MCQ Questions

Are you guys looking for Chapter Wise NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 History with Answers PDF Free Download? You came to the right page. We as a team researched & gathered CBSE Class 12 History MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. By practicing with these Class 12th History Objective Questions you can learn all concepts easily and score maximum marks in the MCQ sections. Go ahead and find History Quiz Questions with Answers for Class 12 in PDF format.

Class 12 History MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers

With the help of our provided Class 12 History MCQ, you can answer any type of questions in the final exams and competitive exams. You can learn different ways of questions for each chapter from this MCQ of History Class 12 with Answers along with a detailed explanation to grasp the concept behind it.

So, click on the below chapter-wise MCQ Questions for Class 12 History with Answers links and download them offline for further practice sections.

Themes in Indian History MCQ Questions for Class 12 History with Answers

1. Bricks, Beads and Bones Class 12 MCQ Questions
2. Kings, Farmers and Towns Class 12 MCQ Questions
3. Kinship, Caste and Class Class 12 MCQ Questions
4. Thinkers, Beliefs and Buildings Class 12 MCQ Questions
5. Through the Eyes of Travellers Class 12 MCQ Questions
6. Bhakti-Sufi Traditions Class 12 MCQ Questions
7. An Imperial Capital Vijayanagara Class 12 MCQ Questions
8. Peasants, Zamindars and the State Class 12 MCQ Questions
9. Kings and Chronicles Class 12 MCQ Questions
10. Colonialism and the Countryside Class 12 MCQ Questions
11. Rebels and the Raj Class 12 MCQ Questions
12. Colonial Cities Class 12 MCQ Questions
13. Mahatma Gandhi and the Nationalist Movement Class 12 MCQ Questions
14. Understanding Partition Class 12 MCQ Questions
15. Framing the Constitution Class 12 MCQ Questions

We wish the data shed here on Chapter Wise NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 History with Answers benefits you all to some extent. If you need any kind of assistance while practicing CBSE Class 12 History MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, please drop your comment below and we’ll get back to you asap with a possible solution.

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 1 The Living World with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these The Living World Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

The Living World Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the The Living World Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Biology Chapter 1 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on The Living World Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 1 Biology Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

I. Select the correct answer of the following questions.

Question 1.
Scientific name are drawn form
(a) Latin
(b) English
(c) Sanskrit
(d) Arabic

Question 2.
Binomial nomenclature was given by
(a) Linnaeus
(b) Pliny
(c) Bentham and Hookes
(d) Aristotle

Question 3.
Systematics is the study of
(a) Diversity amongst groups
(b) Grouping of organisms
(c) Identification and grouping of organisms
(d) Nomenclature and classification or organisms

Question 4.
Taxonomy refers to
(a) Classification
(b) Nomenclature
(c) Identification
(d) All of these

Question 5.
Which of the following has more characters In chtnmon?
(a) Species
(b) Genus
(c) Class
(d) Division

Question 6.
Any type of taxonomic group of the organisms is called
(a) Taion
(b) Category
(c) Classification
(d) Rank of hierarchy

Question 7.
A rank or level in the hierarchial classification of organisms is a
(a) Taxon
(b) Category
(c) Key
(d) All of these

Question 8.
Which of the following is not a correct hierarchial order?
(a) Phylum, order, family
(b) Class, family, genus
(c) Class, order, family
(d) Family, class, order

Question 9.
Father of Taxonomy is
(a) Linnaeus
(b) Aristotle
(c) John Ray
(d) None of the above

Question 10.
‘Systema Nature’ is a book written by
(a) Linnaeus
(b) Charak
(c) John Roy
(d) De Candole

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
All living organisms ………. Increase in ………… and increase in ………… of individuals are twin characteristics of growth.

Question 2.
………., this growth by cell division occurs continuously throughout their life.

Question 3.
……….. , this growth is seen only up to a certain age.

Question 4.
The fungi, the filamentous algae, the protonema of mosses, all easily multiply by …………….

Question 5.
All living organisms are made of ………….

Question 6.
Celluar organisation of the body is the defining feature of life …………

Question 7.
We sense our environment through our ………….

Question 8.
Plants respond to external factors like ………, ………., ………

Question 9.
Biology is the story of life on …………

Question 10.
Biology is the story of ………… of living organisms on earth.

III. Mark the Statements True (T) or False (F):

Question 1.
There is a need to standardise the naming of living organisms such that a particular organism is known by the same name all over world. This process is called nomenclature.

Question 2.
Biologists follow universally accepted principles to provide scientific name to known organisms. Each name has two components-the Generic name and the specific epithet

Question 3.
System of providing a name with two components is called Binomical nomenclature.

Question 4.
Biological names are generally in Latin and written in italics.

Question 5.
Both the words in a biological name, when handwritten, are separately underlined, or printed in italics to indicate their Latin origin.

Question 6.
The first word denoting the genus starts with a capital letter while the specific epithet starts with a small letter.

Question 7.
All living organisms can be classified into different taxa. This process of classification is taxonomy.

Question 8.
Taxonomic categories and hierarchy can be illustrated by an example.

Question 9.
Taxonomical studies of all known organisms have led to the development of common categories such as kindom, phylum or division (for plants), class order, family, genus and species.

Question 10.
Herbarium is a store house of collected plant specimens that are dried, pressed and preserved on sheets.

IV. Match the column I with column II.

Hope the information shared regarding the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 1 The Living World with Answers Pdf free download is true and genuine as far as our knowledge is concerned. If you feel any information regarding CBSE Class 11 Biology The Living World MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers is missing do reach us and we will look into it and add it accordingly.

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 7 Employment: Growth, Informalisation and Other Issues with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Employment: Growth, Informalisation and Other Issues Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Employment: Growth, Informalisation and Other Issues Class 12 Objective Questions.

Employment: Growth, Informalisation and Other Issues Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct alternative.

Question 1.
Most of the disguised unemployed persons in India are found in
(a) Agriculture
(b) Industry
(c) Trade
(d) Transport

Question 2.
The process of moving from self-employment and regular salaried employment to casual work is known as ________
(a) Informalisation of workforce
(b) Casualisation of the workforce
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

Question 3.
An arrangement in which a worker uses his own resources to make a living is known _________
(a) Wage employment
(b) regular employment
(c) casual employment
(d) self-employment

Question 4.
Out of these which of the following is a worker?
(a) Beggar
(b) Gambler
(c) Cobbler
(d) Smuggler

Question 5.
Unemployed people is calculated as
(a) Labour Force – Workforce
(b) Labour Force + Workforce
(c) Workforce – Labour Force
(d) None of these

Question 6.
Which of the following statements is not true for a worker?
(a) A worker contributes to the GDP.
(b) Workers may temporarily abstain from work due to illness.
(c) Self-employed are not workers.
(b) Those who help the main workers are also workers.

Question 7.
What percent of urban workers are casual labourers?
(a) 54 percent
(b) 47 percent
(c) 38 percent
(d) 15 percent

Question 8.
Which of the following workers is a regular salaried employee?
(a) Owner of a saloon
(b) Rickshaw puller
(c) Cashier in State Bank of India
(d) Vegetable vendor

Question 9.
Which of the following is a primary sector activity?
(a) Mining and Quarrying
(b) Construction
(c) Trade
(d) Transport and Storage

Question 10.
What proportion of the urban workforce is engaged in the secondary sector?
(a) Half
(b) One-third
(c) One-fourth
(d) One-fifth

Question 11.
What was the average rate of growth of employment during 1950-2010?
(a) 1 percent
(b) 2 percent
(c) 5 percent
(d) 10 percent

Question 12.
Which of the following is not a feature of organized sector?
(a) Job Security
(b) Social security benefits
(c) Irregular payment
(d) Fixed working hours

Question 13.
Which of the following is not an employment generation programme?
(a) Rural Employment Generation Programme (REGP)
(b) Pradhan Mantri Roz$ar Yojana (PMRY)
(c) National Food for Work Programme (NFWP)
(d) Valmiki Ambedkar Awas Yojana

Fill in the blanks with the correct word.

Question 14.
Economic activities contribute to the _______ of the country.

Question 15.
Worker-population ratio analyses the situation of _______ in the country.

Question 16.
______ is an indicator which is used for analysing the employment situation of a country.

Question 17.
Workers who own and operate an enterprise to earn their livelihood are known as _______

Question 18.
Enterprises in _______ areas require workers on a regular basis.

Question 19.
The ________ sector gives employment to about one-third of urban workforce.

Question 20.
In ________ unemployment, people are not able to find jobs during some months of the year.

Question 21.
Under _______ type of unemployment, the marginal product gained by employing one additional unit of labour is zero.

State whether the following statements are True or False.

Question 22.
Self-employed and casual wage labourers are found more in rural areas.

Question 23.
Casual wage work is the major source for both men and women.

Question 24.
In the course of the economic development of a country, workers migrate from rural to urban areas.

Question 25.
There has hardly been any change in the distribution of the workforce across various industries since the 1970s.

Question 26.
The Indian economy has been able to produce more goods and services due to growth in employment opportunities.

Question 27.
Employment is not secure in the organized sector.

Question 28.
Newly emerging jobs are found mostly in the service sector.

Question 29.
All persons in a country who are working for seeking work are included in the workforce.

Question 30.
A low employment elasticity indicates that the economy is able to generate very few employment opportunities as against an increase in the rate of economic growth.

Match the alternatives given in Column II with respective terms in Column I.

Question 31.

Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 7 Employment: Growth, Informalisation and Other Issues with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 12 Economics Employment: Growth, Informalisation and Other Issues MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 2 Biological Classification with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Biological Classification Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Biological Classification Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Biological Classification Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Biology Chapter 2 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Biological Classification Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 2 Biology Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

I. Select the correct answer of the following questions:

Question 1.
Five kingdom classification was proposed by
(a) Linnaeus
(b) Whittaker
(c) Lamark
(d) Aristotle

Question 2.
The Term ‘Superparasite’ is; meant for
(a) Mycoplasma
(b) Animal parasites
(c) Viruses
(d) A parasite living on another parasite

Question 3.
The biologist, who created the kingdom protista for the unicel-lular animals and plants, is
(a) Haeckel
(b) Pasteur
(c) Koch
(d) Lister

Question 4.
Organism having characters of both animals and plants is
(a) Bacterium
(b) Paramoecium
(c) Mycoplasma
(d) Euglena

Question 5.
On the basis of nucleus, viruses should be included in
(a) Prokaryotes
(b) Eukaryotes
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Question 6.
A unicellular organism often considered a connecting link between plants and animals, is
(a) Paramoecium
(b) Entamoeba
(c) Monocystics
(d) Euglena

Question 7.
In Whittaker’s classification, the Unicellular organisms having various cell organelles constitute the kingdom
(a) Monera
(b) Protista
(c) Fungi
(d) Plantae

Question 8.
In five kingdom classification, the kindom that includes the blue green algae, nitrogen fixing bacteria and methanogenic archaebacteria is
(a) Plantae
(b) Fungi
(c) Protista
(d) Monero

Question 9.
Name the archaebacteria present in the guts of ruminant animals
(a) Methanogens
(b) Anabaena
(c) Nostoc
(d) Paramoecium

Question 10.
An organism without cell-wall and can survive without oxygen
(a) Gonyanlax
(b) Rhizopus
(c) Mycoplasma
(d) Sacharomyces

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
In Linnaeus’ time a …………. system of classification with ………….. and ………… kingdom was developed that included all plants and animals respectively.

Question 2.
R.H. Whittaker (1969) proposed a …………..

Question 3.
The kingdoms defined by him were named ………., ……….., ………. , ………… and …………..

Question 4.
………….. and …………. were placed together under algae.

Question 5.
………….. differ from other bacteria in having a different cell wall strcuture and this feature is responsible for their survival in extreme conditions.

Question 6.
………….. have chlorophyll a similar to green plants and are photosynthetic autotrophs.

Question 7.
…………… are the most abundant in nature.

Question 8.
All single celled eukaryotes are placed under …………, but the boundaries of this kingdom are not well defined.

Question 9.
………… are the chief ‘producers’ in the oceans.

Question 10.
Slime moulds are …………. protists.

III. Mark the Statements True (T) or False (F):

Question 1.
All protozoans are heterotrophs and live as predators or parasites.

Question 2.
Most Fungi are heterotrophic and absorb soluble organic matter from dead substrates and hence are called saprophytes.

Question 3.
Reproduction in fungi can take place by vegetative means frag-mentation, fission and budding.

Question 4.
Fusion of protoplasms between two motile or non-motile gemetes is called karyogamy.

Question 5.
Fusion of two nuclei is called plasmogamy

Question 6.
Meiosis in zygote resulting in haploid spores.

Question 7.
The my celium is aseptate and coenocytic.

Question 8.
Some examples are Aspergillus, Claviceps and Neurospora, Neu- rospora is used extensively in biochemical and genetic work.

Question 9.
Some examples are Alternaria, Colletotrichum and Trichoderma.

Question 10.
Life cycle of plants has two distinct phases-the diploid sporo- phytic and haploid gametophytic

IV. Match the column I with column II.

Hope the information shared regarding the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 2 Biological Classification with Answers Pdf free download is true and genuine as far as our knowledge is concerned. If you feel any information regarding CBSE Class 11 Biology Biological Classification MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers is missing do reach us and we will look into it and add it accordingly.

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 8 Infrastructure with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Infrastructure Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Infrastructure Class 12 Objective Questions.

Infrastructure Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct alternative.

Question 1.
Which of the following has the largest source of power in India?
(a) Wind Power
(b) Solar Power
(c) Hydroelectricity
(d) Thermal Power

Question 2.
Which of the following is a non-conventional source of energy?
(a) Hydroelectricity
(b) Thermal Power
(c) Solar Energy
(d) Atomic power

Question 3.
Which of the following is a commercial source of energy?
(a) Coal
(b) Agricultural waste
(c) Animal dung
(d) Firewood

Question 4.
The power generated from water is called
(a) Thermal Power
(b) Hydroelectric Power
(c) Atomic Power
(d) Tidal Power

Question 5.
From which of the following sources of generation we get the largest amount of power?
(a) Thermal Power
(b) Hydroelectric Power
(c) Atomic Power
(d) Tidal Power

Question 6.
Which of the following statements is not correct with regards to infrastructure?
(a) Infrastructure contributes to economic development.
(b) Infrastructure provides support services.
(c) All infrastructural facilities have a direct impact on the production of goods and services.
(d) Inadequate infrastructure can have multiple adverse effects on health.

Question 7.
Which of the following facilities is included in social infrastructure?
(a) Roads and highways
(b) Housing
(c) Internet
(d) Electricity

Question 8.
What is morbidity?
(a) Proneness to fall ill
(b) High infant mortality rate
(c) High maternal mortality rate
(d) Low life expectancy

Question 9.
What percent of rural households use bio-fuels for cooking?
(a) 50 percent
(b) 75 percent
(c) 80 percent
(d) 90 percent

Question 10.
Which of the following countries invest almost 50 percent of its GDP in infrastructure?
(a) India
(b) China
(c) Pakistan
(d) Sri Lanka

Question 11.
Low-income countries do not invest in which of the given infrastructural services?
(a) Transport
(b) Irrigation
(c) Power
(d) Telecommunication

Question 12.
Which of the following statements is true for commercial sources of energy?
(a) Commercial sources are bought and sold.
(b) Commercial sources are renewable.
(c) Commercial sources are found in forests.
(d) Dried dung is an example of a commercial source of energy.

Question 13.
Which of the following sector was the largest consumer of commercial energy in 1953-54?
(a) Households
(b) Transport
(c) Industries
(d) Agriculture

Question 14.
Which of the following is not a function of primary health care?
(a) Spreading education concerning prevailing health problems
(b) Promoting food supply and proper nutrition
(c) Conducting research
(d) Providing essential drugs

Fill in the blanks with the correct word.

Question 15.
Infrastructure associated with energy, transportation, and communication is included in the ______ infrastructure.

Question 16.
Inadequate infrastructure can have multiple adverse effects on ________

Question 17.
______ accounts for the largest share in the commercial energy consumption in India.

Question 18.
Hydel and wind power do not rely on _________

Question 19.
________ sources of energy are found in nature/forests.

Question 20.
The hospitals at the village level are known as _______

Question 21.
In the healthcare sector, _______ has huge potential because they are effective, safe, and inexpensive.

Question 22.
Accessibility and ________ need to be integrated into our basic health infrastructure in order to provide basic healthcare to all.

State whether the following statements are True or False.

Question 23.
The use of renewable energy sources can ensure an additional supply of electricity.

Question 24.
The growth rate of demand for power is always lower than the GDP growth rate.

Question 25.
Industries are the largest consumer of commercial energy.

Question 26.
India’s health infrastructure and health care is made up of a three-tier system.

Question 27.
Infrastructural development in India has not been uniform over the last six decades.

Question 28.
Hospitals under the secondary sector have advanced level equipment and medicines.

Match the alternatives given in Column II with respective terms in Column I.

Question 29.

Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 8 Infrastructure with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 12 Economics Infrastructure MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 9 Environment and Sustainable Development with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Environment and Sustainable Development Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Environment and Sustainable Development Class 12 Objective Questions.

Environment and Sustainable Development Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct alternative.

Question 1.
World Environment Day is observed on ________
(a) 5 June
(b) 15 August
(c) 1 January
(d) 5 September

Question 2.
The main reason for soil erosion is _________
(a) ozone depletion
(b) deforestation
(c) air pollution
(d) global warming

Question 3.
The government set up the Central Pollution Control Board to control _________
(a) noise pollution
(b) air pollution
(c) deforestation
(d) land pollution

Question 4.
Sustainable development can be achieved by _________
(a) controlling pollution
(b) controlling the growth of population
(c) restricting use of renewable resources
(d) all of these

Question 5.
Which of the following is an impact of global warming?
(a) Deforestation
(b) Rise in sea level
(c) Waste generation
(d) Rapid increase in population

Question 6.
In which of the following layers of the atmosphere is ozone shield found?
(a) Troposphere
(b) Exosphere
(c) Stratosphere
(d) Mesosphere

Question 7.
Which of the following is a consequence of ozone layer depletion?
(a) Skin cancer in humans
(b) Lower production of phytoplankton
(c) Hampers growth of terrestrial plants
(d) All of these

Question 8.
When was the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) set up?
(a) 1964
(b) 1974
(c) 1984
(d) 1994

Question 9.
How many industrial categories have been identified as significantly polluting by the CPCB?
(a) 17
(b) 25
(c) 27
(d) 31

Fill in the blanks with the correct word.

Question 10.
________ resources are those which get exhausted with extraction and use.

Question 11.
Absorptive capacity of the environment is ability to absorb __________

Question 12.
Solar energy can be converted into electricity with the help of _______ cell.

Question 13.
In India, the ________ of the Deccan Plateau is particularly suitable for the cultivation of cotton.

Question 14.
The origins of chlorine and bromine compounds in the stratosphere are _________

Question 15.
_______ emissions are the major contributors to air pollution in urban areas of India.

Question 16.
Thermal power plants emit large quantities of _________ which is a greenhouse gas.

Question 17.
________ plants use the energy of such streams to move small turbines.

State whether the following statements are True or False.

Question 18.
Fossil fuels can be used without the possibility of these becoming depleted or exhausted.

Question 19.
India alone accounts for nearly 20 percent of the world’s total iron-ore reserves.

Question 20.
Improper planning and management of irrigation systems are one of the factors responsible for land degradation.

Question 21.
Sustainable development is synonymous with the conservation of the environment.

Question 22.
Earthworms can convert organic matter into compost faster than the normal composting process.

Question 23.
Prior to the advent of the Green Revolution, food products were contaminated and soil, water- bodies, and even groundwater were polluted.

Match the alternatives given in Column II with respective terms in Column I.

Question 24.

Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 9 Environment and Sustainable Development with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 12 Economics Environment and Sustainable Development MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.