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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Maths Chapter 16 Probability with Answers

Students can access the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Maths Chapter 16 Probability with Answers Pdf free download aids in your exam preparation and you can get a good hold of the chapter. Use MCQ Questions for Class 11 Maths with Answers during preparation and score maximum marks in the exam. Students can download the Probability Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers from here and test their problem-solving skills. Clear all the fundamentals and prepare thoroughly for the exam taking help from Class 11 Maths Chapter 16 Probability Objective Questions.

Probability Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Students are advised to solve the Probability Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Maths to know different concepts. Practicing the MCQ Questions on Probability Class 11 with answers will boost your confidence thereby helping you score well in the exam.

Explore numerous MCQ Questions of Probability Class 11 with answers provided with detailed solutions by looking below.

Question 1.
Events A and B are independent if
(a) P (A ∩ B) = P (A/B) P (B)
(b) P (A ∩ B) = P (B/A) P (A)
(c) P (A ∩ B) = P (A) + P (B)
(d) P (A ∩ B) = P (A) × P (B)

Answer

Answer: (d) P (A ∩ B) = P (A) × P (B)
Events are said to be independent if the occurrence or non-occurrence of one event does not affect the probability of the occurrence or non-occurrence of the other.
Now, by the multiplication theorem,
P(A ∩ B) = P(A) × P(B/A) ………… 1
Since A and B are independent events,
So, P(B/A) = P(B)
From equation 1, we get
P(A ∩ B) = P(A) × P(B)


Question 2.
A single letter is selected at random from the word PROBABILITY. The probability that it is a vowel is
(a) 2/11
(b) 3/11
(c) 4/11
(d) 5/11

Answer

Answer: (b) 3/11
There are 11 letters in the word PROBABILITY out of which 1 can be selected in 11C1 ways.
So, exhaustive number of cases = 11
There are 3 vowels i.e. A, I, O
So, the favorable number of cases = 3
Hence, the required probability = 3/11


Question 3.
A die is rolled, find the probability that an even prime number is obtained
(a) 1/2
(b) 1/3
(c) 1/4
(d) 1/6

Answer

Answer: (d) 1/6
When a die is rolled, total number of outcomes = 6 (1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6)
Total even number = 3 (2, 4, 6)
Number of even prime number = 1 (2)
So, the probability that an even prime number is obtained = 1/6


Question 4.
When a coin is tossed 8 times getting a head is a success. Then the probability that at least 2 heads will occur is
(a) 247/265
(b) 73/256
(c) 247/256
(d) 27/256

Answer

Answer: (c) 247/256
Let x be number a discrete random variable which denotes the number of heads obtained in n (in this question n = 8)
The general form for probability of random variable x is
P(X = x) = nCx × px × qn-x
Now, in the question, we want at least two heads
Now, p =q = 1/2
So, P(X ≥ 2) = 8C2 × (1/2)² × (1/2)8-2
⇒ P(X ≥ 2) = 8C2 × (1/2)² × (1/2)6
⇒ 1 – P(X < 2) = 8C0 × (1/2)0 × (1/2)8 + 8C1 × (1/2)1 × (1/2)8-1
⇒ 1 – P(X < 2) = (1/2)8 + 8 × (1/2)1 × (1/2)7
⇒ 1 – P(X < 2) = 1/256 + 8 × (1/2)8
⇒ 1 – P(X < 2) = 1/256 + 8/256
⇒ 1 – P(X < 2) = 9/256
⇒ P(X < 2) = 1 – 9/256
⇒ P(X < 2) = (256 – 9)/256
⇒ P(X < 2) = 247/256


Question 5.
The probability that the leap year will have 53 sundays and 53 monday is
(a) 2/3
(b) 1/2
(c) 2/7
(d) 1/7

Answer

Answer: (d) 1/7
In a leap year, total number of days = 366 days.
In 366 days, there are 52 weeks and 2 days.
Now two days may be
(i) Sunday and Monday
(ii) Monday and Tuesday
(iii) Tuesday and Wednesday
(iv) Wednesday and Thursday
(v) Thursday and Friday
(vi) Friday and Saturday
(vii) Saturday and Sunday
Now in total 7 possibilities, Sunday and Monday both come together is 1 time.
So probabilities of 53 Sunday and Monday in a leap year = 1/7


Question 6.
Let A and B are two mutually exclusive events and if P(A) = 0.5 and P(B ̅) =0.6 then P(AUB) is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 0.6
(d) 0.9

Answer

Answer: (d) 0.9
Given, A and B are two mutually exclusive events.
So, P(A ∩ B) = 0
Again given P(A) = 0.5 and P(B ̅) = 0.6
P(B) = 1 – P(B ̅) = 1 – 0.6 = 0.4
Now, P(A ∪ B) = P(A) + P(B) – P(A ∩ B)
⇒ P(A ∪ B) = P(A) + P(B)
⇒ P(A ∪ B) = 0.5 + 0.4 = 0.9


Question 7.
Seven white balls and three black balls are randomly placed in a row. The probability that no two black balls are placed adjacently equals
(a) 1/2
(b) 7/15
(c) 2/15
(d) 1/3

Answer

Answer: (b) 7/15
While placing 7 while balls in a row, total gaps = 8
3 black balls can be placed in 8 gaps = C = (8 × 7 × 6)/(3 × 2 × 1) = 8 × 7 = 56
So, the total number of ways of arranging white and black balls such that no two black balls are adjacent = 56 × 3! × 7!
Actual number of arrangement possible with 7 white and 3 black balls = (7 + 3)! = 10!
So, the required Probability = (56 × 3! × 7!)/10!
= (56 × 3! × 7!)/(10 × 9 × 8 × 7!)
= (56 × 3!)/(10 × 9 × 8)
= (56 × 3 × 2 × 1)/(10 × 9 × 8)
= (7 × 3 × 2 × 1)/(10 × 9)
= (7 × 2)/(10 × 3)
= 7/(5 × 3)
= 7/15


Question 8.
The events A, B, C are mutually exclusive events such that P (A) = (3x + 1)/3, P (B) = (x – 1)/4 and P (C) = (1 – 2x)/4. The set of possible values of x are in the interval
(a) [1/3, 1/2]
(b) [1/3, 2/3]
(c) [1/3, 13/3]
(d) [0, 1]

Answer

Answer: (a) [1/3, 1/2]
P(A) = (3x + 1)/3
P(B) = (x – 1)/4
P(C) = (1 – 2x)/4
These are mutually exclusive events.
⇒ -1 ≤ 3x ≤ 2, -3 ≤ x ≤ 1, -1 ≤ 2x ≤ 1
⇒ -1/3 ≤ x ≤ 2/3, -2 ≤ x ≤ 1, -1/2 ≤ x ≤ 1/2
Also, 0 ≤ (3x + 1)/3 + (x – 1)/4 + (1 – 2x)/4 ≤ 1
⇒ 1/3 ≤ x ≤ 13/3
⇒ max {-1/3, -3, -1/2, 1/3} ≤ x ≤ min {2/3, 1/2, 1, 13/3}
⇒ 1/3 ≤ x ≤ 1/2
⇒ x ∈ [1/3, 1/2]


Question 9.
A bag contains 2 red, 3 green and 2 blue balls. Two balls are drawn at random. The probability that none of the balls drawn is blue is
(a) 10/21
(b) 11/21
(c) 2/7
(d) 5/7

Answer

Answer: (a) 10/21
Total number of balls = 2 + 3 + 2 = 7
Two balls are drawn.
Now, P(none of them is blue) = 5C2 / 7C2
= {(5 × 4)/(2 × 1)}/{(7 × 6)/(2 × 1)}
= (5 × 4)/(7 × 6)
= (5 × 2)/(7 × 3)
= 10/21


Question 10.
If 4-digit numbers greater than 5000 are randomly formed from the digits 0, 1, 3, 5 and 7, then the probability of forming a number divisible by 5 when the digits are repeated is
(a) 1/5
(b) 2/5
(c) 3/5
(d) 4/5

Answer

Answer: (b) 2/5
Given digits are 0, 1, 3, 5, 7
Now we have to form 4 digit numbers greater than 5000.
So leftmost digit is either 5 or 7.
When digits are repeated
Number of ways for filling left most digit = 2
Now remaining 3 digits can be filled = 5 × 5 × 5
So total number of ways of 4 digits greater than 5000 = 2 × 5 × 5 × 5 = 250
Again a number is divisible by 5 if the unit digit is either 0 or 5. So there are 2 ways to fill the unit place.
So total number of ways of 4 digits greater than 5000 and divisible by 5 = 2 × 5 × 5 × 2 = 100
Now probability of 4 digit numbers greater than 5000 and divisible by 5
= 100/250
= 2/5


Question 11.
Events A and B are said to be mutually exclusive iff
(a) P (A U B) = P (A) + P (B)
(b) P (A ∩ B) = P (A) × P (B)
(c) P(A U B) = 0
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) P (A U B) = P (A) + P (B)
If A and B are mutually exclusive events,
Then P(A ∩ B) = 0
Now, by the addition theorem,
P(A U B) = P(A) + P(B) – P(A ∩ B)
⇒ P(A U B) = P(A) + P(B)


Question 12.
Two numbers are chosen from {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} one after another without replacement. Find the probability that the smaller of the two is less than 4.
(a) 4/5
(b) 1/15
(c) 1/5
(d) 14/15

Answer

Answer: (a) 4/5
Total number of ways of choosing two numbers out of six = 6C2 = (6 × 5)/2 = 3 × 5 = 15
If smaller number is chosen as 3 then greater has choice are 4, 5, 6
So, total choices = 3
If smaller number is chosen as 2 then greater has choice are 3, 4, 5, 6
So, total choices = 4
If smaller number is chosen as 1 then greater has choice are 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
So, total choices = 5
Total favourable case = 3 + 4 + 5 = 12
Now, required probability = 12/15 = 4/5


Question 13.
If the integers m and n are chosen at random between 1 and 100, then the probability that the number of the from 7m + 7ⁿ is divisible by 5 equals
(a) 1/4
(b) 1/7
(c) 1/8
(d) 1/49

Answer

Answer: (a) 1/4
Since m and n are selected between 1 and 100,
Hence total sample space = 100 × 100
Again, 71 = 7, 72 = 49, 73 = 343, 74 = 2401, 75 = 16807, etc
Hence 1, 3, 7 and 9 will be the last digit in the power of 7.
Now, favourable number of case are
→ 1,1 1,2 1,3 …………. 1,100
2,1 2,2 2,3 …………. 2,100
3,1 3,2 3,3 …………. 3,100
……………….
………………
100,1 100,2 100,3 …………. 100,100
Now, for m = 1, n = 3, 7, 11, ………, 97
So, favourable cases = 25
Again for m = 2, n = 4, 8, 12, ………, 100
So, favourable cases = 25
Hence for every m, favourable cases = 25
So, total favourable cases = 100 × 25
Required Probability = (100 × 25)/(100 × 100)
= 25/100
= 1/4


Question 14.
A card from a pack of 52 cards is lost. From the remaining cards of the pack, two cards are drawn. Then the probability that they both are diamonds is
(a) 84/452
(b) 48/452
(c) 84/425
(d) 48/425

Answer

Answer: (d) 48/425
Total number of cards = 52 and one card is lost.
Case 1: if lost card is a diamond card
Total number of cards = 51
Number of diamond cards = 12
Now two cards are drawn.
P(both cards are diamonds) = 12C2 / 51C2
Total number of cards = 52 and one card is lost.
Case 2: If lost card is not a diamond card
Total number of cards = 51
Number of diamond cards = 13
Now two cards are drawn.
P(both cards are diamonds) = 13C2 / 51C2
Now probability that both cards are diamond = 12C2 / 51C2 + 13C2 / 51C2
= (12C2 + 13C2) / 51C2
= {(12 × 11)/(2 × 1) + (13 × 12)/(2 × 1)}/{(51 × 50)/(2 × 1)}
= (12 × 11 + 13 × 12)/(51 × 50)
= (132 + 156)/2550
= 288/2550
= 96/850 (288 and 2550 divided by 3)
= 48/425 (96 and 850 divided by 2)
So probability that both cards are diamond is 48/425


Question 15.
The probability that when a hand of 7 cards is drawn from a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards, it contains 3 Kings is
(a) 1/221
(b) 5/716
(c) 9/1547
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) 9/1547
Total number of cards = 52
Number of king card = 4
Now, 7 cards are drawn from 52 cards.
P (3 cards are king) = {4C3 × 48C4}/ 52C7
= {4 × (48 × 47 × 46 × 45)/(4 × 3 × 2 × 1)}/{(52 × 51 × 50 × 49 × 48 × 47 × 46)/(7 × 6 × 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1)}
= {4 × (48 × 47 × 46 × 45) × (7 × 6 × 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1)}/{(4 × 3 × 2 × 1) × {(52 × 51 × 50 × 49 × 48 × 47 × 46)}
= (7 × 6 × 5 × 4 × 45)/(52 × 51 × 50 × 49)
= (6 × 5 × 4 × 45)/(52 × 51 × 50 × 7)
= (6 × 4 × 45)/(7 × 52 × 51 × 10)
= (6 × 45)/(7 × 13 × 51 × 10)
= (6 × 3)/(7 × 13 × 17 × 2)
= (3 × 3)/(7 × 13 × 17)
= 9/1547


Question 16.
A die is rolled, then the probability that an even number is obtained is
(a) 1/2
(b) 2/3
(c) 1/4
(d) 3/4

Answer

Answer: (a) 1/2
When a die is rolled, total number of outcomes = 6 (1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6)
Total even number = 3 (2, 4, 6)
So, the probability that an even number is obtained = 3/6 = 1/2


Question 17.
Six boys and six girls sit in a row at random. The probability that the boys and girls sit alternatively is
(a) 1/462
(b) 11/462
(c) 5/121
(d) 7/123

Answer

Answer: (a) 1/462
Given, 6 boys and 6 girls sit in a row at random.
Then, the total number of arrangement of 6 boys and 6 girls = arrangement of 12 persons = 12!
Now, boys and girls sit alternatively.
So, the total number of arrangement = 2 × 6! × 6!
Now, P(boys and girls sit alternatively) = (2 × 6! × 6!)/12!
= (2× 6 × 5! × 6!)/(12 × 11!)
= (5! × 6!)/11!
= (5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 × 6!)/(11 × 10 × 9 × 8 × 7 × 6!)
= (5 × 4 × 3 × 2)/(11 × 10 × 9 × 8 × 7)
= (4 × 3)/(11 × 9 × 8 × 7)
= 3/(11 × 9 × 2 × 7)
= 1/(11 × 3 × 2 × 7)
= 1/462


Question 18.
Two dice are thrown the events A, B, C are as follows A: Getting an odd number on the first die. B: Getting a total of 7 on the two dice. C: Getting a total of greater than or equal to 8 on the two dice. Then AUB is equal to
(a) 15
(b) 17
(c) 19
(d) 21

Answer

Answer: (d) 21
When two dice are thrown, then total outcome = 6 × 6 = 36
A: Getting an odd number on the first die.
A = {(1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 3), (1, 4),(1, 5), (1, 6), (3, 1), (3, 2), (3, 3), (3, 4),(3, 5), (3, 6), (5, 1), (5, 2), (5, 3), (5, 4),(5, 5), (5, 6)}
Total outcome = 18
B: Getting a total of 7 on the two dice.
B = {(1, 6), (2, 5), (3, 4), (4, 3), (5, 2), (6, 1)}
Total outcome = 6
C: Getting a total of greater than or equal to 8 on the two dice.
C = {(2, 6), (3, 5), (3, 6), (4, 4),(4, 5), (4, 6), (5, 3), (5, 4), (5, 5), (5, 6),(6, 2), (6, 3), (6, 4), (6, 5), (6, 6)}
Total outcome = 15
Now n(A U B) = n(A) + n(B) – n(A ∩ B)
⇒ n(A U B) = 18 + 6 – 3
⇒ n(A U B) = 21


Question 19.
Let A and B are two mutually exclusive events and if P(A) = 0.5 and P(B ̅) =0.6 then P(AUB) is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 0.6
(d) 0.9

Answer

Answer: (d) 0.9
Given, A and B are two mutually exclusive events.
So, P(A ∩ B) = 0
Again given P(A) = 0.5 and P(B ̅) = 0.6
P(B) = 1 – P(B ̅) = 1 – 0.6 = 0.4
Now, P(A ∪ B) = P(A) + P(B) – P(A ∩ B)
⇒ P(A ∪ B) = P(A) + P(B)
⇒ P(A ∪ B) = 0.5 + 0.4 = 0.9


Question 20.
A certain company sells tractors which fail at a rate of 1 out of 1000. If 500 tractors are purchased from this company, what is the probability of 2 of them failing within first year
(a) e-1/2 /2
(b) e-1/2 /4
(c) e-1/2 /8
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) e-1/2 /8
This question is based on Poisson distribution.
Now, λ = np = 500×(1/1000) = 500/1000 = 1/2
Now, P(x = 2) = {e-1/2 × (1/2)²}/2! = e-1/2 /(4 × 2) = e-1/2 /8


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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 1 Physical World with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 1 Physical World with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Physical World Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Physical World Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Physical World Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Physics Chapter 1 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Physical World Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 1 Physics Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
Atomic and molecular phenomena are dealt with by
(a) Newtonian Mechanics
(b) fluid Mechanics
(c) applied Mechanics
(d) Quantum Mechanics

Answer

Answer: (d) Quantum Mechanics


Question 2.
Which of the following is a possible final step in applying the scientific method
(a) Formulating a hypothesis
(b) Building a theory
(c) Analysis of test results
(d) Formulation of a question

Answer

Answer: (c) Analysis of test results


Question 3.
Which of the following is a possible first step in applying the scientific method
(a) Conducting tests
(b) Formulating a hypothesis
(c) Formulation of a question
(d) Building a theory

Answer

Answer: (c) Formulation of a question


Question 4.
A scientific theory
(a) cannot be changed but can be reformulated
(b) is fixed once and for all because it is logical
(c) is changed to suit new fashion among scientists
(d) can be revised if required to fit new phenomenon or data

Answer

Answer: (d) can be revised if required to fit new phenomenon or data


Question 5.
The scientific method is
(a) a prescribed method for investigating phenomena, acquiring new knowledge.
(b) A procedure for proposing new hypothesis
(c) a body of techniques for investigating phenomena, acquiring new knowledge.
(d) A method for proposing new theories.

Answer

Answer: (c) a body of techniques for investigating phenomena, acquiring new knowledge.


Question 6.
Newtonian mechanics could not explain
(a) fall of bodies on earth
(b) Some of the most basic features of atomic phenomena.
(c) movement of planets
(d) flight of rockets

Answer

Answer: (b) Some of the most basic features of atomic phenomena.


Question 7.
Heliocentric theory proposed by Nicolas Copernicus was
(a) replaced by circular orbits to fit the data better
(b) replaced by elliptical orbits to fit the data better
(c) replaced by elliptical orbits to fit the taste of new rulers of Italy
(d) replaced by parabolic orbits to fit the data better

Answer

Answer: (b) replaced by elliptical orbits to fit the data better


Question 8.
Physics is a
(a) Applied Science
(b) Mathematical Science
(c) Engineering Science
(d) Natural Science

Answer

Answer: (d) Natural Science


Question 9.
The word Science originates from the Latin verb Scientia meaning
(a) to know
(b) to see
(c) to experience
(d) to observe

Answer

Answer: (a) to know


Question 10.
Just as a new experiment may suggest an alternative theoretical model, a theoretical advance may suggest what to look for in some for in some experiments. Which of the following experiments can be considered to support this claim?
(a) Davisson and Germer Experiment
(b) experimental discovery of positron
(c) scattering of alpha particle or the gold foil experiment
(d) Michelson Morley experiment

Answer

Answer: (b) experimental discovery of positron


Question 11.
Physics is a
(a) Applied Science
(b) Mathematical Science
(c) Engineering Science
(d) Natural Science

Answer

Answer: (d) Natural Science


Question 12.
Just as a new experiment may suggest an alternative theoretical model, a theoretical advance may suggest what to look for in some for in some experiments. Which of the following experiments can be considered to support this claim?
(a) Davisson and Germer Experiment
(b) experimental discovery of positron
(c) scattering of alpha particle or the gold foil experiment
(d) Michelson Morley experiment

Answer

Answer: (b) experimental discovery of positron


Question 13.
Newtonian mechanics could not explain
(a) fall of bodies on earth
(b) Some of the most basic features of atomic phenomena.
(c) movement of planets
(d) flight of rockets

Answer

Answer: (b) Some of the most basic features of atomic phenomena.


Question 14.
Wave picture of light failed to explain.
(a) the photoelectric effect
(b) polarization of light
(c) diffraction of light
(d) interference of light

Answer

Answer: (a) the photoelectric effect


Question 15.
The scientific method is
(a) a prescribed method for investigating phenomena, acquiring new knowledge.
(b) A procedure for proposing new hypothesis
(c) a body of techniques for investigating phenomena, acquiring new knowledge.
(d) A method for proposing new theories.

Answer

Answer: (c) a body of techniques for investigating phenomena, acquiring new knowledge.


Question 16.
Atomic and molecular phenomena are dealt with by
(a) Newtonian Mechanics
(b) fluid Mechanics
(c) applied Mechanics
(d) Quantum Mechanics

Answer

Answer: (d) Quantum Mechanics


Question 17.
The word Science originates from the Latin verb Scientia meaning
(a) to know
(b) to see
(c) to experience
(d) to observe

Answer

Answer: (a) to know


Question 18.
Heliocentric theory proposed by Nicolas Copernicus was
(a) replaced by circular orbits to fit the data better
(b) replaced by elliptical orbits to fit the data better
(c) replaced by elliptical orbits to fit the taste of new rulers of Italy
(d) replaced by parabolic orbits to fit the data better

Answer

Answer: (b) replaced by elliptical orbits to fit the data better


Question 19.
Which of the following is a possible final step in applying the scientific method
(a) Formulating a hypothesis
(b) Building a theory
(c) Analysis of test results
(d) Formulation of a question

Answer

Answer: (c) Analysis of test results


Question 20.
Which of the following is a possible first step in applying the scientific method
(a) Conducting tests
(b) Formulating a hypothesis
(c) Formulation of a question
(d) Building a theory

Answer

Answer: (c) Formulation of a question


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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 2 Units and Measurements with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 2 Units and Measurements with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Units and Measurements Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Units and Measurements Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Units and Measurements Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Physics Chapter 2 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Units and Measurements Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 2 Physics Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
Electron volt is a unit of
(a) charge
(b) potential difference
(c) energy
(d) magnetic force

Answer

Answer: (c) energy


Question 2.
Light year is a unit of
(a) time
(b) distance
(c) sunlight intensity
(d) mass

Answer

Answer: (b) distance


Question 3.
Which of the following pairs has the same dimensions?
(a) specific heat and latent heat
(b) lmpulse and momentum
(c) surface tension and force
(d) moment of lnertia and torque

Answer

Answer: (b) lmpulse and momentum


Question 4.
Which of the following sets of quantities has the same dimensional formula?
(a) Frequency, angular frequency and angular momentum
(b) Surface tension, stress and spring constant
(c) Acceleration, momentum and retardation
(d) Work, energy and torque

Answer

Answer: (d) Work, energy and torque


Question 5.
If C and R denote capacitance and resistance respectively, what will be the dimensions of C x R?
(a) [M0L0TA0]
(b) [ML0TA-2]
(c) [ML0TA2]
(d) [MLTA-2]

Answer

Answer: (a) [M0L0TA0]


Question 6.
A particle starting from the origin (0, 0) moves in a straight line in the (x, y) plane. Its coordinates at a later time are (The path of the particle makes with the x-axis an angle of
(a) 300
(b) 450
(c) 600
(d) 0

Answer

Answer: (c) 600


Question 7.
Resolution is
(a) a measure of the bias in the instrument
(b) None of these
(c) the smallest amount of input signal change that the instrument can detect reliably
(d) a measure of the systematic errors

Answer

Answer: (d) a measure of the systematic errors


Question 8.
Fundamental or base quantities are arbitrary. In SI system these are
(a) length, force, time, electric current, thermodynamic temperature, amount of substance, and luminous intensity
(b) length, mass, time, electric current, thermodynamic temperature, amount of substance, and luminous intensity
(c) as length, mass, time, electric charge, thermodynamic temperature, amount of substance, and luminous intensity
(d) length, mass, force, electric current, thermodynamic temperature, amount of substance, and luminous intensity

Answer

Answer: (b) length, mass, time, electric current, thermodynamic temperature, amount of substance, and luminous intensity


Question 9.
Unit for a fundamental physical quantity is
(a) defined as best of various reference standards
(b) the smallest measurable value of the physical quantity
(c) defined as average various reference standards
(d) reference standard for the physical quantity

Answer

Answer: (d) reference standard for the physical quantity


Question 10.
The volume of a cube in m³ is equal to the surface area of the cube in m². The volume of the cube is
(a) 64 m³
(b) 216 m³
(c) 512 m³
(d) 196 m³

Answer

Answer: (b) 216 m³


Question 11.
In SI system the fundamental units are
(a) meter, kilogram, second, ampere, Kelvin, mole and candela
(b) meter, kilogram, second, coulomb, Kelvin, mole and candela
(c) meter, Newton, second, ampere, Kelvin, mole and candela
(d) meter, kilogram, second, ampere, Kelvin, mole and lux

Answer

Answer: (b) meter, kilogram, second, coulomb, Kelvin, mole and candela


Question 12.
F energy (E), velocity (v) and force (F) are taken as fundamental quantities, what are the dimensions of mass?
(a) Ev2
(b) Ev -2
(c) Fv -1
(d) Fv -2

Answer

Answer: (b) Ev -2


Question 13.
Unit for a fundamental physical quantity is
(a) defined as best of various reference standards
(b) the smallest measurable value of the physical quantity
(c) defined as average various reference standards
(d) reference standard for the physical quantity

Answer

Answer: (d) reference standard for the physical quantity


Question 14.
Fundamental or base quantities are arbitrary. In SI system these are
(a) length, force, time, electric current, thermodynamic temperature, amount of substance, and luminous intensity
(b) length, mass, time, electric current, thermodynamic temperature, amount of substance, and luminous intensity
(c) as length, mass, time, electric charge, thermodynamic temperature, amount of substance, and luminous intensity
(d) length, mass, force, electric current, thermodynamic temperature, amount of substance, and luminous intensity

Answer

Answer: (b) length, mass, time, electric current, thermodynamic temperature, amount of substance, and luminous intensity


Question 15.
Physical quantities are
(a) quantities such as degrees, radians and steradians
(b) quantities such as length, mass, time, electric current, thermodynamic temperature, amount of substance, and luminous intensity
(c) quantities such as pounds, dollars and rupees
(d) quantities such as kilos, pounds and gallons

Answer

Answer: (b) quantities such as length, mass, time, electric current, thermodynamic temperature, amount of substance, and luminous intensity


Question 16.
Which of the following units denotes the dimensions [ML2/Q2], where Q represents the electric charge?
(a) Wb/m²
(b) Henry(H)
(c) H/m²
(d) Weber(Wb)

Answer

Answer: (b) Henry(H)


Question 17.
Which of the following sets of quantities has the same dimensional formula?
(a) Frequency, angular frequency and angular momentum
(b) Surface tension, stress and spring constant
(c) Acceleration, momentum and retardation
(d) Work, energy and torque

Answer

Answer: (d) Work, energy and torque


Question 18.
If C and R denote capacitance and resistance respectively, what will be the dimensions of CxR?
(a) [M0L0TA0]
(b) [ML0TA-2]
(c) [ML0TA2]
(d) [MLTA-2]

Answer

Answer: (a) [M0L0TA0]


Question 19.
The volume of a cube in m³ is equal to the surface area of the cube in m². The volume of the cube is
(a) 64 m³
(b) 216 m³
(c) 512 m³
(d) 196 m³

Answer

Answer: (b) 216 m³


Question 20.
Electron volt is a unit of
(a) charge
(b) potential difference
(c) energy
(d) magnetic force

Answer

Answer: (c) energy


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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Motion in a Straight Line Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Motion in a Straight Line Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Motion in a Straight Line Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Physics Chapter 3 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Motion in a Straight Line Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 3 Physics Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
A boy starts from a point A, travels to a point B at a distance of 3 km from A and returns to A. If he takes two hours to do so, his speed is
(a) 3 km/h
(b) zero
(c) 2 km/h
(d) 1.5 km/h

Answer

Answer: (a) 3 km/h


Question 2.
A body starts from rest and travels with uniform acceleration a to make a displacement of 6 m. If its velocity after making the displacement is 6 m/s, then its uniform acceleration a is
(a) 6 m/s²
(b) 2 m/s²
(c) 3 m/s²
(d) 4 m/s²

Answer

Answer: (c) 3 m/s²


Question 3.
Which one of the following is the unit of acceleration?
(a) m/s
(b) m/s²
(c) km/hr
(d) cm/s

Answer

Answer: (b) m/s²


Question 4.
The dimensional formula for speed is
(a) T-1
(b) LT-1
(c) L-1T-1
(d) L-1T

Answer

Answer: (b) LT-1


Question 5.
A body starts from rest and travels for t second with uniform acceleration of 2 m/s². If the displacement made by it is 16 m, the time of travel t is
(a) 4 s
(b) 3 s
(c) 6 s
(d) 8 s

Answer

Answer: (b) 3 s


Question 6.
The dimensional formula for acceleration is
(a) [LT2]
(b) [LT?2]
(c) [L2T]
(d) [L2T2]

Answer

Answer: (b) [LT?2]


Question 7.
A body starts from rest and travels for five seconds to make a displacement of 25 m .if it has travelled the distance with uniform acceleration a then a is
(a) 3 m/s²
(b) 4 m/s²
(c) 2 m/s²
(d) 1 m/s²

Answer

Answer: (c) 2 m/s²


Question 8.
A 180 metre long train is moving due north at a speed of 25 m/s. A small bird is flying due south, a little above the train, with a speed of 5 m/s. The time taken by the bird to cross the train is
(a) 10 s
(b) 12 s
(c) 9 s
(d) 6 s

Answer

Answer: (d) 6 s


Question 9.
The dimensional formula for velocity is
(a) [LT]
(b) [LT-1]
(c) [L2T]
(d) [L-1T]

Answer

Answer: (b) [LT-1]


Question 10.
A body starts from rest and travels with an acceleration of 2 m/s². After t seconds its velocity is 10 m/s. Then t is
(a) 10 s
(b) 5 s
(c) 20 s
(d) 6 s

Answer

Answer: (b) 5 s


Question 11.
The dimensional formula for velocity is
(a) [LT]
(b) [LT-1]
(c) [L2T]
(d) [L-1T]

Answer

Answer: (b) [LT-1]


Question 12.
A body starts from rest and travels with uniform acceleration of 2 m/s². If its velocity is v after making a displacement of 9 m, then v is
(a) 8 m/s
(b) 6 m/s
(c) 10 m/s
(d) 4 m/s

Answer

Answer: (b) 6 m/s


Question 13.
Which one of the following is the unit of velocity?
(a) kilogram
(b) metre
(c) m/s
(d) second

Answer

Answer: (c) m/s


Question 14.
Which one of the following is the unit of acceleration?
(a) m/s
(b) m/s²
(c) km/hr
(d) cm/s

Answer

Answer: (b) m/s²


Question 15.
The dimensional formula for acceleration is
(a) [LT2]
(b) [LT?2]
(c) [L2T]
(d) [L2T2]

Answer

Answer: (b) [LT?2]


Question 16.
A boy moves on a circular distance of radius R. Starting from a point A he moves to a point B which is on the other end of the diameter AB. The ratio of the distance travelled to the displacement made by him is
(a) ∏/2
(b) ∏
(c) 2∏
(d) 4∏

Answer

Answer: (a) ∏/2


Question 17.
A boy starts from a point A, travels to a point B at a distance of 3 km from A and returns to A. If he takes two hours to do so, his speed is
(a) 3 km/h
(b) zero
(c) 2 km/h
(d) 1.5 km/h

Answer

Answer: (a) 3 km/h


Question 18.
A boy starts from a point A, travels to a point B at a distance of 1.5 km and returns to A If he takes one hour to do so, his average velocity is
(a) 3 km/h
(b) zero
(c) 1.5 km/h
(d) 2 km/h

Answer

Answer: (a) 3 km/h


Question 19.
A body starts from rest and travels for t second with uniform acceleration of 2 m/s². If the displacement made by it is 16 m, the time of travel t is
(a) 4 s
(b) 3 s
(c) 6 s
(d) 8 s

Answer

Answer: (a) 4 s


Question 20.
A body starts from rest and travels with uniform acceleration on a straight line . If its velocity after making a displacement of 32 m is 8 m/s , its acceleration is
(a) 1 m/s²
(b) 2 m/s²
(c) 3 m/s²
(d) 4 m/s²

Answer

Answer: (a) 1 m/s²


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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Motion in a Plane Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Motion in a Plane Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Motion in a Plane Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Physics Chapter 4 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Motion in a Plane Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 4 Physics Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
A body of mass 500 gram is rotating in a vertical circle of radius 1 m. What is the difference in its kinetic energies at the top and the bottom of the circle?
(a) 4.9 J
(b) 19.8 J
(c) 2.8 J
(d) 9.8 J

Answer

Answer: (d) 9.8 J


Question 2.
A particle has a displacement of 2 units along the x -axis, 1 unit along the y – axis and 2 units along the z – axis. Then the resultant displacement of the particle is
(a) 3 units
(b) 5 units
(c) 4 units
(d) 1 units

Answer

Answer: (a) 3 units


Question 3.
A car is moving on a circular path and takes a turn. If R1 and R² are the reactions on the inner and outer wheels respectively, then
(a) R1 = >R²
(b) R1 = R²
(c) R1 < R²
(d) R1 > R²

Answer

Answer: (c) R1 < R²


Question 4.
The angle between centripetal acceleration and tangential acceleration is?
(a) 180°
(b) 0°
(c) 90°
(d) 45°

Answer

Answer: (c) 90°


Question 5.
Large angle produces?
(a) high trajectory
(b) curve trajectory
(c) flat trajectory
(d) straight trajectory

Answer

Answer: (a) high trajectory


Question 6.
He dimensional formula for normal acceleration is
(a) LT-1
(b) L2T2
(c) L3T-2
(d) LT-2

Answer

Answer: (d) LT-2


Question 7.
A book is pushed with an initial horizontal velocity of 5.0 meters per second off the top of a desk. What is the initial vertical velocity of the book?
(a) 10. m/s
(b) 0 m/s
(c) 50 m/s
(d) 2.5 m/s

Answer

Answer: (b) 0 m/s


Question 8.
One radian is defined to be the angle subtended where the arc length S is exactly equal to the?
(a) radius of the circle.
(b) diameter of the circle.
(c) circumference of the circle.
(d) half of radius of the circle.

Answer

Answer: (a) radius of the circle.


Question 9.
A body travels along the circumference of a circle of radius 2 m with a linear velocity of 6 m/s. Then its angular velocity is
(a) 6 rad /s
(b) 3 rad /s
(c) 2 rad / s
(d) 4 rad / s

Answer

Answer: (b) 3 rad /s


Question 10.
One° (1°) is equal to?
(a) 0.1745 rad
(b) 0.01745 rad
(c) 0.001745 rad
(d) 7.1745 rad

Answer

Answer: (b) 0.01745 rad


Question 11.
A body makes a displacement of 4 m due East from a point O and then makes displacement of 3 m due North. Its resultant displacement from O
(a) 7 m
(b) 1 m
(c) 5 m
(d) 1 . 2 m

Answer

Answer: (c) 5 m


Question 12.
A body is allowed to slide on a frictional less track from rest under-gravity. The track ends in a circular loop of diameter D. What should be the minimum height of the body in terms of D, so that it may successfully complete the loop?
(a) D
(b) 4/5 D
(c) 5/4 D
(d) 2D

Answer

Answer: (c) 5/4 D


Question 13.
One radian is equal to?
(a) 57.7°
(b) 53.7°
(c) 59.3°
(d) 57.3°

Answer

Answer: (d) 57.3°


Question 14.
A small body attached at the end of an inextensible string completes a vertical circle, then its
(a) angular momentum remains constant
(b) linear momentum remains constant
(c) angular velocity remains constant
(d) total mechanical energy remains constant

Answer

Answer: (d) total mechanical energy remains constant


Question 15.
A body gose round the circumference of a circle of radius 2 m with an angular velocity of 2 rad/s. Its centripetal acceleration is
(a) 3 m/s²
(b) 1 . 5 m/s²
(c) 6 m/s²
(d) 12 m/s²

Answer

Answer: (d) 12 m/s²


Question 16.
A book is pushed with an initial horizontal velocity of 5.0 meters per second off the top of a desk. What is the initial vertical velocity of the book?
(a) 10. m/s
(b) 0 m/s
(c) 50 m/s
(d) 2.5 m/s

Answer

Answer: (b) 0 m/s


Question 17.
Which is a constant for a freely falling object?
(a) displacement
(b) velocity
(c) acceleration
(d) speed

Answer

Answer: (c) acceleration


Question 18.
The tangential component and centripetal component of acceleration are?
(a) Similar to each other
(b) Parallel to each other.
(c) Equal to each other.
(d) Perpendicular to each other.

Answer

Answer: (d) Perpendicular to each other.


Question 19.
A body travels along the circumference of a circle of radius 2 m with a linear velocity of 4 m/s. Its centripetal acceleration is
(a) 8 m/s²
(b) 16 m/s²
(c) 10 m/s²
(d) 4 m/s²

Answer

Answer: (a) 8 m/s²


Question 20.
A particle is acted upon by a force of constant magnitude which is always perpendicular to the velocity of the particle. The motion takes place in a plane. It follows that
(a) its acceleration is constant
(b) its motion is circular
(c) its velocity is constant
(d) its motion is linear

Answer

Answer: (b) its motion is circular


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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Work, Energy and Power Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Work, Energy and Power Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Work, Energy and Power Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Physics Chapter 6 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Work, Energy and Power Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 6 Physics Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
When a force of 50 N acts on a body, the body is displaced through a distance of 3 m in a direction normal to the direction of the force. The work done by the force
(a) 150 J
(b) 1470 J
(c) Zero
(d) -150 J

Answer

Answer: (c) Zero


Question 2.
A body of mass 20 kg is initially at a height of 3 m above the ground. It is lifted to a height of 2 m from that position. Its increase in potential energy is
(a) 100 J
(b) 392 J
(c) 60 J
(d) -100 J

Answer

Answer: (b) 392 J


Question 3.
A wooden cube having mass 10 kg is dropped from the top of a building . After 1 s, a bullet of mass 20 g fired at it from the ground hits the block with a velocity of 1000 m/s at an angle of 30° to the horizontal moving upwards and gets imbedded in the block . The velocity of the block/bullet system immediately after the collision is
(a) 17 m/s
(b) 27 m/s
(c) 52 m/s
(d) 10 m/s

Answer

Answer: (a) 17 m/s


Question 4.
A body of mass 10 kg is moved parallel to the ground, through a distance of 2 m. The work done against gravitational force is
(a) 196 J
(b) -196 J
(c) 20 J
(d) zero

Answer

Answer: (d) zero


Question 5.
A quantity of work of 1000 J is done in 2 seconds. The power utilised is
(a) 998 W
(b) 1002 W
(c) 2000 W
(d) 500 W

Answer

Answer: (d) 500 W


Question 6.
A body of mass 1 kg travels with a velocity of 10 m/s, this a wall and rebounds. If 50% of its initial energy is wasted as heat, its kinetic energy at the instant of rebounding is
(a) 20 J
(b) 60 J
(c) 50 J
(d) 25 J

Answer

Answer: (d) 25 J


Question 7.
A marble moving with some velocity collides perfectly elastically head-on with another marble at rest having mass 1.5 times the mass of the colliding marble. The percentage of kinetic energy by the colliding marble after the collision is
(a) 4
(b) 25
(c) 44
(d) 67

Answer

Answer: (a) 4


Question 8.
A particle of mass m is moving in a horizontal circle of radius r under a centripetal force given by (-kr²) where k is a constant , then
(a) the total energy of the particle is (- k/2r)
(b) the kinetic energy of the particle is (k/r)
(c) the potential energy of the particle is (k/2r)
(d) the kinetic energy of the particle is (- k/r)

Answer

Answer: (a) the total energy of the particle is (- k/2r)


Question 9.
A sphere of mass m moving with a constant velocity u hits another stationary sphere of the same mass. If e is the coefficient of restitution, then the ratio of velocity of the two spheres after the collision will be
(a) 1 – e / 1 + e
(b) 1 + e / 1 – e
(c) e + 1 / e – 1
(d) e – 1 / e + 1

Answer

Answer: (a) 1 – e / 1 + e


Question 10.
Two masses 1 g and 4 g are moving with equal kinetic energles. The ratio of the magnitudes of their linear momenta is
(a) 4 : 1
(b) 0 : 1
(c) 1 : 2
(d) 1 : 6

Answer

Answer: (c) 1 : 2


Question 11.
A ball is dropped from a height of 1 m. If the coefficient of restitution between the surface and ball is 0.6, the ball rebounds to a height of
(a) 0.6 m
(b) 0.4 m
(c) 1 m
(d) 0.36 m

Answer

Answer: (d) 0.36 m


Question 12.
A wooden cube having mass 10 kg is dropped from the top of a building. After 1 s, a bullet of mass 20 g fired at it from the ground hits the block with a velocity of 1000 m/s at an angle of 30° to the horizontal moving upwards and gets imbedded in the block. The velocity of the block/bullet system immediately after the collision is
(a) 17 m/s
(b) 27 m/s
(c) 52 m/s
(d) 10 m/s

Answer

Answer: (a) 17 m/s


Question 13.
A bullet fired into a fixed target loses half of its velocity after penetrating 3 cm. How much further will it penetrate before coming to rest assuming that it faces constant resistance to motion?
(a) 2.0 cm
(b) 3.0 cm
(c) 1.0 cm
(d) 1.5 cm

Answer

Answer: (c) 1.0 cm


Question 14.
A body of mass 5 kg is initially at a height of 10 m above the ground. It is then moved to another place 40 m from this position in the same horizontal level. Its increase in potential energy is
(a) 200 J
(b) 1960 J
(c) Zero
(d) -200 j

Answer

Answer: (c) Zero


Question 15.
A body of mass 20 kg falls through a vertical height of 3 m. The work done by the gravitational force is
(a) -588 J
(b) 588 J
(c) 60 J
(d) -60 J

Answer

Answer: (b) 588 J


Question 16.
A body of mass 1 kg travels with a velocity of 10 m/s, this a wall and rebounds. If 50% of its initial energy is wasted as heat, its kinetic energy at the instant of rebounding is
(a) 20 J
(b) 60 J
(c) 50 J
(d) 25 J

Answer

Answer: (d) 25 J


Question 17.
An electric heater of rating 1000 W is used for 5 hrs per day for 20 days. The electrical energy utilised is
(a) 150 kWh
(b) 200 kWh
(c) 100 kWh
(d) 300 kWh

Answer

Answer: (c) 100 kWh


Question 18.
A body of mass 20 kg falls vertically through a height of 10 m. Its loss of potential energy is
(a) 300 J
(b) 4000 J
(c) 1000 J
(d) 1960 J

Answer

Answer: (d) 1960 J


Question 19.
A body of mass 10 kg is travelling with uniform speed of 5 m/s. Its kinetic energy is
(a) 25 J
(b) 125 J
(c) 1250 J
(d) 1000 J

Answer

Answer: (b) 125 J


Question 20.
A quantity of work of 1000 J is done in 2 seconds. The power utilised is
(a) 998 W
(b) 1002 W
(c) 2000 W
(d) 500 W

Answer

Answer: (d) 500 W


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