MCQ Questions

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 10 Atmospheric Circulation and Weather Systems with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Atmospheric Circulation and Weather Systems Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Atmospheric Circulation and Weather Systems Class 11 Objective Questions.

Atmospheric Circulation and Weather Systems Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Name the instrument used to measured the pressure
(a) thermometer
(b) barometer
(c) electrometer
(d) photometer

Answer

Answer: (b) barometer.

---

Question 2.
The units of pressure is
(a) mm.
(b) mb. (millibar)
(c) mg.
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) mb. (millibar).

---

Question 3.
How many types of pressure systems are found in nature?
(a) two
(A) three
(c) four
(d) five

Answer

Answer: (a) two.

---

Question 4.
Which one is the type of planetary wind?
(a) trade winds
(b) westerlies
(c) polar winds
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these.

---

Question 5.
How many types of pressure belts are there?
(a) 7
(b) 2
(c) 8
(d) 3

Answer

Answer: (a) 7.

---

Question 6.
Name the hot winds which blow in USA
(a) Chinook
(b) Foehn
(c) Mistral
(d) Loo

Answer

Answer: (a) Chinook.

---

Question 7.
Name the hot winds which blow in Alps :
(a) Foehn
(b) Chinook
(c) Mistral
(d) Loo

Answer

Answer: (a) Foehn

---

Question 8.
Name the cold wind which blows from high mountains to the Mediterranean coast of France :
(a) Mistral
(b) Katabatic
(c) Santa Anas
(d) Chinook

Answer

Answer: (a) Mistral.

---

Question 9.
Name the hot winds which blow in North India in summer
(a) Foehn
(b) Katabatic
(c) Loo
(d) Chinook

Answer

Answer: (c) Loo.

---

Question 10.
The standard sea level pressure in millibars is
(a) 101.32 mb
(b) 1013.25 mb
(c) 1000 mb
(d) 10130.25 mb

Answer

Answer: (b) 1013.25 mb.

---

Question 11.
Name the force which deflects the winds from their path due to rotation of earth
(a) gravity
(b) pressure gradient
(c) coriolis
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) coriolis.

---

Question 12.
Which one is broad types of cyclone?
(a) temperate
(b) tropical cyclones
(c) both of them
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (c) both of them.

---

Question 13.
An imaginary line drawn through the places which have equal atmospheric pressure reduced to sea level are known as
(a) isobars
(b) isotherms
(c) isotopes
(d) millibars

Answer

Answer: (a) isobars.

---

Question 14.
The large body of air whose physical properties and moisture is relatively uniform is known as
(a) atmospheric pressure
(b) air mass
(c) pressure gradient
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Air mass.

---

Question 15.
Name the breeze which blows during night when the air at upper slope becomes dense
(a) mountain breezes
(b) valley breezes
(e) sea breeze
(d) land breezes

Answer

Answer: (a) mountain breezes.

---

Question 16.
In which direction the earth rotates on its axis?
(a) west to east
(b) east to west
(c) north to south
(d) south to north

Answer

Answer: (a) west to east.

---

Question 17.
Name the tropical cyclone in West India
(a) willy-willies
(b) typhoons
(c) hurricanes
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) hurricanes.

---

Question 18.
Name the tropical cyclones in China
(a) typhoons
(b) hurricanes
(c) willy-willies
(d) fehan

Answer

Answer: (a) typhoons.

---

Question 19.
On the basis of their average height, how many types of clouds are found?
(a) three
(b) six
(c) two
(d) four

Answer

Answer: (a) three.

---

Question 20.
Name the fibrous clouds with a delicate silky appearance :
(a) cirrus
(b) cirrostratus
(c) cirrocumulus
(d) altostratus

Answer

Answer: (a) cirrus.

---

Question 21.
Name the clouds which appear as small white flakes or small globular masses without shadow
(a) cirrocumulus
(b) cirrus
(c) cirrostratus
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) cirrocumulus.

---

Question 22.
Name the clouds formed at a height of less than 2 km.
(a) altocumulus
(b) low clouds
(c) stratus
(d) cumulus

Answer

Answer: (b) low clouds.

---

Question 23.
Name the low uniform layers of clouds :
(a) stratus
(b) cumulus
(c) altocumulus
(d) nimbostratus

Answer

Answer: (a) stratus.

---

Question 24.
The instrument by which the direction of wind is known as
(a) anemometer
(b) wind vane
(c) barometer
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) wind vane.

---

Question 25.
Name the periodic wind.
(a) westerlies
(b) easterlies
(c) monsoon
(d) chinook

Answer

Answer: (c) monsoon.

---

II. Fill up the blanks with suitable words

Question 1.
Air expands when heated and gets ……………. when cooled.

Answer

Answer: compressed

---

Question 2.
Air pressure is measured with the help of …………….

Answer

Answer: barometer

---

Question 3.
There are ……………. types of pressure systems.

Answer

Answer: five

---

Question 4.
Along 30°N and 30°S are found the high pressure areas known as ………………. highs.

Answer

Answer: subtropical

---

Question 5.
The rotation of earth about its axis affects the ……………….. This force is called ………………

Answer

Answer: direction of wind, coriolis force

---

Question 6.
………………. force is perpendicular to the isobars.

Answer

Answer: Pressure gradient

---

Question 7.
The wind circulation around a low is called …………………

Answer

Answer: cyclonic circulation.

---

Question 8.
The combined phenomenon of southern oscillation and EI-Nino is known as ………………..

Answer

Answer: ENSO.

---

Question 9.
The cool air, off the high plateaus and ice fields draining into the valley is called ……………..

Answer

Answer: Katabatic

---

Question 10.
The air masses are classified according to the ……………

Answer

Answer: source region

---

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Human Geography: Nature and Scope Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Which one of the following statements does not describe Geography?
(a) an integrative discipline
(b) study of the interrelationship between humans and environment
(c) subjected to dualism
(d) not relevant in the present time due to the development of technology

Answer

Answer: (d) not relevant in the present time due to the development of technology

---

Question 2.
The two main branches of geography are
(a) Economic and Social
(b) Physical and Urban
(c) Political and Historical
(d) Physical and Human

Answer

Answer: (d) Physical and Human

---

Question 3.
Which of these scholars defined Human Geography as ‘the synthetic study of relationship between human societies and earth’s surface’?
(a) Paul Vidal de la Blache
(b) Ellen C. Semple
(c) Ratzel
(d) Karl Marx

Answer

Answer: (c) Ratzel

---

Question 4.
Name the school of thought of Human Geography that employed the Marxian theory.
(a) Deterministic school of thought
(b) Behavioural school of thought
(c) Radical school of thought
(d) Humanistic school of thought

Answer

Answer: (c) Radical school of thought

---

Question 5.
Main feature of Early Colonial period is:
(a) the discovery and exploration of new areas
(b) identifying the uniqueness of any region
(c) phase of the quantitative revolution
(d) grand generalisations and the applicability of universal theories

Answer

Answer: (a) the discovery and exploration of new areas

---

Question 6.
Which of these is not a characteristic of the study of Geography?
(a) Integrative
(b) Practical
(c) Idealistic
(d) Empirical

Answer

Answer: (c) Idealistic

---

Question 7.
Who coined determinism?
(a) Ratzel
(b) Griffith Taylor
(c) Ellen C. Semple
(d) Paul Vidal de la Blache

Answer

Answer: (b) Griffith Taylor

---

Question 8.
Who said, “Human geography is the synthetic study of relationship between human societies and earth’s surface.”?
(a) Ratzel
(b) Griffith Taylor
(c) Ellen C. Semple
(d) Paul Vidal de la Blache

Answer

Answer: (a) Ratzel

---

Question 9.
Who first used the term Geography?
(a) Hipparchus
(b) Hecataeus
(c) Herodotus
(d) Eratosthenes

Answer

Answer: (d) Eratosthenes

---

Question 10.
Welfare or humanistic school of thought in human geography was mainly concerned with:
(a) the different aspects of social well-being of the people
(b) the basic cause of poverty,deprivation and social inequality
(c) the perception of space by social categories based on ethnicity, race, religion, etc.
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) the different aspects of social well-being of the people

---

Question 11.
Which of these factors is the most important consideration for the relationship between humans and environment?
(a) People’s perception
(b) Technology
(c) Human intelligence
(d) Human brotherhood

Answer

Answer: (b) Technology

---

Question 12.
One of these choices is not an approach to Human Geography:
(a) Quantitative Revolution
(b) Areal Differentiation
(c) Regional Analysis
(d) Spatial Organisation

Answer

Answer: (a) Quantitative Revolution

---

Question 13.
Which of the following is not a subfield of Social Geography?
(a) Medical Geography
(b) Historical Geography
(c) Military Geography
(d) Cultural Geography

Answer

Answer: (c) Military Geography

---

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The World Population: Distribution, Density and Growth Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Which one of the following continents has the highest growth of population?
(a) Africa
(b) South America
(c) Asia
(d) North America

Answer

Answer: (a) Africa

---

Question 2.
Which one of the following is not an area of sparse population?
(a) The Atacama
(b) Equatorial Region
(c) South-East Asia
(d) Polar Regions

Answer

Answer: (c) South-East Asia

---

Question 3.
Which of the following is not a push factor?
(a) Water shortage
(b) Unemployment
(c) Medical/Educational facilities
(d) Epidemics

Answer

Answer: (c) Medical/Educational facilities

---

Question 4.
Which one of the following is not a fact?
(a) Human population increased more than ten times during the past 500 years
(b) Nearly 80 million people are added to the world population each year
(c) It took 100 years for the population to rise from five billions to six billions
(d) Population growth is high in the first stage of demographic transition

Answer

Answer: (c) It took 100 years for the population to rise from five billions to six billions

---

Question 5.
Which of the following is not one of the most populous countries?
(a) India
(b) China
(c) Norway
(d) Brazil

Answer

Answer: (c) Norway

---

Question 6.
Which of the following is the factor affecting the population distribution?
(a) Availability of water
(b) Fertile soil
(c) Comfortable climate
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

---

Question 7.
What was the world population at the beginning of the 21st century?
(a) Over 2.1 billion
(b) Over 6 billion
(c) Over 7.2 billion
(d) Over 9.1 billion

Answer

Answer: (b) Over 6 billion

---

Question 8.
Which of these statements is not true?
(a) Human population increase more than ten times in the past 500 years.
(b) Human population rose from 5 billion to 6 billion in 100 years.
(c) It took more than a million years for the human population to attain the one billion mark.
(d) In the twentieth century itself the human population has increased four times.

Answer

Answer: (b) Human population rose from 5 billion to 6 billion in 100 years.

---

Question 9.
Which are the components of population change?
(a) Birth rate
(b) Death rate
(c) Migration
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

---

Question 10.
Which continent has the highest growth rate of population in the world in 2010¬2015?
(a) Asia
(b) Africa
(c) North America
(d) Europe

Answer

Answer: (b) Africa

---

Question 11.
Which of the following are the economical factors that affect the distribution of population?
(a) Landforms
(b) Industrialisation
(c) Urbanisation
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (b) and (c)

---

Question 12.
Which of the following is not a push factor for migration?
(a) Climate
(b) Unemployment
(c) Epidemics
(d) Security of life

Answer

Answer: (d) Security of life

---

Question 13.
Which of the following geographical factors affect the distribution of population?
(a) Climate
(b) Minerals
(c) Soil
(d) Availability of water

Answer

Answer: (b) Minerals

---

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Water in the Atmosphere Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
What is the main source of atmospheric moisture?
(a) river
(b) rain water
(c) lakes
(d) ocean surface

Answer

Answer: (d) ocean surface.

---

Question 2.
Amount of water present in air is known as
(a) humidity
(b) moisture
(c) vapour
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) humidity.

---

Question 3.
Which factor controls evaporation?
(a) temperature
(b) aridity
(c) movement of air
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these.

---

Question 4.
At what temperature the given sample of air becomes saturated?
(a) freezing point
(b) absolute zero
(c) dew point
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Dew point.

---

Question 5.
What is called the cooling of saturated air?
(a) evaporation
(b) condensation
(c) freezing
(d) dew formation

Answer

Answer: (b) Condensation.

---

Question 6.
The actual amount of water vapour present in the atmosphere is known as
(a) humidity
(b) absolute humidity
(c) aridity
(d) relative humidity

Answer

Answer: (b) absolute humidity.

---

Question 7.
The % of moisture present in the atmosphere as compared to its full capacity is known as
(a) absolute humidity
(b) relative humidity
(c) humidity
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) relative humidity.

---

Question 8.
At what temperature does saturation occur?
(a) freezing point
(b) absolute zero
(c) dew point
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) dew point.

---

Question 9.
Name the process by which liquid vapour changes into solid form
(a) evaporation
(b) condensation
(c) dew formation
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) condensation.

---

Question 10.
Falling of frozen rain drops on the surface of the earth is known as
(a) precipitation
(b) sleet
(c) both of these
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) sleet.

---

Question 11.
The amount of water vapour actually present per unit weight of air is known as
(a) absolute humidity
(b) relative humidity
(c) specific humidity
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) relative humidity.

---

Question 12.
Which factors increase the rate of evaporation?
(a) high temperature
(b) clear sky
(c) dry winds
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these.

---

Question 13.
Which one is the form of precipitation?
(a) snow
(b) sleet
(c) rainfall
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these.

---

Question 14.
The unit of relative humidity is known as
(a) percent
(b) gram
(c) volume
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) percent

---

Question 15.
Tiny droplets of water suspended in air are known as
(a) mist
(b) dew
(c) smog
(d) cloud

Answer

Answer: (d) cloud.

---

Question 16.
Which factor controls the rate of evaporation?
(a) temperature
(b) moisture
(c) movement of air
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these.

---

Question 17.
When moist air comes into contact with cold air, it gets condensed around the floating dust particles. This is called
(a) fog
(b) dew
(c) smog
(d) mist

Answer

Answer: (a) fog.

---

Question 18.
Which one is the form of a cloud?
(a) cirrus
(b) cumulus
(c) stratus
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these.

---

Question 19.
Which type of clouds are formed at high altitude (8000-12000 m)?
(a) cirrus
(b) cumulus
(c) stratus
(d) nimbus

Answer

Answer: (a) cirrus.

---

Question 20.
Which type of clouds are formed at a height of (4000-7000 m)?
(a) stratus
(b) nimbus
(c) cumulus
(d) cirrus

Answer

Answer: (c) cumulus.

---

Question 21.
Which one is known as a type of layered clouds?
(a) stratus
(b) nimbus
(c) cumulus
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) stratus.

---

Question 22.
On the basis of origin, rainfall is classified into types.
(a) two
(b) three
(c) five
(d) four

Answer

Answer: (b) three.

---

Question 23.
In which area the cyclonic rain is most common?
(a) easterlies
(b) westerlies
(c) temperate region
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) westerlies.

---

Question 24.
The equatorial belt receives annual rainfall
(a) 100-200 cm.
(b) 200 cm.
(c) 50-100 cm.
(d) less than 50 cm.

Answer

Answer: (b) 200 cm.

---

II. Fill up the blanks with suitable words

Question 1.
……………. is the most important constituent of atmosphere.

Answer

Answer: Water vapour

---

Question 2.
Water vapour present in the air is known as …………….

Answer

Answer: humidity.

---

Question 3.
The ……………….. differs from place to place on the surface of the earth.

Answer

Answer: absolute humidity

---

Question 4.
The ……………… at which saturation occurs in air is known as ……………..

Answer

Answer: temperature, dew point.

---

Question 5.
………………. is the process by which water is transformed from liquid to gaseous state.

Answer

Answer: Evaporation

---

Question 6.
………………. is the main cause for evaporation.

Answer

Answer: Heat

---

Question 7.
…………………. of water vapour into water is called condensation.

Answer

Answer: Transformation

---

Question 8.
Ideal conditions for the formation of dew are ……………., ………………, ……………

Answer

Answer: clear sky, calm air, cold nights.

---

Question 9.
Cirrus clouds are formed at height of ……………

Answer

Answer: 8000-12000 m.

---

Question 10.
……………… clouds are formed either due to loss of heat or mixing of air masses with different temperatures.

Answer

Answer: Stratus

---

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Population Composition Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Multiple Choice Questions:

Question 1.
Which one of the following has caused the sex ratio of the United Arab Emirates to below?
(a) Selective migration of working population
(b) High birth rate of males
(c) Low birth rate of females
(d) High outmigration of females

Answer

Answer: (d) High outmigration of females

---

Question 2.
Identify the age group from the options that is called the working population.
(a) 15 to 65 years
(b) 15 to 66 years
(c) 15 to 59 years
(d) 15 to 64 years

Answer

Answer: (c) 15 to 59 years

---

Question 3.
Which country has recorded the highest sex ratio in the world?
(a) Qatar
(b) Latvia
(c) India
(d) France

Answer

Answer: (b) Latvia

---

Question 4.
According to the UNO, how many countries have sex ratio favourable for females?
(a) 139
(b) 192
(c) 168
(d) 123

Answer

Answer: (a) 139

---

Question 5.
According to the UNO, how many countries have sex ratio unfavourable for females?
(a) 13
(b) 92
(c) 72
(d) 23

Answer

Answer: (c) 72

---

Question 6.
Which diagram shows age-sex structure?
(a) A line graph
(b) A bar graph
(c) A pie diagram
(d) A population pyramid

Answer

Answer: (d) A population pyramid

---

Question 7.
In which country, is the lowest sex ratio found?
(a) Latvia
(b) Japan
(c) Qatar
(d) France

Answer

Answer: (c) Qatar

---

Question 8.
Which country’s population shows a constant population?
(a) India
(b) Japan
(c) Australia
(d) France

Answer

Answer: (c) Australia

---

Question 9.
The highest sex ratio in the world has been recorded in Latvia which is
(a) 85 males per 100 females
(b) 37 males per 100 females
(c) 108 males per 100 females
(d) 90 males per 100 males

Answer

Answer: (a) 85 males per 100 females

---

Question 10.
Which of the following are the characteristics of population in developed countries?
(a) Share of older people is large
(b) Population in higher age group has increased due to increased life expectancy
(c) The proportion of children has declined due to reduction in birth rates
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

---

Question 11.
Which of the following age group is considered an ageing population?
(a) Above 30 years
(b) Above 40 years
(c) Above 50 years
(d) Above 60 years

Answer

Answer: (d) Above 60 years

---

Question 12.
Which country’s population shows expanding population?
(a) Japan
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Mexico
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (b) and (c)

---

Question 13.
Which of the following type of population pyramid is reflected by Australia?
(a) Constant
(b) Expanding
(c) Declining
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Constant

---

Question 14.
Which of the following options is reflected by the population pyramid of Japan?
(a) Low birth and high death rates
(b) High birth and low death rates
(c) Low birth and low death rates
(d) High birth and high death rates

Answer

Answer: (c) Low birth and low death rates

---

Question 15.
Which of the following options are reflected by the proportion of literate population of a country?
(a) Standard of Living
(b) Social status of females
(c) AvaiLabiLity of educational facilities
(d) ALL of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

---

Question 16.

Answer

Answer: Expanding population.

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World Climate and Climate Change Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
KOEPPEN’s climate classification is
(a) genetic
(b) empirical
(c) applied
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) empirical.

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Question 2.
Polar climatic group is represented by the letter:
(a) A
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E

Answer

Answer: (a) A.

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Question 3.
Symbol ‘E’ represents which type of climate?
(a) polar climate
(b) sub-tropical
(c) boreal
(d) dry

Answer

Answer: (c) boreal.

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Question 4.
Dry climatic group is represented by which letter?
(a) D
(b) E
(c) B
(d) A

Answer

Answer: (c) B.

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Question 5.
The classification of world climate which emphasises the causes or origin of their formation based on weather condition:
(a) empirical classification
(b) genetic classification
(c) none of these
(d) both of these

Answer

Answer: (b) genetic classification.

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Question 6.
The scientist who used precipitation effectiveness and potential evapo-transpiration as criteria to classify world climate is:
(a) Thornthwaite
(b) KOEPPEN
(c) both of them
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (a) Thornthwaite.

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Question 7.
What is the other name of the tropical wet and dry climate?
(a) savanna climate
(b) marine climate
(c) polar climate
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) savanna climate.

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Question 8.
The type of climate found on the western sides of continents in temperate zone is known as
(a) temperate marine climate
(b) polar climate
(c) dry climate
(d) savanna climate

Answer

Answer: (a) temperate marine climate.

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Question 9.
Name the common element present in carbon dioxide, methane and chlorofluorocarbon gases
(a) hydrogen
(b) oxygen
(c) carbon
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) carbon.

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Question 10.
Name the gas which has more effect on greenhouse effect
(a) carbon dioxide
(b) oxygen
(c) nitrogen
(d) hydrogen

Answer

Answer: (a) carbon dioxide.

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Question 11.
Which are known as greenhouse gases?
(a) carbon dioxide
(b) methane
(c) chlorofluoro carbon
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these.

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Question 12.
The collective name of carbon dioxide, methane and chlorofluorocarbon is
(a) greenhouse gases
(b) breathing gases
(c) both of these
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) greenhouse gases.

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Question 13.
In global warming the most effective factor is
(a) temperature
(b) precipitation
(c) humidity
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) temperature.

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Question 14.
Which programme was undertaken to analyse the trapped gases in ice cap during the last 1,00,000 years?
(a) ice-coring programme
(b) KOEPPEN’s classification
(c) none of these
(d) both of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Ice-coring programme.

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Question 15.
The concept of heating of the atmosphere indirectly from the earth’s surface is known as
(a) greenhouse effect
(b) global warming
(c) ice-coring programme
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) greenhouse effect.

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Question 16.
The intermediate climatic zone between tropics and polar V area is
(a) dry climate
(b) moisture
(c) temperate
(d) subtropical

Answer

Answer: (c) temperate.

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Question 17.
At which place the tropical monsoon climate is found?
(a) north Eastern part of South America
(b) northern Australia
(c) both of these
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) both of these.

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Question 18.
In how many types is the tropical group divided into?
(a) Af
(b) Am
(c) Aw
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these.

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Question 19.
Dry climates cover a large area extending over large latitudes from
(a) 35° to 60° north
(b) 15° to 60° north
(c) 15° to 35° north
(d) 35° to 60° north

Answer

Answer: (b) 15° to 60° north.

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Question 20.
The highest shade temperature recorded at Al-Aziziyah, Libya on 13th September, 1922 is
(a) 55°C
(b) 53°C
(c) 58°C
(d) 48°C

Answer

Answer: (c) 58°C.

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Question 21.
The climograph for Lovelock in Nevada in USA is a typical example for
(a) polar climate
(b) dry climate
(c) temperate climate
(d) sub-tropical climate

Answer

Answer: (b) dry climate.

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Question 22.
In how many types the dry climate is divided into?
(a) steppe
(b) arid climate
(c) Desert climate
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these.

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Question 23.
Which type of climate is found in the region of eastern United States of America, southern and eastern China, southern Japan, North-eastern Argentina?
(a) humid sub tropical
(b) mediterranian
(c) warm temperate
(d) steppe

Answer

Answer: (a) humid sub-tropical.

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Question 24.
Where is marine west coast climate located?
(a) poleward
(6) equatorward
(c) eastward
(d) westward

Answer

Answer: (a) poleward.

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Question 25.
Cold climate with humid winter occurs
(a) poleward
(b) equatorward
(c) westerlies
(d) easterlies

Answer

Answer: (a) poleward.

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Question 26.
Polar climates consists of
(a) tundra (ET)
(b) ice-cap (EF)
(c) both of these
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) both of these.

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II. Fill up the blanks with suitable words

Question 1.
KOEPPEN identified a close relationship between the distribution of ……………… and ……………..

Answer

Answer: vegetation, climate

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Question 2.
The first capital letter A, C, D and E delineates …………….. and B …………….

Answer

Answer: humid, dry climate

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Question 3.
The ……………… temperature of the coldest month of the year is below ……………..

Answer

Answer: average, minus 3°C

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Question 4.
The average temperature for all months is greater than ………………

Answer

Answer: 18°C

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Question 5.
…………….. climate is found near equator.

Answer

Answer: Tropical wet

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Question 6.
Tropical humid climates exist between …………….. and ……………….

Answer

Answer: Tropic of Cancer, Tropic of Capricorn

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Question 7.
Dry climates are divided into …………… and …………….

Answer

Answer: steppe, desert

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Question 8.
The ………………. for Lovelock in Nevada (USA) is a typical example for …………..

Answer

Answer: climograph, dry climates

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Question 9.
During summer the ……………. have very long duration of …………..

Answer

Answer: tundra regions, daylight

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Question 10.
The …………… in the trees provide clues about wet and dry periods.

Answer

Answer: rings

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