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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 10 Cell Cycle and Cell Division with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 10 Cell Cycle and Cell Division with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Cell Cycle and Cell Division Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Cell Cycle and Cell Division Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Cell Cycle and Cell Division Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Biology Chapter 10 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Cell Cycle and Cell Division Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 10 Biology Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

I. Select the correct answer from the following Questions:

Question 1.
Life starts from a single cell in plants and animals called
(a) Cell
(b) Zygote
(c) Tissue
(d) Growth

Answer

Answer: (b) zygote


Question 2.
A typical eukaryotic cell cycle is illustrated by human cells in culture, which divide approximately every:
(a) 12 hours
(b) 10 hours
(c) 24 hours
(d) 6 hours

Answer

Answer: (c) 24 hours


Question 3.
Yeast cell can progress through all the four stages of the cell cycle in only about:
(a) 60 minutes
(b) 90 minutes
(c) 30 minutes
(d) 45 minutes.

Answer

Answer: (b) 90 minutes.


Question 4.
The interphase is divided into.
(a) G1 phase (Gap1)
(b) S phase (Synthesis)
(c) G2 phase (Gap2)
(d) ail of these stages.

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these stages.


Question 5.
The S phase marks the period during which replication of DNA takes place. It is during this time that the content of DNA doubles, from
(a) 2C to 4C
(b) 4C to 2C
(c) (1n or 2n)
(d) (2n or 1n)

Answer

Answer: (a) 2C to 4C.


Question 6.
The centrioles, in animal cells, initiate their replication in the cytoplasm during.
(a) G1 phase
(b) G2 phase
(c) S phase
(d) None of these phases.

Answer

Answer: (b) G2 phase.


Question 7.
In plants apical cells and the cambium tissue continue to divide all their life, they are called.
(a) Meristemic tissue
(b) cambium tissue
(c) equational division
(d) syneytium

Answer

Answer: (a) Meristemic tissue.


Question 8.
Mitosis is divided into
(a) Prophase
(b) Metaphase
(c) Anaphase
(d) Telophase
(e) All of these phases.

Answer

Answer: (e) All of these phases.


Question 9.
The small disc shaped structure at the surface of centromeres is called.
(a) Kinetochores
(b) sister chromatids
(c) microtubule
(d) Golgi complex

Answer

Answer: (a) Kinetochores.


Question 10.
Mitosis accomplishes the segregation of duplicated chromosomes into daughter nuclei (karyokinesis), but the cell itself is divided into two daughter cells by a separate process called.
(a) Cytokinesis
(b) Karyokinesis
(c) Nucleolous
(d) Chromosome clusters.

Answer

Answer: (a) Cytokinesis


Question 11.
In some organisms karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis as a result of which multinucleate condition arises which is called:
(a) Syncytium
(b) Meiosis I
(c) Cell-plate
(d) Meiosis II

Answer

Answer: (a) Syncytium.


Question 12.
The cells having more than two complete sets of chromosomes are called
(a) Diploid
(b) Haploid
(c) Polyhybrid
(d) Polyploid.

Answer

Answer: (d) Polyploid.


Question 13.
In Meiosis, the chromatids separate during
(a) Metaphase I
(b) Anaphase I
(c) Anaphase II
(d) Metaphase II

Answer

Answer: (c) Anaphase II.


Question 14.
In the meiotic cell division four daughter ceils are produced by two successive division in which
(a) First division is reductional and second is equationai.
(b) First division is equationai, second is reductional.
(c) Both division are equationai.
(d) Both division are reductional.

Answer

Answer: (a) First division is reductional and second is equationai.


Question 15.
Meosis is
(a) Reductional division
(b) Equationai division
(c) Multiplicational division
(d) Disjunctional division.

Answer

Answer: (a) Reductional division.


Question 16.
The term meiosis was coined by
(a) Blackman
(b) Flemming
(c) Robertson
(d) Former and Moore.

Answer

Answer: (d) Former and Moore.


Question 17.
Chromosomes counting is best done during
(a) Metaphase
(b) Telophase
(c) Late prophase
(d) Late anaphase.

Answer

Answer: (a) Metaphase.


Question 18.
Meisosis II bring about
(a) Sepration of chromatids
(b) Separation of homologous chromosomes.
(c) Synthesis of DNA and centromere
(d) Separation of sex chromosomes.

Answer

Answer: (a) Sepration of chromatids


Question 19.
In which stage the chromosomes appear as thin long thread?
(a) Leptotene
(b) Zygotene
(c) Prophase
(d) Pachytene.

Answer

Answer: (a) Leptotene.


Question 20.
Anastral mitosis is found in
(a) All living organisms
(b) Lower animals.
(c) Higher plants
(d) Higher animals.

Answer

Answer: (c) Higher plants.


II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Meiosis ends with telophase II, in which the …………… are once again enclosed by a nuclear envelope, cytokinesis follows, resulting in the formation of tetrad of cells i.e., four haploid ……………

Answer

Answer: chromosomes, daughter cells


Question 2.
Anaphase begins with the simultaneous splitting of the ………….. which hold the sister chromatids together, allowing them to move toward …………….

Answer

Answer: centromeres, opposite poles of the cell


Question 3.
Metaphase II the chromosomes align on the equator with micro¬tubules from opposite poles of the spindle get attached to the …………. of sister chromatids.

Answer

Answer: kinetochores


Question 4.
Prophase II meiosis II initiates immediately after ………….. usually before the …………. have fully elongated.

Answer

Answer: cytokinesis, chromosomes


Question 5.
The stage between the two meiotic divisions is called ………….. and is generally short lived.

Answer

Answer: interkinesis


Question 6.
Diplotene X-shaped structures are called ……………

Answer

Answer: chsiamata


Question 7.
The complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes is called a …………. or a tetrad.

Answer

Answer: bivalent


Question 8.
Zygotene is the second stage of prophase I during which certain chromosomes start pairing together and this process of association is called ……………

Answer

Answer: synapsis


Question 9.
Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of nuclear and cell division, called ………… and ………….. but only a single cycle of DNA replication.

Answer

Answer: meiosis I, Meiosis II


Question 10.
M phase is the most dramatic period of the cell cycle, involing a major recoganization of virtually all cell components. Since the chromosome number (ploidy) of parent and progeny cell is the same it is also called as ………….

Answer

Answer: equational division


III. Mark the statement true (T) or false (F)

Question 1.
All organisms, even the largest, start their life from a single cell.

Answer

Answer: True.


Question 2.
Growth and reproduction are characteristic of cells, indeed of all living organisms.

Answer

Answer: True.


Question 3.
Cell division is a very important process in all organisms.

Answer

Answer: True.


Question 4.
The requence of events by which a cell duplicates its genome, synthesies the other constituent of the cell and eventually divides into two daughter cells is termed cell cycle.

Answer

Answer: True.


Question 5.
Yeast for example, can progress through the cell cycle in only about 24 hours.

Answer

Answer: False.


Question 6.
The cell cycle is divided into two basic phases:
(1) M phase (mitosis phase)
(2) Interphase.

Answer

Answer: True.


Question 7.
The 24 hour overage duration of cell cycle of a human cell, cell division proper lasts only about an hour. Hence, 95% of the progression of cell cycle is spent in interphase the period between two successive mitosis or cell division.

Answer

Answer: True.


Question 8.
Interphase though called resting phase, is the time during which the cell is preparing for division by undergoing both cell growth and DNA replication in an orderly manner.

Answer

Answer: True.


Question 9.
Prophase which is the second stage of mitosis follows the S and G2 phases of interphase.

Answer

Answer: False.


Question 10.
In an animal cell this is achieved by the appearance of a furrow in the plasma membrane. The furrow gradually deepens and ultimately joins in the centre dividing the cell cytoplasm into two.

Answer

Answer: True.


IV. Match the item of column I with the items of column II

Column IColumn II
(a) Mitosis is divided1. Quiescent stage (Gg) of the cell cycle.
(b) Resting phase2. at metaphase is referred to as the metaphase plate.
(c) G1 phase to enter meristematically3. Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase Telophase.
(d) Prophase which is the first stage4. (1) centromeres split and chromatids separate
(2) Chromatids move to opposite poles.
(e) The plane of alignment of the chromosomes5. at the end of meiosis II.
(f) Anaphase stage is characterised by the key events.6. Interphase
(g) Four haploid cells are formed7. called meiosis I and meiosis II
(h) Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of nuclear and cell division,8. of mitosis follows the S and S2 phases of interphase.
(i) Zygotene9. second stage of prophase I.
(j) Crossing over is also an enzyme mediated process and the enzyme involved10. is called recombinase.
(k) Diakinesis11. This is the final stage of meiotic prophasel, marked by terminalisation of chaismata.
(l) Metaphase I12. Meiosis ends with telophase II, in which the two groups of chromosomes once again get enclosed.
(m) Telophase I13. It begins with the simultaneous splitting of the centromeres of each chromosome.
(n) Ananaphase II14. The bivalent chromosomes align the equitorial plate.
(o) Telophase II15. The nuclear membrane reap-pears, cytokinesis follows and this is called as diad of cells.
Answer

Answer:

Column IColumn II
(a) Mitosis is divided3. Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase Telophase.
(b) Resting phase6. Interphase
(c) G1 phase to enter meristematically1. Quiescent stage (Gg) of the cell cycle.
(d) Prophase which is the first stage8. of mitosis follows the S and S2 phases of interphase.
(e) The plane of alignment of the chromosomes2. at metaphase is referred to as the metaphase plate.
(f) Anaphase stage is characterised by the key events.4. (1) centromeres split and chromatids separate
(2) Chromatids move to opposite poles.
(g) Four haploid cells are formed5. at the end of meiosis II.
(h) Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of nuclear and cell division,7. called meiosis I and meiosis II
(i) Zygotene9. second stage of prophase I.
(j) Crossing over is also an enzyme mediated process and the enzyme involved10. is called recombinase.
(k) Diakinesis11. This is the final stage of meiotic prophasel, marked by terminalisation of chaismata.
(l) Metaphase I14. The bivalent chromosomes align the equitorial plate.
(m) Telophase I15. The nuclear membrane reap-pears, cytokinesis follows and this is called as diad of cells.
(n) Ananaphase II12. Meiosis ends with telophase II, in which the two groups of chromosomes once again get enclosed.
(o) Telophase II13. It begins with the simultaneous splitting of the centromeres of each chromosome.

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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 3 US Hegemony in World Politics with Answers

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 3 US Hegemony in World Politics with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided US Hegemony in World Politics Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on US Hegemony in World Politics Class 12 Objective Questions.

US Hegemony in World Politics Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Why was the ‘First Gulf War’ called the ‘Video Game War’?
(a) Use of military’s in a large number
(b) Use of Mass Destruction Weapons
(c) Widespread television coverage
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Widespread television coverage


Question 2.
When Iraq invaded Kuwait?
(a) June1990
(b) July1990
(c) August 1990
(d) September1990

Answer

Answer: (c) August 1990


Question 3.
The duration of Cold War was_______
(a) 1914 – 1919
(b) 1939 – 1945
(c) 1945 – 1991
(d) 1965 – 1991

Answer

Answer: (c) 1945 – 1991


Question 4.
The United States was founded in which year?
(a) 1774
(b) 1776
(c) 1778
(d) 1780

Answer

Answer: (b) 1776


Question 5.
The ‘Operation Iraqi Freedom’ was launched on __________
(a) 19th March, 2003
(b) 19th March, 2004
(c) 21st March, 2003
(d) 21st March, 2004

Answer

Answer: (a) 19th March 2003


Question 6.
The first business school in the world is
(a) Harvard School
(b) Oxford School
(c) Wharton School
(d) Stanford School

Answer

Answer: (c) Wharton School


Question 7.
The root of the word ‘hegemony’ lies in the
(a) Latin
(b) Classical Greeks
(c) French
(d) Spanish

Answer

Answer: (b) Classical Greeks


Question 8.
The hegemony that shapes minds through ideological forces like values, beliefs, etc., is referred as
(a) Hegemony as unlimited power
(b) Hegemony as structural power
(c) Hegemony as hard power
(d) Hegemony as soft power

Answer

Answer: (d) Hegemony as soft power


Question 9.
US embassies were bombed by Al-Qaeda in
(a) Dublin
(b) New Delhi
(c) Dar-es-Salaam
(d) Zimbabwe

Answer

Answer: (c) Dar-es-Salaam


Question 10.
The US operation in Iraq was called:
(a) Operation Desert Suicide
(b) Operation Desert Storm
(c) Operation Desert Qaeda
(d) Operation Desert Hamas

Answer

Answer: (b) Operation Desert Storm


Question 11.
The headquarters of the US defense department is at
(a) New York
(b) Washington
(c) Pennsylvania
(d) Virginia

Answer

Answer: (d) Virginia


Question 12.
The World Trade Center and Pentagon buildings of the USA were attacked by:
(a) Zamait-e-Islami
(b) Al-Qaeda
(c) Al-Badr
(d) Hamas

Answer

Answer: (b) Al-Qaeda


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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 4 Alternative Centres of Power with Answers

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 4 Alternative Centres of Power with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Alternative Centres of Power Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Alternative Centres of Power Class 12 Objective Questions.

Alternative Centres of Power Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
When was the People’s Republic of China established?
(a) 1947
(b) 1948
(c) 1949
(d) 1950

Answer

Answer: (c) 1949


Question 2.
Who proposed the ‘four modernisations’ in China?
(a) Mao Zedong
(b) Zhou Enlai
(c) Deng Xiaoping
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Zhou Enlai


Question 3.
The European Economic Community was formed in 1958 by
(a) 10 countries
(b) 12 countries
(c) 5 countries
(d) 6 countries

Answer

Answer: (d) 6 countries


Question 4.
The major landmark in the Indo-China relations was
(a) Indira Gandhi’s visit to China
(b) A.B. Vajpayee’s visit to China
(c) Hu Jintao’s visit to India
(d) Rajiv Gandhi’s visit to China

Answer

Answer: (d) Rajiv Gandhi’s visit to China


Question 5.
WTO stands for
(a) World Trade Organisation
(b) World Territorial Organisation
(c) War Trust Organisation
(d) World Trade Organ

Answer

Answer: (a) World Trade Organisation


Question 6.
EURATOM is known as
(a) Europe Atom Efficiency Community
(b) Europe Aviation Energy Center
(c) European Atomic Energy Community
(d) European Ariel Energetic Center

Answer

Answer: (c) European Atomic Energy Community


Question 7.
ASEAN stands for ___________
(a) Alliance of Southeast Asian Nations
(b) Alliance of Southern Asian Nations
(c) Association of South West Asian Nations
(d) Association of South-East Asian Nations

Answer

Answer: (d) Association of South-East Asian Nations


Question 8.
The second-largest contributor to the regular budget of the UN is
(a) Japan
(b) China
(c) India
(d) Britain

Answer

Answer: (a) Japan


Question 9.
When China became a member of the WTO?
(a) 1991
(b) 1998
(c) 2001
(d) 2005

Answer

Answer: (c) 2001


Question 10.
In which year OEEC was established?
(a) 1946
(b) 1947
(c) 1948
(d) 1949

Answer

Answer: (c) 1948


Question 11.
When was the European Union established?
(a) 1990
(b) 1991
(c) 1992
(d) 1993

Answer

Answer: (c) 1992


Question 12.
When was The ASEAN Regional Forum established?
(a) 1991
(b) 1992
(c) 1993
(d) 1994

Answer

Answer: (d) 1994


Question 13.
In January 2007, the two countries that joined the EU were
(a) Britain and Denmark
(b) Italy and France
(c) Finland and Sweden
(d) Bulgaria and Romania

Answer

Answer: (d) Bulgaria and Romania


Question 14.
What is the name given to the 13 members of the European Union who have adopted the Euro?
(a) Eurozone
(b) Euro alliance
(c) Euro association
(d) Euro league

Answer

Answer: (a) Eurozone


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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 5 Contemporary South Asia with Answers

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 5 Contemporary South Asia with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Contemporary South Asia Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Contemporary South Asia Class 12 Objective Questions.

Contemporary South Asia Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
When was LTTE vanquished?
(a) 2006
(b) 2008
(c) 2009
(d) 2010

Answer

Answer: (c) 2009


Question 2.
When India conducted a nuclear explosion in Pokaran?
(a) 1996
(b) 1997
(c) 1998
(d) 1999

Answer

Answer: (c) 1998


Question 3.
Which party dominates the political affairs of Maldives?
(a) Maldivian Democratic Party
(b) Maldivian Socialist Party
(c) Maldivian Communist Party
(d) Maldivian Republic Party

Answer

Answer: (a) Maldivian Democratic Party


Question 4.
The country that is Bhutan’s biggest source of development aid is
(a) The USA
(b) Russia
(c) India
(d) the Maldives

Answer

Answer: (c) India


Question 5.
The South Asian leaders signed the SAARC Charter on:
(a) 7th November 1985
(b) 8th December 1985
(c) 9th January 1987
(d) 5th December 1988

Answer

Answer: (b) 8th December 1985


Question 6.
In the political field, Pakistan lacks
(a) A courageous and relatively free press
(b) A strong human rights movement
(c) Educated leaders
(d) Genuine international support for democracy

Answer

Answer: (d) Genuine international support for democracy


Question 7.
Expand SAFTA.
(a) South Asian Free Trade
(b) South Asian Free Tax
(c) South Asian Free Tactics
(d) South Asian Free Toll

Answer

Answer: (a) South Asian Free Trade


Question 8.
Nepal was a constitutional monarchy till
(a) 2006
(b) 2005
(c) 2004
(d) 2003

Answer

Answer: (a) 2006


Question 9.
The Seven Party Alliance is a coalition of
(a) Maoist parties only
(b) Monarchial forces
(c) Nepali political parties
(d) Non-governmental organisations in Nepal

Answer

Answer: (c) Nepali political parties


Question 10.
In Nepal, there was a violent conflict between the armed forces of the King and
(a) Maoist guerrillas
(b) Political activists
(c) People’s representatives
(d) Armed military forces

Answer

Answer: (a) Maoist guerrillas


Question 11.
Maoist means
(a) Terrorist groups
(b) Freedom fighters
(c) A secret society
(d) Communists who believe in the ideology of Mao

Answer

Answer: (d) Communists who believe in the ideology of Mao


Question 12.
Expand LTTE.
(a) Liberation Tactics of Tamil Eelam
(b) Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam
(c) Liberation Tier of Tamil Eelam
(d) Liberation Team of Tamil Eelam

Answer

Answer: (b) Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam


Question 13.
Under which military ruler Pakistan faced Military Crisis?
(a) Yahya Khan
(b) Ayub Khan
(c) Pervez Musharraf
(d) Nawaz Sharif

Answer

Answer: (a) Yahya Khan


Question 14.
A landlocked country of South Asia with Maoist guerillas
(a) the Maldives
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Nepal
(d) Pakistan

Answer

Answer: (c) Nepal


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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 6 International Organisations with Answers

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 6 International Organisations with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided International Organisations Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on International Organisations Class 12 Objective Questions.

International Organisations Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
How many non-permanent members does the UN Security Council have?
(a) Eight
(b) Nine
(c) Ten
(d) Eleven

Answer

Answer: (c) Ten


Question 2.
Expand IAEA?
(a) International Atomic Energy Act
(b) International Atomic Energy Accord
(c) International Atomic Energy Agency
(d) International Atomic Eastern Agency

Answer

Answer: (c) International Atomic Energy Agency


Question 3.
The original member nations that signed the charter of the United Nations back in 1945 were
(a) 58
(b) 49
(c) 51
(d) 45

Answer

Answer: (c) 51


Question 4.
The UNs most visible public figure and the representative head is the
(a) Chief Executive Officer
(b) Secretary-General
(c) Administrative Officer
(d) Deputy General

Answer

Answer: (b) Secretary-General


Question 5.
Trygve Lie was the first Secretary-General from
(a) Germany
(b) Norway
(c) France
(d) Italy

Answer

Answer: (b) Norway


Question 6.
The two aspects of Human Rights are
(a) Social and legal aspects
(b) Natural and legal aspects
(c) Economic and political aspects
(d) Economic and natural aspects

Answer

Answer: (b) Natural and legal aspects


Question 7.
The main objectives of the International Atomic Energy Agency are to promote the peaceful use of
(a) Nuclear energy
(b) Global trade
(c) Military power
(d) Veto power

Answer

Answer: (a) Nuclear energy


Question 8.
When was World Trade Organisation was set up?
(a) 1993
(b) 1994
(c) 1995
(d) 1996

Answer

Answer: (c) 1995


Question 9.
The more weightage to India’s proposal for permanent membership in the Security Council is
(a) Nuclear capability
(b) Located in Asia
(c) India’s membership in the UN
(d) India’s growing economic power and stable political system

Answer

Answer: (d) India’s growing economic power and stable political system


Question 10.
How many judges are there in the International Court of Justice?
(a) Fifteen judges
(b) Sixteen judges
(c) Seventeen judges
(d) Eighteen judges

Answer

Answer: (a) Fifteen judges


Question 11.
The International Court of Justice popularly known as the
(a) World Court
(b) Supreme Court
(c) Criminal Court
(d) Subordinate Courts

Answer

Answer: (a) World Court


Question 12.
The international organization that works for the protection of human rights all over the world is
(a) Amnesty International
(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) World Trade Organisation
(d) International Court

Answer

Answer: (a) Amnesty International


Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 6 International Organisations with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 12 Political Science International Organisations MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 7 Security in the Contemporary World with Answers

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 7 Security in the Contemporary World with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Security in the Contemporary World Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Security in the Contemporary World Class 12 Objective Questions.

Security in the Contemporary World Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Expand START.
(a) Strategic Arms Reduction Toll
(b) Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty
(c) Strategic Arms Reduction Tactics
(d) Strategic Arms Reduction Tax

Answer

Answer: (b) Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty


Question 2.
When was Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty signed?
(a) 1966
(b) 1967
(c) 1968
(d) 1969

Answer

Answer: (c) 1968


Question 3.
The Tutsi tribe are in
(a) Rwanda
(b) Uganda
(c) Nigeria
(d) Greece

Answer

Answer: (a) Rwanda


Question 4.
Disarmament requires all states to give up certain kinds of
(a) Weapons
(b) Arms control
(c) Violence
(d) Internal wars

Answer

Answer: (a) Weapons


Question 5.
Global poverty is another source of:
(a) Insecurity
(b) Security
(c) Internal problem
(d) External threat

Answer

Answer: (a) Insecurity


Question 6.
Human rights are classified into
(a) Three types
(b) Two types
(c) Four types
(d) One type

Answer

Answer: (a) Three types


Question 7.
Al-Qaeda attacked America on which date?
(a) 11th September 2001
(b) 11th September 2002
(c) 11th October 2001
(d) 11th October 2002

Answer

Answer: (a) 11th September 2001


Question 8.
Poverty in South Asia has led to _________
(a) Illiteracy
(b) Population Explosion
(c) Migration
(d) Terrorism

Answer

Answer: (c) Migration


Question 9.
______ refers to political violence that targets civilians deliberately and indiscriminately.
(a) Terrorism
(b) Global security
(c) Human security
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Terrorism


Question 10.
Al-Qaeda is a group of _________
(a) Islamic militants
(b) Tamil militants
(c) Sikh militants
(d) Maoists

Answer

Answer: (a) Islamic militants


Question 11.
The Anti-ballistic Missile Treaty was signed in
(a) 1969
(b) 1970
(c) 1971
(d) 1972

Answer

Answer: (d) 1972


Question 12.
India conducted a second nuclear test in:
(a) 1972
(b) 1985
(c) 1986
(d) 1998

Answer

Answer: (d) 1998


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