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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 10 Comparative Development Experiences of India and its Neighbours with Answers

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Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 10 Comparative Development Experiences of India and its Neighbours with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Comparative Development Experiences of India and its Neighbours Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Comparative Development Experiences of India and its Neighbours Class 12 Objective Questions.

Comparative Development Experiences of India and its Neighbours Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct alternative.

Question 1.
The Great Leap Forward campaign in China focused on _________
(a) widespread industrialization
(b) new agricultural strategy
(c) privatization
(d) economic reforms

Answer

Answer: (a) widespread industrialization

Question 2.
The growth rate of the population is highest in which of the following country?
(a) India
(b) China
(c) Pakistan
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Pakistan

Question 3.
Introduction of Economic Reform in Pakistan took place in _________
(a) 1978
(b) 1980
(c) 1988
(d) 1991

Answer

Answer: (c) 1988

Question 4.
With which of the following concepts is the commune system associated?
(a) Industrialisation
(b) Human rights
(c) SEZs
(d) Equal distribution of land

Answer

Answer: (d) Equal distribution of land

Question 5.
Which of the following is not an indicator of human development?
(a) Density of Population
(b) GDP per capita
(c) Literacy rate
(d) Life expectancy at birth

Answer

Answer: (a) Density of Population

Question 6.
Which of the following is a feature pertaining to the Indian economy?
(a) One child norm
(b) Growth due to manufacturing sector
(c) High degree of urbanization
(d) Growth due to service sector

Answer

Answer: (d) Growth due to service sector

Question 7.
When did China announce its first five-year plan?
(a) 1951
(b) 1956
(c) 1953
(d) 1961

Answer

Answer: (c) 1953

Question 8.
Which of the following countries ranks first in the development experience?
(a) India
(b) China
(c) Pakistan
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) China

Question 9.
What was the fertility rate in Pakistan as in 2018?
(a) 1.6
(b) 2.6
(c) 3.6
(d) 3.6

Answer

Answer: (c) 3.6

Question 10.
Which of the following countries has introduced the one-child norm?
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Pakistan
(d) Bangladesh

Answer

Answer: (a) China

Question 11.
Which of the following countries was faster in shifting its workforce from agriculture to the service sector?
(a) India
(b) Pakistan
(c) China
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (b) Pakistan

Question 12.
Which of the following is not an indicator of human development?
(a) Density of population
(b) GDP per capita
(c) Life expectancy at birth
(d) Literacy rate

Answer

Answer: (a) Density of population

Question 13.
With which of the following concepts is the commune system associated?
(a) Industrialisation
(b) Human rights
(c) Equal distribution of land
(d) Special Economic Zones

Answer

Answer: (c) Equal distribution of land

Question 14.
How many people died in the devastating earthquake that took place in Pakistan in 2005?
(a) 45,000
(b) 55,000
(c) 65,000
(d) 75,000

Answer

Answer: (d) 75,000

Fill in the blanks with the correct word.

Question 15.
China has recently started moving towards a _______ system.

Answer

Answer: democratic

Question 16.
People’s Republic of China was established in __________

Answer

Answer: 1949

Question 17.
Pakistan’s five-year plan is now called the ________ Development Plan.

Answer

Answer: Medium-term

Question 18.
________ introduced the Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution in 1695 in China.

Answer

Answer: Mao

Question 19.
In the 1970s, nationalisation of capital goods industries took place in _________

Answer

Answer: Pakistan

Question 20.
In India and Pakistan, the service sector accounts for more than ________ percent of GDP.

Answer

Answer: 50

Question 21.
Lack of _______ freedom and its implications for human rights are major concerns in China.

Answer

Answer: political

State whether the following statements are True or False.

Question 22.
Regional and global economic groupings are formed to protest against the free flow of goods and services between nations.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 23.
India and Pakistan adopted similar strategies for social and economic development.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 24.
Pakistan introduced a variety of regulated policy framework for import substitution industrialization.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 25.
China received financial support from western nations.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 26.
In all the three economies, the industry and service sectors have less proportion of workforce but contribute more in terms of output.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 27.
China’s growth is mainly contributed by the industrial sector and India’s growth by the service sector.

Answer

Answer: True

Match the alternatives given in Column II with respective terms in Column I.

Question 28.

Column IColumn II
(i) New Economic Policy in India(a) High degree of urbanization
(ii) The Great Leap Forward (GLF) campaign in China(b) 1988
(iii) Reforms initiated in Pakistan(c) 152
(iv) Contributes a major share in India’s GDP(d) Industrial Sector
(v) Contributes a major share in China’s GDP(e) Very high fertility rate
(vi) Feature of the Indian economy(f) 1991
(vii) Feature of China’s economy(g) Service Sector
(viii) Feature of Pakistan’s economy(h) High density of population
(ix) India’s HDI Rank(i) 129
(x) Pakistan’s HDI Rank(j) 1958
Answer

Answer:

Column IColumn II
(i) New Economic Policy in India(f) 1991
(ii) The Great Leap Forward (GLF) campaign in China(j) 1958
(iii) Reforms initiated in Pakistan(b) 1988
(iv) Contributes a major share in India’s GDP(g) Service Sector
(v) Contributes a major share in China’s GDP(d) Industrial Sector
(vi) Feature of the Indian economy(h) High density of population
(vii) Feature of China’s economy(a) High degree of urbanization
(viii) Feature of Pakistan’s economy(e) Very high fertility rate
(ix) India’s HDI Rank(i) 129
(x) Pakistan’s HDI Rank(c) 152

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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 3 Plant Kingdom with Answers

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Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 3 Plant Kingdom with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Plant Kingdom Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Plant Kingdom Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Plant Kingdom Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Biology Chapter 3 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Plant Kingdom Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 3 Biology Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

I. Select the correct answer of the following questions:

Question 1.
Agar is obtained from
(a) Laminaria
(b) Porphyra
(c) Sargassum
(d) Gelidium

Answer

Answer: (d) Gelidium

Question 2.
Red algae resemble blue green algae in the presence of
(a) Similar cell wall constitutents
(b) Phycobilins
(c) Similar reserve food
(d) Similar mode of reproduction

Answer

Answer: (b) Phycobilins

Question 3.
The colour of brown algae is due to
(a) Phycoerythrin
(b) Phycocyonin
(c) Fucoxanthin
(d) Carotenes

Answer

Answer: (c) Fucoxanthin.

Question 4.
All algae possess
(a) Chlorophyll (b) and carotenes
(b) Chlorophyll (a) and corotenes
(c) Chlorophyll (a) and chlorophyll (c)
(d) Chlorophyll (a) and chlorophyll (b)

Answer

Answer: (b) Chlorophyll (a) and carotenes.

Question 5.
Flagellate cells are absent in
(a) Brown algae
(b) Red algae
(c) Green algae
(d) Chlamydomonas.

Answer

Answer: (b) Red algae.

Question 6.
Sex organs are unicellular and non-jacketed in
(a) Algae
(b) Bryophyta
(c) Gymnosperms
(d) Pteridophyta.

Answer

Answer: (a) Algae.

Question 7.
In green algae meiosis occurs in
(a) Gametangia
(b) Sporangia
(jc) Zoospore
(d) Zygospore.

Answer

Answer: (d) Zygospore.

Question 8.
Protonema stage is found in
(a) Green algae
(b) Liveworts
(c) Ferns
(d) Mosses.

Answer

Answer: (d) Mosses.

Question 9.
Pyrenoids are present in
(a) Brown algae
(b) Red algae
(c) Green algae
(d) Blue green algae.

Answer

Answer: (c) Green algae.

Question 10.
Sporophyte of riccia is made of
(a) Capsule only
(b) Foot, seta and capsule
(c) Seta and capsule
(d) Foot and capsule.

Answer

Answer: (a) Capsule only.

Question 11.
A fern differs from a bryophyte in having.
(a) Parasitic sporophyte
(b) Independent gametaphyte
(c) Independent sporophyte
(d) Parasitic gametophyte.

Answer

Answer: (c) Independent spororphyte.

Question 12.
Seedless vascular plants are
(a) Mosses
(b) Liver worts
(c) Ferns
(d) Cycads.

Answer

Answer: (c) Ferms.

Question 13.
Gymnosperms are characterised by
(a) Naked ovules
(b) Large leaves
(c) Scale leaves
(d) Ciliated sperms.

Answer

Answer: (a) Naked ovules.

Question 14.
Which of these algae is very rich in protein.
(a) Ulothrix
(b) Oscillatoria
(c) Chlorella
(d) Spirogyra.

Answer

Answer: (c) Chlorella.

Question 15.
Multicelluilar branched rhizoids and leafy gametophytes are found in
(a) All bryophytes
(b) Some bryophytes
(c) Some pteridophytes
(d) All pteridophytes

Answer

Answer: (b) Some bryophytes.

Question 16.
Life cyle of Pinus is
(a) Diplontic
(b) Haplontic
(c) Diplobiontic
(d) Diplohaplontic.

Answer

Answer: (d) Diplohaplontic.

Question 17.
Bryophytes can be distinguished from algae because they
(a) are thalioid forms
(b) contain chloroplast in their cells
(c) do not have conducting tissue
(d) possess archegonia with outer layer of sterile cells.

Answer

Answer: (d) Possess archegonia with outer layer of sterile cells.

Question 18.
Bryophytes are dependent on water because
(a) the sperms can easily reach upto egg in the archegonium.
(b) water is essential for their vegetative propagation.
(c) water is essential for fertilisation for their homosporous nature.
(d) archegonium has to remain filled with water for fertilisation.

Answer

Answer: (a) The sperms can easily reach upto egg in archegonium.

Question 19.
A marine angiosperm is
(a) Hydrilla
(b) Zostera
(c) Vallisnaria
(d) Ceratopyllus.

Answer

Answer: (b) Zostera.

Question 20.
The largest alga is
(a) Sargassum
(b) Laminaria
(c) Macrocystis
(d) Fucus

Answer

Answer: (c) Macrocystis

II. Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
In this chapter we will describe ………….. under algae, …………. Pteridophytes, ………….. and angiosperms.

Answer

Answer: Plantae, Bryo- phytes, Gymnosperms

Question 2.
Such systems were …………. because they separated closely related species since they were based on few characteristics.

Answer

Answer: artificial

Question 3.
At prasent …………….. based on evoiutionory relationships between the various organisms are acceptable.

Answer

Answer: Phylogenetic classification systems

Question 4.
Fusion between one large, …………… (static) female gemete and a smaller, motile male gamete is termed ………..

Answer

Answer: non-motile, oogamous

Question 5.
Certain marine brown and red algae produce large amounts of hydrocolloids (water holding substances) e.g. ……….. (of brown algae) and carrageen (of red algae) are used commercially.

Answer

Answer: algin

Question 6.
The algae are divided into three main classes: ……….., ………….. and ………….

Answer

Answer: Chlorophyceae, Phaeophyceae, Rhodophyceae

Question 7.
The plant body of ………….. is more differentiated than that of …………..

Answer

Answer: Bryophytes, algae

Question 8.
The predominant stage of the life cycle of a moss is the gametophyte which consists of …………

Answer

Answer: two stages.

Question 9.
Each of the cells of an ………….. are haploid.

Answer

Answer: embryo-scarsac

Question 10.
The ……………. and …………… degenerate after fertilisation.

Answer

Answer: Synergids, antipodals

Question 11.
The dominant, photosynthetic phase in such plants is the …………… the gametophyte. This kind of life-cycle is termed as ………..

Answer

Answer: free-living, haplontic

Question 12.
The gameto phytic phase is represented by the single to few celled haploid gametophyte. This kind of life-cycle is termed as …………..

Answer

Answer: Diplontic

Question 13.
The diploid sporophyte is represented by a dominant, independent, ……….., vascular plant body.

Answer

Answer: photosynthetic

III. Mark the statements True (T) or False (F)

Question 1.
Numerical Taxonomy which is now easily carried out using computer is based on ail the observable charateristics.

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 2.
The algae reproduce by only vegetative methods.

Answer

Answer: False.

Question 3.
At least a half of the total carbon-dioxide fixation on earth is carried out by algae through photosyntheses.

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 4.
Algae are of paramount importance as primary producers of energy-rich compounds which form the basis of the food cycles of all aquatic animals.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 5.
The algae are divided into two main classes: Rhodophyceae and chlorophyceae.

Answer

Answer: False.

Question 6.
Majority of the red algae are found on land with greater concentrations found in the warmer areas.

Answer

Answer: False.

Question 7.
The bryophytes are divided into: liverworts and mosses.

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 8.
The liverworts grow usually in moist shady habitats such as banks of streams, marshy ground, damp soil, bark of trees and deep in the woods.

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 9.
The first stage is the leafy stage which develops from the secondary protonema as a lateral bud.

Answer

Answer: False.

Question 10.
Water is required for transfer of antherozoids— the male gametes released from the antheridia, to the mouth of archegonium.

Answer

Answer: True.

Question 11.
Unlike bryophytes and pteridophytes, in gymnosperms the male and the female gametophytes have independent free-living existence.

Answer

Answer: False.

Question 12.
Angiosperms provide us with food, fodder, fuel, medicines and several other commercially important products. They are divided into two classes: the dicotyledons and the monocotyledons.

Answer

Answer: True.

IV. Match the items of column I with the items of column II

Column IColumn II
a. Most algal genera are haplontic1. Primary endosperm nucleus
b. In plants both haploid and diploid cell.2. Some of them such as Ectocaspus polysiphonia
c. PEN3. Can divide by mitosis
d. The involvement of two fusions, this event is termed as double fertilisation4. Is also retained within mega-sporangium.
e. Each embryosac has a 3 celled egg appartus5. or female strobili
f. The multicellular female gametophyte6. consists of two stages: psotonema stage, leafy stage
g. A multicellular female gametophyte that7. multicelluar. The male sex organ is called ontheridium.
h. Megasporangia are called macrosporanagiate8. of the plant kingdom, because these plants can live on soil.
i. The gametophyte bears male and female sex organs called9. an event unique to angiospe rms.
j. Formation of specialised structures10. amylopetin and glycogen in one egg cell and two syner
k. The bryophytes are divided into11. gids 3 antipodal cells and two polar nuclei structure.
l. The sex organs in bryophytes are12. bears two or.more archegonia or female sex organs.
m. the predominant stage of the life13. called gemmae.
n. Bryophytes are also called amphibians14. antheridia and archegonia
o. The food is stored as floridean starch which is very similar to.15. liverworts and mosses.
Answer

Answer:

Column IColumn II
a. Most algal genera are haplontic1. Primary endosperm nucleus
b. In plants both haploid and diploid cell.2. Some of them such as Ectocaspus polysiphonia
c. PEN3. Can divide by mitosis
d. The involvement of two fusions, this event is termed as double fertilisation4. Is also retained within mega-sporangium.
e. Each embryosac has a 3 celled egg appartus5. or female strobili
f. The multicellular female gametophyte6. consists of two stages: psotonema stage, leafy stage
g. A multicellular female gametophyte that7. multicelluar. The male sex organ is called ontheridium.
h. Megasporangia are called macrosporanagiate8. of the plant kingdom, because these plants can live on soil.
i. The gametophyte bears male and female sex organs called9. an event unique to angiospe rms.
j. Formation of specialised structures10. amylopetin and glycogen in one egg cell and two syner
k. The bryophytes are divided into11. gids 3 antipodal cells and two polar nuclei structure.
l. The sex organs in bryophytes are12. bears two or.more archegonia or female sex organs.
m. the predominant stage of the life13. called gemmae.
n. Bryophytes are also called amphibians14. antheridia and archegonia
o. The food is stored as floridean starch which is very similar to.15. liverworts and mosses.

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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 1 Nature and Significance of Management with Answers

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Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 1 Nature and Significance of Management with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Nature and Significance of Management Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Nature and Significance of Management Class 12 Objective Questions.

Nature and Significance of Management Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Which one of the following is not an objective of Management?
(a) Political Objective
(b) Social Objective
(c) Organisational Objective
(d) Personal Objectives

Answer

Answer: (a) Political Objective

Question 2.
Management is _______
(a) Wastage of time
(b) Multi-Dimensional
(c) Not required in small business firms
(d) Individual Activity

Answer

Answer: (b) Multi-Dimensional

Question 3.
Management is a __________ Activity
(a) Group
(b) Supervisor Level
(c) Accounting
(d) Individual

Answer

Answer: (a) Group

Question 4.
The word________denotes a function, a task, a discipline.
(a) Management
(b) Leadership
(c) Motivation
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Management

Question 5.
Mainly planning is concerned with ________
(a) Formulation of Policies and Strategies
(b) Management in Action
(c) Manpower Planning
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Formulation of Policies and Strategies

Question 6.
A process needs
(a) Throughout to execute
(b) Timer to execute
(c) Resources to execute
(d) Both a and b

Answer

Answer: (c) Resources to execute

Question 7.
Coordination is:
(a) The essence of management
(b) Function of Management
(c) An objective of management
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) The essence of management

Question 8.
Providing the facility for Schools and hospitals is the _____objective of management.
(a) Social Objectives
(b) Organisational Objective
(c) Personal Objective
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Social Objectives

Question 9.
Organisational objective is not concerned with __________
(a) Growth
(b) Profit
(c) Survival
(d) Supply of quality goods

Answer

Answer: (d) Supply of quality goods

Question 10.
Which of the following is not an example of non-economic activity?
(a) Patriotism
(b) Teaching
(c) Sentiment
(d) Sympathy

Answer

Answer: (b) Teaching

Question 11.
Effectiveness is concerned with ____________
(a) Doing the task correctly with minimum cost
(b) Getting things done with the aim of achieving goals effectively and efficiently
(c) Doing the right task, completing activities, and achieving goals
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Doing the right task, completing activities, and achieving goals

Question 12.
Which aspect of management is concerned with the end result?
(a) Co-ordination
(b) Efficiency
(c) Effectiveness
(d) Controlling

Answer

Answer: (c) Effectiveness

Question 13.
Pramod Limited targets production of 22,000 units in a year. The production manager was able to cut down the cost but could not achieve the target. In this case, manager is ________ but not ________
(a) Efficient but not honest
(b) Effective but not efficient
(c) Efficient but not effective
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Efficient but not effective

Question 14.
Water pollution can be identified by testing its
(a) PH level
(b) Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD)
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 15.
Which of the following is not included in Top Level Management?
(a) Accountant
(b) Managing Director
(c) Chief Executive
(d) Board of Directors

Answer

Answer: (a) Accountant

Question 16.
The possibilities of inadequate profits or even losses due to uncertainties are known as _______
(a) Business contingencies
(b) Business risks
(c) Business ventures
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Business risks

Question 17.
Management is also considered as a profession where ______________
(a) Anyone can get entry
(b) Only a businessman can get entry
(c) Qualification doesn’t matter
(d) Dynamic Function

Answer

Answer: (a) Anyone can get entry

Question 18.
______ Aims to help each other
(a) Cooperation
(b) Planning
(c) Coordination
(d) Staffing

Answer

Answer: (a) Cooperation

Question 19.
Chief Marketing Officer and Managing Director is the part of _________
(a) Operational Management
(b) Top Management
(c) Middle Management
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Top Management

Question 20.
The following is not an objective of management:
(a) Earning Profits
(b) Policymaking
(c) Growth of the organization
(d) Providing employment

Answer

Answer: (b) Policymaking

Question 21.
Policy formulation is the function of:
(a) Operational management
(b) Top-level managers
(c) Middle-level managers
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Top-level managers

Question 22.
The work performed by Top Level Management is ______________
(a) Concerned with control of operative employees
(b) Complex and Stressful
(c) Easy
(d) Not Considered

Answer

Answer: (b) Complex and Stressful

Question 23.
Under what function of management, policies and strategies are formulated?
(a) Organising
(b) Directing
(c) Planning
(d) Controlling

Answer

Answer: (c) Planning

Use the above-provided NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 1 Nature and Significance of Management with Answers Pdf free download and get a good grip on the fundamentals. Need any support from our end during the preparation of CBSE Class 12 Business Studies Nature and Significance of Management MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers then leave your comments below. We’ll revert back to you soon.

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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 2 Principles of Management with Answers

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Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 2 Principles of Management with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Principles of Management Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Principles of Management Class 12 Objective Questions.

Principles of Management Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following is NOT a Principle of management given by Taylor?
(a) Maximum, not restricted output
(b) Functional foremanship
(c) Harmony not discord
(d) Science, not the rule of the Thumb

Answer

Answer: (b) Functional foremanship

Question 2.
Which of the following statement best describes the principle of Division of Work?
(a) Labour should be divided
(b) Resources should be divided among jobs
(c) It leads to specialization
(d) Work should be divided into small tasks

Answer

Answer: (d) Work should be divided into small tasks

Question 3.
She/he keeps machines, materials, tools, etc., ready for operations by concerned workers?. Whose work is described? by this sentence under functional foremanship?
(a) Instruction Card Clerk
(b) Repair Boss
(c) Route Clerk
(d) Gang Boss

Answer

Answer: (d) Gang Boss

Question 4.
How are principles of management formed?
(a) By experiences of customers
(b) By propagation of social scientists
(c) In a laboratory
(d) By experiences of managers

Answer

Answer: (d) By experiences of managers

Question 5.
Unity of direction is concerned with____________
(a) One Head One Plan
(b) One Head Different Plans
(c) Planning by Production manager
(d) Planning by Employees

Answer

Answer: (a) One Head One Plan

Question 6.
Harmony, Not Discord principle is concerned with ______________
(a) Management should share the gains of the company with workers
(b) Investigation of Task
(c) Scientific inquiry
(d) Observation and Analysis

Answer

Answer: (a) Management should share the gains of the company with workers

Question 7.
Henri Fayol was a:
(a) Mining Engineer
(b) Production engineer
(c) Accountant
(d) Social Scientist

Answer

Answer: (a) Mining Engineer

Question 8.
The main objective of motion study is _____________
(a) To provide more work to the workers
(b) To find out labour cost
(c) To eliminate the rest hours of workers
(d) To eliminate the unproductive motions

Answer

Answer: (d) To eliminate the unproductive motions

Question 9.
Principles of management are not:
(a) Flexible
(b) Behavioural
(c) Absolute
(d) Universal

Answer

Answer: (c) Absolute

Question 10.
Espirit De Corps means _________________
(a) Union is strength
(b) Order
(c) Gang Plank
(d) Scalar Chain

Answer

Answer: (a) Union is strength

Question 11.
Which of the following is not concerned with F.W. Taylor?
(a) Motion Study
(b) Fatigue Study
(c) Method Study
(d) Scalar Chain

Answer

Answer: (d) Scalar Chain

Question 12.
In the management process, the most misinterpreted word is
(a) Organizing
(b) Delegating
(c) Controlling
(d) Planning

Answer

Answer: (a) Organizing

Question 13.
Who is considered as the father of Scientific Management?
(a) Harold Koontz
(b) Henry Fayol
(c) Gilbreth
(d) F.W.Taylor

Answer

Answer: (d) F.W.Taylor

Question 14.
Name the organizational structure that assists in increasing managerial and operational efficiency.
(a) Functional structure
(b) Divisional structure
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Functional structure

Question 15.
Who said, “Management is a multiple purpose organ that manages a business, manages a manager and manages workers and work”?
(a) Harold Koontz
(b) Peter Drucker
(c) Kenneth O’Donnell
(d) Anonymous

Answer

Answer: (b) Peter Drucker

Question 16.
Which of the following can be tested in the laboratories?
(a) Principles of Pure Art
(b) Principles of pure science
(c) Principles of management
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Principles of pure science

Question 17.
Basic aim of Functional Foremanship is ________
(a) Not to provide free time to workers
(b) To separate Top-level management from Chief Executive Officer
(c) To separate planning functions from executive functions
(d) Not to divide the work

Answer

Answer: (c) To separate planning functions from executive functions

Question 18.
Science, not rule of thumb, this principle was given by _______
(a) James Lundy
(b) Henry Fayol
(c) Koontz
(d) F.W.Taylor

Answer

Answer: (d) F.W.Taylor

Question 19.
Principles of management cannot be __________
(a) Defined
(b) Applied Everywhere
(c) Tested in Laboratories
(d) Part of the business

Answer

Answer: (c) Tested in Laboratories

Question 20.
Which of the following techniques and studies are concerned with F.W.Taylor?
(a) Fatigue Study
(b) Method Study
(c) Time Study
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above

Question 21.
Gang Plank means _________
(a) Indirect Contact
(b) Contact not allowed
(c) Direct Contact
(d) Appointment before Contact

Answer

Answer: (c) Direct Contact

Question 22.
The word ________ denotes a function, a task, a discipline.
(a) Management
(b) Leadership
(c) Motivation
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Management

Question 23.
How many principles are given by Henri Fayol?
(a) 16
(b) 18
(c) 20
(d) 14

Answer

Answer: (d) 14

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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 4 Animal Kingdom with Answers

MCQ Questions /

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 4 Animal Kingdom with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Animal Kingdom Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Animal Kingdom Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Animal Kingdom Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Biology Chapter 4 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Animal Kingdom Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 4 Biology Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

I. Select the correct answer of the following questions:

Question 1.
Body cavity in arthoropods is
(a) Coelom
(b) Haemocoel
(c) Psuedocoel
(d) Coelenteron

Answer

Answer: (b) Haemocoel

Question 2.
Digestion is sponges occur in
(a) Spongocoel
(b) Osculum
(c) Ostium
(d) Food Vacuoles

Answer

Answer: (d) Food vacuoles

Question 3.
Classification of Porifera is based on
(a) Branching
(b) Spicules (skeleton)
(c) Reproduction
(d) Symmetry

Answer

Answer: (b) Spicules (skeleton)

Question 4.
Excretion in flatworms occurs by
(a) Nephridia
(b) Flame cells
(c) Malpighian tubules
(d) Green glands

Answer

Answer: (b) Flame cells

Question 5.
Bladder worm (cysticercus) is the larva of
(a) Liver fluke
(b) Tape worm
(c) Nereis
(d) Mussel

Answer

Answer: (b) Tape wrom

Question 6.
A parasite having no intermediate host is
(a) Tape worm
(b) Liver fluke
(c) Ascaris
(d) Plasmodium

Answer

Answer: (c) Ascaris

Question 7.
Pair of hearts present in earthworm are
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four

Answer

Answer: (d) Four.

Question 8.
Mollusc group in which eye resemble the vertebrate eye is
(a) Bivalvia
(b)Gastropoda
(c) Scaphopoda
(d) Cephalopoda

Answer

Answer: (d) Cephalopoda

Question 9.
A phylum that includes exclusively marine animals is
(a) Porifera
(b) Coelanterata
(c) Protozoa
(d) Echinodermata

Answer

Answer: (d) Echinodermata

Question 10.
Sea Star belongs to the class
(a) Crinoidea
(b) Echinoidea
(c) Asteroidea
(d) Qphiuroida

Answer

Answer: (c) Asteroidea

Question 11.
Besides Annelida and Arthropoda, the metamerism is exhibited by
(a) Acanthocephala
(b) Chordata
(c) Mollusca
(d) Cestoda

Answer

Answer: (d) Cestoda

Question 12.
Which of the following is an egg laying mammal?
(a) Kangaroo
(b) Rattus
(c) Ornithorhvnchus
(d) Oryctolagus

Answer

Answer: (c) Omithorhynchus

Question 13.
Which of the following is not a true amphibian?
(a) Salamander
(b) Frog
(c) Toad
(d) Tortoise

Answer

Answer: (d) Tortoise

Question 14.
Metamerism is a characteristic feature of the phylum
(a) Porifera
(b) Annelida
(c) Mollusca
(d) Platyhelminthes

Answer

Answer: (b) Annelida

Question 15.
Animal without respiratory, circulatory and excretory systems are
(a) Liverflukes
(b) Tapeworms
(c) Sponges
(d) Thread worms

Answer

Answer: (c) Sponges

Question 16.
Earthworm has ovaries in the segment
(a) 9
(b) 10
(c) 13
(d) 26)

Answer

Answer: (c) 13

Question 17.
Echinoderms are
(a) Fresh water animals
(b) Marine animals
(c) Both fresh water and marine
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Marine animals.

Question 18.
Which of the following is not a class of the phylum Mollusca?
(a) Decapoda
(b) Gastropoda
(c) Scaphopoda
(d) Cephalopoda

Answer

Answer: (a) Decapoda

Question 19.
Which of the following belongs to the phylum platyhelminthes?
(a) Trypanosoma
(b) Schistosoma
(c) Plasmodium
(d) Wuchereria

Answer

Answer: (b) Schistosoma

Question 20.
A non parasitic animal among the following is
(a) Leech
(b) Sea anemone
(c) Mosquito
(d) Tapeworm

Answer

Answer: (b) Sea anemone

Question 21.
Closed circulatory system is found in
(a) Cockroach
(b) Snail
(c) Cuttle fish
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Cuttle fish

Question 22.
Solenocytes are excretory organs of
(a) Platyhelminthes
(b) Annelida
(c) Mollusca
(d) Echinodermata

Answer

Answer: (a) Platyhelminthes

Question 23.
Long hollow bones with interconnected air passages are char¬acteristic of
(a) Reptiles
(b) Aves
(c) Mammals
(d) All land vertebrates

Answer

Answer: (b) Aves

Question 24.
Hirudinaria and Pheretima are the representative of the phylum
(a) Cnidaria
(b) Platyhelminthes
(c) Annelida
(d) Nemathelminthes

Answer

Answer: (c) Annelida

Question 25.
Avian heart is
(a) Two chambered
(b) Three chambered
(c) Incompletely four chambered
(d) Four chambered

Answer

Answer: (d) Four chambered.

II. Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
However, there are fundamental features common to various individuals in relation to the ……………………

Answer

Answer: arrangement of cells, body summetry, nature of coelom, patterns of digestive, circulatory, or reproductive systems etc.

Question 2.
An …………….. digestive system has only a single opening to the outside of the body that serves as both mouth and anus.

Answer

Answer: incomplete

Question 3.
A …………….. digestive system has two openings ………….. and …………..

Answer

Answer: complete, mouth, anus

Question 4.
The cicrulatory system may be of two types (i) …………, (ii) ……………

Answer

Answer: open type, closed type

Question 5.
Some sponges are …………….

Answer

Answer: asymmetrical

Question 6.
Animals, in which the cells are arranged into two embryonic layers, an external …………. and an internal endoderm, are called ………….. animals.

Answer

Answer: ectoderm, diploblastic

Question 7.
The body cavity, which is lined by mesoderm is called …………. Animals possessing coelom are called ………….

Answer

Answer: coelum, eucoelomates

Question 8.
This kind of segmentation is called metameric segmentation and the phenomenon is known as …………….

Answer

Answer: metamerism

Question 9.
Animals are also grouped into …………… and ……………

Answer

Answer: non-chordates, chordates

Question 10.
Cnidarians exhibit two basic body forms called …………… and …………..

Answer

Answer: Polyp, medusa

Question 11.
………… helps in osmoregulation and excretion.

Answer

Answer: Nephridia

Question 12.
The mouth contains a file-like rasping organ for feeding, called ………….

Answer

Answer: radula

Question 13.
Phylum chordata is divided into three subphyla: …………… , ………….. and Wq Vertebrata.

Answer

Answer: Urocbordata or Tunicata, Cephalochordata, Vertebrata

Question 14.
………….. are present in some species while some possess sting.

Answer

Answer: Poison

Question 15.
The characteristic features of birds are the presence of feathers and most of them can fly with few exceptions, generally called ………….. birds.

Answer

Answer: Flightless

III. Mark the statements True (T) or False (F)

Question 1.
Some Mammalia have even adapted to fly or live in water.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 2.
The digestive tract of birds has additional chambers, the crop and gizzard.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 3.
Reptiles are cold-blooded animals. Excretory organ is kidney.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 4.
The amphibian skin in moist

Answer

Answer: True

Question 5.
Osteichthyes body is streamlined. Mouth is mostly terminal in position.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 6.
Chondrichthyes skin in tough, containing minute placoid, scales, which are embedded in it. These animals are predatory and have powerful jaws with teeth.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 7.
Cyclostomes have a persistent notochord. Circulation is closed type.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 8.
Phylum chordata is divided into three subphyla : Urochordata or Tunicata, Cephalochordata and wq Vertebrata.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 9.
Chordates heart is dorsal.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 10.
Non-chordates heart is ventral

Answer

Answer: False

Question 11.
Hemichordata are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic, eucoelomate animals. The body is cylindrical.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 12.
The most distinctive feature of echinoderms is the presense of water vascular system which helps in locomotion, capture and transport of food and respiration

Answer

Answer: True

Question 13.
Over two-third of all names species on earth are arthropods, they have organ-system level of body organization.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 14.
Mollusca body is unsegmented and differentiated into a head, muscular foot, and visceral hump.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 15.
Annelida alimentary canal is complete with a well developed muscular pharynx.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 16.
Pronfera digestion is intracellular

Answer

Answer: True

Question 17.
Cnidaria digestion is only extracellular

Answer

Answer: False

Question 18.
Ctenophores are exclusively marine, radially symmetrical, dipioblastic organisms with tissue level or organization.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 19.
Platyhelminthes are dorso-ventrally flattened and, hence, commonly known as flatworms

Answer

Answer: True

Question 20.
Aschelminthes. the name roundworm

Answer

Answer: True

IV. Match the items or column I with the items of column II

Column IColumn II
A. Cellular Level1. Some platyhelminths.
B. Tissue Level2. bilateral symmery
C. Organ Level3. triploblastic
D. Organ-system Level4. dipioblastic
E. Circulatory system5. The body cavity, which is lined by mesoderm
F. Radial symmetry6. radula
G. Animal like annelids, arthropods7. Animals such as sponges
H. And external ectoderm and an internal endoderm8. Commonly known as sea walnuts or comb jellies.
I. Mesoderm9. parapodia
J. Pseudocoelom10. Animals that have certain cells grouped to form specific tissue are placed in this group.
K. Segmentation11. invertebrates, vertebrates
L. Animals are generally categorized into two major group.12. Some platyelminths, anne-lids, molluscs, arthropods, echi noderms and chordates.
M. Sponges13. Porifera
N. Cnidaria14. Metamerism
O. Ctenophora15. Cnidarians, ctenophoses and echinoderms
P. Platyhelminthes16. roundworm
Q. Aschelminthes17. pseudocolelomates
R. Annelida18. stinging cells, cnidoblasts
S. Mollusca19. Flatworms
T. Coleom20. open type, closed type
Answer

Answer:

Column IColumn II
A. Cellular Level7. Animals such as sponges
B. Tissue Level10. Animals that have certain cells grouped to form specific tissue are placed in this group.
C. Organ Level1. Some platyhelminths.
D. Organ-system Level12. Some platyelminths, anne-lids, molluscs, arthropods, echi noderms and chordates.
E. Circulatory system20. open type, closed type
F. Radial symmetry15. Cnidarians, ctenophoses and echinoderms
G. Animal like annelids, arthropods2. bilateral symmery
H. And external ectoderm and an internal endoderm4. dipioblastic
I. Mesoderm3. triploblastic
J. Pseudocoelom17. pseudocolelomates
K. Segmentation14. Metamerism
L. Animals are generally categorized into two major group.11. invertebrates, vertebrates
M. Sponges13. Porifera
N. Cnidaria18. stinging cells, cnidoblasts
O. Ctenophora8. Commonly known as sea walnuts or comb jellies.
P. Platyhelminthes19. Flatworms
Q. Aschelminthes16. roundworm
R. Annelida9. parapodia
S. Mollusca6. radula
T. Coleom5. The body cavity, which is lined by mesoderm

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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 3 Business Environment with Answers

MCQ Questions /

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 3 Business Environment with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Business Environment Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Business Environment Class 12 Objective Questions.

Business Environment Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Relaxing the restrictions and controls imposed on Business and industry means
(a) Liberalisation
(b) Privatisation
(c) Globalisation
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Liberalisation

Question 2.
Which of the following best indicates the importance of the business environment?
(a) Coping with rapid changes
(b) Identification
(c) Improvement in performance
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above

Question 3.
What will be the effect of an increase in tax by the government?
(a) Increase in cost of production
(b) Creates fear in the minds of investors
(c) Increase in profit margin
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Increase in cost of production

Question 4.
What creates fear in the minds of investors to invest in long term projects?
(a) Privatisation
(b) Political Uncertainty
(c) Liberalisation
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Political Uncertainty

Question 5.
Which of the following creates fear in the minds of investors?
(a) Political uncertainty
(b) New innovations
(c) None of these
(d) Technological improvements

Answer

Answer: (a) Political uncertainty

Question 6.
Celebration of Diwali is the example of:
(a) Technological Environment
(b) Social Environment
(c) Political Environment
(d) Legal Environment

Answer

Answer: (b) Social Environment

Question 7.
Booking of Railway tickets through internet from home or office is an example of _________
(a) Political Environment
(b) Technological Environment
(c) Economic Environment
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Technological Environment

Question 8.
Export promotion is concerned with __________
(a) Privatisation
(b) Globalisation
(c) Liberalisation
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Globalisation

Question 9.
Changes in fashions and tastes of consumers will __________
(a) Shift the market demand from an existing product to new ones
(b) Increase the cost of production
(c) Increase the profit
(d) Increase the Sale

Answer

Answer: (a) Shift the market demand from an existing product to new ones

Question 10.
Increased competition in the market will _________
(a) Increase the tax
(b) Increase the profit
(c) Increase the cost of production
(d) Reduce the profit margin

Answer

Answer: (d) Reduce the profit margin

Question 11.
Giving freedom to Indian business and industries from all unnecessary government controls and restrictions is an example of ____________
(a) Privatisation
(b) Globalisation
(c) Liberalisation
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Liberalisation

Question 12.
Technological improvements and innovations result in________
(a) Increase in tax
(b) Render existing products obsolete
(c) Reduction in profit margins
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Render existing products obsolete

Question 13.
Which of the following does not explain the impact of Government policy changes on business and industry?
(a) More demanding customers
(b) Change in agricultural prices
(c) Increasing competition
(d) Market orientation

Answer

Answer: (b) Change in agricultural prices

Question 14.
Globalisation aims at ________
(a) Export Promotion
(b) Foreign exchange reforms
(c) Import liberalization
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above

Question 15.
When a company taken over another one and clearly becomes the new owner, the action is called
(a) Merger
(b) Acquisition
(c) Strategic Alliance
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Acquisition

Question 16.
Which of the following does not characterize the business environment?
(a) Complexity
(b) Relativity
(c) Employees
(d) Uncertainty

Answer

Answer: (c) Employees

Question 17.
Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is concerned with _______
(a) Political Environment
(b) Legal Environment
(c) Economic Environment
(d) Social Environment

Answer

Answer: (c) Economic Environment

Question 18.
Rise in GDP lead to rise in ___________________
(a) Increase in new taxes
(b) Cost of Production
(c) Disposable income of people
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Disposable income of people

Question 19.
Facebook, Twitter and Whatsapp is the result of ___________
(a) Political Environment
(b) Social Environment
(c) Technological Environment
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Technological Environment

Question 20.
External environment trends and changes will provide ________
(a) Threats
(b) Goodwill
(c) Less Competition
(d) Profits

Answer

Answer: (a) Threats

Question 21.
Liberalization means
(a) Reduced government controls and restrictions
(b) Policy of planned disinvestments
(c) Integration among economies
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Reduced government controls and restrictions

Question 22.
Reduction in the role of the public sector is due to _______
(a) Political Environment
(b) Privatisation
(c) Globalisation
(d) Liberalisation

Answer

Answer: (b) Privatisation

Question 23.
An increase or decrease in the value of Rupee is an example of _________
(a) Political Environment
(b) Economic Environment
(c) Social Environment
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Economic Environment

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