MCQ Questions

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Hydrocarbons Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Hydrocarbons Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Hydrocarbons Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 13 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Hydrocarbons Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 13 Chemistry Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
Which of the following compounds will exhibit geometrical isomerism?
(a) 1 – Phenyl – 2 – butene
(b) 3 – Phenyl – 1 – butene
(c) 2 – Phenyl – 1 butene
(d) 1, 1 – Diphenyl – propene.

Answer

Answer: (a) 1 – Phenyl – 2 – butene
Explanation:
C6H5CH2−CH=CH−CH3 (1-phenyl-2-butene) exhibits the phenomenon of geometrical isomerism due to Cab = Cad structure, so its two isomers are possible which are given are follow:
MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons with Answers 1


Question 2.
Hydrocarbon containing following bond is most reactive
(a) C ≡ C
(b) C = C
(c) C – C
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) C≡C
Explanation:
−C≡C−is most reactive because sp-hybridization.


Question 3.
A gas decolourised by KMno4 solution but gives no precipitate with ammoniacal cuprous chloride is
(a) Ethene
(b) Propane
(c) Propene
(d) Methane

Answer

Answer: (a) Ethene
Explanation:
A gas decolourised by KMno4 solution but gives no precipitate with ammoniacal cuprous chloride is Ethene


Question 4.
A dibromo derivative of an alkane reacts with sodium metal to form an alicyclic hydrocarbon. The derivative is _______
(a) 1, 4-dibromobutane
(b) 1, 2-dibromoethane
(c) carbon
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) 1, 4-dibromobutane
Explanation:
A dibromo derivative of an alkane reacts with sodium metal to form an alicyclic hydrocarbon. The derivative is 1, 4-dibromobutane.


Question 5.
Reaction of HBr with propene in the presence of peroxide gives:
(a) 3 – Bromo propane
(b) Allyl bromide
(c) n – Propyl bromide
(d) Isoproyl bromide

Answer

Answer: (c) n – Propyl bromide


Question 6.
Which branched chain isomer of the hydrocarbon with molecular mass 72u gives only one isomer of mono substituted alkyl halide?
(a) Neopentane
(b) Carbon
(c) Isohexane
(d) Neohexane

Answer

Answer: (a) Neopentane
Explanation:
Neopentane chain isomer of the hydrocarbon with molecular mass 72u gives only one isomer of mono substituted alkyl halide.


Question 7.
Aromatic compounds burn with a sooty flame because?
(a) They have a ring structure of carbon atoms
(b) They have a relatively high percentage of hydrogen
(c) They have a relatively high percentage of carbon
(d) They resist reaction with oxygen of air

Answer

Answer: (c) They have a relatively high percentage of carbon
Explanation:
Due to the high percentage of carbon, a lot of carbon remains unburnt and escapes as fine particles called soot.


Question 8.
The lowest alkene, that is capable of exhibiting geometrical isomerism is
(a) Ethene
(b) But – 1- ene
(c) But – 2 – ene
(d) Propene

Answer

Answer: (c) But – 2 – ene
Explanation:
The lowest alkene which is capable of exhibiting geometrical isomerism is 2-Butene


Question 9.
Which one of these is NOT TRUE for benzene?
(a) Heat of hydrogenation of benzene is less than the theoretical value
(b) There are three carbon-carbon single bonds and three carbon-carbon double bonds
(c) It forms only one type of monosubstituted product
(d) The bond angle between carbon-carbon bonds is 120o

Answer

Answer: (b) There are three carbon-carbon single bonds and three carbon-carbon double bonds
Explanation:
The structure of benzene is
MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons with Answers 2
Bond order = (number of bonds) /(number of resonating structures) = (4/3) = 1.33
Since, the bond order is in between single and double bond, thus it contains delocalised n bonds. Hence, it is not possible to obtain number of single and double bonds in benzene.
MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons with Answers 3


Question 10.
Ethyl benzene cannot be prepared by _____.
(a) Wurtz Reaction
(b) Wurtz Fittig reaction
(c) Clemmensen Reduction
(d) Carbon

Answer

Answer: (a) Wurtz Reaction
Explanation:
Ethyl benzene cannot be prepared by Wurtz Reaction.


Question 11.
Propyne on polymerization yields
(a) Mesitylene
(b) Benzene
(c) Ethyl benzene
(d) Propyl benzene.

Answer

Answer: (a) Mesitylene
Explanation:
This process is similar to the process of obtaining benzene by trimerisation of ethyne.If ethyne is substituted by propyne leading to the formation of mesitylene.
MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons with Answers 4


Question 12.
A gas decolourised by KMno4 solution but gives no precipitate with ammoniacal cuprous chloride is
(a) Ethene
(b) Propane
(c) Propene
(d) Methane

Answer

Answer: (a) Ethene
Explanation:
A gas decolourised by KMno4 solution but gives no precipitate with ammoniacal cuprous chloride is Ethene


Question 13.
Among the following compounds the one that is most reactive towards electrophilic nitration is
(a) Toluene
(b) Benzene
(c) Benzoic Acid
(d) Nitrobenzene

Answer

Answer: (a) Toluene
Explanation:
Toluene contains electron donating methyl group which shows +I effect and increases the electron density on benzene ring thus making it suitable for electrophilic substitution reaction.


Question 14.
HBr reacts with CH2 = CH – OCH3 under anhydrous conditions at room temperature to give
(a) CH3CHO and CH3Br
(b) BrCH2CHO and CH3OH
(c) BrCH2 – CH2 – OCH3
(d) H3C – CHBr – OCH3

Answer

Answer: (d) H3C – CHBr – OCH3
Explanation:
Methyl vinyl ether is a very reactive gas. It is hydrolysed rapidly by dilute acids at room temperature to give methanol and aldehyde. However, under anhydrous conditions at room temperature, it undergoes many addition reactions at the double bond.
MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons with Answers 5


Question 15.
The angle strain in cyclobutane is
(a) 24°44
(b) 29°16
(c) 19°22
(d) 9°44

Answer

Answer: (d) 9°44
Explanation:
According to Baeyers strain theory, the amount of the strain is directly proportional to the angle through which a valency bond has deviated from its normal position. i.e., Amount of deviation) in cyclobutane (d) = (109°28 − 90°)/(2) = 9°44


Question 16.
The lowest alkene, that is capable of exhibiting geometrical isomerism is
(a) Ethene
(b) But – 1- ene
(c) But – 2 – ene
(d) Propene.

Answer

Answer: (c) But – 2 – ene
Explanation:
The lowest alkene which is capable of exhibiting geometrical isomerism is 2-Butene


Question 17.
A dibromo derivative of an alkane reacts with sodium metal to form an alicyclic hydrocarbon. The derivative is ______.
(a) 2, 2-dibromobutane
(b) 1, 1-dibromopropane
(c) 1, 4-dibromobutane
(d) 1, 2-dibromoethane

Answer

Answer: (c) 1, 4-dibromobutane
Explanation:
The derivative is 1,4 dibromobutane. This on reaction with sodium metal gives cyclobutane.
MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons with Answers 6
This reaction is an example of internal Wurtz reaction.


Question 18.
Phenyl magnesium bromide reacts with methanol to give
(a) A mixture of Benzene and Mg(OME) Br
(b) A mixture of Propane and Mg(OME) Br
(c) A mixture of Methane and Mg(OME) Br
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) A mixture of Benzene and Mg(OME) Br
Explanation:
Phenyl magnesium bromide reacts with methanol to give a mixture of benzene and Mg(OME)Br.


Question 19.
A gas decolourised by KMnO4 solution but gives no precipitate with ammoniacal cuprous chloride is
(a) Ethane
(b) Methane
(c) Ethene
(d) Acetylene

Answer

Answer: (c) Ethene
Explanation:
A gas decolourised by KMnO4 solution but gives no precipitate with ammonical cuprous chloride is ethene CH2 = CH2. Since it contains carbon-carbon double bond, it reacts with KMnO4. to form vicinal diol. Hence, KMnO4 is decolourised.
CH2 = CH2 + H2O +(O) à HO-CH2-CH2-OH
Acetylene gives a precipitate with ammonical cuprous chloride.


Question 20.
When cyclohexane is poured on water, it floats because
(a) Cyclohexane is in boat form
(b) Cyclohexane is in chair form
(c) Cyclohexane is in crown fromorm
(d) Cyclohexane is less dense than water.

Answer

Answer: (d) Cyclohexane is less dense than water.
Explanation:
As alkanes and cycloalkanes are non-polar molecules and are insoluble in H2O they are also denser than H2O and that is why can float on water.


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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 3 Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation: An Appraisal with Answers

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 3 Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation: An Appraisal with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation: An Appraisal Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation: An Appraisal Class 12 Objective Questions.

Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation: An Appraisal Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct alternative.

Question 1.
Economic reforms were introduced in India in the year _________
(a) 1991
(b) 1992
(c) 2001
(d) 2005

Answer

Answer: (a) 1991


Question 2.
Make in India programme was launched in __________
(a) 1991
(b) 2014
(c) 2015
(d) 2016

Answer

Answer: (b) 2014


Question 3.
MUDRA Bank was set up to meet the credit needs of the _________
(a) farmers
(b) small enterprises
(c) large enterprises
(d) exporters

Answer

Answer: (b) small enterprises


Question 4.
Which of the following replaced MRTP Act?
(a) Competition Act
(b) Foreign Exchange Management Act
(c) New Companies Act
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Competition Act


Question 5.
To provide refinance facilities to micro-units, an agency named MUDRA was established by the government. In which year this agency was set up?
(a) 1991
(b) 1999
(c) 2005
(d) 2015

Answer

Answer: (d) 2015


Question 6.
At present how many industries are exclusively reserved for the public sector in India?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five

Answer

Answer: (b) Three


Question 7.
At present the number of industries requiring company licensing is __________
(a) Eight
(b) Six
(c) Four
(d) Five

Answer

Answer: (d) Five


Question 8.
GST has been implemented from __________
(a) April 1, 2018
(b) January 1, 2018
(c) January 1, 2017
(d) July 1, 2017

Answer

Answer: (d) July 1, 2017


Question 9.
When did the Gulf Crisis take place?
(a) 1985
(b) 1990-91
(c) 1995
(d) 1975

Answer

Answer: (b) 1990-91


Question 10.
How much loan was provided by World Bank and IMF during the nineties to bail India out of the crisis?
(a) $10 million
(b) $10 billion
(c) $7 billion
(d) $20 billion

Answer

Answer: (c) $7 billion


Question 11.
For how many industries, licensing is still necessary?
(a) 7
(b) 6
(c) 9
(d) 10

Answer

Answer: (b) 6


Question 12.
How many industries are entirely reserved for the public sector?
(a) 6
(b) 10
(c) 2
(d) 4

Answer

Answer: (c) 2


Question 13.
What is the investment limit in small scale industries?
(a) 50 lakh
(b) 1 crore
(c) 25 lakh
(d) 75 crore

Answer

Answer: (b) 1 crore


Question 14.
Who is the Chairman of the GST Council?
(a) Finance Minister
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Finance Secretary
(d) Deputy Chairman of NITI Aayog

Answer

Answer: (a) Finance Minister


Fill in the blanks with the correct word.

Question 15.
India met with the economic crisis in 1991 as it failed to repay its _______ from abroad.

Answer

Answer: borrowings


Question 16.
________ is the excess of expenditure (borrowings) over income.

Answer

Answer: Deficit


Question 17.
To overcome the crisis, India approached IMF and World Bank for _________

Answer

Answer: loan


Question 18.
Fiscal policy refers to the revenue and expenditure policy of the government to achieve _______ development in the economy.

Answer

Answer: balanced


Question 19.
Trade policy reforms led to the removal of export duties to ________ India’s competitive position.

Answer

Answer: increase


Question 20.
India has become an important destination for global _________ since the reforms.

Answer

Answer: outsourcing


Question 21.
Trade between two countries is called ________ trade.

Answer

Answer: bilateral


Question 22.
Industrial sector has experienced ________ in growth pattern.

Answer

Answer: fluctuations


State whether the following statements are True or False.

Question 23.
The crisis led to a rise in the prices of essential goods.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 24.
Reserve Bank of India announced New Economic Policy as a condition to support the Indian economy.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 25.
Opening up the economy by removing restrictions on the private sector is called globalization.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 26.
Industrial licensing was abolished on all products except on those which were important from a profit point of view.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 27.
The rupee was devalued to resolve the balance of payments crisis.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 28.
Private ownership is capable of utilizing capital and other resources more efficiently.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 29.
GATT is the successor to the WTO.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 30.
Opening up of the economy resulted in a rapid increase in FDI and foreign exchange reserves.

Answer

Answer: True


Match the alternatives given in Column II with respective terms in Column I.

Question 31.

Column IColumn II
(i) Liberalisation(a) Removing trade restrictions
(ii) Privatisation(b) July 2017
(iii) Globalisation(c) Collected on inter-state sale
(iv) Tariff barriers(d) Removing restrictions on the private sector
(v) Non-tariff barrier(e) Imposing excise duty on imports
(vi) Introduction of New Economic Policy in India(f) November 2016
(vii) Implementation of GST in India(g) Reducing the role of the government
(viii) Demonetisation took place in India(h) Fixing quotas restrictions
(ix) SGST(i) Collected on intra-state sale
(x) IGST(j) 1991
Answer

Answer:

Column IColumn II
(i) Liberalisation(d) Removing restrictions on the private sector
(ii) Privatisation(g) Reducing the role of the government
(iii) Globalisation(a) Removing trade restrictions
(iv) Tariff barriers(e) Imposing excise duty on imports
(v) Non-tariff barrier(h) Fixing quotas restrictions
(vi) Introduction of New Economic Policy in India(j) 1991
(vii) Implementation of GST in India(b) July 2017
(viii) Demonetisation took place in India(f) November 2016
(ix) SGST(i) Collected on intra-state sale
(x) IGST(c) Collected on inter-state sale

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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 14 Environmental Chemistry with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 14 Environmental Chemistry with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Environmental Chemistry Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Environmental Chemistry Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Environmental Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 14 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Environmental Chemistry Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 14 Chemistry Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
Who sediment of suspended matter occurs?
(a) When soil is eroded from the air
(b) When soil is eroded from the land
(c) When soil is eroded from the water
(d) When soil is eroded from the rock

Answer

Answer: (b) When soil is eroded from the land
Explanation:
Sediment of suspended matter occurs when the soil is eroded from the land. High levels of soil particles which are suspended in water interfere with the penetration of sunlight. This reduces the photosynthetic activity of aquatic plants and algae.


Question 2:
A secondary pollutant is?
(a) O3
(b) CO
(c) CH4
(d) Pb

Answer

Answer: (a) O3
Explanation:
Primary pollutants include ammonia, sulfur dioxide, nitrogen dioxide and carbon monoxide. Secondary pollutants include ground-level ozone, acid rain and nutrient enrichment compounds.
So, the correct option is O3.


Question 3.
Which is most harmful for life on globe?
(a) Deforestation
(b) Soil Erosion
(c) Increasing Desert
(d) Nuclear Fallout

Answer

Answer: (d) Nuclear Fallout
Explanation:
Nuclear fallout, or simply fallout, is the residual radioactive material propelled into the upper atmosphere following a nuclear blast or a nuclear reaction conducted in an unshielded facility, so called because it “falls out” of the sky after the explosion and the shock wave have passed. While deforestation, soil erosion and increasing deserts can be controlled, nuclear fallout causes genetic mutation in humans and destruction that cannot be controlled or cured.


Question 4.
Excess nitrate in drinking water can cause
(a) methemoglobinemia
(b) kidney damage
(c) liver damage
(d) laxative effect

Answer

Answer: (a) methemoglobinemia
Explanation:
Excessive concentration of nitrate in drinking water is harmful and can cause methemoglobinemia (blue baby syndrome).


Question 5.
What is the main reason for thermal pollution?
(a) Increase in the temperature of the ecosystem
(b) Increase in the chemical contains in water
(c) Hot water released by power plants and industries
(d) Pollution causing by vehicles

Answer

Answer: (c) Hot water released by power plants and industries
Explanation:
The hot water released by power plants and industries that use large volumes of water to cool the plant. This result in a rise in temperature of the water bodies, due to this thermal pollution occurs.


Question 6.
Water sample is reported to be highly polluted if BOD (Biological Oxygen Demand) value of sample becomes
(a) more than 17 ppm.
(b) equal to 10 ppm.
(c) equal to 5 ppm.
(d) less than 5 ppm.

Answer

Answer: (a) more than 17 ppm.
Explanation:
Water sample is reported to be highly polluted if BOD value of sample is more than 17ppm.


Question 7.
The pollutants released by jet aeroplanes in the atmosphere as fluorocarbons are called
(a) Photochemical oxidants
(b) Photochemical reductants
(c) Aerosols
(d) Physical pollutants

Answer

Answer: (c) Aerosols
Explanation:
Aerosols are emitted into the air in the form of vapour or fine mist. Jet airplanes emit aerosols containing chlorofluorocarbons (CCl2F2) and (CCl3F). The aerosols deplete ozone layer in the atmosphere.


Question 8.
The birds lay eggs with shells that are much thinner than normal is an example of _________
(a) Bioaccumulation
(b) Mutation
(c) DNA sequence
(d) Mal nutrients

Answer

Answer: (a) Bioaccumulation
Explanation:
The pesticides that eat by an organism keep on moving in an aquatic food chain. At each link in the food chain, these chemicals which do not pass out of the body get accumulated and cause bioaccumulation. High levels of pesticides such as DDT can cause thin shells in bird eggs.


Question 9.
Which among the following is bio – degradable pollutant?
(a) Lead compounds
(b) Mercuric salts
(c) Pesticides
(d) Domestic wastes.

Answer

Answer: (d) Domestic wastes.
Explanation:
Those pollutants which can be broken down into simpler, harmless, substances in nature in due course of time (by the action of micro-organisms like certain bacteria) are called biodegradable pollutants. Domestic wastes (garbage), urine, faecal matter, sewage, agriculture residues, paper, wood, cloth, cattle dung, animal bones, leather, wool, vegetable stuff or plants are biodegradable pollutants.


Question 10.
The substance having the largest concentration in acid rain?
(a) H2CO3
(b) HNO3
(c) HCl
(d) H2SO4

Answer

Answer: (d) H2SO4
Explanation:
Acid rain contains H2SO4 > HNO3 > HCl


Question 11.
Which of the following is most abundant hydrocarbon pollutant?
(a) Butane
(b) Ethane
(c) Methane
(d) Propane

Answer

Answer: (c) Methane
Explanation:
Most abundant hydrocarbon pollutant is methane.


Question 12.
In Antarctica, ozone depletion is due to the formation of the following compounds
(a) Acroline
(b) Peroxy acetyl nitrate
(c) SO2 and SO3
(d) Chlorine nitrate

Answer

Answer: (d) Chlorine nitrate
Explanation:
In Antarctica ozone depletion is caused due to the formation a chlorine compound called chlorine nitrate.


Question 13.
Synthesis of ethanal commercially from which of the following reagent is the part of green chemistry?
(a) CH3CH2OH
(b) CH2 = CH2
(c) HC≡CH
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (b) CH2 = CH2


Question 14.
Lung diseases are four times more in urban areas than rural areas. This is due to presence of which of the following in atmosphere?
(a) CO2
(b) SO2
(c) N2
(d) O2.

Answer

Answer: (b) SO2
Explanation:
SO2 is formed as a major pollutant. So, lung diseases are four times more in urban areas than in rural areas.


Question 15.
In which of the following regions hydrogen and helium are found
(a) Stratosphere
(b) Mesosphere
(c) Exosphere
(d) Troposphere

Answer

Answer: (c) Exosphere
Explanation:
H2, He and ionic oxygen are present in exosphere.


Question 16.
Which of the following organisms found in human waste that cause water pollution?
(a) Coliform bacteria
(b) Coliform bacteria
(c) Protozoa
(d) Parasitic worms

Answer

Answer: (a) Coliform bacteria
Explanation:
Humans waste contains concentrated populations of coliform bacteria such as Escherichia coli and Streptococcus faecalis. These bacteria normally grow in the large intestine of the human body. Releasing of such wastes to water cause pollution in water bodies.


Question 17.
One of the following is the chief source of water and soil pollution
(a) Agro industry
(b) Mining
(c) Thermal power stations
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Thermal power stations
Explanation:
Thermal power plant, agro industry and mining all are responsible for soil and water pollution. (Due to extraction of chemicals which cause pollution)


Question 18.
Which among the following does not cause water pollution?
(a) Automoblie exhaust
(b) Plant nutrients
(c) Oxygen demanding wastes
(d) Disease causing agents .

Answer

Answer: (a) Automoblie exhaust
Explanation:
Automoblie exhaust causes air pollution not the water pollution.


Question 19.
The non-viable particulate among the following is
(a) Dust
(b) Bacteria
(c) Moulds
(d) Fungi

Answer

Answer: (a) Dust
Explanation:
Dust is the particulate matter that causes choking and air pollution. Its allergic to people suffering from lungs diseases.
Bacteria, moulds and fungi can be sometimes useful for us.
Hence, option (1) is correct.


Question 20.
Why thermal pollution causing the release of hot water by power plants is dangerous?
(a) They increase the solubility of oxygen
(b) They decrease the solubility of oxygen
(c) They dont dissolve oxygen
(d) They dissolve nitrogen

Answer

Answer: (b) They decrease the solubility of oxygen
Explanation:
Hot water released by power plants and industries warm water bodies those which are connected to power plants and industries. This warm water decreases the solubility of oxygen and it changes the breeding cycles of various aquatic organisms.


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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 5 Human Capital Formation in India with Answers

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 5 Human Capital Formation in India with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Human Capital Formation in India Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Human Capital Formation in India Class 12 Objective Questions.

Human Capital Formation in India Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct alternative.

Question 1.
Which of the following is not an example of physical capital?
(a) Machinery
(b) Raw material
(c) Building
(d) Education and knowledge in people

Answer

Answer: (d) Education and knowledge in people


Question 2.
________ five-year plan recognized the importance of human capital.
(a) Seventh
(b) Third
(c) Eight
(d) Sixth

Answer

Answer: (a) Seventh


Question 3.
Which one of the following is a reason for poor human capital formation in India?
(a) Brain drain
(b) Insufficient resources
(c) High growth of population
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 4.
How much educational cess has been imposed by the government on all Union taxes?
(a) 1 %
(b) 2%
(c) 4%
(d) 5%

Answer

Answer: (b) 2%


Question 5.
Which one of the following is a major source of human capital formation in the country?
(a) Expenditure on education
(b) Expenditure on infrastructure
(c) Expenditure on defense
(d) Expenditure on energy

Answer

Answer: (a) Expenditure on education


Question 6.
The objective of midday meal scheme is __________
(a) to boost universalisation of primary education
(b) to boost the nutritional status of children in schools
(c) to increase enrolment attendance and retention, and also improving the nutritional status of children in school
(d) to boost universalisation of upper primary level of education

Answer

Answer: (c) to increase enrolment attendance and retention, and also improving nutritional status of children in school


Fill in the blanks with the correct word.

Question 7.
Human capital is a ________ process.

Answer

Answer: social


Question 8.
_______ is the reason for the rural-urban migration in India.

Answer

Answer: Unemployment


Question 9.
_______ capital is completely mobile between countries.

Answer

Answer: Physical


Question 10.
________ means the increase in real national income of a country.

Answer

Answer: Economic growth


Question 11.
Human capital considers education and health as a means to increase ________

Answer

Answer: productivity


Question 12.
India has the potential to become a leading _______ economy.

Answer

Answer: knowledge-based


Question 13.
______ is the prime funding authority for university education.

Answer

Answer: UGC


Question 14.
Expenditure per student in ________ education is higher than that of elementary.

Answer

Answer: tertiary


State whether the following statements are True or False.

Question 15.
Preventive medicine includes medical practices that are designed to avoid or avert diseases.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 16.
Physical capital is inseparable from its owner.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 17.
Human capital treats humans as ends in themselves.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 18.
Indian Council for Medical Research is responsible for the promotion of health and family welfare programmes.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 19.
Elementary education takes a major share of total education expenditure in India.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 20.
The level of unemployment among educated youth is the highest.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 21.
The differences in literacy rates between males and females are widening.

Answer

Answer: False


Match the alternatives given in Column II with respective terms in Column I.

Question 22.

Column IColumn II
(i) Physical capital formation(a) Social process
(ii) Human capital formation(b) Spread of health literacy
(iii) Preventive medicine(c) Mortality rate
(iv) Curative medicine(d) Economic and technical process
(v) Social medicine(e) Primary completion rate
(vi) Indicators of educational achievement(f) Interventions during illness
(vii) Indicators of the health status of a country(g) Vaccination
Answer

Answer:

Column IColumn II
(i) Physical capital formation(d) Economic and technical process
(ii) Human capital formation(a) Social process
(iii) Preventive medicine(g) Vaccination
(iv) Curative medicine(f) Interventions during illness
(v) Social medicine(b) Spread of health literacy
(vi) Indicators of educational achievement(e) Primary completion rate
(vii) Indicators of the health status of a country(c) Mortality rate

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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 6 Rural Development with Answers

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 6 Rural Development with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Rural Development Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Rural Development Class 12 Objective Questions.

Rural Development Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct alternative.

Question 1.
The problems faced in rural banking are
(a) Insufficient rural credit
(b) Growing overdue
(c) Inadequate amount of sanction
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 2.
_______ is the apex body which coordinates the functioning of different financial institutions working for the expansion of rural credit.
(a) NABARD
(b) Self-help Groups
(c) Regional Rural Banks
(d) Commercial Banks

Answer

Answer: (a) NABARD


Question 3.
The scheme of microfinance is extended through _________
(a) Self-help Groups
(b) Land Development Banks
(c) NABARD
(d) Regional Rural Banks

Answer

Answer: (a) Self-help Groups


Question 4.
Name the state which is held as a success story in the efficient implementation of milk cooperative.
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Gujarat
(d) Andhra Pradesh

Answer

Answer: (c) Gujarat


Question 5.
Which one of the following is not a non-institutional source of credit?
(a) Moneylenders
(b) Relatives
(c) Traders and commission agents
(d) Land Development Bank

Answer

Answer: (d) Land Development Bank


Question 6.
Why is the minimum support price fixed by the government?
(a) For the government’s own benefit
(b) To safeguard the interest of farmers
(c) To save the interest of consumers
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) To safeguard the interest of farmers


Question 7.
Blue revolution is associated with
(a) Indigo cultivation
(b) Poultry farming
(c) Fisheries
(d) Availability of drinking water

Answer

Answer: (c) Fisheries


Question 8.
Which of the following falls under unorganized sector?
(a) Gramin Bank
(b) Cooperative banks
(c) Moneylenders and traders
(d) Land development Banks

Answer

Answer: (c) Moneylenders and traders


Question 9.
14 major commercial banks were nationalised in ________
(a) 1969
(b) 1980
(c) 1975
(d) 1991

Answer

Answer: (a) 1969


Question 10.
_______ comes under horticulture.
(a) Fish farming
(b) Poultry farming
(c) Flower cultivation
(d) Animal husbandry

Answer

Answer: (c) Flower cultivation


Question 11.
Which of the following accounts for the largest share in the livestock sector of India?
(a) Poultry
(b) Cattle
(c) Goats
(d) Ponies and mules

Answer

Answer: (a) Poultry


Question 12.
Agriculture marketing does not comprise of _______
(a) transportation of the product to the marketing place for sale
(b) grading of the products according to the quality
(c) storage of the produce for sale in future
(d) credit is taken to meet expenditure on agriculture

Answer

Answer: (d) credit taken to meet expenditure on agriculture


Question 13.
When was the National Bank for Agricultural and Rural Development set up?
(a) 1962
(b) 1972
(c) 1982
(d) 1992

Answer

Answer: (c) 1982


Question 14.
Which among the following is a process that involves the assembling, storage, processing, transportation, packaging, grading, and distribution of different agricultural commodities across the country?
(a) Agricultural Management
(b) Agricultural Banking
(c) Agricultural Diversification
(d) Agricultural Marketing

Answer

Answer: (d) Agricultural Marketing


Question 15.
What is the name of the vegetable and fruit market in Andhra Pradesh?
(a) Apni Mandi
(b) Hadaspar Mandi
(c) Rythu Bazar
(d) Uzhavar Sandies

Answer

Answer: (c) Rythu Bazar


Fill in the blanks with the correct word.

Question 16.
At the time of independence, moneylenders and traders ________ small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.

Answer

Answer: exploited


Question 17.
The _______ was a harbinger of major changes in the credit system.

Answer

Answer: Green Revolution


Question 18.
By March 2003, _______ SHGs had been provided credit by the banking system.

Answer

Answer: 7 lakhs


Question 19.
More than 10 percent of goods produced in farms are wasted due to lack of ________ facilities.

Answer

Answer: storage


Question 20.
The alternate marketing channels in Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan are known as ________

Answer

Answer: Apni Mandi


Question 21.
Much of the agricultural employment activities are concentrated in the _______ season.

Answer

Answer: Kharif


Question 22.
________ provided a system in which the farmers are assured a fair price and income from the supply of milk to urban markets.

Answer

Answer: Operation flood


Question 23.
_______ farming relies heavily on chemical fertilizers and toxic pesticides.

Answer

Answer: Conventional


State whether the following statements are True or False.

Question 24.
Rural development mostly depends upon the development of agriculture.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 25.
Institutional sources of credit include moneylenders, traders, employers, relatives, and friends.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 26.
The major achievement of rural banking over the years has been the effective recovery of loans.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 27.
Self-help groups have helped in the empowerment of women.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 28.
The current infrastructure facilities are sufficient to meet the growing demand in rural agricultural marketing.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 29.
At present, the livestock sector provides alternate livelihood options to over 70 million small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 30.
Horticulture is a branch of agriculture-related to the management and care of farm animals such as cattle, sheep, pigs, and goats.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 31.
The use of eco-friendly technologies such as organic farming is essential for sustainable development.

Answer

Answer: True


Match the alternatives given in Column II with respective terms in Column I.

Question 32.

Column IColumn II
(i) Institutional sources of credit(a) Rythu Bazar
(ii) Non-institutional sources(b) April 2004
(iii) A vegetable and fruit market in Andhra Pradesh(c) World’s biggest dairy development programme
(iv) A farmers’ market in Tamil Nadu(d) Regional Rural Bank
(v) Green Revolution(e) Uzhavar Santhai
(vi) Golden revolution(f) Helped attain self-sufficiency in food grains
(vii) Operation Flood(g) Moneylenders
(viii) NABARD was set up(h) 1982
(ix) Launch of Kisan Credit Card (KCC) Scheme(i) 1998-99
(x) Launch of Vishesh Krishi Upaj Yojana(j) Planned investment in horticulture became highly productive
Answer

Answer:

Column IColumn II
(i) Institutional sources of credit(d) Regional Rural Bank
(ii) Non-institutional sources(g) Moneylenders
(iii) A vegetable and fruit market in Andhra Pradesh(a) Rythu Bazar
(iv) A farmers’ market in Tamil Nadu(e) Uzhavar Santhai
(v) Green Revolution(f) Helped attain self-sufficiency in food grains
(vi) Golden revolution(j) Planned investment in horticulture became highly productive
(vii) Operation Flood(c) World’s biggest dairy development programme
(viii) NABARD was set up(h) 1982
(ix) Launch of Kisan Credit Card (KCC) Scheme(i) 1998-99
(x) Launch of Vishesh Krishi Upaj Yojana(b) April, 2004

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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science with Answers PDF Download Chapter Wise

Are you guys looking for Chapter Wise NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science with Answers PDF Free Download? You came to the right page. We as a team researched & gathered CBSE Class 12 Political Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. By practicing with these Class 12th Political Science Objective Questions you can learn all concepts easily and score maximum marks in the MCQ sections. Go ahead and find Political Science Quiz Questions with Answers for Class 12 in PDF format.

Class 12 Political Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers

With the help of our provided Class 12 Political Science MCQ, you can answer any type of questions in the final exams and competitive exams. You can learn different ways of questions for each chapter from this MCQ of Political Science Class 12 with Answers along with a detailed explanation to grasp the concept behind it.

So, click on the below chapter-wise MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science with Answers links and download them offline for further practice sections.

Contemporary World Politics MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science with Answers

  1. The Cold War Era Class 12 MCQ Questions
  2. The End of Bipolarity Class 12 MCQ Questions
  3. US Hegemony in World Politics Class 12 MCQ Questions
  4. Alternative Centres of Power Class 12 MCQ Questions
  5. Contemporary South Asia Class 12 MCQ Questions
  6. International Organisations Class 12 MCQ Questions
  7. Security in the Contemporary World Class 12 MCQ Questions
  8. Environment and Natural Resources Class 12 MCQ Questions
  9. Globalisation Class 12 MCQ Questions

Politics in India Since Independence MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science with Answers

  1. Challenges of Nation Building Class 12 MCQ Questions
  2. Era of One Party Dominance Class 12 MCQ Questions
  3. Politics of Planned Development Class 12 MCQ Questions
  4. India’s External Relations Class 12 MCQ Questions
  5. Challenges to and Restoration of Congress System Class 12 MCQ Questions
  6. The Crisis of Democratic Order Class 12 MCQ Questions
  7. Rise of Popular Movements Class 12 MCQ Questions
  8. Regional Aspirations Class 12 MCQ Questions
  9. Recent Developments in Indian Politics Class 12 MCQ Questions

We wish the data shed here on Chapter Wise NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science with Answers benefits you all to some extent. If you need any kind of assistance while practicing CBSE Class 12 Political Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, please drop your comment below and we’ll get back to you asap with a possible solution.

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