotated from unstable equilibrium to stable equilibrium in a uniform electric field, its potential energy ……………

Answer

Answer: Decreases

---

Question 16.
Direction of electric field intensity due to a dipole on equatorial point is ……………. to the direction of dipole moment.

Answer

Answer: Opposite

---

Question 17.
A charge Q. is enclosed by a Gaussian spherical surface of radius R. If the radius is doubled, then the electric ……………. will remain same.

Answer

Answer: Flux

---

Question 18.
The electric flux through a region enclosing a charge q is ………….

Answer

Answer: d/ε₀

---

Question 19.
Electric flux is a ………… quantity.

Answer

Answer: Scalar

---

Question 20.
Gauss’s law is true for any ………….. surface, no matter what its shape or size is.

Answer

Answer: Closed

---

Question 21.
Gauss’s law is often useful towards a much easier calculation of the electrostatic field when the system has some …………

Answer

Answer: Symmetry

---

Question 22.
Net electric flux from a closed surface does not depend upon distribution of ……………. inside the surface.

Answer

Answer: Charges

---

Question 23.
The value of electric field inside a hollow shell is ……………

Answer

Answer: Zero

---

Question 24.
Net electrostatic field inside a positively charged conductor is …………..

Answer

Answer: Zero

---

Question 25.
Inside a conductor, electrostatic field is ……………

Answer

Answer: Zero

---

Question 26.
At the surface of a charged conductor, electrostatic field must be …………….. to the surface at every point.

Answer

Answer: Normal

---

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