MCQ Questions

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 14 Oscillations with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 14 Oscillations with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Oscillations Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Oscillations Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Oscillations Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Physics Chapter 14 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Oscillations Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 14 Physics Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
If an simple pendulum oscillates with an amplitude of 50 mm and time period of 2s, then its maximum velocity is
(a) 0.10 m/s
(b) 0.16 m/s
(c) 0.25 m/s
(d) 0.5 m/s

Answer

Answer: (b) 0.16 m/s


Question 2.
If the frequency of the particle executing S.H.M. is n, the frequency of its kinetic energy becoming maximum is
(a) n/2
(b) n
(c) 2n
(d) 4n

Answer

Answer: (c) 2n


Question 3.
Spring is pulled down by 2 cm. What is amplitude of motion?
(a) 0 cm
(b) 6 cm
(c) 2 cm
(d) cm

Answer

Answer: (c) 2 cm


Question 4.
The period of thin magnet is 4 sec. if it is divided into two equal halves then the time period of each part will be
(a) 4 sec
(b) 1 sec
(c) 2 sec
(d) 8 sec

Answer

Answer: (c) 2 sec


Question 5.
The acceleration of particle executing S.H.M. when it is at mean position is
(a) Infinite
(b) Varies
(c) Maximum
(d) Zero

Answer

Answer: (d) Zero


Question 6.
A spring of force constant k is cut into two pieces such that on piece is double the length of the other. Then the long piece will have a force constant of
(a) 2 k/3
(b) 3 k/2
(c) 3 k
(d) 6 k

Answer

Answer: (b) 3 k/2


Question 7.
Particle moves from extreme position to mean position, its
(a) Kinetic energy increases, potential increases decreases
(b) Kinetic energy decreases, potential increases
(c) Both remains constant
(d) Potential energy becomes zero and kinetic energy remains constant

Answer

Answer: (a) Kinetic energy increases, potential increases decreases


Question 8.
Grap of potential energy vs. displacement of a S.H. Oscillator is
(a) parabolic
(b) hyperbolic
(c) elliptical
(d) linear

Answer

Answer: (a) parabolic


Question 9.
The time-period of S.H.O. is 16 sec. Starting from mean position, its velocity is 0.4 m/s after 2 sec. Its amplitude is
(a) 0.36 m
(b) 0.72 m
(c) 1.44 m
(d) 2.88 m

Answer

Answer: (c) 1.44 m


Question 10.
A simple pendulum is made of a body which is a hollow sphere containing mercury suspended by means of a wire. If a little mercury is drained off, the period of pendulum will
(a) Remain unchanged
(b) Increase
(c) Decrease
(d) Become erratic

Answer

Answer: (b) Increase


Question 11.
A pendulum suspended from the roof of a train has a period T (When the train is at rest). When the train is accelerating with a uniform acceleration a, the time period of the pendulum will
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) Remain unaffected
(d) Become infinite

Answer

Answer: (b) Decrease


Question 12.
In the case of forced oscillations, which of the following statements is not true?
(a) frequency equals that of external periodic force
(b) amplitude depends upon the damping coefficient
(c) amplitude tends to infinity at resonance
(d) higher the damping coefficient , lower is the amplitude at resonance

Answer

Answer: (c) amplitude tends to infinity at resonance


Question 13.
Grap of potential energy vs. displacement of a S.H. Oscillator is
(a) parabolic
(b) hyperbolic
(c) elliptical
(d) linear

Answer

Answer: (a) parabolic


Question 14.
The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum of constant length at earths surface is T, it period inside a mine is
(a) Greater than T.
(b) Less than T.
(c) Equal to T.
(d) Cannot be compared

Answer

Answer: (a) Greater than T.


Question 15.
If an simple pendulum oscillates with an amplitude of 50 mm and time period of 2s, then its maximum velocity is
(a) 0.10 m/s
(b) 0.16 m/s
(c) 0.25 m/s
(d) 0.5 m/s

Answer

Answer: (b) 0.16 m/s


Question 16.
The period of a simple harmonic oscillator is 2 sec. The ratio of its maximum velocity and maximum acceleration is
(a) ∏
(b) 1/∏
(c) 2∏
(d) 4

Answer

Answer: (b) 1/∏


Question 17.
In damped oscillation, the angular frequency of the oscillator
(a) keeps on decreasing
(b) keeps on increasing
(c) remains the same
(d) fluctuates

Answer

Answer: (c) remains the same


Question 18.
A simple pendulum of length l and mass (bob) m is suspended vertically. The string makes an angle q with the vertical. The restoring force acting on the pendulum, is
(a) mg tan θ
(b) mg sin θ
(c) -mg sinθ
(d) -mg cosθ

Answer

Answer: (c) -mg sinθ


Question 19.
In simple harmonic motion which statement is wrong.
(a) A body in S.H.M. its velocity maximum at mean position
(b) A body in S.H.M. its K.E. less at extreme position
(c) A body in S.H.M. its acceleration more at extreme position its directions away from mean position
(d) A body in S.H.M its acceleration less at mean position

Answer

Answer: (c) A body in S.H.M. its acceleration more at extreme position its directions away from mean position


Question 20.
The period of oscillation of a mass M, having from a spring of force constant k is T. When additional mass m is attached to the spring, the period of oscillation becomes 5T/4. m/M =
(a) 9 : 16
(b) 25 : 16
(c) 25 : 9
(d) 19 : 9

Answer

Answer: (d) 19 : 9


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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 15 Waves with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 15 Waves with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Waves Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Waves Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Waves Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Physics Chapter 15 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Waves Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 15 Physics Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
Which of the following expressions is that of a simple harmonic progressive wave
(a) a sin wt
(b) a sin (wt) cos (kx)
(c) a sin (wt – kx)
(d) a cos kx

Answer

Answer: (c) a sin (wt – kx)


Question 2.
Energy is not carried by
(a) Longitudinal progressive waves
(b) Electromagnetic waves
(c) Transverse progressive waves
(d) Stationary wave

Answer

Answer: (d) Stationary wave


Question 3.
In stationary waves
(a) Energy is uniformly distributed
(b) Energy is minimum at nodes and maximum at antinodes
(c) Energy is maximum at nodes and minimum at antinodes
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Energy is minimum at nodes and maximum at antinodes


Question 4.
Two tuning forks of frequencies 256 and 258 vibrations/second are sounded together. Then the time interval between two consecutive maxima heard by an observer is
(a) 2 sec
(b) 0.5 sec
(c) 250 sec
(d) 252 sec

Answer

Answer: (b) 0.5 sec


Question 5.
Which one of the following cannot represent a traveling wave
(a) y = f (x – nt)
(b) y = ym sin k (x + nt)
(c) y = ym log (x – nt)
(d) y = f (x² – nt²)

Answer

Answer: (c) y = ym log (x – nt)


Question 6.
The wavelength of sound in air is 10 cm. its frequency is, (Given velocity of sound = 330 m/s)
(a) 330 cycles per second
(b) 3.3 kilo cycles per second
(c) 30 mega-cycles per second
(d) 305 cycles per second

Answer

Answer: (b) 3.3 kilo cycles per second


Question 7.
An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound with a velocity one-fifth of the velocity of sound. What is the percentage increase in the apparent freq ency?
(a) 0.50%
(b) zero
(c) 20%
(d) 5%

Answer

Answer: (c) 20%


Question 8.
In the longitudinal waves the direction of vibration in medium of particle is
(a) Perpendicular to propagation of wave
(b) Parallel to propagation
(c) Different from each other
(d) Variable for time to time

Answer

Answer: (b) Parallel to propagation


Question 9.
Two identical straight wires are stretched so as to produce 6 beats per second when tension slightly in one of them, the beat frequency remains unchanged. Denoting by T1 and T2 the higher and lower initial tension in the strings, then it could be said that while making the above changes in tension
(a) T2 was decreased
(b) T2 was increased
(c) T1 was decreased
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (b) and (c)


Question 10.
Two closed pipe produces 10 beats per second when emitting their fundamental nodes. If their lengths are in the ratio of 25 : 26 their fundamental frequency in Hz are
(a) 270, 280
(b) 260, 270
(c) 260, 250
(d) 240, 250

Answer

Answer: (c) 260, 250


Question 11.
A sonometer wire resonates with a given tuning fork forming standing waves with five antinodes between the two bridges when a mass of 9 kg is suspended from the wire. When this mass is replaced by mass M, the wire resonates with the same tuning fork forming three antinodes for the same positions of the bridges. The value of M is
(a) 25 kg
(b) 5 kg
(c) 12.5 kg
(d) 1 / 25 kg

Answer

Answer: (a) 25 kg


Question 12.
Four wires of identical lengths, diameters and material and stretched on a sonometer box. The ratio of their tension is 1 : 4 : 9 : 16. the ratio of their fundamental frequencies is
(a) 1 : 6 : 9 : 16
(b) 4 : 3 : 2 : 1
(c) 1 : 2 : 3 : 4
(d) 1 : 4 : 9 : 16

Answer

Answer: (c) 1 : 2 : 3 : 4


Question 13.
When two tuning forks (fork 1 and fork 2) are sounded simultaneously, 4 beats per second are heard. Now, some tape is attached on the prong of fork 2. When the tuning forks are sounded again, 6 beats per second are heard . If the frequency of fork 1 is 200 Hz, then what was the original freqency of fork 2?
(a) 202 Hz
(b) 200 Hz
(c) 204 Hz
(d) 196 Hz

Answer

Answer: (d) 196 Hz


Question 14.
A tuning fork of frequency 480 Hz is in unison with pipe closed at one end vibrating in its first overtone. Then fundamental frequency of the pipe is
(a) 150 Hz
(b) 160 Hz
(c) 480 Hz
(d) 190 Hz

Answer

Answer: (c) 480 Hz


Question 15.
The velocity of sound is maximum in
(a) Water
(b) Air
(c) Vacuum
(d) Metal

Answer

Answer: (d) Metal


Question 16.
The velocity of sound in any gas depends upon
(a) Wavelength of sound only
(b) Density and elasticity of ga
(c) Intensity of sound waves only
(d) Amplitude and frequency of sound

Answer

Answer: (b) Density and elasticity of ga


Question 17.
Two sounding bodies producing progressive wave given by y1 = 4 sin 400 pt and y2 = 4 sin 404 pt are situated very near to the ears of a person who will hear
(a) 2 beats per second with intensity ratio (4/3) between maxima and minima
(b) 2 beats per second with intensity ratio (49/1) between maxima and minima
(c) 4 beats per second with intensity ratio (7/1) between maxima and minima
(d) 4 beats per second with intensity ratio (4/3) between maxima and minima

Answer

Answer: (b) 2 beats per second with intensity ratio (49/1) between maxima and minima


Question 18.
In stationary waves
(a) Energy is uniformly distributed
(b) Energy is minimum at nodes and maximum at antinodes
(c) Energy is maximum at nodes and minimum at antinodes
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Energy is minimum at nodes and maximum at antinodes


Question 19.
A pipe closed at one end vibrating in 5th overtone is in unison with open pipe vibrating in its 5th overtone. The ratio of lc : lo is.
(a) 12 : 11
(b) 1 : 1
(c) 11 : 12
(d) 5 : 1

Answer

Answer: (c) 11 : 12


Question 20.
The equation of wave traveling along string is y = 3 cos p (100t – x) in C.G.S. unit then wavelength is
(a) 1 m
(b) 2 cm
(c) 5 cm
(d) None of above

Answer

Answer: (b) 2 cm


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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 1 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 1 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 1 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 1 Chemistry Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
Formula of Ferric Sulphate is:
(a) FeSo4
(b) Fe (So4)3
(c) Fe2 (So4)3
(d) Fe2So4

Answer

Answer: (c) Fe2 (So4)3
Explanation:
Iron (III) sulfate (or ferric sulfate), is the chemical compound with the formula Fe2(SO4)3. Usually yellow, it is a salt and soluble in water.


Question 2.
Approximate atomic weight of an element is 26.89. If its equivalent weight is 8.9, the exact atomic weight of element would be
(a) 26.89
(b) 8.9
(c) 17.8
(d) 26.7

Answer

Answer: (a) 26.89
Explanation:
Atomic weight = (Equivalent weight × Valency)
= (8.9 × 3) = 26.7
(Valency = (26.89)/(8.9) ≈ 3).


Question 3.
The total number of atoms represented by the compound CuSO4. 5H2O is
(a) 27
(b) 21
(c) 5
(d) 8

Answer

Answer: (b) 21
Explanation:
21 atoms are present in the compound CuSO4. 5H2O.


Question 4.
An atom is 10 times heavier than 1/12th of mass of a carbon atom (C – 12). The mass of the atom in a.m.u. is
(a) 10
(b) 120
(c) 1.2
(d) 12

Answer

Answer: (a) 10
Explanation:
(1/2)th if mass of carbon atom weighs exact as 1 gm as from (1 × 12)/ (12) = 1 amu.
Therefore 10 times of this would be = (10 × 1) = 10 gms.
Hence 10 g would be the molar mass of that atom.


Question 5.
81.4 g sample of ethyl alcohol contains 0.002 g of water. The amount of pure ethyl alcohol to the proper number of significant figures is
(a) 81.398 g
(b) 71.40 g
(c) 91.4 g
(d) 81 g

Answer

Answer: (a) 81.398 g
Explanation:
Pure ethyl alcohol
= (81.4 – 0.002)
=81.398.


Question 6.
Which of the following halogen can be purified by sublimation
(a) F2
(b) Cl2
(c) Br2
(d) I2

Answer

Answer: (d) I2
Explanation:
Sublimation is going directly from the solid to vapor state without passing through the liquid state. The classic demonstration of sublimation is iodine crystals. Heat them at one end of a sealed tube with the other end cooled. We get a beautiful violet vapor and can watch the iodine crystals form from the vapor in the cool end. Let us Wait for some time and all the solid iodine will disappear in the hot end and reappear as beautiful black crystals in the cold end.


Question 7.
1 mol of CH4 contains
(a) 6.02 × 1023 atoms of H
(b) 4 g atom of Hydrogen
(c) 1.81 × 1023 molecules of CH4
(d) 3.0 g of carbon

Answer

Answer: (b) 4 g atom of Hydrogen
Explanation:
1 mole of CH4 contains 4 mole of hydrogen atom i.e. 4g atom of hydrogen.


Question 8.
The prefix zepto stands for
(a) 109
(b) 10-12
(c) 10-15
(d) 10-21

Answer

Answer: (d) 10-21
Explanation:
1 zepto =10-21


Question 9.
Which has maximum number of atoms?
(a) 24 g of C (12)
(b) 56 g of Fe (56)
(c) 27 gof Al (27)
(d) 108 g of Ag (108)

Answer

Answer: (a) 24 g of C (12)
Explanation:
Number of atoms = (number of moles × Avogadros number (N A) )
⇒ Number of atoms in 24 g C
= (24/12) × N A= 2N A
Number of atoms in 56 g of Fe
= (56/56) N A = N A Number of atoms in 27 g of A1
= (27/27) N A = N A Number of atoms in 108 g of Ag
= (108/108)N A = N A
Hence, 24 g of carbon has the maximum number of atoms.


Question 10:
Irrespective of the source, pure sample, of water always yields 88.89% mass of oxygen and 11.11% mass of hydrogen. This is explained by the law of
(a) Conservation of Mass
(b) Multiple Proportions
(c) Constant Composition
(d) Constant Volume

Answer

Answer: (c) Constant Composition
Explanation:
The H : O ratios in water is fixed, irrespective of its source. Hence it is law of constant composition


Question 11.
Haemoglobin contains 0.33% of iron by weight. The molecular weight of haemoglobin is approximately 67200. The number of iron atoms (At. wt. of Fe = 56) present in one molecule of haemoglobin is
(a) 6
(b) 1
(c) 4
(d) 2

Answer

Answer: (c) 4
Explanation:
Because 100 gm Hb contains = 0.33 gm Fe
Therefore, 67200 gm Hb = (67200 × 0.33)/ (100 gm)
Fe gm atom of Fe = (672 × 0.33)/(56)
= 4.


Question 12.
The -ve charged particles is called :
(a) Anion
(b) Cation
(c) Radical
(d) Atom

Answer

Answer: (a) Anion
Explanation:
A charged particle, also called an ion, is an atom with a positive or negative charge.
This happens whenever something called an ionic bond forms.
Two particles that have different numbers of electrons (the smallest particle in an atom which is negative) start reacting to each other.
The particle that has the greater amount of electrons takes the other particles electrons.
One becomes positive because it lost an electron, and the other negative because it got another electron.
The two particles become attracted to each other and mix together, making a new kind of particle.


Question 13.
Which of the following contains same number of carbon atoms as are in 6.0 g of carbon (C – 12) ?
(a) 6.0 g Ethane
(b) 8.0 g Methane
(c) 21.0 g Propane
(d) 28.0 g CO

Answer

Answer: (b) 8.0 g Methane
Explanation:
6 g carbon
Moles of carbon = (6/12) = 0.5 mol
Number of carbon atoms
= 0.5 × NA =0.5NA (NA is Avogadro number)
6 g ethane (C2H6 two atoms of C per mole)
Moles = (6/30) = 0.2 mol
Number of carbon atoms = 0.2 × 2 × NA = 0.4 NA
(Number of carbon atoms = moles of compound X number of C atoms per mol × Avogadro number)
8 g methane (CH4)
Moles = (8/16) = 0.5 mol
Number of carbon atoms = 0.5 × 1 × NA = 0.5 NA
21 g propane (C3H8)
Moles = (21/44) =0.48 mol
Number of carbon atoms = 0.48 × 3 × NA = 1.44 NA
28 g CO
Moles = (28/28) =1 mol
Number of carbon atoms = 1 × 1 × NA = NA


Question 14.
The density of a gas is 1.78 gL-1 at STP. The weight of one mole of gas is
(a) 39.9 g
(b) 22.4 g
(c) 3.56 g
(d) 29 g

Answer

Answer: (a) 39.9 g
Explanation:
Molar gas volume at STP is:
1 mole = 22400 cm³ = 22.4 litres
Density = (mass / volume)
Density = 1.78 g/litre
Volume = 22.4 litres
Mass = (volume × density)
(1.78 × 22.4) = 39.872 g


Question 15.
Molarity of 0.2 N H2SO4 is
(a) 0.2
(b) 0.4
(c) 0.6
(d) 0.1

Answer

Answer: (d) 0.1
Explanation:
Molarity = (number of moles of solute / volume of solution in litres)
Here number of moles = (given mass of solute / molar mass)
whereas Normality = ( Number of gram equivalent / volume of solution in liter )
where gram equivalent = ( mass of solute / equivalent mass )
Consider an example of H2SO4 whose molar mass = 98 g per mole
Consider a Solution containing 0.98 g of sulphuric acid in 100 ml.
Volume = 100 ml = 0.1 l
Then,
Number of moles = (0.98 / 98)
Number of moles = 0.01
Hence molarity = (0.01 / 0.1) = 0.1 M
Hence Molarity = 0.1 M
Now sulphuric acid is dibasic therefore
Its equivalent weight = (98 / 2)
Hence equivalent weight = 49
So the gram equivalent = (0.98 / 49) = 0.02
Now Normality = (0.02 / 0.1)
Hence the Normality is equal to 0.2 N.
Thus for H2SO4 (i.e. dibasic) Normality is 0.2 N and molarity is 0.1 M.


Question 16.
Any charged particle is called:
(a) Atom
(b) Molecule
(c) Ion
(d) Mixture

Answer

Answer: (c) Ion
Explanation:
A charged particle, also called an ion, is an atom with a positive or negative charge.This happens whenever something called an ionic bond forms. Two particles that have different numbers of electrons (the smallest particle in an atom which is negative) start reacting to each other. The particle that has the greater amount of electrons steals the other particles electrons. One becomes positive because it lost an electron, and the other negative because it got another electron. The two particles become attracted to each other and mix together, making a new kind of particle.


Question 17.
The balancing of equations is based upon which of the following law?
(a) Law of Multiple Proportions
(b) Law of Conservation of Mass
(c) Boyles Law
(d) Law of Reciprocal Proportions

Answer

Answer: (b) Law of Conservation of Mass
Explanation:
Balanced chemical equation: A chemical equation in which the number of atoms of reactants and the number of atoms of products is equal is called a balanced equation. Every chemical equation should be balanced because:
i) According to the law of conservation of mass, atoms are neither created not destroyed in chemical reactions.
ii) It means the total mass of the products formed in a chemical reaction must be equal to the mass of reactants consumed.


Question 18.
Irrespective of the source, pure sample, of water always yields 88.89% mass of oxygen and 11.11% mass of hydrogen. This is explained by the law of
(a) Conservation of Mass
(b) Multiple Proportions
(c) Constant Composition
(d) Constant Volume

Answer

Answer: (c) Constant Composition
Explanation:
The H : O ratios in water is fixed, irrespective of its source. Hence it is law of constant composition


Question 19.
A chemical formula based on actual number of molecule is called ____ formula:
(a) Structural
(b) Molecular
(c) Empirical
(d) None

Answer

Answer: (b) Molecular
Explanation:
Molecular formulas indicate the simple numbers of each type of atom in a molecule, with no information on structure. For example, the empirical formula for glucose is CH2O (twice as many hydrogen atoms as carbon and oxygen), while its molecular formula is C6H12O6 (12 hydrogen atoms, six carbon and oxygen atoms).


Question 20.
Approximate atomic weight of an element is 26.89. If its equivalent weight is 8.9, the exact atomic weight of element would be
(a) 26.89
(b) 8.9
(c) 17.8
(d) 26.7

Answer

Answer: (d) 26.7
Explanation:
Atomic weight = (Equivalent weight × Valency)
=(8.9 × 3) = 26.7
(Valency = (26.89)/(8.9) ≈ 3).


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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 2 Structure of Atom with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 2 Structure of Atom with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Structure of Atom Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Structure of Atom Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Structure of Atom Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 2 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Structure of Atom Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 2 Chemistry Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
Which of the following pair of ions have same paramagnetic moment?
(a) Cu+2, Ti+3
(b) Mn+2, Cu+2
(c) Ti+4, Cu+2
(d) Ti+3, Ni+2

Answer

Answer: (a) Cu+2, Ti+3
Explanation:
29Cu = [Ar] 3d10 4s1
Cu2+ = [Ar] 3d9 (n = 1)
MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 2 Structure of Atom with Answers 1
22Ti = [Ar] 3d² 4s²
Ti3+ = [Ar] 3d² (n = 1)
MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 2 Structure of Atom with Answers 2
Both of these ions have one unpaired electron, hence these have same paramagnetic moment.


Question 2.
The charge to mass ratio of α – particles is approximately …… the charge to mass ratio of protons
(a) Twice
(b) Half
(c) Four times
(d) Six times

Answer

Answer: (b) Half
Explanation:
Let charge of proton be +e, then charge of alpha particle will be + 2e. Similarly let mass of proton be m, then mass of alpha particle will be 4m.
Now, specific charge = (charge) / (mass of the substance.)
For proton, specific charge = (e/m)
For alpha particle, specific charge = (2e)/ (4m)
Therefore there ratio is: (e/m) × (4m)/ (2e) = 2 : 1


Question 3.
The frequency of a wave of light is 12 × 1014s-1. The wave number associated with this light
(a) 5 × 10-7m
(b) 4 × 10-8cm-1
(c) 2 × 10-7m-1
(d) 4 × 104cm-1

Answer

Answer: (d) 4 × 104 cm-1
Explanation:
Frequency ν = 12 × 1014s-1 and
velocity of light c = 3 × 1010 cms-1.
We know that the wave number ν = (v/c)
= (12 × 1014)/(3 × 1010)
= 4 × 104 cm-1


Question 4.
In a multi – electron atom, which of the following orbitals described by the three quantum numbers will have the same energy in the absence of magnetic acid and electric fields? (a) n = 1, l = 0, m = 0 (b) n = 2, l = 0, m = 0 (c) n = 2, l = 1, m = 1 (d) n = 3, l = 2, m = 1 (e) n = 3, l = 2, m = 0
(a) (a) and (b)
(b) (b) and (c)
(c) (c) and (d)
(d) (d) and (e)

Answer

Answer: (d) (d) and (e)
Explanation:
In the absence of magnetic and electric fields, the orbitals defined by magnetic quantum number are degenerate (of same energy). So, energy of the orbital, in the absence of magnetic and electric fields depends on the (n + l) value.
Higher the (n + l) value, larger the energy of the orbital.
Orbitals with same n and n + 1 values are degenerate and have same energy.
In the given combinations, d and e have same n and n + l value and so, have same energy in the absence of magnetic and electric fields.


Question 5.
The electronic transitions from n = 2 to n = 1 will produce shortest wavelength in (where n = principal quantum state)
(a) Li2+
(b) He+
(c) H
(d) H+

Answer

Answer: (a) Li2+
Explanation:
(1/λ) = Z²RH [(1/n1²) – (1/n2²)], n1 = 1, n2 = 2
Therefore, (1/ λ) = Z²RH [(1/1) – (1/4)]
= (3/4) Z²RH
λ ∝ (1/Z)²
Therefore, Li2+ will produce shortest wave length.


Question 6.
In a hydrogen atom, if energy of an electron in ground state is 13.6 eV, then that in the 2nd excited state is
(a) 1.51 eV
(b) 3.4 eV
(c) 6.04 eV
(d) 13.6 eV

Answer

Answer: (a) 1.51 eV
Explanation:
En = (13.6)/(n²) eV
or E = (13.6)/(9)eV
= 1.51 eV


Question 7.
The credit of discovering neutron goes to
(a) Rutherford
(b) Thomson
(c) Goldstein
(d) Chadwick

Answer

Answer: (d) Chadwick
Explanation:
The essential nature of the atomic nucleus was established with the discovery of the neutron by James Chadwick in 1932 and the determination that it was a new elementary particle, distinct from the proton.


Question 8.
The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in fifth energy level is
(a) 10
(b) 25
(c) 50
(d) 32

Answer

Answer: (c) 50
Explanation:
The maximum number of electrons that can occupy a given energy level n is given by
max. no. of electrons = 2n²
So the number of orbitals that are present in an energy level n is given by
of orbitals = n²
Also a given orbital can hold a maximum of 2 electrons, which is why the maximum number of electrons that can be added to a given energy level n is twice the number of orbitals present on said energy level.
According to given,
n = 5, it refers to the fifth energy level, holds
of orbitals = 5²
of orbitals = 25
This means that the maximum number of electrons that can be added to the fifth energy level is
max no. of electrons = 2 × 25
= 50 electrons


Question 9.
According to Aufbaus principle, which of the three 4d, 5p and 5s will be filled with electrons first
(a) 4d
(b) 5p
(c) 5s
(d) 4d and 5s will be filled simultaneously

Answer

Answer: (c) 5s
Explanation:
According to the Aufbaus principle, electron will be first enters in those orbital which have least energy. So decreasing order of energy is 5p > 4d > 5s.


Question 10.
A hydrogen atom in its ground state absorbs 10.2 eV of energy. The orbital angular momentum is increased by (Given Planck constant h = 6.6 × 10-34 Jsec)
(a) 1.05 × 10-34 Jsec
(b) 3.16 × 10-34 Jsec
(c) 2.11 × 10-34 Jsec
(d) 4.22 × 10-34 Jsec

Answer

Answer: (a) 1.05 × 10-34 Jsec
Explanation:
Electron after absorbing 10.2 eV energy goes to its first excited state (n = 2) from ground state (n = 1).
Therefore, Increase in momentum = (h)/(2π)
= (6.6 × 10-34)/ (6.28)
= 1.05 × 10-34 Js.


Question 11.
The ionization enthalpy of hydrogen atom is 1.312 × 106 J mol-1. The energy required to excite the electron in the atom from n = 1 to n = 2 is
(a) 8.51 × 105 Jmol-1
(b) 6.56 × 105 Jmol-1
(c) 7.56 × 105 Jmol-1
(d) 9.84 × 105 Jmol-1/sup>

Answer

Answer: (d) 9.84 × 105J mol-1
Explanation:
Energy required when an electron makes transition from n = 1 to n = 2
E2 = −(1.312 × 106 × (1)²)/(2²)
= −3.28 × 105J mol-1
E1 = −1.312 × 106J mol-1
ΔE = E2 − E1
= −3.28 × 105 – (−13.2 × 106)
ΔE = 9.84 × 105J mol-1


Question 12.
For principal quantum number n = 4, the total number of orbitals having l = 3 is
(a) 3
(b) 7
(c) 5
(d) 9

Answer

Answer: (b) 7
Explanation:
For n = 4 and l = 3, the orbital is 4f.
Number of values of m= no. of orbitals= (2l + 1) = 7.


Question 13.
Maximum number of electrons in a subshell with l = 3 and n = 4 is
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 14
(d) 16

Answer

Answer: (c) 14
Explanation:
n = 4, so 4th shell and l = 3 so it is f subshell.
Thus n = 4, l = 3 indicates 4f orbitals.
In f subshell there are 7 orbitals and each orbital can accommodate a maximum of 2 electrons. So, maximum no. of electrons in 4f subshell = 7 × 2 = 14.


Question 14.
Which hydrogen-like species will have same radius as that of Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom?
(a) n = 2, Li2+
(b) n = 2, Be3+
(c) n = 2, He+
(d) n = 3, Li2+

Answer

Answer: (b) n = 2, Be3+
Explanation:
r = (r0) × (n²/Z) Å
whereas,
r0 = radius of 1st Bohrs orbit of hydrogen atom = 0.529 Å
For r = r0
(n²/Z) = 1
n² = Z (1)
Because for n = 2 , Be+3
Z = 4, which satisfies equation (1).
Hence, n = 2,Be+3 will have the same radius of 1 st Bohrs orbit of a hydrogen atom.


Question 15.
The magnetic quantum number specifies
(a) Size of orbitals
(b) Shape of orbitals
(c) Orientation of orbitals
(d) Nuclear Stability

Answer

Answer: (c) Orientation of orbitals
Explanation:
The magnetic quantum number specifies orientation of orbitals.


Question 16.
In Bohr series of lines of hydrogen spectrum, the third line from the red end corresponds to which one of the following inner-orbit jumps of the electron for Bohr orbits in an atom of hydrogen?
(a) 3 → 2
(b) 5 → 2
(c) 4 → 1
(d) 2 → 5

Answer

Answer: (b) 5 → 2
Explanation:
Since the line in hydrogen spectrum lies within visible region that is at red end, therefore it is corresponds to the Balmer series.
The line at the red end suggests that
The first line of Balmer series is n = 3 to n =2
The second line of Balmer series is n = 4 to n = 2
The third line of Balmer series is n = 5 to n = 2


Question 17.
In chromium atom, in ground state, the number of occupied orbitals is
(a) 14
(b) 15
(c) 7
(d) 12

Answer

Answer: (b) 15
Explanation:
The configuration of
24Cr is 1s², 2s², 2p6, 3s², 3p6, 3d5, 4s1
Therefore, total s-orbitals = 4
total p-orbitals = 6
total d-orbitals = 5 and thus
Thus, total orbitals = 4 + 6 + 5 = 15.


Question 18.
A sub-shell with n = 6 , l = 2 can accommodate a maximum of
(a) 12 electrons
(b) 36 electrons
(c) 10 electrons
(d) 72 electrons

Answer

Answer: (c) 10 electrons
Explanation:
n = 6, ℓ = 2 means 6d → will have 5 orbitals.
Therefore max 10 electrons can be accommodated as each orbital can have maximum of 2 electrons.


Question 19.
Which of the following sets of quantum numbers represents the highest energy of an atom?
(a) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2
(b) n = 3, l = 1, m = 1, s = +1/2
(c) n = 3, l = 2, m = 1, s = +1/2
(d) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2

Answer

Answer: (c) n = 3, l = 2, m = 1, s = + 1/2
Explanation:
n = 3, l = 0 represents 3s orbital n = 3, l = 1 represents 3p orbital n = 3, l = 2 represents 3d orbital n = 4, l = 0 represents 4s orbital The order of increasing energy of the orbitals is 3s < 3p < 4s < 3d.


Question 20.
The value of Plancks constant is 6.63 × 10-34Js. The velocity of light is 3.0 × 108ms-1. Which value is closest to the wavelength in nanometres of a quantum of light with frequency of 8 × 1015s-1
(a) 3 × 107
(b) 2 × 10-25
(c) 5 × 10-18
(d) 4 × 101

Answer

Answer: (d) 4 × 101
Explanation:
λ = (c/v) = (3 × 108)/(8 × 1015)
= 3.75 × 10-8
= 3.75 × 10-8 × 109 nm
= 4×101 nm.


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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 3 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 3 Chemistry Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
The group number, number of valence electrons, and valency of an element with the atomic number 15, respectively, are:
(a) 16, 5 and 2
(b) 15, 5 and 3
(c) 16, 6 and 3
(d) 15, 6 and 2

Answer

Answer: (b) 15, 5 and 3
Explanation:
Atomic number (Z) = 15 = P → [Ne] 3s² 3p³
Phosphorus belongs to 15th group
Number of valence electrons 3s² 3p³ = 5 and valency = 3 in ground state.


Question 2.
The d-block elements consists mostly of
(a) Monovalent metals
(b) All non-metals
(c) Elements which generally form stoichiometric metal oxide
(d) Many metals with catalytic properties

Answer

Answer: (d) Many metals with catalytic properties
Explanation:
Many metals with catalytic properties because (i) They provide surface area for reaction to occur (ii) They decreases the ionisation energy. (iii) They have vacant d-orbitals.


Question 3.
Which of the following has the highest boiling point?
(a) Ne
(b) Xe
(c) Ar
(d) Kr.

Answer

Answer: (b) Xe
Explanation:
Xe has the highest atomic size and molecular weight. Hence, it has strong Vander Waals forces of attraction. Hence, it has the highest boiling point.


Question 4.
The chemistry of lithium is very similar to that of magnesium even though they are placed in different groups. Its reason is:
(a) Both are found together in nature
(b) Both have nearly the same size
(c) Both have similar electronic configuration
(d) The ratio of their charge and size (i.e. charge density) is nearly the same

Answer

Answer: (d) The ratio of their charge and size (i.e. charge density) is nearly the same
Explanation:
The chemistry of lithium is very similar to that of magnesium even though they are placed in different groups because of diagonal relationship.


Question 5.
Which one of the following groupings represents a collection of isoelectronic species? (At. nos: Cs-55, Br-35)
(a) Na+, Ca2+, Mg2+
(b) N3-, F, Na+
(c) Be, Al3+, Cl
(d) Ca2+, Cs+, Br

Answer

Answer: (b) N3-, F, Na+
Explanation:
Isoelectronic species are the neutral atoms, cations or anions of different elements which have the same number of electrons but different nuclear charge.
Number of electrons in N3- = 7 + 3 = 10.
Number of electrons in F = 9 + 1 = 10
Number of electrons in Na+ = 11 – 1 = 10.


Question 6.
Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired electrons?
(a) Mg2+
(b) Ti3+
(c) V3+
(d) Fe2+

Answer

Answer: (d) Fe2+
Explanation:
Mg2+: 1s² 2s² 2p6: no unpaired electron
Ti3+: 1s² 2s² 2p6 3s² 3p6 3d1: one unpaired electron
V3+: 1s² 2s² 2p6 3s² 3p6 3d1: two unpaired electrons
Fe2+: 1s² 2s² 2p6 3s² 3p6 3d6: four unpaired electrons


Question 7.
In the periodic table, the element with atomic number 16 will be placed in the group
(a) Third
(b) Fourth
(c) Fifth
(d) Sixth

Answer

Answer: (d) Sixth
Explanation:
16-1s²2s²2p63s²3p4 there are 6e in outer most shell therefore its group is VIth A


Question 8.
Representative elements are those which belong to
(a) p and d – Block
(b) s and d – Block
(c) s and p – Block
(d) s and f – Block

Answer

Answer: (c) s and p – Block
Explanation:
Elements in which all the inner shells are complete but outer shell is incomplete is known as representative elements i.e. Those elements which have less than 8 electrons in outermost shell are representative.
s and p block elements except inert gas is known as representative elements.


Question 9.
Which pair of elements belongs to same group?
(a) Elements with atomic no. 17 and 38
(b) Elements with atomic no. 20 and 40
(c) Elements with atomic no. 17 and 53
(d) Elements with atomic no. 11 and 33

Answer

Answer: (c) Elements with atomic no. 17 and 53
Explanation:
Atomic no. 17(Cl) and 53 (I) are present in the same group


Question 10.
The most electronegative element of the periodic table is
(a) Iodine
(b) Sulphur
(c) Oxygen
(d) Fluorine.

Answer

Answer: (d) Fluorine.
Explanation:
Fluorine is the most electronegative element. Fluorine has an electronegativity of 3.98 on the Pauling Electronegativity Scale and a valence of 1. A fluorine atom needs one electron to fill its outer electron shell and achieve stability, which is why free fluorine exists as the F ion.


Question 11.
In the third period of the Periodic Table the element having smallest size is
(a) Na
(b) Ar
(c) Cl
(d) Si

Answer

Answer: (b) Ar
Explanation:
In the third period of the Periodic Table the element having smallest size is Ar.


Question 12.
The element with highest second ionization energy is
(a) Cl
(b) S
(c) Na
(d) Mg

Answer

Answer: (c) Na
Explanation:
Sodium has 11 electrons which can be written as (2, 8, and 1). Its outer orbit has 1 electron When it is ionized for the first time, the outer most electron is removed very easily, so that it can form the electronic configuration of the nearest inert gas Neon (2, 8).
Neon has 8 electrons in its outermost orbit. Thus it is highly stable. Now, when the second electron is removed, a very very high amount of energy is required because it doesnt want to give away one of its outermost electron by disrupting its stability.
Thus, second ionization energy of sodium is extremely high.


Question 13.
Which of the following properties generally decreases along a period?
(a) Ionization Energy
(b) Metallic Character
(c) Electron Affinity
(d) Valency.

Answer

Answer: (b) Metallic Character
Explanation:
The IE, EA increases along the period. The valency initially increases then decreases. The metallic character decreases along the period.


Question 14.
Increasing order of electronegativity is
(a) Bi < P < S < Cl
(b) P < Bi < S < Cl
(c) S < Bi < P < Cl
(d) Cl < S < Bi < P

Answer

Answer: (a) Bi < P < S < Cl
Explanation:
Increasing order of electronegativity is Bi < P < S < Cl.


Question 15.
Which of the following oxides is amphoteric in character?
(a) SnO2
(b) CO2
(c) SiO2
(d) CaO

Answer

Answer: (a) SnO2
Explanation:
CaO is basic; CO2 is acidic; SiO2 is weakly acidic. SnO2 is amphoteric.


Question 16.
Which of the following statement is correct with respect to the property of elements with an increase in atomic number in the carbon family (group 14)
(a) Atomic size decrease
(b) Ionization energy increase
(c) Metallic character decrease
(d) Stability of +2 oxidation state increase

Answer

Answer: (d) Stability of +2 oxidation state increase
Explanation:
As we go down the group inertness of ns² pair increase hence tendency to exhibit +2 oxidation state increases and that of +4 oxidation state decreases.


Question 17.
The elements which occupy the peaks of ionisation energy curve, are
(a) Na, K, Rb, Cs
(b) Na, Mg, Cl, I
(c) Cl, Br, I, F
(d) He, Ne, Ar, Kr

Answer

Answer: (d) He, Ne, Ar, Kr
Explanation:
All the noble gases occupy the peaks of I.E. curve.


Question 18.
According to the periodic law of elements, the variation in properties of elements is related to their
(a) nuclear neutron – proton number ratios
(b) atomic masses
(c) nuclear masses
(d) atomic numbers

Answer

Answer: (d) atomic numbers
Explanation:
The Periodic Law states that the physical and chemical properties of the elements recur in a systematic and predictable way when the elements are arranged in order of increasing atomic number.


Question 19.
The group number, number of valence electrons, and valency of an element with the atomic number 15, respectively, are:
(a) 16, 5 and 2
(b) 15, 5 and 3
(c) 16, 6 and 3
(d) 15, 6 and 2

Answer

Answer: (b) 15, 5 and 3
Explanation:
Atomic number (Z) =15 =P → [Ne] 3s² 3p³
Phosphorus belongs to 15th group
Number of valence electrons 3s² 3p³ = 5 and valency = 3 in ground state.


Question 20.
A sudden large jump between the values of second and third ionisation energies of an element would be associated with the electronic configuration
(a) 1s², 2s²p6, 3s1
(b) 1s², 2s²p6, 3s²p1
(c) 1s², 2s2p6, 3s²
(d) 1s², 2s²p6, 3s2

Answer

Answer: (c) 1s², 2s2p6, 3s²
Explanation:
1s², 2s2p6, 3s² – In III transition e is to be removed from stable configuration.


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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

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Question 1.
Based on VSEPR theory, the number of 90° F-Br-F angles in BrF5 is
(a) 0
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 8

Answer

Answer: (a) 0
Explanation:
BrF5 has octahedral geometry and square pyramidal shape.
It has one lone pair and five bond pairs. So, geometry will be octahedral. But since lone pair repels too much, all the four bond pairs that had to be on a square planar surface, will tilt. This will result in a destructed geometry.


Question 2.
The hybrid state of sulphur in SO2 molecule is :
(a) sp²
(b) sp³
(c) sp
(d) sp³d

Answer

Answer: (a) sp²
Explanation:
The hybridisation of sulphur in SO2​ is sp². Sulphur atom has one lone pair of electrons and two bonding domains. Bond angle is <120° and molecular geometry is V-shape, bent or angular


Question 3.
In allene (C3H4), the type(s) of hybridisation of the carbon atoms is (are)
(a) sp and sp³
(b) sp and sp²
(c) Only sp²
(d) sp² and sp³

Answer

Answer: (b) sp and sp²
Explanation:
Allene: H2​C = C = CH2. The central carbon is attached to other carbons by two sigma and two pi bonds so its hybridisation will be sp. The terminal carbon is attached to other carbon and hydrogen by 3 sigma and 2 pi bonds and hence, its hybridisation will be sp²


Question 4.
The state of hybridization of the central atom and the number of lone pairs over the central atom in POCl3 are
(a) sp, 0
(b) sp², 0
(c) sp³, 0
(d) dsp², 1

Answer

Answer: (c) sp³, 0
Explanation:
The central atom of POCl3 that is P has sp3 hybridization and the number of lone pairs over the central atom in POCl3 is zero.

The central atom is P, which has 5 valence electrons. Out of them, two valence electrons are used to form a P = O double bond, while the other 3 valence electrons are used to form 3 P-Cl bonds. The molecular geometry of POCl3 is tetrahedral with asymmetric charge distribution around the central atom. Therefore this molecule is polar. The structure of this compound is tetrahedral and hybridisation of P is sp³.

On the central atom P, there are 4 bonding electron clouds (1 P = O double bond and 3 P-Cl bonds) but no lone pair of electrons.


Question 5.
The charge/size ratio of a cation determines its polarizing power. Which one of the following sequences represents the increasing order of the polarizing order of the polarizing power of the cationic species, K+, Ca2+, Mg2+, Be2+?
(a) Ca2+ < Mg2+ < Be+ < K+
(b) Mg2+ < Be2+ < K+ < Ca2+
(c) Be2+ < K+ < Ca2+ < Mg2+
(d) K+ < Ca2+ < Mg2+ < Be2+

Answer

Answer: (d) K+ < Ca2+ < Mg2+ < Be2+
Explanation:
High charge and small size of the cations increases polarisation.
As the size of the given cations decreases as
K+ > Ca2+ > Mg2+ > Be2+
Hence, polarising power decreases as K+ < Ca2+ < Mg2+ < Be2+


Question 6.
Which one of the following does not have sp² hybridised carbon?
(a) Acetone
(b) Acetic acid
(c) Acetonitrile
(d) Acetamide

Answer

Answer: (c) Acetonitrile
Explanation:
Acetonitrile does not contain sp² hybridized carbon.


Question 7.
Which one of the following is paramagnetic?
(a) NO+
(b) CO
(c) O2
(d) CN

Answer

Answer: (c) O2
Explanation:
O2(17)Super oxide has one unpaired electron. Since Paramagnetism is shown by those molecules which have at least one unpaired electron, hence, O2 is paramagnetic.
Option 1)
NO+
This solution is incorrect
Option 2)
CO
This solution is incorrect
Option 3)
O2
This solution is correct
Option 4)
CN
This solution is incorrect


Question 8.
Which of the following structures will have a bond angle of 120° around the central atom?
(a) Linear
(b) Tetrahedral
(c) Triangular
(d) Square planar

Answer

Answer: (c) Triangular
Explanation:
When three electrons pairs get as far apart from each other, a trigonal planar structure is formed. The bond angle in this structure will be 120°.


Question 9.
An atom of an element A has three electrons in its outermost orbit and that of B has six electrons in its outermost orbit. The formula of the compound between these two will be
(a) A3 B6
(b) A2 B3
(c) A3 B2
(d) A2 B

Answer

Answer: (b) A2 B3
Explanation:
A has 3 electrons in outermost orbit and B has 6 electrons in its outermost orbits. So A can give three electrons to complete its octet and B needs 2 electrons to complete its octet. So 2 atoms of A will release 6 electrons and 3 atoms of B will need six electrons to complete their octet
So, the formula will be A2​B3


Question 10.
In which of the following , the angle around the central atom is largest?
(a) CS2
(b) SF4
(c) SO2
(d) BBR3

Answer

Answer: (b) SF4
Explanation:
Bond angle is determined by the hybridization.
SO2 ​ undergo sp3 hybridization and exhibits 109° bond angle
BBr3​ undergo sp2 hybridization and exhibits 120° bond angle
CS2​ undergo sp hybridization and exhibits 180° bond angle.
SF4​ undergo sp3 d hybridization and exhibits different bond angles.
So, the least bond angle is exhibited by CS2


Question 11.
Based on lattice enthalpy and other considerations which one the following alkali metals chlorides is expected to have the higher melting point?
(a) RbCl
(b) KCl
(c) NaCl
(d) LiCl

Answer

Answer: (c) NaCl
Explanation:
The highest melting point will be NaCl, it is because, the lattice energy decreases as the size of alkali metal increases so going down the group the melting point decreases, but due to the covalent bonding in LiCl, its melting point is lower than NaCl and so NaCl is expected to have maximum melting point in the alkali chlorides.​


Question 12.
In which of the following substances, the intermolecular forces are hydrogen bonds?
(a) Hydrogen Chloride
(b) Hydrogen Sulphide
(c) Dry Ice
(d) Ice

Answer

Answer: (d) Ice
Explanation:
Ice is held together by hydrogen bonds.


Question 13.
Which one of the following pairs of species have the same bond order?
(a) CN and NO+
(b) CN and CN+
(c) O2 and CN
(d) NO+ and CN+

Answer

Answer: (d) NO+ and CN+
Explanation:
CN and NO+ are isoelectronic 14 and have same bond order.


Question 14.
Dipole-induced dipole interactions are present in which of the following pairs?
(a) H2O and alcohol
(b) Cl2 and CCl4
(c) HCl and He atoms
(d) SiF4 and He atoms

Answer

Answer: (c) HCl and He atoms
Explanation:
HCl is polar (μ ≠ 0) and He is non-polar (μ = 0) gives dipole-induced dipole interaction.


Question 15.
In allene (C3H4), the type(s) of hybridisation of the carbon atoms is (are)
(a) sp and sp³
(b) sp and sp²
(c) Only sp²
(d) sp² and sp³

Answer

Answer: (b) sp and sp²
Explanation:
Allene: H2​C = C = CH2. The central carbon is attached to other carbons by two sigma and two pi bonds so its hybridisation will be sp. The terminal carbon is attached to other carbon and hydrogen by 3 sigma and 2 pi bonds and hence, its hybridisation will be sp²


Question 16.
The weakest interparticle forces are found in which of the following?
(a) Ionic Solids
(b) Metallic Solids
(c) Molecular Solids
(d) All types of solids are equal in terms of interparticle forces.

Answer

Answer: (c) Molecular Solids
Explanation:
Molecular solids are the weakest.
Because Ionic solids and metallic solids are a type of bond. Bonds are stronger than Van der Waals forces.


Question 17.
Which of the following types of hybridisation leads to three dimensional geometry of bonds around the carbon atom ?
(a) sp
(b) sp²
(c) sp³
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) sp²
Explanation:
sp² hybrid structures have trigonal planar geometry, which is two dimensional.


Question 18.
If the bond length and dipole moment of a diatomic molecule are 1.25 A and 1.0 D respectively, what is the percent ionic character of the bond?
(a) 10.66
(b) 12.33
(c) 16.66
(d) 19.33

Answer

Answer: (c) 16.66
Explanation:
μionic = (1.6 × 10−19 C)(1.25 × 10−10 m)/(3.335 × 10−30) (Cm/D)
= 5.99 D
%ionic character = (100 × μobs)/ (μionic)
=100 × 15.99 = 16.66%


Question 19.
The number of types of bonds between two carbon atoms in calcium carbide is
(a) Two sigma, two pi
(b) One sigma, two pi
(c) One sigma, one pi
(d) Two sigma, one pi

Answer

Answer: (b) One sigma, two pi
Explanation:
A single bond between two atoms is always considered as sigma bond.
A double bond between two atoms is always considered as one sigma and one pi bond
A triple bond between two atoms is always considered as one sigma bond and two pi bonds.
So according to the given structure CaC2 (Calcium carbide) has 1 sigma and 2 pi bonds


Question 20.
Which of the following species contain non-directional bonds ?
(a) NCl3
(b) BeCl2
(c) BCl3
(d) RbCl

Answer

Answer: (b) BeCl2
Explanation:
Ionic or electrovalent bonds are called non-directional bonds, the meaning of non-directional is that these type of bonds does not have any special type of geometry, that is only attraction of positive and negative charge as we know ionic bonds made between metal[positively charged] and non-metal[negatively charged]

RbCl is ionic compound and non-directional


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