MCQ Questions

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 12 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 12 Chemistry Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
Which among the following statement is not true?
(a) In liquid, particles are less regularly arranged and are free to move
(b) Boiling involves breaking up of group of molecules in liquid
(c) Boiling involves separation of oppositely charged ions
(d) Thermal energy of particles overcome cohesive forces that hold them

Answer

Answer: (c) Boiling involves separation of oppositely charged ions
Explanation:
Boiling involves separation of oppositely charged ions and makes them as individual ions.

---

Question 2.
Identify the chiral molecule among the following:
(a) Isopropyl alcohol
(b) 2-pentanol
(c) 1-bromo 3-butene
(d) Isobutyl alcohol

Answer

Answer: (d) Isobutyl alcohol
Explanation:
Chirality is the condition for a molecule to be optically active and here isobutyl alcohol is the only compound is optically active and hence it is the chiral molecule.

---

Question 3.
Which element is estimated by Carius method
(a) Carbon
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Halogen
(d) Nitrogen

Answer

Answer: (c) Halogen
Explanation:
Halogen element is estimated by Carius method

---

Question 4.
A solution of(+) – 2 – chloro – 2 – phenylethane in toluene racemises slowly in the presence of small amounts of SbCl₅ due to the formation of
(a) Carbanion
(b) Carbene
(c) Free radical
(d) Carbocation

Answer

Answer: (d) Carbocation
Explanation:
SbCl₅ pulls Cl^– to form SbCl^–₆ leaving behind planar C₆H₅−C⁺H−CH₃ carbonium ion. It can be attacked from either side leading to racemic mixture.

---

Question 5.
Which of the following acids has the smallest dissociation constant?
(a) CH₃CHFCOOH
(b) FCH₂CH₂COOH
(c) BrCH₂CH₂COOH
(d) CH₃CHBrCOOH

Answer

Answer: (c) BrCH₂CH₂COOH
Explanation:
BrCH₂CH₂COOH is least acidic or has less K_a i.e., dissociation constant. It is A due to lesser -I effect of Br than F and B Br atom further away form −COOH group.

---

Question 6.
What is the correct IUPAC name of

(a) 4-methoxy-2-nitrobenzaldehyde
(b) 4-formyl-3-nitro anisole
(c) 4-methoxy-6-nitrobenzaldehyde
(d) 2-formyl-5-methoxy nitrobenzene

Answer

Answer: (a) 4-methoxy-2-nitrobenzaldehyde
Explanation:
IUPAC name is 4-methoxy-2-nitrobenzaldehyde

---

Question 7.
0.5 g of hydrocarbon gave 0.9 g water on combustion. The percentage of carbon in hydrocarbon is
(a) 75.8
(b) 80.0
(c) 56.6
(d) 28.6

Answer

Answer: (b) 80.0
Explanation:
Percentage% of H =(2/18) × [(weight of H₂O)/(weight of organic compound)] × 100
=(2/18) × [(0.9)/(0.5)] × 100 = 20
Since percentage of hydrogen is 20. Therefore, remaining is carbon i.e. 80 %.

---

Question 8.
0.92 g of an organic compound was analysed by combustion method. The mass of the U- tube increased by 1.08 g. What is the percentage of hydrogen in the compound?
(a) 13.04%
(b) 52.17%
(c) 65.21%
(d) 11.30%

Answer

Answer: (a) 13.04%
Explanation:
For Percentage % of H,
(Percentage % of H)/(H₂O) = (2/18) × [(weight x H₂O)/Weight of organic compound)] × 100
= (2/18) × (1.08/0.92) × 100
= 13.04 %

---

Question 9.
What is the state of hybridisation of carbon in carbanion?
(a) sp
(b) sp²
(c) sp³
(d) sp²d.

Answer

Answer: (c) sp³
Explanation:
In carbanion the carbon atom is sp³ hybridised and the geometry is pyramidal.

---

Question 10.
An organic compound contains C = 38.8 H = 16 and N = 45.2. Empirical formula of the compound is
(a) CH₃NH₂
(b) CH₃CN
(c) C₂H₅CN
(d) CH₂(NH)₂

Answer

Answer: (a) CH₃NH₂

---

Question 11.
59 g of an amide obtained from a carboxylic acid, RCOOH, liberated 17 g of ammonia upon heating with alkali. The acid is
(a) Formic Acid
(b) Acetic Acid
(c) Propionic Acid
(d) Benzoic Acid

Answer

Answer: (b) Acetic Acid

---

Question 12.
The displacement of electrons in a multiple bond in the presence of attacking reagent is called
(a) Inductive effect
(b) Electromeric effect
(c) Resonance
(d) Hyper conjugation

Answer

Answer: (b) Electromeric effect
Explanation:
The electromeric effect is a temporary effect brought into play at the requirement of attacking reagent. Electromeric effect refers to a molecular polarizability effect occurring by an intra-molecular electron displacement. It is the temporary effect.

---

Question 13.
The molecular formula C₅H₁₂ contains how many isomeric alkanes?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer

Answer: (c) 3
Explanation:
n-pentane, 2-ethylpropane, and 2-methylbutane are the 3 isomeric alkanes of C₅H₁ (pentane).

---

Question 14.
If two compounds have the same empirical formula but different molecular formula they must have
(a) Different percentage composition
(b) Different molecular weight
(c) Same viscosity
(d) Same vapour density

Answer

Answer: (b) Different molecular weight
Explanation:
If molecular formula is different than molecular weight is also different.

---

Question 15.
Inductive effect involves
(a) displacement of σ electrons
(b) delocalization of π electrons
(c) delocalization of σ-electrons
(d) displacement of π-electrons

Answer

Answer: (a) displacement of σ electrons
Explanation:
During inductive effect shifting of a electrons takes place due to which partially charges are developed on the atom.
+δ” + δ′ + δ −δ
C− C− C −C1−

---

Question 16.
A gas mixture contains 50% helium and 50% methane by volume. What is the percent by weight of methane in the mixture
(a) 75%
(b) 50%
(c) 80.03%
(d) 19.97%

Answer

Answer: (c) 80.03%
Explanation:
Given the Solution contains He + CH₄
Their molecular weight = 4 + 16 = 20 % wt of CH4
= (weight of CH₄)/(Total wt × 100)
= (16/20) × 100
= 80.0

---

Question 17.
Which of the following physical properties differ for each of a pair of enantiomers?
(a) solubility in ethanol
(b) direction of rotation of plane-polarized light
(c) boiling point and melting point
(d) index of refraction

Answer

Answer: (b) direction of rotation of plane-polarized light
Explanation:
Enantiomers are equal in all their physical properties except for their optical rotation, as they rotate the plane of polarized light by equal amounts in opposite directions.

---

Question 18.
The reaction of HCOOH with conc.H₂SO₄ gives which of the following compound?
(a) CO₂
(b) CO
(c) Oxalic Acid
(d) Acetic acid

Answer

Answer: (b) CO

---

Question 19.
What is the state of hybridisation of carbon in carbanion?
(a) sp
(b) sp²
(c) sp³
(d) sp²d.

Answer

Answer: (c) sp³
Explanation:
In carbanion the carbon atom is sp³ hybridised and the geometry is pyramidal.

---

Question 20.
Which among the following is formed when an alcohol is dehydrated?
(a) alkane
(b) alkyne
(c) alkene
(d) aldehyde

Answer

Answer: (c) alkene
Explanation:
In elimination reaction, when protic acids react with alcohol, they lose water molecule to form alkenes.

---

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Determination of Income and Employment Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct alternative.

Question 1.
The value of multiplier is
(a) \(\frac{1}{MPC}\)
(b) \(\frac{1}{MPS}\)
(c) \(\frac{1}{1-MPS}\)
(d) \(\frac{1}{MPC-1}\)

Answer

Answer: (b) \(\frac{1}{MPS}\)

---

Question 2.
Aggregate demand can be increased by
(a) increasing bank rate
(b) selling government securities by the Reserve Bank of India
(c) increasing cash reserve ratio
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) None of the above

---

Question 3.
If MPC is equal to 1, the value of the multiplier is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) Between 0 and 1
(d) Infinity

Answer

Answer: (d) Infinity

---

Question 4.
If the marginal propensity to consume is greater than the marginal propensity to save, the value of the multiplier will be:
(a) greater than 2
(b) less than 2
(c) two equal to 2
(d) equal to 5

Answer

Answer: (a) greater than 2

---

Question 5.
If MPC is zero, the value of the multiplier is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) between 0 and 1
(d) infinity

Answer

Answer: (b) 1

---

Question 6.
Average Propensity to Consume can never be ________
(a) positive
(b) zero
(c) more than one
(d) less than one

Answer

Answer: (b) zero

---

Question 7.
According to classical economists, there always exists an equilibrium in the economy.
(a) Full employment
(b) Underemployment
(c) Over full employment
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Full employment

---

Question 8.
What will be MPC when MPS = 0?
(a) One
(b) Zero
(c) Two
(d) Infinite

Answer

Answer: (a) One

---

Question 9.
If the income is ₹ 400 crores and consumption is ₹ 250 crores, what will be the APC?
(a) 0.67
(b) 0.63
(c) 0.60
(d) 0.58

Answer

Answer: (b) 0.63

---

Question 10.
What is a fiscal measure of correcting deficient demand?
(a) Decrease in public debt
(b) Increase in public expenditure and decrease in taxes
(c) Deficit financing
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

---

Question 11.
Which is the measure of correcting excess demand?
(a) Deficit financing
(b) Reduction in taxes
(c) Increase in public expenditure
(d) Increase in public debt

Answer

Answer: (d) Increase in public debt

---

Fill in the blanks with the correct word.

Question 12.
The multiplier is the ratio between the change in income and change in ________

Answer

Answer: investment

---

Question 13.
In an economy, break-even point and equilibrium point may lie at the same level of income, if ex-ante investments are _____

Answer

Answer: zero

---

Question 14.
There is a/an ________ relation between multiplier and MPC.

Answer

Answer: direct

---

Question 15.
Deficient demand refers to the situation when Aggregate Demand is _______ Aggregate Supply.

Answer

Answer: less than

---

Question 16.
The price will ________ in the situation of excess demand.

Answer

Answer: Increase

---

Question 17.
In a situation of inflationary gap, the economy faces a situation of ______ output.

Answer

Answer: higher

---

Question 18.
________ demand causes inflationary pressure.

Answer

Answer: excess

---

Question 19.
Deflationary gap is a measure of ________ demand.

Answer

Answer: excess

---

Question 20.
_______ policy is related to revenue and expenditure of the government.

Answer

Answer: fiscal

---

Question 21.
Bank rate is a _______ instrument of monetary policy.

Answer

Answer: quantitative

---

Question 22.
_______ policy is concerned with the supply, availability, and cost of money.

Answer

Answer: monetary

---

Question 23.
_______ employment was the main feature of the classical theory of employment.

Answer

Answer: Full

---

Question 24.
MPC is always ________

Answer

Answer: positive

---

Question 25.
MPC is greater than zero and _______ than one.

Answer

Answer: less

---

State whether the following statements are true or false. Give reasons.

Question 26.
There is a direct relationship between multiplier and MPC.

Answer

Answer: True
There is a direct relationship between multiplier and MPC. The higher the MPC, the higher will be the value of the multiplier and vice-versa.

---

Question 27.
When MPC is zero, the multiplier is 1.

Answer

Answer: True
The relation between multiplier and MPC can be represented as K = \(\frac{1}{1-MPC}\)
At MPC = 0, K = 1.

---

Question 28.
The deflationary gap causes a fall in the level of employment.

Answer

Answer: True
When there is a deflationary gap, aggregate demand remains less than essential demand at the full employment level. Thus, the problem of involuntary unemployment takes place.

---

Question 29.
The inflationary gap causes a fall in the level of price.

Answer

Answer: False
When there is an inflationary gap, aggregate demand remains more than essential demand at the full employment level. Thus, there is a significant rise in prices.

---

Question 30.
Monetary policy is related to the revenue and expenditure policy of the government.

Answer

Answer: False
The monetary policy includes measures taken by the central bank to expand or contract the money supply. Instead, fiscal policy is related to the revenue and expenditure policy of the government.

---

Question 31.
When there is excess demand, the rate of taxation is to be reduced.

Answer

Answer: False
During excess demand, the government reduces the rate of taxes and even imposes some new taxes. It leads to a decrease in the level of aggregate expenditure in the economy and helps to control the situation of excess demand.

---

Question 32.
When there is deficient demand, public expenditure is to be generally expanded.

Answer

Answer: True
An increase in public expenditure tends to increase the purchasing power of the public which, in turn, increases the demand for goods and corrects deficient demand.

---

Match the alternatives given in Column II with respective terms in Column I.

Question 33.

Column I	Column II
(i) Ex-ante Investment	(a) Increase Bank rate
(ii) Ex-post Investment	(b) AS curve is perfectly inelastic
(iii) Monetary Measure to Correct Disequilibrium	(c) Actual Investment
(iv) Fiscal Measure to Correct Disequilibrium	(d) Planned Investment
(v) Components of AD	(e) Changes in Government expenditure
(vi) Components of AS	(f) Consumption and Investment
(vii) Classical Concept of AS	(g) Changing Cash Reserve Ratio
(viii) Keynesian Concept of AS	(h) Consumption and Saving
(ix) To correct excess demand	(i) AS curve is perfectly elastic
(x) To correct deficient demand	(j) Increase government expenditure

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(i) Ex-ante Investment	(d) Planned Investment
(ii) Ex-post Investment	(c) Actual Investment
(iii) Monetary Measure to Correct Disequilibrium	(g) Changing Cash Reserve Ratio
(iv) Fiscal Measure to Correct Disequilibrium	(e) Changes in Government expenditure
(v) Components of AD	(f) Consumption and Investment
(vi) Components of AS	(h) Consumption and Saving
(vii) Classical Concept of AS	(b) AS curve is perfectly inelastic
(viii) Keynesian Concept of AS	(i) AS curve is perfectly elastic
(ix) To correct excess demand	(a) Increase Bank rate
(x) To correct deficient demand	(j) Increase government expenditure

---

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Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 5 Government Budget and the Economy with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Government Budget and the Economy Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Government Budget and the Economy Class 12 Objective Questions.

Government Budget and the Economy Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct alternative.

Question 1.
Which of the following is a non-tax revenue?
(a) export duty
(b) import duty
(c) dividends
(d) excise duty

Answer

Answer: (c) dividends

---

Question 2.
The primary deficit in a government budget is
(a) Revenue expenditure minus revenue receipts
(b) Total expenditure minus total receipts
(c) Revenue deficit minus interest payment
(d) Fiscal deficit minus interest payment

Answer

Answer: (d) Fiscal deficit minus interest payment

---

Question 3.
Direct tax is called direct because it is collected from the
(a) the producers on goods produced
(b) the sellers on goods sold
(c) the buyers of goods
(d) the income earners

Answer

Answer: (d) the income earners

---

Question 4.
The primary deficit in a government budget will be zero, when _______
(a) Revenue deficit is zero
(b) Net interest payments are zero
(c) Fiscal deficit is zero
(d) Fiscal deficit is equal to interest payment

Answer

Answer: (d) Fiscal deficit is equal to interest payment

---

Question 5.
Which one of these is a revenue expenditure?
(a) Purchase of an asset
(b) Loans advanced
(c) Subsidies
(d) Expenditure on acquisition of land

Answer

Answer: (c) Subsidies

---

Question 6.
Which one of the following is a combination of direct taxes?
(a) Excise duty and wealth tax
(b) Service tax and income tax
(c) Excise duty and service tax
(d) Wealth tax and income tax

Answer

Answer: (d) Wealth tax and income tax

---

Question 7.
Which of the following statement is true?
(a) Loan from IMF is a revenue receipt.
(b) Higher revenue deficit necessarily leads to higher fiscal deficit.
(c) Borrowings by the government represent a situation of fiscal deficit.
(d) Revenue deficit is the excess of capital received over the revenue receipts.

Answer

Answer: (c) Borrowings by the government represent a situation of fiscal deficit.

---

Question 8.
Which of the following is not a revenue receipt?
(a) Recovery of loans
(b) Foreign grants
(c) Profit of public enterprises
(d) Wealth tax

Answer

Answer: (a) Recovery of loans

---

Question 9.
Primary deficit is borrowing requirements of the government for payment(s)
(a) of interest
(b) other than interest
(c) of all types
(d) that are specific

Answer

Answer: (b) other than interest

---

Question 10.
Which of the following sources of receipts in the government budget increases its liabilities?
(a) Direct taxes
(b) Recovery of loans
(c) Borrowings
(d) Dividend from PSUs

Answer

Answer: (c) Borrowings

---

Question 11.
Which of the following is an indirect tax?
(a) Profit tax
(b) Wealth tax
(c) Custom duty
(d) Gift tax

Answer

Answer: (c) Custom duty

---

Question 12.
Borrowing in the government budget is
(a) revenue deficit
(b) fiscal deficit
(c) primary deficit
(d) deficit in taxes

Answer

Answer: (b) fiscal deficit

---

Fill in the blanks with the correct word.

Question 13.
Any debt from abroad involves a ________

Answer

Answer: burden

---

Question 14.
Deficit budget is that in which total expenditure is _______ total receipts.

Answer

Answer: greater than

---

Question 15.
_________ tax is that in which final burden of the tax falls on the person who pays it.

Answer

Answer: Direct

---

Question 16.
Government expenditure on Mid-Day Meal scheme running in government (state-run) schools is a type of _______ expenditure in the government budget.

Answer

Answer: revenue

---

Question 17.
The formula to calculate primary deficit is ________

Answer

Answer: Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payments

---

State whether the following statements are True or False. Give reasons.

Question 18.
Indirect taxes are not convenient to realize.

Answer

Answer: False
Indirect taxes are easy to realize since they are included in the prices of commodities.

---

Question 19.
Payment of salaries to the government employees is a capital payment.

Answer

Answer: False
Payment of salary is a revenue payment.

---

Question 20.
Expenditure made on the establishment of the Metro rail line in Delhi is a capital expenditure.

Answer

Answer: True
This expenditure has created assets.

---

Question 21.
Public borrowing is a capital receipt.

Answer

Answer: True
It creates liability for the government.

---

Question 22.
Recovery of loan is a revenue receipt.

Answer

Answer: False
It is a capital receipt as it reduces the asset of the government.

---

Question 23.
Sales tax is an indirect tax.

Answer

Answer: True
Its burden can be shifted on others.

---

Question 24.
Service tax is a direct tax.

Answer

Answer: False
It is an indirect tax as its burden can be shifted.

---

Question 25.
Grants by the government are treated as revenue expenditure.

Answer

Answer: True
All grants are treated as revenue expenditure of the government, even though some of them may lead to asset formation.

---

Question 26.
Excess of capital expenditure over capital receipt is called revenue deficit.

Answer

Answer: False
It is called a deficit in the capital budget.

---

Match the alternatives given in Column II with respective terms in Column I.

Question 27.

Column I	Column II
(i) Revenue Expenditure	(a) Recovery of loans
(ii) Capital Expenditure	(b) Tax revenue
(iii) Revenue Receipts	(c) Neither creates assets nor reduces liabilities
(iv) Capital Receipts	(d) Income tax
(v) Direct Tax	(e) Revenue receipt
(vi) Indirect Tax	(f) Excise duty
(vii) Borrowings from IMF	(g) Capital receipt
(viii) Dividends paid to the Government by Commercial Banks	(h) Either creates assets or reduces liabilities

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(i) Revenue Expenditure	(c) Neither creates assets nor reduces liabilities
(ii) Capital Expenditure	(h) Either creates assets or reduces liabilities
(iii) Revenue Receipts	(b) Tax revenue
(iv) Capital Receipts	(a) Recovery of loans
(v) Direct Tax	(d) Income tax
(vi) Indirect Tax	(f) Excise duty
(vii) Borrowings from IMF	(g) Capital receipt
(viii) Dividends paid to the Government by Commercial Banks	(e) Revenue receipt

---

Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 5 Government Budget and the Economy with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 12 Economics Government Budget and the Economy MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

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Open Economy Macroeconomics Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct alternative.

Question 1.
Other things remaining unchanged, when in a country the price of foreign currency rises, national income is:
(a) Likely to rise
(b) Likely to fall
(c) Likely to rise and fall both
(d) Not affected

Answer

Answer: (a) Likely to rise

---

Question 2.
Foreign exchange transactions dependent on other foreign exchange transactions are called:
(a) Current account transactions
(b) Capital account transactions
(c) Autonomous transactions
(d) Accommodating transactions

Answer

Answer: (d) Accommodating transactions

---

Question 3.
Other things remaining the same, when in a country the market price of foreign currency falls, national income is likely:
(a) to rise
(b) to fall
(c) to rise or to fall
(d) to remain unaffected

Answer

Answer: (b) to fall

---

Question 4.
Foreign exchange transactions which are independent of other transactions in the Balance of Payments Account are called:
(a) Current transactions
(b) Capital transactions
(c) Autonomous transactions
(d) Accommodating transactions

Answer

Answer: (c) Autonomous transactions

---

Question 5.
What is the cause of the devaluation of any country’s currency?
(a) Increase in the domestic inflation rate
(b) Domestic real interest rates are less than foreign interest rates
(c) Much increase in the income
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

---

Question 6.
The operation of daily nature in the foreign exchange market is known as
(a) Spot market
(b) Forward market
(c) Domestic market
(d) International market

Answer

Answer: (a) Spot market

---

Question 7.
The operation of future delivery in the foreign exchange market is known as
(a) Spot market
(b) Current market
(c) Forward market
(d) Domestic market

Answer

Answer: (c) Forward market

---

Question 8.
Trade of visible items between the countries is known as
(a) Balance of Payment
(b) Balance of Trade
(c) Deficit Balance
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Balance of Trade

---

Question 9.
When the import and export of visible items are equal, the situation is known as
(a) Balance of Trade
(b) Balance of Payment
(c) Trade Surplus
(d) Trade Deficit

Answer

Answer: (a) Balance of Trade

---

Question 10.
When there is a favourable balance of trade?
(a) X > M
(b) X = M
(c) X < M
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) X > M

---

Fill in the blanks with the correct word.

Question 11.
_______ rate of exchange refers to the rate of exchange as determined by the government.

Answer

Answer: Fixed

---

Question 12.
______ market deals with such sale and purchase of foreign exchange which are contracted today but are implemented sometimes in the future.

Answer

Answer: Forward

---

Question 13.
______ rate of exchange is also called the free rate of exchange.

Answer

Answer: Flexible

---

Question 14.
The balance of ______ is the difference between visible exports and visible imports.

Answer

Answer: trade

---

Question 15.
Balance of Payment has ______ accounts.

Answer

Answer: three

---

Question 16.
Balance of Payment is always ________

Answer

Answer: positive

---

Question 17.
If exports exceed imports, then BoP is ________

Answer

Answer: favourable

---

Question 18.
When exports are equal to imports, then it is the situation of _________

Answer

Answer: equilibrium

---

Question 19.
Balance of trade includes only ________ items.

Answer

Answer: visible

---

State whether the following statements are true or false. Give reasons.

Question 20.
The difference between the value of exports and imports of goods and services is called a trade balance.

Answer

Answer: False
Balance of trade refers to the relationship between the value of imports and exports of the goods of a country. It does not include invisible items such as services.

---

Question 21.
‘Managed Floating Exchange Rate is decided by market forces but remains within a specific range as decided by the central bank.’

Answer

Answer: True
In this system, the central bank intervenes to minimize fluctuation in the exchange rate.

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Question 22.
Excess of foreign exchange receipts over foreign exchange payments on account of accommodating transactions equals deficit in the Balance of Payments.

Answer

Answer: False
Excess of foreign exchange receipts over foreign exchange payments on account of autonomous transactions equals deficit in the Balance of Payments.

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Question 23.
Export and import of machines are recorded in the capital account of the Balance of Payments account.

Answer

Answer: False
Export and import of machines are not recorded in capital account as capital account transactions do not involve the movement of goods. Export and import of machines is a part of the Current Account.

---

Question 24.
The current account of Balance of Payments accounts records only exports and imports of goods and services.

Answer

Answer: False
The current account of the Balance of Payments account also records unilateral transfers along with exports and imports of goods and services.

---

Question 25.
Foreign investments are recorded in the capital account of Balance of Payments.

Answer

Answer: True
Foreign investments are recorded in the capital account of Balance of Payments as it involves a change in ownership of assets.

---

Question 26.
Banking and insurance are examples of visible items.

Answer

Answer: False
These are services and hence, are part of invisible items.

---

Match the alternatives given in Column II with respective terms in Column I.

Question 27.

Column I	Column II
(i) Items of Current Account	(a) Includes only visible items
(ii) Items of Capital Account	(b) Above the line items
(iii) Balance of Trade	(c) Unilateral transfers
(iv) Current Account Balance	(d) Exports will increase
(v) Autonomous Transactions	(e) Imports will increase
(vi) Accommodating Transactions	(f) Portfolio Investment
(vii) Effect of appreciation of the domestic currency	(g) Below the line items
(viii) Effect of depreciation of the domestic currency	(h) Includes visible and invisible items

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(i) Items of Current Account	(c) Unilateral transfers
(ii) Items of Capital Account	(f) Portfolio Investment
(iii) Balance of Trade	(a) Includes only visible items
(iv) Current Account Balance	(h) Includes visible and invisible items
(v) Autonomous Transactions	(b) Above the line items
(vi) Accommodating Transactions	(g) Below the line items
(vii) Effect of appreciation of the domestic currency	(e) Imports will increase
(viii) Effect of depreciation of the domestic currency	(d) Exports will increase

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Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 6 Open Economy Macroeconomics with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 12 Economics Open Economy Macroeconomics MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 1 Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence Class 12 Objective Questions.

Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct alternative.

Question 1.
In the history of demographic transition, which year is regarded as the year of the great divide?
(a) 1901
(b) 1902
(c) 1921
(d) 1923

Answer

Answer: (c) 1921

---

Question 2.
When were the railways Introduced in India?
(a) 1769
(b) 1825
(c) 1850
(d) 1875

Answer

Answer: (c) 1850

---

Question 3.
The first census data was collected during British rule.
(a) 1891
(b) 1881
(c) 1950
(d) 1850

Answer

Answer: (b) 1881

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Question 4.
At the time of independence, most of the land was owned by _________
(a) farmers
(b) zamindars
(c) labour
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (b) zamindars

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Question 5.
What was the life expectancy in India during the British rule?
(a) 65
(b) 38
(c) 32
(d) 44

Answer

Answer: (d) 44

---

Question 6.
During colonial period India’s demographic profile showed ________
(a) high birth rate
(b) low death rate
(c) low infant mortality rate
(d) high literacy rate

Answer

Answer: (a) high birth rate

---

Question 7.
Indian economy on the eve of Independence was ________
(a) underdeveloped
(b) developing
(c) stagnant
(d) semi-feudal

Answer

Answer: (a) underdeveloped

---

Question 8.
Suez Canal was opened for transport in _________
(a) 1850
(b) 1853
(c) 1869
(d) 1901

Answer

Answer: (c) 1869

---

Question 9.
Who made significant estimates about calculating national income in India during the British period?
(a) V.K.R.V. Rao
(b) Dadabhai Naoroji
(c) Findlay Shirras
(d) William Digby

Answer

Answer: (a) V.K.R.V. Rao

---

Fill in the blanks with the correct word.

Question 10.
The country’s growth of aggregate real output was less than _____ during the first half of the twentieth century.

Answer

Answer: two percent

---

Question 11.
The Indian economy was a/an _______ economy at the time of Independence.

Answer

Answer: agrarian

---

Question 12.
_______ of agriculture increased the burden of revenue on farmers.

Answer

Answer: Commercialisation

---

Question 13.
The distribution of the working population in different sectors of the economy offers a glimpse of ______ structure.

Answer

Answer: occupational

---

Question 14.
The second stage of demographic transition began after ________ in India.

Answer

Answer: 1921

---

Question 15.
Indian economy served as a source of ______ for the British industry and a market for its finished goods.

Answer

Answer: raw material

---

Question 16.
_______ were developed by the British Raj as a means to enlarge the size of the market for the British goods.

Answer

Answer: Railways

---

Question 17.
The British introduced the railways in India in __________

Answer

Answer: 1850

---

Question 18.
The ________ sector accounted for only 17.2 percent of the working population on the eve of Independence.

Answer

Answer: tertiary/service

---

Question 19.
India’s first official census was undertaken in _________

Answer

Answer: 1881

---

State whether the following statements are True or False.

Question 20.
India was a prosperous and wealthy economy prior to the advent of British rule.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 21.
The colonial rule destroyed India’s traditional handicraft industry.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 22.
The economic policies pursued by the colonial government in India were concerned more with the protection and promotion of the economic interests of India.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 23.
India was reduced to an importer of primary products.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 24.
The contribution of the new industrial sector to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) expanded significantly during the British rule.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 25.
The aim of developing postal and telegraph was to enhance the efficiency of the British administration.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Match the alternatives given in Column II with respective terms in Column I.

Question 26.

Column I	Column II
(i) The year of the Great Divide	(a) 1850
(ii) British introduced railways in India	(b) 1912
(iii) Overall literacy on the eve of Independence	(c) 1869
(iv) Female literacy on the eve of Independence	(d) 16 percent
(v) TISCO plant began production	(e) 7 percent
(vi) The Suez Canal opened	(f) 1921

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(i) The year of the Great Divide	(f) 1921
(ii) British introduced railways in India	(a) 1850
(iii) Overall literacy on the eve of Independence	(d) 16 percent
(iv) Female literacy on the eve of Independence	(e) 7 percent
(v) TISCO plant began production	(b) 1912
(vi) The Suez Canal opened	(c) 1869

---

Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 1 Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 12 Economics Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 2 Indian Economy 1950-1990 with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Indian Economy 1950-1990 Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Indian Economy 1950-1990 Class 12 Objective Questions.

Indian Economy 1950-1990 Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct alternative.

Question 1.
Which one of the following measures was not a part of tenancy reforms?
(a) fixation of land ceiling
(b) regulation of rent
(c) ownership rights for tenants
(d) security of tenure

Answer

Answer: (a) fixation of land ceiling

---

Question 2.
Which of the following industry was not reserved for the government in Industrial Policy Resolution, 1956?
(a) Iron and steel
(b) Transport
(c) Atomic energy
(d) Railway transport

Answer

Answer: (a) Iron and steel

---

Question 3.
The motive behind the introduction of land reforms in India was __________
(a) self-sufficiency in food grains
(b) agricultural development
(c) equity in agriculture
(d) industrial development

Answer

Answer: (c) equity in agriculture

---

Question 4.
When was NITI Aayog established?
(a) 1991
(b) 2001
(c) 2011
(d) 2015

Answer

Answer: (d) 2015

---

Question 5.
Land ceiling refers to _________
(a) fixing rural landholding at the existing level
(b) fixing the quantum of land held by an individual
(c) fixing urban landholdings at the existing level
(d) fixing land area for irrigation purposes

Answer

Answer: (b) fixing the quantum of land held by an individual

---

Question 6.
In which of the following types of economy are resources owned privately and the main objective behind economic activities is profit-making?
(a) Capitalist
(b) Socialist
(c) Mixed
(d) Global

Answer

Answer: (a) Capitalist

---

Question 7.
Which of the following is the main objective of carrying out various economic activities?
(a) Profit
(b) Public welfare
(c) Competition
(d) Equality

Answer

Answer: (b) Public welfare

---

Question 8.
When was the National Development Council (NDC) set up as an adjunct to the Planning Commission?
(a) 1950
(b) 1969
(c) 1952
(d) 1979

Answer

Answer: (c) 1952

---

Question 9.
What is needed to provide protection against natural calamities like floods, drought, locusts, thunderstorms, etc.?
(a) Multiple cropping
(b) Green Revolution
(c) Crop insurance
(d) HYV

Answer

Answer: (c) Crop insurance

---

Question 10.
How many industries have been reserved for the public sector under Industrial Policy Resolution, 1956?
(a) 17
(b) 21
(c) 15
(d) 2

Answer

Answer: (a) 17

---

Fill in the blanks with the correct word.

Question 11.
________ planning includes all spheres of economic and social activities.

Answer

Answer: Comprehensive

---

Question 12.
________ is the Chairman of the Planning Commission.

Answer

Answer: Prime Minister

---

Question 13.
Full employment and equitable distribution of income and wealth are the _______ objectives of planning in India.

Answer

Answer: long-term

---

Question 14.
__________ combined with social justice is the principal goal of planning in India.

Answer

Answer: Economic growth

---

Question 15.
Modernisation means adoption of new technology and a change in __________

Answer

Answer: social outlook

---

Question 16.
Planning in India started with a heavy reliance on the _________ sector.

Answer

Answer: Public

---

Question 17.
Land Reforms were introduced to make tillers the owners of the land and bring about __________ in agriculture.

Answer

Answer: equity

---

Question 18.
Import Substitution policy was introduced to protect the _________ from foreign competition.

Answer

Answer: domestic industries

---

State whether the following statements are True or False.

Question 19.
In a capitalist economy, production takes place for selling the output in the market with a profit motive.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 20.
Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru and many other leaders favoured capitalism for independent India.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 21.
Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru is regarded as the architect of Indian planning.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 22.
Land Reforms were introduced to make tillers the owners of the land.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 23.
Under Industrial Policy Resolution (IPR), 1956, Category II of the industrial sector includes industries jointly owned and controlled by the private sector and the state.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 24.
Quotas are tax on imported goods while tariffs specify the number of goods which can be imported.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Match the alternatives given in Column II with respective terms in Column I.

Question 25.

Column I	Column II
(i) Objective of the capitalist economy	(a) 1956
(ii) Objective of a socialist economy	(b) Controlled and managed by the government
(iii) Private Sector	(c) 1952
(iv) Public Sector	(d) 1950
(v) Adoption of Industrial Policy Resolution	(e) Maximising social welfare
(vi) Industrial licensing started in India	(f) 2015
(vii) Constitution of Planning Commission	(g) 1967-68
(viii) Establishment of NITI Aayog	(h) Controlled and managed by individuals
(ix) Introduction of New Industrial Policy	(i) 1991
(x) Introduction of Green Revolution	(j) Profit

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(i) Objective of capitalist economy	(j) Profit
(ii) Objective of socialist economy	(e) Maximising social welfare
(iii) Private Sector	(h) Controlled and managed by individuals
(iv) Public Sector	(b) Controlled and managed by government
(v) Adoption of Industrial Policy Resolution	(a) 1956
(vi) Industrial licensing started in India	(c) 1952
(vii) Constitution of Planning Commission	(d) 1950
(viii) Establishment of NITI Aayog	(f) 2015
(ix) Introduction of New Industrial Policy	(i) 1991
(x) Introduction of Green Revolution	(g) 1967-68

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Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 2 Indian Economy 1950-1990 with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 12 Economics Indian Economy 1950-1990 MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.