MCQ Questions

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 2 The Origin and Evolution of the Earth with Answers

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 2 The Origin and Evolution of the Earth with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided The Origin and Evolution of the Earth Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on The Origin and Evolution of the Earth Class 11 Objective Questions.

The Origin and Evolution of the Earth Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Who gave the nebular hypothesis?
(a) Immanual Kant
(b) Aristotle
(c) Chamberlain
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Immanual Kant.


Question 2.
When was nebular hypothesis revised?
(a) 1796
(b) 1900
(c) 1950
(d) 1920

Answer

Answer: (a) 1796.


Question 3.
The sun is surrounded by
(a) solar nebula
(b) dust material
(c) none of them
(d) both of them

Answer

Answer: (a) solar nebula.


Question 4.
Who gave the Big Bang theory?
(a) Kant
(b) Chamberlain
(c) Edwin Hubble
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (c) Edwin Hubble.


Question 5.
When did the event of Big Bang take place?
(a) 13.6 million years ago
(b) 13.7 billion years ago
(c) 4.6 billion years ago
(d) 4.6 million years ago

Answer

Answer: (b) 13.7 billion years ago.


Question 6.
A galaxy start to form a large cloud of hydrogen gas called
(a) Planet
(b) Earth
(c) Moon
(d) Nebula

Answer

Answer: (d) Nebula.


Question 7.
The size of the galaxies range from
(A) 80,000 to 150,000
(b) 80,000 to 160,000
(c) 50,000 to 180,000
(d) 60,150,000

Answer

Answer: (a) 80,000 to 150,000.


Question 8.
The formation of stars have taken place before
(a) 5 million years
(b) 5 billion years
(c) 6 million years
(d) 5 to 6 billion years ago.

Answer

Answer: (d) 5 to 6 billion years ago.


Question 9.
A light year is a measure of
(a) distance
(b) time
(c) both
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (a) distance.


Question 10.
What is the speed of light?
(a) 300,000 km/second
(b) 330,000 km/second
(c) 30,000 km/second
(d) 3.0 km/second

Answer

Answer: (a) 300.000 km/second.


Question 11.
One light year is equal to
(a) 9.461 × 1012 km
(b) 9.461 × 1011 km
(c) 9.4 × 1012 km
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) 9.461 × 1012 km.


Question 12.
The mean distance between the sun and the earth is
(a) 149,598,000 km
(b) 159,598,000 km
(c) 149,498,000 km
(d) 149,5,980 km

Answer

Answer: (a) 149,598,000 km.


Question 13.
The distance between the sun and the earth in terms of light years is
(a) 8.311 minutes
(b) 8.31 minutes
(c) 8.310 minutes
(d) 8.312 minutes

Answer

Answer: (a) 8.311 minutes.


Question 14.
How many planets are there in the solar system?
(a) 9
(b) 8
(c) 7
(d) 11

Answer

Answer: (a) 9.


Question 15.
From which of these our solar system has been formed?
(a) nebula
(b) dust grains
(c) planetesimal
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) nebula.


Question 16.
Which one is known as an inner planet?
(a) Mercury
(b) Venus
(c) Earth
(d) all of them

Answer

Answer: (d) all of them.


Question 17.
Which one is known as an outer planet
(a) Jupiter
(b) Saturn
(c) Neptune
(d) all of them

Answer

Answer: (d) all of them.


Question 18.
Which one is known as a terrestrial planet?
(a) Venus
(b) Neptune
(c) Pluto
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (a) Venus.


Question 19.
What are Jovian or Gas Giant planets?
(a) Inner planets
(b) Outer planets
(c) none of these
(d) both of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Outer planets.


Question 20.
Planets were formed about ……….. years ago
(a) 4.6 billion
(b) 4.6 million
(c) 3.8 billion
(d) 3.8 million

Answer

Answer: (a) 4.6 billion.


Question 21.
Name the natural satellite
(a) Venus
(b) Mercury
(c) Moon
(d) Earth

Answer

Answer: (c) Moon.


Question 22.
Initially, earth was a thin atmosphere mostly containing
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Helium
(c) both
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (a) both.


Question 23.
When were oceans formed
(a) 500 million years ago
(b) 500 billion years ago
(c) 50 million years ago
(d) 50 billion years ago

Answer

Answer: (a) 500 million years ago.


II. Fill up the blanks with suitable words

Question 1.
………………. of material was separated from the solar surface.

Answer

Answer: Cigar shaped tongue


Question 2.
The …………… and ………….. of particles led to the formation of a disc shaped cloud and the planets were formed through the process of ……………..

Answer

Answer: friction, collision, accretion


Question 3.
The Big Bang theory is also called ……………..

Answer

Answer: expanding universe


Question 4.
The expansion of universe means increase in space between ……………

Answer

Answer: galaxies


Question 5.
…………….. is a measure of distance and not of time.

Answer

Answer: A light year


Question 6.
Our solar system consists of …………… planets.

Answer

Answer: 9


Question 7.
…………., …………, …………… and …………… are called inner planets.

Answer

Answer: Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars


Question 8.
Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune and Pluto are called ……………

Answer

Answer: outer planets


Question 9.
…………… means earth-like.

Answer

Answer: Terrestrial


Question 10.
There are ………….. in the evolution of the present atmosphere.

Answer

Answer: three stages


Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 2 The Origin and Evolution of the Earth with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 11 Geography The Origin and Evolution of the Earth MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 2 The Origin and Evolution of the Earth with Answers Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 6 Accounting for Share Capital with Answers

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Chapter 6 Accounting for Share Capital with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Accounting for Share Capital Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Accounting for Share Capital Class 12 Objective Questions.

Accounting for Share Capital Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

State which of the following is correct:

Question 1.
A Joint stock company has:
(a) Common Seal
(b) Limited Liability
(c) Separate Legal Entity
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 2.
Private company is one which:
(a) Restrict the right of members to transfer shares
(b) Prohibits any invitation to the public to subscribe
(c) Limit the number of members to two hundred
(d) All of the above.

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above.


Question 3.
Minimum number of members in a public company:
(a) 2
(b) 7
(c) 50
(d) No limit.

Answer

Answer: (b) 7


Question 4.
Minimum number of members in a private company:
(a) 2
(b) 7
(c) 50
(d) No limit.

Answer

Answer: (a) 2


Question 5.
Maximum number of members in a private company:
(a) 7
(b) 50
(c) 100
(d) 200.

Answer

Answer: (d) 200.


Question 6.
Maximum number of members in a public company:
(a) 2
(b) 7
(c) 50
(d) No limit.

Answer

Answer: (d) No limit.


Question 7.
Equity shareholders are the _______ of the company.
(a) Owners
(b) Creditors
(c) Money lenders
(d) Customers.

Answer

Answer: (a) Owners


Question 8.
Debenture holders are the ______ of the company.
(a) Owners
(b) directors
(c) Moneylenders
(d) Customers.

Answer

Answer: (c) Moneylenders


Question 9.
Preference shareholders are the _______ of the company.
(a) First Owners
(b) Second Owners
(c) Money lenders
(d) Customers.

Answer

Answer: (b) Second Owners


Question 10.
Companies in India are governed by companies Act:
(a) 1912
(b) 1976
(c) 1932
(d) All of these.

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these.


Question 11.
_________ is the fractional part of the total Capital of the company.
(a) Share
(b) Debenture
(c) Bond
(d) All of these.

Answer

Answer: (a) Share


Question 12.
______ shares have to be repaid by the company after a specified period.
(a) Equity
(b) Preference
(c) Both equity and preference
(d) All of these.

Answer

Answer: (b) Preference


Question 13.
Rate of return is not fixed on _______.
(a) Preference share
(b) Equity share
(c) Debentures
(d) All of these.

Answer

Answer: (b) Equity share


Question 14.
_________ enjoys the rights of voting.
(a) Equity share holder
(b) Preference share holder
(c) Debenture holder
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Equity share holder


Question 15.
________ can not be redeemed during the life time of a company.
(a) Equity shares
(b) Preference shares
(c) Debentures
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Equity shares


Question 16.
Shares can be issued at:
(a) Par
(b) Discount (sweat equity)
(c) Premium
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 17.
_______ capital is the sum mentioned in capital clause of Memorandum of Association.
(a) Nominal
(b) Authorised
(c) Registered
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 18.
________ capital is that portion of uncalled share capital which shall not be called except in the event and for the purpose of the company wound up.
(a) Nominal
(b) Called up
(c) Paid up
(d) Reserve.

Answer

Answer: (d) Reserve.


Question 19.
Issued capital can never be more than _______ capital.
(a) Subscribed
(b) Nominal
(c) Paid up

Answer

Answer: (b) Nominal


Question 20.
When the number of shares applied for is less than the number of shares offered, is called ______ subscription.
(a) minimum
(b) over
(c) under
(d) par

Answer

Answer: (c) under


Question 21.
When the number of shares applied for is more than the number of shares offered, is called ______ subscription.
(a) minimum
(b) over
(c) under
(d) par

Answer

Answer: (b) over


Question 22.
Application money never is less than ________ of face value.
(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 25%
(d) 100%

Answer

Answer: (a) 5%


Question 23.
Minimum subscription amount must be received within _____ subscription list.
(a) 10
(b) 120
(c) 30
(d) 7

Answer

Answer: (c) 30


Question 24.
Maximum paid-up capital in case of OPC is restricted to rupees ______.
(a) ₹ 2,00,000
(b) ₹. 5,00,000
(c) ₹ 50,00,000
(d) ₹ 2,00,00,000

Answer

Answer: (c) X 50,00,000


Question 25.
Calls amount should not exceed _______ of the face value.
(a) 30%
(b) 25%
(c) 90%
(c) 10%

Answer

Answer: (b) 25%


Question 26.
Section ______ of Companies Act provide those conditions which must be followed if share are issued at discount.
(a) 52
(b) 53
(c) 54
(d) 79.

Answer

Answer: (c) 54


Question 27.
Interest on calls arrears will be charged@ _______ pa.
(a) 5%
(b) 6%
(c) 10%
(d) 12%.

Answer

Answer: (c) 10%


Question 28.
Interest on calls in advance will be allowed @ ______ p.a.
(a) 5%
(b) 6%
(c) 10%
(d) 12%.

Answer

Answer: (d) 12%.


Question 29.
Amount received for security premium will be credited to:
(a) Cash Account
(b) Share Capital Account
(c) Capital Reserve
(d) Security Premium Account.

Answer

Answer: (d) Security Premium Account.


Question 30.
Discount (Loss) allowed on Re-issue of shares will be debited to:
(a) Share Discount A/c
(b) Share forfeiture A/c
(c) Profit and Loss A/c
(d) Share Capital A/c.

Answer

Answer: (b) Share forfeiture A/c


Question 31.
Amount of security premium may be called along with:
(a) Application
(b) Allotment
(c) Calls
(d) Any of a,b,c

Answer

Answer: (d) Any of a,b,c


Question 32.
The balance of share forfeiture account after re-issue is transferred to:
(a) Share Capital
(b) Capital Reserve
(c) General Reserve
(d) Security Premium.

Answer

Answer: (b) Capital Reserve


Question 33.
Joy Ltd. issued 1,00,000 equity shares of ₹ 10 each. The amount was payable as follows:
On application -₹ 3 per share.
On allotment – ₹ 4 per share.
On 1st and final call balance.
Applications for 95,000 shares were received and shares were allotted to all the applicants. Sonam to whom 500 shares were allotted failed to pay allotment money and Gautam paid his entire amount due including the amount due on first and final call on the 750 shares allotted to him along with allotment. The amount received on allotment was:
(a) ₹ 3,80,000
(b) ₹ 3,78,000
(c) ₹ 3,80,250
(d) ₹ 4,00,250 (CBSEDelhi 2015)

Answer

Answer: (c) ₹ 3,80,250


Question 34.
Nirman Ltd. issued 50,000 equity shares of ₹ 10 each. The amount was payable as follows:
On application – ₹ 3 per share
On allotment – ₹ 2 per share On first and final call – The balance
Applications for 45,000 shares were received and shares were allotted to all the applicants. Pooja, to whom 500 shares were allotted, paid her entire share money at the time of allotment, whereas Kundan did not pay the first and final call on his 300 shares. The amount received at the time of making first and final call was:
(a) ₹ 2,25,000
(b) ₹ 2,20,000
(c) ₹ 2,21,000
(d) ₹ 2,19,500

Answer

Answer: (c) ₹ 2,21,000


Question 35.
Metacaf Ltd. issued 50,000 shares of ₹ 100 each payable ₹ 20 on application (on 1 st may 2012) ₹ 30 on allotment (on 1st January 2013) ₹ 20 on first call (on 1st July 2013) and the balance on final call (on 1st February 2014). Shankar, a shareholder holding 5,000 shares did not pay the first call on the due date. The second call was made and Shankar paid the first call amount along with the second call. All sums due were received.
(a) ₹ 15,00,000
(b) ₹ 16,00,000
(c) ₹ 10,00,000
(d) ₹ 11,00,000

Answer

Answer: (b) ₹ 16,00,000


Fill in the blanks with correct word:

Question 36.
A portion of share capital that is reserved by the company and will be utilized only on the happening of winding up of the company is called _______.

Answer

Answer: Reserve Capital


Question 37.
Company is an _____ person.

Answer

Answer: artificial


Question 38.
Company is _______ under the provisions of Companies Act 2013.

Answer

Answer: incorporated


Question 39.
Company is an artificial person created by _______.

Answer

Answer: Law


Question 40.
Liability of members of a company is _______ to the extent of the value of shares held by him.

Answer

Answer: Limited


Question 41.
A joint State company has a ______ seal.

Answer

Answer: Common


Question 42.
Reserve capital is the part of _______ capital.

Answer

Answer: 5 Uncalled


Question 43.
Public Ltd. companies arc required to write ________ after their name.

Answer

Answer: Limited


Question 44.
Private Companies are required to use _____ after their names

Answer

Answer: Private Limited


Question 45.
Public Ltd. Company imposes ______ on the transfer of share.

Answer

Answer: No restriction


Question 46.
Shares come into existence when ______ money is demanded.

Answer

Answer: allotment


Question 47.
There is no fixed rate of dividend on ______ .

Answer

Answer: equity shares


Question 48.
On cumulative preference shares, arrears of dividend _________ automatically.

Answer

Answer: accumulate


Question 49.
______ shareholders don’t have normal voting rights.

Answer

Answer: preference


Question 50.
Shares which are not preference shares are called __________ shares.

Answer

Answer: Equity


Question 51.
At the time of forfeiture of shares, ________ will be debited.

Answer

Answer: Share Capital Account


Question 52.
Shares cannot be issued at ___________ to the public.

Answer

Answer: Discount


Question 53.
________ Capital is not a part of balance sheet.

Answer

Answer: Reserve


Question 54.
The purpose of creating __________ capital is to assure security to unsecured creditors.

Answer

Answer: Reserve


Question 55.
Section _______ of the Companies Act., 2013 provides issue of sweat equity shares.

Answer

Answer: 54


Question 56.
Section ________ of Companies Act. 2013 provides for ESOP.

Answer

Answer: 62.


State whether the following statements are true or false:

Question 57.
Minimum number of members in a private limited company is three.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 58.
Maximum number of directors in a company can be fifteen.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 59.
One person company is the extension of sole proprietorship with limited liability.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 60.
Irredeemable preference shares carry the same features as that of equity shares.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 61.
Fixed dividend is allowed on equity shares.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 62.
Preference shareholders have no normal voting rights.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 63.
Equity shareholders are owner of the company.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 64.
Company have perpetual succession.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 65.
If shareholders are unable to pay their dues then company can forfeit their shares.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 66.
Company can forfeit shares without any notice.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 67.
There is no difference between private company and public company.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 68.
Table F deals with calls in arrears.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 69.
Private placement refers to issue of shares privately without disclosing the facts on issue.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 70.
Called up capital may be greater than issued capital.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 71.
Company can exceed the limit of nominal capital through alteration in the memorandum of association.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 72.
Reserve capital and capital reserve are same in nature.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 73.
There is lot of difference between minimum subscription and under subscription.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 74.
Issue of shares at discount can be issued only to directors and employees of a company.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 75.
Securities premium reserves can be used to issue bonus shares to the equity shareholders.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 76.
Called up value on share cannot be more than 25% of the face value of a share.

Answer

Answer: True


One Word Questions:

Question 77.
What is meant by over subscription of shares? (CBSE Compt. 2019)

Answer

Answer: Oversubscription of shares means that the company receives applications for more than the number of shares offered to the public for subscription.


Question 78.
What is meant by ‘par value’ of a share? (CBSE Compt. 2019)

Answer

Answer: Par value is the nominal value or the face value of the share.


Question 79.
Is Reserve Capital a part of Unsubscribed Capital or Uncalled Capital? (CBSE Delhi 2018)

Answer

Answer: Yes.


Question 80.
A company issued 25,000 equity shares of ₹ 10 each but received applications for 30,000 shares. Name the case of subscription.

Answer

Answer: Over subscription


Question 81.
Neelam Limited has the following balances appearing in the balance sheet:

Securities Premium Reserve₹ 22,00,000
9% Debentures₹ 1,20,00,000
Underwriting Commission₹ 10,00.000

The company decided to redeem its 9% debentures at a premium of 10%. You are required to state how much securities premium amount can be used for redemption of debentures.

Answer

Answer: ₹ 12,00,000.


Question 82.
On 1.1.2016 the first call of ₹ 3 per share became due on 1,00,000 equity shares issued by Kamini Ltd. Karan a holder of 500 shares did not pay the first call money. Arjun a shareholder holding 1000 shares paid the second and final call of ₹ 5 per share along with the first call.
Pass the necessary journal entry for the amount received by opening ‘Calls-in-arrears’ and ‘Calls-in- advance’ account in the books of the company.

Answer

Answer:
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 6 Accounting for Share Capital with Answers 1


Question 83.
Where will you show call in arrears in the balance sheet?

Answer

Answer: As deduction from the subscribed but not fully paid share capital.


Question 84.
Where will you show call in advance in the balance sheet?

Answer

Answer: It is shown under other current liabilities.


Question 85.
At what rate of interest, interest on call in arrears, is charged?

Answer

Answer: 10%p.a.


Question 86.
At what rate interest on calls-in-advance is paid by the company according to Table F of Companies Act, 2013? (CBSE Delhi Compt.2014)

Answer

Answer: As per Table F, company is required to pay interest on the amount of calls in advance @ 12% p.a.


Question 87.
How would you deal in a situation where the value of purchase considerations is more than the value of net assets while acquiring a business?

Answer

Answer: It would refer to loss.


Question 88.
How will you deal in a situation where the value of net assets is more than the value of purchase consideration while acquiring a business?

Answer

Answer: It would refer to gain.


Question 89.
Which account will you debit while issuing the shares to the promoters of a company against their services?

Answer

Answer: Goodwill Account or Incorporation Expenses Account.


Question 90.
When can shares held by a shareholder be forfeited? (CBSE Delhi 2017)

Answer

Answer: On the non-payment of call money due.


Question 91.
An Ltd forfeited a share of 100 issued at a premium of 20% for non-payment of first call of 30 per share and’ final call of 10 per share. State the minimum price at which this share can be reissued. (CBSE Sample Paper 2016)

Answer

Answer: ₹ 40 per share


Question 92.
Give the meaning of forfeiture of share.

Answer

Answer: Cancellation of shares.


Question 93.
At the time of forfeiture of shares, what amount is credited to share forfeiture account?

Answer

Answer: The amount already received.


Question 94.
Where will you show the share forfeited account in the balance sheet of a company?

Answer

Answer: As an addition in the subscribed capital.


Question 95.
What amount of share capital is debited when the shares are forfeited?

Answer

Answer: Called up money.


Question 96.
What amount of share capital is credited when the forfeited shares are reissued?

Answer

Answer: Paid up capital of shares at the time of reissue.


Question 97.
Y Ltd. forfeited 100 equity shares of ₹ 10 each for the non-payment of first call of ₹ 2 per share. The final call of ? 2 per share was yet to be made.
Calculate the maximum amount of discount at which these shares can be re-issued. (CBSE Delhi 2017)

Answer

Answer: ₹ 6 per share or ₹ 600.


Question 98.
If a question is silent on the question of excess money received with application, how would you treat it?

Answer

Answer: In the absence of any information, excess money over the amount due on allotment shall be refunded.


Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 6 Accounting for Share Capital with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 12 Accountancy Accounting for Share Capital MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 6 Accounting for Share Capital with Answers Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 3 Interior of the Earth with Answers

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 3 Interior of the Earth with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Interior of the Earth Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Interior of the Earth Class 11 Objective Questions.

Interior of the Earth of the Earth Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
What are constantly shaping the landscape?
(a) exogenic processes
(b) endogenic processes
(c) both of them
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (c) both of them.


Question 2.
What is the radius of earth?
(a) 6370 km
(b) 6360 km
(c) 6380 km
(d) 636 km

Answer

Answer: (a) 6370 km.


Question 3.
Which one is the direct source of providing information about the interior of the earth?
(a) Deep Ocean Drilling Project
(b) Volcanic eruptions
(c) Integrated Ocean Drilling Project
(d) all of them

Answer

Answer: (d) all of them.


Question 4.
Which one is the indirect source of providing information about the interior of the earth?
(a) volcanic eruption
(b) gravitational force
(c) drilling projects
(d) Ocean Integrated Drilling Project

Answer

Answer: (b) gravitational force.


Question 5.
The temperature and pressure increases through
(a) mining
(b) drilling
(c) volcanic
(d) gravitational

Answer

Answer: (a) mining.


Question 6.
The gravitation force (g) at different latitudes on the surface is
(a) same
(b) different
(c) decreases towards the poles
(d) increases towards the equator

Answer

Answer: (b) different.


Question 7.
Earthquake is
(a) shaking of the earth
(b) release of heat
(c) evolution of gases
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (a) shaking of the earth.


Question 8.
Name the point from which energy is released?
(a) core
(b) mantle
(c) focus
(d) body

Answer

Answer: (c) focus.


Question 9.
What is called the point on the surface?
(a) Hypocentre
(b) Focus
(c) Epicentre
(d) Body centre

Answer

Answer: (c) Epicentre.


Question 10.
Which instrument records the waves reaching the surface?
(a) Seismograph
(b) Richter scale
(c) Demograph
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Seismograph.


Question 11.
Earthquake waves are of types
(a) two
(b) three
(c) five
(d) four

Answer

Answer: (a) two


Question 12.
How many types of Body waves are there?
(a) two
(b) five
(c) four
(d) six

Answer

Answer: (a) two.


Question 13.
Which wave moves faster to arrive at the surface?
(a) ‘P’
(b) ‘S’
(c) ‘P’ and ‘S’
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) ‘P’.


Question 14.
Which wave moves slowly to arrive at the surface?
(a) P
(b) S
(c) surface waves
(d) body waves

Answer

Answer: (b) S.


Question 15.
In w hat form the seismograph gives the record of the waves?
(a) frequency
(b) amplitude
(c) both of them
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (c) both of them.


Question 16.
Which waves are most destructive?
(a) body waves
(b) surface waves
(c) P-waves
(d) S-waves

Answer

Answer: (b) surface waves.


Question 17.
Surface waves are classified into
(a) Love
(b) Rayleigh
(c) both
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) both


Question 18.
What type of earthquake is generated due to sliding of rocks?
(a) Reservoir induced
(b) Tectonic
(c) Explosion
(d) Collapse

Answer

Answer: (b) Tectonic.


Question 19.
The tremors which occur due to the explosion of chemical or nuclear devices are called
(a) Collapse
(b) Explosion
(c) Volcanic
(d) Tectonic

Answer

Answer: (b) Explosion.


Question 20.
The magnitude of an earthquake is measured on
(a) Seismograph
(b) Richter scale
(c) none of these
(d) both of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Richter scale.


Question 21.
The magnitude is expressed in absolute number
(a) 0 to 10
(b) 1 to 12
(c) 0 to 12
(d) 1 to 10

Answer

Answer: (a) 0 to 10.


Question 22.
What generates the tsunami waves?
(a) earthquake
(b) tremors
(c) volcanic eruption
(d) meteor

Answer

Answer: (b) tremors.


Question 23.
What is the velocity of ‘P’ waves?
(a) 5-6 km/s
(b) 10-20 km/s
(c) 1-3 km/s
(d) 8-10 km/s

Answer

Answer: (a) 5-6 km/s.


Question 24.
The outermost part of the solid earth is known as
(a) core
(b) crust
(c) mantle
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) crust.


Question 25.
What is the mean density of material in oceanic crust?
(a) 3 g/cm³
(b) 2.7 g/cm³
(c) 1 g/cm³
(d) 3.8 g/cm³

Answer

Answer: (b) 2.7 g/cm³


Question 26.
Which material reaches the ground during volcanic eruptions?
(a) gases
(b) sulphur compounds
(c) nitrogen compounds
(d) all of them

Answer

Answer: (d) all of them.


II. Fill up the blanks with suitable words

Question 1.
…………. from South Africa are as deep as 3-4 km.

Answer

Answer: Gold mines


Question 2.
………….. are the solid bodies developed out of the materials.

Answer

Answer: Meteors


Question 3.
The other indirect sources include ………………. and ……………

Answer

Answer: gravitation, magnetic field, seismic activity


Question 4.
The point where the energy is released is called ………….

Answer

Answer: focus


Question 5.
………….. are generated due to the release of energy at the focus.

Answer

Answer: Body waves


Question 6.
……………. are also called primary waves.

Answer

Answer: ‘P’ waves


Question 7.
…………… gives the record of the waves in the form of frequency and amplitude of incoming waves.

Answer

Answer: Seismograph


Question 8.
The region where earthquake waves are not recorded is known as ……………

Answer

Answer: shadow zone


Question 9.
A special tectonic earthquake is recognised as …………….

Answer

Answer: volcanic earthquake


Question 10.
Oceanic crust is …………… as compared to the ……………. crust.

Answer

Answer: thinner, continental


Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 3 Interior of the Earth with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 11 Geography Interior of the Earth MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 3 Interior of the Earth with Answers Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 4 Distribution of Oceans and Continents with Answers

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 4 Distribution of Oceans and Continents with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Distribution of Oceans and Continents Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Distribution of Oceans and Continents Class 11 Objective Questions.

Distribution of Oceans and Continents Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Wegner’s theory was proposed in
(a) 1912
(b) 1755
(c) 1862
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (a) 1912.


Question 2.
The super-continent from which all landmasses of the world have formed is
(a) Volcanoes
(b) Pangaea
(c) Continents
(d) Oceans

Answer

Answer: (b) Pangaea.


Question 3.
The volcanic centres are called
(a) volcanoes
(b) hotspots
(c) crustal plates
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (b) hot spots.


Question 4.
Periodical change in the position of magnetic pole is
(a) Polar wandering
(b) Subduction
(c) Geological process
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (a) Polar wandering.


Question 5.
The process in which one plate over-rides the other and the over-riden plate slips down into the mantle and is absorbed is called
(a) Subduction
(b) Abduction
(c) Polar wandering
(d) Geological process

Answer

Answer: (a) Subduction.


Question 6.
The northern continent broken from pangaea is
(a) Laurasia
(b) Pacific plate
(c) Pangaea
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (a) Laurasia.


Question 7.
The southern continent broken from pangaea is
(a) Laurasia
(b) Gondwanaland
(c) Pacific ocean
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (b) Gondwanaland.


Question 8.
Who presented a map using computer programme to find best fit of Atlantic margin?
(a) Alfred Wegner
(b) Bullard
(c) Abraham Ortelius
(d) Antonio

Answer

Answer: (b) Bullard.


Question 9.
The earliest marine deposits along the coastline of either S.America or Africa are of
(a) Jurassic age
(b) Pangaea
(c) Laurasia
(d) Gondwanaland

Answer

Answer: (a) Jurassic age.


Question 10.
Rich placer deposits of gold occur in
(a) Australia
(b) America
(c) Madagascar
(d) Ghana coast

Answer

Answer: (d) Ghana coast.


Question 11.
Which one is the force for drifting?
(a) Pole fleeing
(b) Tidal
(c) both of them
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (c) both of them.


Question 12.
When was the possibility of convection currents in the mantle portion discussed?
(a) 1912
(b) 1596
(c) 1950
(d) 1956

Answer

Answer: (c) 1950.


Question 13.
The ocean floor may be divided into how many divisions?
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 6

Answer

Answer: (a) 3.


Question 14.
Which one is the major division based on the depth as well as on the forms of relief?
(a) Continental margins
(b) Deep sea basins
(c) Mid-ocean ridges
(d) all of them

Answer

Answer: (d) all of them.


Question 15.
Which division lies between continental shores and deep sea basins?
(a) Continental margin
(b) Deep sea basin
(c) none of these
(d) both of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Continental margin.


Question 16.
The second group of deep sea basin lying between the continental margins and mid-ocean ridges is known as
(a) Continental margin
(b) Abyssal plains
(c) Gondwanaland
(d) Mid-ocean ridges

Answer

Answer: (b) Abyssal plains.


Question 17.
An interconnected chain of mountain system is formed by
(a) Mid-oceanic ridges
(b) Abyssal plains
(c) Continental margin
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (a) Mid-oceanic ridges.


Question 18.
Who collected the ideas about plate tectonics?
(a) Mackenzie
(b) Parker
(c) Morgan
(d) all of them

Answer

Answer: (d) all of them


Question 19.
A plate is a portion of
(a) Lithosphere
(b) Asthenosphere
(c) Oceans
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (a) Lithosphere.


Question 20.
The earth’s lithosphere is divided into major plates:
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 3
(d) 2

Answer

Answer: (a) 6.


Question 21.
Which one is the minor plate?
(a) Arabian
(b) Fuji plate
(c) Cocos
(d) all of them

Answer

Answer: (d) all of them.


Question 22.
The spreading boundaries are termed as
(a) Constructive
(b) Accerting
(c) Diverging
(d) all of them

Answer

Answer: (d) all of them


Question 23.
The collision boundaries are the result of
(a) subduction
(b) Collision
(c) transform
(d) spreading

Answer

Answer: (b) Collision.


Question 24.
How many types of forces work on a moving plate?
(a) two
(b) three
(c) five
(d) four

Answer

Answer: (a) two


Question 25.
The driving force includes
(a) ridge push
(b) basal drive
(c) slab pull
(d) all of them

Answer

Answer: (d) all of them.


II. Fill up the blanks with suitable words

Question 1.
In 1912, Alfred Wegner put forth the ………………

Answer

Answer: continental drift theory


Question 2.
All the continents formed a single continental mass ………………

Answer

Answer: Protocontinent


Question 3.
The protocontinent mass was named …………….

Answer

Answer: Pangaea


Question 4.
Pangaea broke into …………… and ……………

Answer

Answer: Laurasia, Gondwanaland


Question 5.
……………. are the sedimentary rocks formed out of deposits of glaciers.

Answer

Answer: Tillite


Question 6.
……………. was a small reptile who adapted to shallow brackish water.

Answer

Answer: Mesosaurus


Question 7.
………………. and tidal force are the two forces for drifting.

Answer

Answer: Pole fleeing


Question 8.
The second group of deep sea basins lie between the ………………. and …………….

Answer

Answer: continental margin, ridges


Question 9.
……………. forms an interconnected chain of mountain system ridges.

Answer

Answer: Mid-oceanic ridge


Question 10.
The study of the magnetic properties of the earth and that of rocks is known as ………………

Answer

Answer: palaeomagnetism


Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 4 Distribution of Oceans and Continents with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 11 Geography Distribution of Oceans and Continents MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 4 Distribution of Oceans and Continents with Answers Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Rocks with Answers

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Rocks with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Minerals and Rocks Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Minerals and Rocks Class 11 Objective Questions.

Minerals and Rocks Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
What is the percentage of oxygen in the earth’s crust by weight?
(a) 46.60%
(b) 27.72%
(c) 8.13%
(d) 5.00%

Answer

Answer: (a) 46.60%.


Question 2.
What is the basic source of all minerals in the earth’s crust?
(a) upper surface
(b) magma
(c) crust
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (b) magma.


Question 3.
Which one is the most important component of Quartz?
(a) sand
(b) granite
(c) both of them
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (c) both of them.


Question 4.
Which one is not the component of pyroxenes?
(a) calcium
(b) magnesium
(c) iron
(d) granite

Answer

Answer: (d) granite.


Question 5.
Which are the major elements of Olivine?
(a) iron
(b) silica
(c) magnesium
(d) all of them

Answer

Answer: (d) all of them.


Question 6.
Which one is the metallic mineral?
(a) silica
(b) carbon
(c) oxygen
(d) gold

Answer

Answer: (d) gold.


Question 7.
Out of these which do not contain the metal content?
(a) sulphur
(b) nitrates
(c) phosphates
(d) all of them

Answer

Answer: (d) all of them.


Question 8.
The science of rocks is known as
(a) Geology
(b) Zoology
(c) Petrology
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (c) Petrology.


Question 9.
The rocks which are formed from solidified magma and lava are known as
(a) Sedimentary
(b) Igneous
(c) Sand rocks
(d) Metamorphic

Answer

Answer: (b) Igneous.


Question 10.
What kind of rocks are formed by the deposition/cementation of the fragments?
(a) Sedimentary
(b) Igneous
(c) Pegmatitic
(d) Metamorphic

Answer

Answer: (a) Sedimentary.


Question 11.
Which are the hoarse grained rocks with wide range of composition?
(a) Pegmatitic granite
(b) Pegmatitic diorite
(c) both of them
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (c) both of them.


Question 12.
Granite is a type of rock:
(a) Granetoid
(b) Pegmatitic
(c) Glassy
(d) Aphantic

Answer

Answer: (a) Granetoid.


Question 13.
Which one is the type of extrusive rock?
(a) Granetoid
(b) Glassy
(c) Fragmental
(d) Aphantic

Answer

Answer: (c) Fragmental


Question 14.
Deposition cementation of the fragments by external agencies is known as
(a) Sedimentation
(b) Metamorphism
(c) Lithification
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Sedimentation.


Question 15.
Which kind of rocks are formed by the active participation of animals and plant secretions?
(a) Siliceous rocks
(b) Sand rocks
(c) Fragmental rocks
(d) Glassy rocks

Answer

Answer: (a) Siliceous rocks.


Question 16.
Which kind of rocks are formed by the compressed and altered vegetable matters containing large amount of carbon?
(a) Peat
(b) Sand rocks
(c) Fragment
(d) Glassy

Answer

Answer: (a) Peat.


Question 17.
What is formed by the deposition from concentrated solution of brines?
(a) Salts
(b) Peat
(c) Limestone
(d) Sand

Answer

Answer: (a) Salts.


Question 18.
Name the type of rocks in which original grains get rearranged into more or less perfect bands or layers.
(a) Salts
(b) Foliated
(c) Calcareous
(d) Granite

Answer

Answer: (b) Foliated.


Question 19.
Which one is the example of salt rock?
(a) Halite
(b) Gypsum
(c) Potash
(d) all of them

Answer

Answer: (d) all of them.


Question 20.
When rocks are forced down to lower levels by tectonic processes, the process is known as
(a) Sedimentation
(b) Metamorphism
(c) none of them
(d) both of them

Answer

Answer: (b) Metamorphism.


Question 21.
Metamorphic rocks are classified in…………. major groups.
(a) two
(b) three
(c) five
(d) six

Answer

Answer: (a) two.


Question 22.
Which group belongs to metamorphic rocks?
(fl) Foliated
(b) Non-foliated
(c) both of them
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (c) both of them.


Question 23.
Salts and phyllites are……………. rocks.
(a) Foliated
(b) Non-foliated
(c) none of them
(d) both of them

Answer

Answer: (a) Foliated.


Question 24.
Which one is the example of Non-foliated rocks?
(a) Marble
(b) Schists
(c) Salts
(d) Phyllites

Answer

Answer: (a) Marble.


Question 25.
Serpentine is a type of rocks.
(a) Foliated
(b) Non-foliated
(c) Salts
(d) Aphantic

Answer

Answer: (b) Non-foliated.


Question 26.
The process through which the rocks are transformed into new ones is known as?
(a) Rock cycle
(b) Metamorphism
(c) Sedimentation
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (a) Rock cycle.


II. Fill up the blanks with suitable words

Question 1.
India is the first among the world countries which produce …………….

Answer

Answer: mica


Question 2.
Main poducers of mica are …………, …………….. and Rajasthan.

Answer

Answer: Bihar, Andhra Pradesh


Question 3.
…………… is used in fertiliser, cement and sulphuric acid industries.

Answer

Answer: Gypsum


Question 4.
The basic source of all minerals is the ……………. in the interior of the earth.

Answer

Answer: hot magma


Question 5.
Aluminium, calcium, silica, iron, magnesium are the major elements of ……………..

Answer

Answer: amphiboles


Question 6.
………….., ……………. and …………….. are examples of non metals.

Answer

Answer: Sulphur, phosphates, nitrates


Question 7.
………….. solidified from magma and lava.

Answer

Answer: Igneous rocks


Question 8.
Granetoid or phaneretic rocks are ……………. in origin.

Answer

Answer: plutonic


Question 9.
Fragmental are mainly ……………. rocks.

Answer

Answer: extrusive


Question 10.
………….. is basically composed of remains of micro-organisms of …………….

Answer

Answer: Chalk, foraminera


Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Rocks with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 11 Geography Minerals and Rocks MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Rocks with Answers Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 7 Issue and Redemption of Debentures with Answers

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Chapter 7 Issue and Redemption of Debentures with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Issue and Redemption of Debentures Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Issue and Redemption of Debentures Class 12 Objective Questions.

Issue and Redemption of Debentures Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

State which of the following is correct:

Question 1.
Wellness Co. Ltd. has issued 20,000, 9% Debentures of ₹ 100 each at a premium of 10% on 1st April, 2018 redeemable as follows:
31st March, 2021 – 10,000 debentures 31st March, 2022 – 4,000 debentures 31 st March, 2023 – balance debentures.
It transferred to Debentures Redemption Reserve the required amount as applicable rules of the Companies Act and Rules, 2014 on due date. How much amount will be transferred to General Reserve on 31st March, 2021
(a) ₹ 1,00,000
(b) ₹ 2,50,000
(c) ₹ 5,00,000
(d) ₹ 20,00,000

Answer

Answer: (b) ₹ 2,50,000


Question 2.
Debenture holders are the _______ of company.
(a) Owner
(b) Creditors
(c) Money lender
(d) All of these.

Answer

Answer: (b) Creditors


Question 3.
Public Limited company can issue:
(a) Equity Share
(b) Preference Share
(c) Debenture
(d) All of these.

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these.


Question 4.
______ is written acknowledgment of debt.
(a) Equity share
(b) Preference share
(c) Debenture
(d) All of these.

Answer

Answer: (c) Debenture


Question 5.
_____ debentures have to be redeemed within a fixed period of time.
(a) Convertible
(b) Redeemable
(c) Participating
(d) Naked.

Answer

Answer: (b) Redeemable


Question 6.
Debentures may be issued at _______.
(a) par
(b) premium
(c) Discount
(d) All of these.

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these.


Question 7.
When the number of debenture applied for is less than the number of debenture offered, is called ________ subscription.
(a) over
(b) under
(c) minimum
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (b) under


Question 8.
The provisions of Companies Act 2013 with respect to redemption to debentures are to protect the interest of
(a) debenture holders
(b) creditors
(c) shareholders
(d) Banks

Answer

Answer: (a) debenture holders


Question 9.
Discount on issue of debenture is ________.
(a) capitalised profit
(b) capitalised loss
(c) normal profit
(d) normal loss.

Answer

Answer: (b) capitalised loss


Question 10.
Discount on issue of debentures is ________ asset.
(a) Current profit
(b) fixed
(c) fictitious
(d) intangible.

Answer

Answer: (c) fictitious


Question 11.
Premium on issue of debenture is ________.
(a) capital profit
(b) capitalised loss
(c) normal profit
(d) normal loss.

Answer

Answer: (a) capital profit


Question 12.
Loss on redemption of debenture is _______.
(a) capitalised profit
(b) capitalised loss
(c) normal profit
(d) normal loss.

Answer

Answer: (b) capitalised loss


Question 13.
Loss on issue of debenture is ______.
(a) capitalised profit
(b) capitalised loss
(c) normal profit
(d) normal loss

Answer

Answer: (b) capitalised loss


Question 14.
Debentures are usually ________.
(a) secured
(b) unsecured
(c) assets
(d) loss.

Answer

Answer: (a) secured


Question 15.
There are no restrictions on issue of at _______ discount.
(a) equity shares
(b) preference shares
(c) debentures
(d) All of these.

Answer

Answer: (c) debentures


Question 16.
Wben debentures are issued then ____________ account is opened.
(a) capital
(b) debenture
(c) loan
(d) All of these.

Answer

Answer: (b) debenture


Fill in the blanks with correct word:

Question 17.
Debentures bear a fixed rate of _______.

Answer

Answer: interest


Question 18.
Debentures are ________ within a fixed period of time.

Answer

Answer: redeemed


Question 19.
Debentures are usually secured by a _______ or _______ charge on the company’s property.

Answer

Answer: fixed, floating


Question 20.
The debentures repayable after a stated period of time are known as _______ debentures.

Answer

Answer: Redeemable


Question 21.
A __________ debenture is one whose holder is registered in the books of the company.

Answer

Answer: registered


Question 22.
A __________ debenture is one which is payable to the bearer thereof.

Answer

Answer: bearer


Question 23.
A __________ debenture is one which is not redeemable during the life time of the company.

Answer

Answer: Perpetual


Question 24.
When debentures are issued without any security are termed as _________ debentures.

Answer

Answer: unsecured


Question 25.
When debentures are convertible into equity shares are called as ________ debentures.

Answer

Answer: convertible


Question 26.
Debentures are usually ________.

Answer

Answer: secured


Question 27.
Debentures canot be ______.

Answer

Answer: forfeited.


State whether the following statements are true or false:

Question 28.
Debenture holders are the creditor of company.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 29.
Company may buy its own debenture in open market.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 30.
Debentures cannot be issued at discount.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 31.
Company cannot forfeit its debenture.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 32.
Interest on debentures carry fixed charge on profits.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 33.
Own Debentures not cancelled as yet are shown in the liability side of a company’s Balance sheet.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 34.
Debentures can be issued as collateral security.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 35.
Debentures suspense account is created when the debentures are issued to promoters.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 36.
Company can issue debentures to its vendor.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 37.
Interest on debentures is subject to tax deductible at source.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 38.
Company cannot issue necked debentures.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 39.
Debentures have floating change on the fixed assets of company.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 40.
Debenture Redemption Reserve is created @ 50 % of the face value of the debentures as per new rules.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 41.
It is necessary to create Debenture Redemption Investment before debentures are redeemed.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 42.
A company must have created Debenture Redemption Reserve before converting the debentures into new shares or new debentures.

Answer

Answer: False


One word Questions:

Question 43.
What is meant by ‘Issue of Debentures as Collateral Security’ ? (CBSE Outside Delhi 2019)

Answer

Answer: Debenture issued as secondary security/additional security over and above the primary security is known as Issue of Debentures as Collateral Security.


Question 44.
State the provision of the Companies Act, 2013 for the creation of Debenture Redemption Reserve. (CBSE Outside Delhi 2019)

Answer

Answer: Where a company has issued Debentures, it shall create a DRR equivalent to at least 25% of the nominal value of debentures outstanding for the redemption of such debentures.


Question 45.
Profit arisen on account of buying an existing business at profit is transferred to which account?

Answer

Answer: Capital Reserve.


Question 46.
Name the debentures which continue till the continuity of the company.

Answer

Answer: Irredeemable.


Question 47.
Name the debenture which may be converted into equity shares at specified time.

Answer

Answer: Convertible debentures.


Question 48.
Name the debentures which have charge on the company’s assets.

Answer

Answer: Secured debentures (also known as mortgaged debentures).


Question 49.
When a debenture is issued at a price less than its face value or nominal value, what does such difference represent?

Answer

Answer: Discount.


Question 50.
When debentures are redeemed more than the face value of debenture, What does the difference between face value of debenture and redeemed value of debenture is called?

Answer

Answer: Premium on redemption of debentures.


Question 51.
Name the head under which ‘discount on issue of debentures’ appears in the Balance Sheet of a company. Head ‘Current Assets’ and sub-head ‘Other Current Assets’.
What does the repayment or discharge of liability on account of debentures is called?

Answer

Answer: Redemption of debentures.


Question 52.
Under which head is the ‘Debenture Redemption Reserve’ shown in the Balance Sheet?

Answer

Answer: ‘Reserve & Surplus’.


Question 53.
When the company issues debentures to the lenders as an additional/secondary security, in addition to other assets already pledged/ some primary security. What does such issue of debentures is called? (CBSE 2018)

Answer

Answer: Issue of dedentures as collateral security.


Question 54.
It is a written instrument acknowledging a debt under the common seal of the company, name the term. Debenture.
State an exception to the creation of Debenture Redemption Reserve as per Companies (Share Capital and Debentures) Rules 18(7). (CBSE Sample Paper 2014 Modified)

Answer

Answer: Banking Companies


Question 55.
Mention the type of debentures whose ownership passes on mere delivery of debenture certificates.

Answer

Answer: Bearer debentures.


Question 56.
Can ‘Securities Premium’ be used as working capital?

Answer

Answer: No.


Question 57.
A company purchased net assets of another company worth ₹ 20,00,000 and issued debentures worth ₹ 19,00,000. What type of profit has the buying company made?

Answer

Answer: Capital Profit.


Question 58.
Vikas Infrastructure Ltd. has issued 50,000, 10% debentures of ₹ 100 each at par redeemable after the end of 7th year. Mention the amount by which the company should create Debenture Redemption Reserve as per Companies (Share Capital and Debentures) Rules 2014 before starting redemption of debenture. Answer with giving reason.

Answer

Answer: ₹ 12,50,000.


Question 59.
Axis Ltd. has issued 8,000, 10% debentures of₹ 100 at a premium of ₹ 5 per debenture redeemable at the end of 5 years. The company has created Debenture Redemption Reserve with ₹ 4,00,000. After 5 years, the company redeemed all the debentures ? Where should the company transfer the amount of Debenture Redemption Reserve?

Answer

Answer: General Reserve.


Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 7 Issue and Redemption of Debentures with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 12 Accountancy Issue and Redemption of Debentures MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 7 Issue and Redemption of Debentures with Answers Read More »

error: Content is protected !!