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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 5 States of Matter with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 5 States of Matter with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these States of Matter Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

States of Matter Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the States of Matter Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 5 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on States of Matter Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 5 Chemistry Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
Three containers A, B, C of equal volume contain oxygen, neon and methane respectively at same temperature and pressure. The increasing order of their masses is
(a) A < B < C
(b) B < C < A
(c) C < A < B
(d) C < B < A

Answer

Answer: (d) C < B < A
Explanation:
Under similar conditions of temperature and pressure, equal volumes of different gases contain equal number of moles.
Therefore, Masses of O2, Ne and CH4 will be in the ratio 32 : 20 : 16
So, increasing order of their mass is oxygen > neon > methane


Question 2.
A gas will approach ideal behaviour at
(a) Low temperature, low pressure
(b) Low temperature, high pressure
(c) High temperature, low pressure
(d) High temperature, high pressure

Answer

Answer: (c) High temperature, low pressure
Explanation:
At high temperature and low pressure, the gas volume becomes large and both intermolecular force as well as the molecular volume can be neglected. Under this condition postulate of kinetic theory applies appropriately and gas approaches ideal behavior.


Question 3.
Containers A and B have same gas. Pressure, volume and temperature of A are all twice those of B. The ratio of number of molecules of A and B is
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 1 : 4
(d) 4 : 1

Answer

Answer: (b) 2 : 1
Explanation:
For B, P1 = P, V1 = V, T1 = T.
For A, P1 = 2P, = 2P, V2 = 2P,T1 = 2T
Applying ideal gas equation, PV = nRT.
(P1V1)/ (n1RT1) = (P2V2)/ (n2RT2)
or (PV)/(n1RT) = (2p × 2V)/(n2R(2T))
or (n2/n1) = (2/1)


Question 4.
According to kinetic theory of gases,in an ideal gas,between two successive collisions a gas molecule travels
(a) In a circular path
(b) In a wavy path
(c) In a straight line path
(d) With an accelerated velocity

Answer

Answer: (c) In a straight line path
Explanation:
ln between two successive collisions, no force is acting on the gas molecules. Resultantly they travel with uniform velocity during this interval and hence, moves along a straight line.


Question 5.
When did substances exist in different crystalline forms the phenomenon is called :
(a) Allotropy
(b) Polymorphism
(c) Polymerization
(d) Isomorphism

Answer

Answer: (b) Polymorphism
Explanation:
Polymorphism, in crystallography, the condition in which a solid chemical compound exists in more than one crystalline form; the forms differ somewhat in physical and, sometimes, chemical properties, although their solutions and vapours are identical.


Question 6.
Sl unit of pressure is :
(a) Pascal
(b) torr
(c) mm of Hg
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Pascal
Explanation:
Pressure is the effect of a force applied to an area of any surface. The basic unit of pressure is obtained from combining base units which are force over area.
Pressure = (Force/Area)
Unit of force is: Newton(N)
Unit of Area is: m²(metre)
P = N/m²
And the unit of pressure in SI system is Pascal which is denoted by Pa.
1 Pa = 1 (N/m²)


Question 7.
If the pressure of a gas is increased then its mean free path becomes:
(a) 0
(b) Less
(c) More
(d) Infinity

Answer

Answer: (b) Less
Explanation:
As gas pressure increases mean free path of the gas decreases.
Mean free path is the distance travelled by a gas molecule between two successive collisions.
So, as pressure increases number of collisions also increases. Hence, mean free path decreases.​


Question 8.
1 atmosphere is equal to:
(a) 1 torr
(b) 760 cm
(c) 760 mm
(d) 76 torr

Answer

Answer: (c) 760 mm
Explanation:
Standard atmosphere, unit of pressure, equal to the mean atmospheric pressure at sea level. It corresponds to the pressure exerted by a vertical column of mercury (as in a barometer) 760 mm (29.9213 inches) high. One standard atmosphere, which is also referred to as one atmosphere, is equivalent to 101,325 pascals, or newtons of force per square metre (approximately 14.7 pounds per square inch).


Question 9.
Grahams law refers to :
(a) Boiling point of water
(b) Gaseous Diffusion
(c) Gas Compression
(d) Volume changes of gases

Answer

Answer: (b) Gaseous Diffusion
Explanation:
Graham found experimentally that the rate of effusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of the mass of its particles. This formula can be written as:
(Rate1/ Rate2) = (M2/ M1)(1/2)
where:
Rate1 is the rate of effusion for the first gas. (volume or number of moles per unit time).
Rate2 is the rate of effusion for the second gas.
M1 is the molar mass of gas 1
M2 is the molar mass of gas 2.

Grahams law states that the rate of diffusion or of effusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its molecular weight. Thus, if the molecular weight of one gas is four times that of another, it would diffuse through a porous plug or escape through a small pinhole in a vessel at half the rate of the other (heavier gases diffuse more slowly). A complete theoretical explanation of Grahams law was provided years later by the kinetic theory of gases. Grahams law provides a basis for separating isotopes by diffusion a method that came to play a crucial role in the development of the atomic bomb


Question 10.
The rise or fall of a liquid within a tube of small bore is called :
(a) Surface Tension
(b) Capillary Action
(c) Viscosity
(d) Formation of Curvature

Answer

Answer: (b) Capillary Action
Explanation:
Capillarity, rise or depression of a liquid in a small passage such as a tube of small cross-sectional area, like the spaces between the fibres of a towel or the openings in a porous material. Capillarity is not limited to the vertical direction. Water is drawn into the fibres of a towel, no matter how the towel is oriented.

Liquids that rise in small-bore tubes inserted into the liquid are said to wet the tube, whereas liquids that are depressed within thin tubes below the surface of the surrounding liquid do not wet the tube. Water is a liquid that wets glass capillary tubes; mercury is one that does not. When wetting does not occur, capillarity does not occur.

Capillarity is the result of surface, or interfacial, forces. The rise of water in a thin tube inserted in water is caused by forces of attraction between the molecules of water and the glass walls and among the molecules of water themselves. These attractive forces just balance the force of gravity of the column of water that has risen to a characteristic height. The narrower the bore of the capillary tube, the higher the water rises. Mercury, conversely, is depressed to a greater degree, the narrower the bore.


Question 11.
The rates of diffusion of gases are inversely proportional to square root of their densities . This statement refers to :
(a) Daltons Law
(b) Grahams Law
(c) Avogadros Law
(d) None of the Above

Answer

Answer: (b) Grahams Law
Explanation:
Grahams law states that the rate of diffusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its molecular weight. In the same conditions of temperature and pressure, the molar mass is proportional to the mass density. Therefore the rate of diffusion of different gases is inversely proportional to the square root of their mass densities.
r α √(1/d)
and r α √ (1/M)


Question 12.
Cooling is caused by :
(a) Evaporation
(b) Convection
(c) Conduction
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Conduction
Explanation:
Evaporation is a cooling process because when liquid turns to gas. When a liquid evaporates, its molecules convert from the liquid phase to the vapor phase and escape from the surface. Heat drives this process. In order for the molecule to leave the liquid surface and escape as a vapor, it must take heat energy with it. The heat that it takes with it comes from the surface from which it evaporated. Since the molecule is taking heat with it as its leaving, this has a cooling effect on the surface left behind.


Question 13.
If helium and methane are allowed to diffuse out of the container under the similar conditions of temperature and pressure, then the ratio of rate of diffusion of helium to methane is:
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 3 : 5
(d) 4 : 1

Answer

Answer: (a) 2 : 1
Explanation:
According to Grahams law
(r1/ r2) = √ (M2/M1)
(rHe/rCH4) = √ (16/4)
= (2/1)


Question 14.
Equal masses of ethane and hydrogen are mixed in an empty container at 25°C . The fraction of total pressure exerted by hydrogen is
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 1 : 1
(c) 01 : 16
(d) 15 : 16

Answer

Answer: (d) 15 : 16
Explanation:
Let 30g of both are mixed.
Moles of H2 = (30/2) =15
Moles of C2H6 = (30/30) = 1
Mole fraction of H2 = (15)/(1 + 15) = (15/16)
Which is also the fraction of total pressure executed by H2


Question 15.
The volume of 2.8 g of carbon monoxide at 27°C and 0.0821 atm is
(a) 30 L
(b) 3 L
(c) 0.3 L
(d) 1.5 L

Answer

Answer: (a) 30 L
Explanation:
According to the ideal gas equation, we have
PV = nRT
​PV = (w/M) RT
​V = ​ (w/M) (RT/P)
Given values are:
w = 2.8 g
M = Molar mass of CO = 28 g mol-1
T = 27°C = (273 + 27) = 300 K
P = 0.821 atm
R = 0.0821 L atm mol-1 K-1
Putting the values in the formula we get :
V = (2.8 g /28 g mol-1) × (0.0821 L atm mol-1 K-1) × (300 K)/(0.821 atm)
= 3 L


Question 16.
According to kinetic theory of gases,in an ideal gas,between two successive collisions a gas molecule travels
(a) In a circular path
(b) In a wavy path
(c) In a straight line path
(d) With an accelerated velocity

Answer

Answer: (c) In a straight line path
Explanation:
ln between two successive collisions, no force is acting on the gas molecules. Resultantly they travel with uniform velocity during this interval and hence, moves along a straight line.


Question 17.
Standard conditions are :
(a) 0°C and 14. 7mm
(b) 32°F and 76 cm
(c) 273°C and 760 mm
(d) 4°C and 76 m

Answer

Answer: (b) 32°F and 76 cm
Explanation:
Standard conditions for temperature and pressure are standard sets of conditions for experimental measurements to be established to allow comparisons to be made between different sets of data.
Until 1982, STP was defined as a temperature of 273.15 K (0 °C, 32 °F) and an absolute pressure of exactly 1 atm (101.325 kPa).
Since 1982, STP is defined as a temperature of 273.15 K (0 °C, 32 °F) and an absolute pressure of exactly 105 Pa (100 kPa, 1 bar).


Question 18.
The internal resistance to the flow of a liquid is called :
(a) Surface Tension
(b) Diffusion
(c) Viscosity
(d) Osmosis

Answer

Answer: (c) Viscosity
Explanation:
Viscosity is a measure of a fluids resistance to flow. It describes the internal friction of a moving fluid. A fluid with large viscosity resists motion because its molecular makeup gives it a lot of internal friction. A fluid with low viscosity flows easily because its molecular makeup results in very little friction when it is in motion.
Gases also have viscosity, although it is a little harder to notice it in ordinary circumstances.


Question 19.
When did substances exist in different crystalline forms the phenomenon is called :
(a) Allotropy
(b) Polymorphism
(c) Polymerization
(d) Isomorphism

Answer

Answer: (b) Polymorphism
Explanation:
Polymorphism, in crystallography, the condition in which a solid chemical compound exists in more than one crystalline form; the forms differ somewhat in physical and, sometimes, chemical properties, although their solutions and vapours are identical.


Question 20.
The temperature above which the gas cannot be liquified by pressure alone is called :
(a) Melting Point
(b) Critical Temperature
(c) Transition Temperature
(d) Absolute Zero

Answer

Answer: (b) Critical Temperature
Explanation:
The critical temperature of a gas is the temperature below which it can be liquefied by application of pressure.


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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 6 Thermodynamics with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 6 Thermodynamics with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Thermodynamics Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Thermodynamics Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Thermodynamics Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 6 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Thermodynamics Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 6 Chemistry Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
Hesss law is an application of
(a) 1st law of Thermodynamics
(b) 2nd law of Thermodynamics
(c) Entropy change
(d) ∆H = ∆U + P∆V.

Answer

Answer: (a) 1st law of Thermodynamics
Explanation:
Hesss law is an expression of the principle of conservation of energy, also expressed in the first law of thermodynamics, and the fact that the enthalpy of a chemical process is independent of the path taken from the initial to the final state (i.e. enthalpy is a state function).


Question 2.
5 mole of an ideal gas expand isothermally and irreversibly from a pressure of 10 atm to 1 atm against a constant external pressure of 1 atm. Wirr at 300 K is:
(a) -15.921 kJ
(b) -11.224 kJ
(c) -110.83 kJ
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) -11.224 kJ
Explanation:
P1V1 = RT η
10(V1) = 5(8.3)(300) 1
V1 = 150(0.0821)
P1V1 = P2V2
Therefore, 10(150 x0.0821) = 1 (V2)
Therefore V2 = 10(150 × 0.0821)
Therefore, -P Therefore V = -(1)(9)(150 × 0.0821) 101.3
= -11224 J = -11.224 KJ


Question 3.
At absolute zero the entropy of a perfect crystal is zero. This statement corresponds to which law of thermodynamics?
(a) Zeroth Law
(b) First Law
(c) Second Law
(d) Third Law

Answer

Answer: (d) Third Law
Explanation:
The third law of thermodynamics states that the entropy of a system approaches a constant value as the temperature approaches absolute zero. The entropy of a system at absolute zero is typically zero, and in all cases is determined only by the number of different ground states it has. Specifically, the entropy of a pure crystalline substance (perfect order) at absolute zero temperature is zero. This statement holds true if the perfect crystal has only one state with minimum energy.


Question 4.
Which of the following has the highest entropy?
(a) Mercury
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Water
(d) Graphite

Answer

Answer: (b) Hydrogen
Explanation:
Gas has the highest entropy.


Question 5.
An ideal gas is taken through the cycle A → B → C → A as shown in figure. If the net heat supplied to the gas in cycle is 5 J, the work done by the gas in the process C → A.
MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 6 Thermodynamics with Answers 1
(a) -5 J
(b) -15 J
(c) -10 J
(d) -20 J

Answer

Answer: (a) -5 J
Explanation:
Work done by the gas is negative
∆ U in cyclic process is zero.
Therefore, w = -5J


Question 6.
One mole of which of the following has the highest entropy?
(a) Liquid Nitrogen
(b) Hydrogen Gas
(c) Mercury
(d) Diamond

Answer

Answer: (b) Hydrogen Gas
Explanation:
The measure of randomness of a substance is called entropy. Greater the randomness of molecules of a substance greater is the entropy. Here hydrogen gas has more entropy as it shows more randomness/disorderliness due to less molar mass than all the given substances and also in the gas phase.


Question 7.
An ideal gas is taken around the cycle ABCA as shown in P-V diagram The next work done by the gas during the cycle is equal to:
MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 6 Thermodynamics with Answers 2
(a) 12P1V1
(b) 6P1V1
(c) 5P1V1
(d) P1V1

Answer

Answer: (c) 5P1V1
Explanation:
Work done = Area under P-V graph = (1/2) (5P1) (2V1) = 5P1 V1


Question 8.
Third law of thermodynamics provides a method to evaluate which property?
(a) Absolute Energy
(b) Absolute Enthalpy
(c) Absolute Entropy
(d) Absolute Free Energy

Answer

Answer: (c) Absolute Entropy
Explanation:
The Third Law of Thermodynamics is concerned with the limiting behavior of systems as the temperature approaches absolute zero. Most thermodynamics calculations use only entropy differences, so the zero point of the entropy scale is often not important. However, the Third Law tells us about the completeness as it describes the condition of zero entropy.


Question 9.
Which of the following is/are a reason that water is a desirable heat sink for use in calorimeters?
I) Waters heat specific capacity is very precisely known.
II) Water is readily available.
III) Water has an unusually large specific heat capacity.
(a) I only
(b) I and II
(c) I, II and III
(d) II only

Answer

Answer: (c) I, II and III
Explanation:
Water is a good heat sink for all of the reasons listed above. Moreover, its large heat capacity, liquid state and ready availability enable us to easily set up a calorimeter such that ∆T is large enough that it can be easily measured and small enough that phase transition temperatures are not reached.


Question 10.
In a chemical reaction the bond energy of reactants is more than the bond energy of the products. Therefore, the reaction is
(a) Exothermic
(b) Athermic
(c) Endothermic
(d) Endergonic

Answer

Answer: (c) Endothermic
Explanation:
If the products have a higher energy level than the reactants then the reaction is endothermic.
In an endothermic reaction, the reaction mixture absorbs heat from the surroundings. Therefore, the products will have a higher energy than the reactants and ΔH will be positive.
In an exothermic reaction, the reaction mixture releases heat to the surroundings. Therefore, the products will have a lower energy than the reactants and ΔH will be negative.


Question 11.
In a reversible process the system absorbs 600 kJ heat and performs 250 kJ work on the surroundings. What is the increase in the internal energy of the system?
(a) 850 kJ
(b) 600 kJ
(c) 350 kJ
(d) 250 kJ

Answer

Answer: (c) 350 kJ
Explanation:
∆E = q + w
= (600 – 250)
∆E = 350 J


Question 12.
Which of the following neutralisation reactions is most exothermic?
(a) HCl and NaOH
(b) HCN and NaOH
(c) HCl and NH4OH
(d) CH3COOH and NH4OH

Answer

Answer: (a) HCl and NaOH
Explanation:
Strong acid + Strong base → Most exothermic.


Question 13.
A student runs a reaction in a closed system. In the course of the reaction, 64.7 kJ of heat is released to the surroundings and 14.3 kJ of work is done on the system. What is the change in internal energy (∆U) of the reaction?
(a) -79.0 kJ
(b) 50.4 kJ
(c) 79.0 kJ
(d) -50.4 kJ

Answer

Answer: (d) -50.4 kJ
Explanation:
The change in internal energy is given as: ∆U = q + w. In this reaction, q is -64.7 kJ and w is 14.3 kJ. Therefore the correct answer is -50.4 kJ.


Question 14.
Identify the correct statement from the following in a chemical reaction.
(a) The entropy always increases
(b) The change in entropy along with suitable change in enthalpy decides the fate of a reaction
(c) The enthalpy always decreases
(d) Both the enthalpy and the entropy remain constant

Answer

Answer: (b) The change in entropy along with suitable change in enthalpy decides the fate of a reaction
Explanation:
ΔG = ΔH – TΔS
For a reaction to be spontaneous, ΔG should be negative. Therefore, resultant of ΔH and TΔS decide show the reaction will be carried.


Question 15.
2 mole of an ideal gas at 27° C expands isothermally and reversibly from a volume of 4 litres to 40 litre. The work done (in kJ) is:
(a) w = -28.72 kJ
(b) w = -11.488 kJ
(c) w = -5.736 kJ
(d) w = -4.988 kJ

Answer

Answer: (b) w = -11.488 kJ
Explanation:
w = -2.303 η RT log (V2/V1)
= -2.303(8 – 3) (300)(2) log (40/4)
= -114.8 100J


Question 16.
The latent heat of vapourization of ε liquid at 500 K and 1 atm pressure is 10.0 kcal/mol. What will be the change in internal energy (ΔU) of 3 moles of liquid at the same temperature
(a) 13.0 kcal/mol
(b) −13.0 kcal/mol
(c) 27.0 kcal
(d) −7.0 kcal/mol

Answer

Answer: (c) 27.0 kcal
Explanation:
3H2O(l) → 3H2O(g);
Δn = 3,
ΔE = ΔH − ΔnRT
= 30 − 3 × (2/1000) × 500
= 27 kcal


Question 17.
Calculate the heat required to make 6.4 Kg CaC2 from CaO(s) and C(s) from the reaction: CaO(s) + 3 C(s) → CaC2(s) + CO (g) given that ∆f H° (CaC2) = -14.2 kcal. ∆f H° (CO) = -26.4 kcal.
(a) 5624 kca
(b) 1.11 × 104 kcal
(c) 86.24 × 10³
(d) 1100 kcal

Answer

Answer: (b) 1.11 × 104 kcal
Explanation:
n = (Mass)/ (Molecular weight)
= (6.4 × 10³)/ (64)
= 100
For 1 mole of CaC2
∆ H = ∆Hf (CaC) + Hf (CO) – Hf (CaO)
= -14.2 – 26.4 + 151.6 = 111.1 kcal
For 100 moles, ∆H = 1.11 x 104 Kcal


Question 18.
Entropy of the universe is
(a) Continuously Increasing
(b) Continuously Decreasing
(c) Zero
(d) Constant

Answer

Answer: (a) Continuously Increasing
Explanation:
Energy always flows downhill, and this causes an increase of entropy. Entropy is the spreading out of energy, and energy tends to spread out as much as possible. The universe will have run down completely, and the entropy of the universe will be as high as it is ever going to get.


Question 19.
At absolute zero the entropy of a perfect crystal is zero. This statement corresponds to which law of thermodynamics?
(a) Zeroth Law
(b) First Law
(c) Second Law
(d) Third Law

Answer

Answer: (d) Third Law
Explanation:
The third law of thermodynamics states that the entropy of a system approaches a constant value as the temperature approaches absolute zero. The entropy of a system at absolute zero is typically zero, and in all cases is determined only by the number of different ground states it has. Specifically, the entropy of a pure crystalline substance (perfect order) at absolute zero temperature is zero. This statement holds true if the perfect crystal has only one state with minimum energy.


Question 20.
The bond energy (in kcal mol-1) of a C-C single bond is approximately
(a) 1
(b) 10
(c) 83-85
(d) 1000

Answer

Answer: (c) 83-85
Explanation:
C–C bond 83–85 kcal/mol
It is the energy required to break the bond .It is defined as the standard enthalpy change when a bond is cleaved by homolysis, with reactants and products of the homolysis reaction at 0 K (absolute zero)


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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 7 Equilibrium with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 7 Equilibrium with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Equilibrium Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Equilibrium Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Equilibrium Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 7 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Equilibrium Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 7 Chemistry Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
Which of the following fluoro-compounds is most likely to behave as a Lewis base?
(a) BF3
(b) PF3
(c) CF4
(d) SiF4

Answer

Answer: (b) PF3
Explanation:
BF3 → Lewis acid (incomplete octet)
PF3 → Lewis base (presence of lone pair on p atom)
CF4 → Complete octet
SiF4 → Lewis acid (empty d-orbital in Si-atom)


Question 2.
Calculate the pOH of a solution at 25°C that contains 1 × 10-10 M of hydronium ions, i.e. H3O+.
(a) 4.000
(b) 9.000
(c) 1.000
(d) 7.000

Answer

Answer: (a) 4.000
Explanation:
Given H3O+ ion concentration = 1 × 10-10
pH = −log[H+], pH = −log[1 × 10-10],
pH= + 10log10, pH = 10
We know that, pH + pOH = 14 …….. (i)
Put the value of pH in eq. (i)
10 + pOH = 14
pOH = 4.


Question 3.
When two reactants, A and B are mixed to give products C and D, the reaction quotient, Q, at the initial stages of the reaction
(a) is zero
(b) Decreases With Time
(c) Is Independent Of Time
(d) Increases With Time

Answer

Answer: (d) Increases With Time
Explanation:
Reaction quotient, Qc is equal to ratio of concentration of products to concentration of reactants at any instant of time. In the beginning of reaction, the concentration of products is negligible as compared to reactants. Therefore, the value of reaction quotient is very less.


Question 4.
1 M NaCl and 1 M HCl are present in an aqueous solution. The solution is
(a) Not a buffer solution with pH < 7
(b) Not a buffer solution with pH > 7
(c) A buffer solution with pH < 7
(d) A buffer solution with pH > 7

Answer

Answer: (a) Not a buffer solution with pH < 7
Explanation:
Buffer can accept and donate protons at the same time and HCl is an acid. So, it has pH < 7
So, this is not a buffer and the solution will be acidic.


Question 5.
If, in the reaction N2O4 2NO2, x is that part of N2O4 which dissociates, then the number of molecules at equilibrium will be
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) (1 + x)
(d) (1 + xy)²

Answer

Answer: (a) 1
Explanation:
N2O4 ↔ 2NO2
1 0 (1 – x) 2x
So total number of moles at equilibrium (if initially 1 mole of N2O4 was taken) = (1 – x) + 2x
= (1 + x)


Question 6.
The solubility product of a salt having general formula MX2. In water is : 4 × 10-12. The concentration of M2+ions in the aqueous solution of the salt is
(a) 4.0 × 10-10 M
(b) 1.6 × 10-4 M
(c) 1.0 × 10-4 M
(d) 2.0 × 10-6 M

Answer

Answer: (c) 1.0 × 10-4 M
Explanation:
(MX2) ⇔ M2+s + 2X2s
KSPMS2 = 4S³
= 4 × 10-12
Therefore, S = 10-4
Therefore [M2+] = 1.0 × 10-4M


Question 7.
Equimolar solutions of the following were prepared in water separately. Which one of the solutions will record the highest pH?
(a) CaCl2
(b) SrCl2
(c) BaCl2
(d) MgCl2

Answer

Answer: (c) BaCl2
Explanation:
Equimolar solutions of the given chlorides when prepared in water forms their respective hydroxides.
The pH of salt BaCl2 = 7, whereas SrCl2 and CaCl2 = 7 and MgCl2 < 7.


Question 8.
Oxidation number of Iodine varies from
(a) -1 to +1
(b) -1 to +7
(c) +3 to +5
(d) -1 to +5

Answer

Answer: (b) -1 to +7
Explanation:
Various oxidation numbers of Iodine are -1, 0, +1, +3, +5, +7.
So, Iodine shows -1 to +7 oxidation state.


Question 9.
Which of the following molecualr species has unpaired electrons?
(a) N2
(b) F2
(c) O2
(d) O2-2

Answer

Answer: (c) O2
Explanation:
In O2 total electrons are 17 moiecular orbital configuration.
O2 has one unpaired electron.


Question 10.
A certain buffer solution contains equal concentration of X and HX. The ka for HX is 10-8. The pH of the buffer is
(a) 3
(b) 8
(c) 11
(d) 14

Answer

Answer: (b) 8
Explanation:
ka kb = kw
kb = 10-8
ka × 10-8 = 10-14
ka = 10-6 = [H+]
pH = −log [H+]
pH = − log 10-6
= 6pH + pOH
= 14 pOH
= 14 − 6
= 8


Question 11.
Among the following the weakest Bronsted base is
(a) F
(b) Cl
(c) Br
(d) I

Answer

Answer: (d) I
Explanation:
According to this theory, an acid is a proton donor and a base is a proton acceptor. Every strong Bronsted acid has a weak conjugate base and every strong base has a weak conjugate acid. The acidity increases in halogen group atoms,
HF < HCl < HBr < HI.
So, HI is highly acidic and their conjugate bases decrease in order F > Cl > Br > I.


Question 12.
Which of the following statements is correct about the equilibrium constant?
(a) Its value increases by increase in temperature
(b) Its value decreases by decrease in temperature
(c) Its value may increase or decrease with increase in temperature
(d) Its value is constant at all temperatures

Answer

Answer: (c) Its value may increase or decrease with increase in temperature
Explanation:
Increase in the temperature decreases the value of equilibrium constant because forward reaction is exothermic. When the forward reaction is endothermic increase the temperature increases the value of equilibrium constant. These occurs when chemical equilibrium shifts toward the products or reactants.


Question 13.
pH value of which one of the following is NOT equal to one?
(a) 0.1 M CH3COOH
(b) 0.1 M HNO3
(c) 0.05 M H2SO4
(d) 50 cm³ 0.4 M HCl + 50 cm³ 0.2 M NaOH

Answer

Answer: (a) 0.1 M CH3COOH
Explanation:
Since CH3COOH does not dissociate completely, its 10-1 M solution does not have pH = 1


Question 14.
[ OH] in a solution is 1 mol L. The pH the solution is
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) 14
(d) 10-14

Answer

Answer: (c) 14
Explanation:
[H3O+] = (Kw)/ [OH]
= (10-14)/ (1)
pH = 14


Question 15.
What is the pH of a 0.10 M solution of barium hydroxide, Ba (OH)2?
(a) 11.31
(b) 11.7
(c) 13.30
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) 13.30
Explanation:
pH = 13.30
Barium hydroxide is a strong base for both stages of dissociation:
Ba (OH)2 (s) → Ba2+ + 2OH
So the solution will have 0.20 M hydroxide ions. Now use the auto dissociation product for water:
[H+][OH] = 1.0 × 10-14M
[OH] = 2.0 × 10-1M
[H+] = 5.0 × 10-14M
And then pH = −log10 ([H+] = 5.0 × 10-14)
= 13.30.


Question 16.
The Ksp for Cr (OH)3 is 1.6 × 10-30. The molar solubility of this compound in water is:
(a) √ (1.6 × 10-30)
(b) (√(1.6 × 10-30))(1/4)
(c) (√(1.6 × 10-30)/(27)))(1/4)
(d) (1.6 × 10-30)/(27)

Answer

Answer: (c) (√(1.6 × 10-30)/(27)))(1/4)


Question 17.
The solubility product of CuS, Ag2S and HgS are 10-31, 10-44 and 10-54 respectively. The solubilities of these sulphides are in the order
(a) HgS > Ag2S > CuS
(b) CuS > Ag2S > HgS
(c) Ag2S > CuS > HgS
(d) AgS > HgS > CuS

Answer

Answer: (c) Ag2S > CuS > HgS
Explanation:
For CuS & HgS Ksp = S² (where s= solubility) & for Ag2S ; Ksp = 4S3 (s= solubility) now put the values of Ksp and check in which case the value of S is highest & lowest.
Solubility of CuS : (10-31)(1/2) = ( 10(-31/2));
Ag2S: (10-44)(1/3) =( 10(-44/3));
HgS;
(10-54)(1/2) = (10-54/2) = (10-27);
The order of solubility will be as per above values:
Hence , the order of solubility is: Ag2S > CuS > HgS


Question 18.
Buffer solutions have constant acidity and alkalinity because
(a) They have large excess of H+ or OH ions
(b) They have fixed value of pH
(c) These give unionised acid or base on reaction with added acid or alkali
(d) Acids and alkalies in these solutions are shielded from attack by other ions

Answer

Answer: (c) These give unionised acid or base on reaction with added acid or alkali
Explanation:
Consider a buffer of CH3COOH + CH3COONa
Addition of acid: H+ + CH3COO – → CH3COOH
Weak acid
Addition of alkali:
OH + CH3COOH → H2O + CH3COO
Weak electrolyte
Thus, the addition of acid or alkali does not cause any change in pH.


Question 19.
The position of some metals in the electrochemical series in decreasing electropositive character is Mg > Al > Zn > Cu > Ag. In a chemical factory, a worker by accident used a copper rod to stir a solution of aluminium nitrate; he was scared that now there would be some reaction in the solution, so he hurriedly removed the rod from the solution and observed that
(a) The rod was coated with Al
(b) An alloy of Cu and Al was being formed.
(c) The solution turned blue in colour
(d) There was no reaction.

Answer

Answer: (d) There was no reaction.
Explanation:
Mg > Al > Zn > Cu > Ag Copper rod is used to stir solution of Al(NO3)3 so no reaction as one above in series will displace metal lower in series.


Question 20.
An amount of solid NH4HS is placed in a flask already contaniing ammonia gas at a certain temperature and 0.50 atm pressure. Ammonium hydrogen sulphide decomposes to yield NH3 and H2S gases in the flask. When the decomposition reaction reaches equilibrium , the total pressure in the flask rises to 0.84 atm? The equilibrium constant for NH4HS decomposition at this temperature is
(a) 0.11
(b) 0.17
(c) 0.18
(d) 0.30

Answer

Answer: (a) 0.11


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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 8 Redox Reactions with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 8 Redox Reactions with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Redox Reactions Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Redox Reactions Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Redox Reactions Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 8 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Redox Reactions Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 8 Chemistry Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
KMnO4 reacts with oxalic acid according to the equation 2MnO4 + 5C2O42- + 16H+ → 2Mn2+ + 10CO2 + 8H2O Here 20 mL of 0.1 M KMnO4 is equivalent to
(a) 50 mL of 0.5 M C2H2O4
(b) 20 mL of 0.1 M C2H2O4
(c) 20 mL of 0.5 M C2H2O4
(d) 50 mL of 0.1 M C2H2O4

Answer

Answer: (d) 50 mL of 0.1 MC2H2O4
Explanation:
2MnO4 + 5C2O42- + 16H+ → 2Mn2+ + 10CO2 + 8H2O
Therefore, 2 moles of MNO4 equivalent to 5 moles of C2O42-
20 mL of 0.1 M KMnO4 = 2 moles of KMnO4
Also, 50 mL of 0.1 M C2H2O4 equivalent to 5 mol of C2O42-
Therefore, these are equivalent.


Question 2.
Which of the following is a redox reaction?
(a) NaCl + KNO3 → NaNO3 + KCl
(b) Mg(OH)2 + 2NH4Cl → MgCl2 + 2NH4OH
(c) CaC2O4 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2C2O4
(d) 2Zn + 2AgCN → 2Ag + Zn(CN)2

Answer

Answer: (d) 2Zn + 2AgCN → 2Ag + Zn(CN)2
Explanation:
In all the three reaction there is no change in the oxidation states. These are simple ionic reactions.
But in 2Zn + 2AgCN → 2Ag + Zn(CN)2 there is a change in oxidation state. Ag gains electrons and Zn lose electrons therefore it is a redox reaction.


Question 3.
The reduction potential values of M, N and O are +2.46 V, -1.13 V, -3.13 V respectively. Which of the following orders is correct regarding their reducing property?
(a) O > N > M
(b) M > O > N
(c) M > N > O
(d) O > M > N

Answer

Answer: (d) O > M > N
Explanation:
Given Reduction Potential:
M → +2.46V
N → +1.13V
O → −3.13V
We know that the electrode which has more reduction potential is a good oxidizing agent and has least reducing power.
While the electrode which has less reduction potential, it has more reducing power.
Therefore, Order of reducing power is: – O > M > N


Question 4.
Which of the following processes does not involve either oxidation or reduction?
(a) Formation of slaked lime from quick lime
(b) Heating Mercuric Oxide
(c) Formation of Manganese Chloride from Manganese oxide
(d) Formation of Zinc from Zinc blende

Answer

Answer: (a) Formation of slaked lime from quick lime
Explanation:
Here, in this reaction
CaO + H2​O → Ca(OH)2
Oxidation number doesnt change so its not a redox reaction.


Question 5.
The number of moles of KMnO4 reduced by one mole of KI in alkaline medium is
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Five
(d) One fifth.

Answer

Answer: (b) Two
Explanation:
In alkaline medium the reduction of KMnO4 with KI will takes place as
2 KMnO4 + H2O → 2 KOH + 2 MnO2
KI + 3[O] → KIO3
Hence the overall reaction is
KI + 2KMnO4 + H2O → KIO3 + 2 KOH + 2 MnO2
So, one mole of KI will reduced two moles of KMnO4


Question 6.
What is known as Autooxidation?
(a) Formation of H2O by the oxidation of H2O2.
(b) Formation of H2O2 by the oxidation of H2O.
(c) Both (1) and (2) are true
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Formation of H2O2 by the oxidation of H2O.
Explanation:
Autoxidation is any oxidation that occurs in presence of oxygen. The term is usually used to describe the degradation of organic compounds in air (as a source of oxygen). Autoxidation produces hydroperoxides and cyclic organic peroxides. These species can react further to form many products. The process is relevant to many phenomena including aging, paint, and spoilage of foods, degradation of petrochemicals, and the industrial production of chemicals. Autoxidation is important because it is a useful reaction for converting compounds to oxygenated derivatives, and also because it occurs in situations where it is not desired (as in the destructive cracking of the rubber in automobile tires or in rancidification). Water automatically gets oxidised to hydrogen peroxide.


Question 7.
Which of the following statements regarding sulphur is incorrect ?
(a) S2 molecule is paramagnetic.
(b) The vapour at 200° C consists mostly of S8 rings.
(c) At 600°C the gas mainly consists of S2 molecules.
(d) The oxidation state of sulphur is never less than +4 in its compounds.

Answer

Answer: (d) The oxidation state of sulphur is never less than +4 in its compounds.
Explanation:
Oxidation state of oxygen family
Oxygen shows -2, +2 and -1
Oxidation states other elements show +2, +4 and +6 oxidation states
In H2S, the oxidation state of S is -2. Oxidation state of S lie between -2 to +6.
Option 1)
S2 molecule is paramagnetic.
This option is incorrect.
Option 2)
The vapour at 200° C consists mostly of S8 rings.
This option is incorrect.
Option 3)
At 600° C the gas mainly consists of S2 molecules.
This option is incorrect.
Option 4)
The oxidation state of sulphur is never less than +4 in its compounds.
This option is correct.


Question 8.
The oxidation number of Xe in BaXeO6 is
(a) 8
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) 10

Answer

Answer: (d) 10
Explanation:
Oxidation state of Ba in general = +2 and of O = −2
Applying formula, Sum of total oxidation state of all atoms = Overall charge on the compound.
Let oxidation state of Xe in BaXeO6 be x.
2 + x + 6(−2) = 0,
x = 10
But oxidation state 10 is not possible for Xe. In this case the oxidation state of Xe is equal to maximum possible oxidation state for Xe = +8.


Question 9.
CrO5 has structure as shown, The oxidation number of chromium in the compound is?
MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 8 Redox Reactions with Answers 1
(a) +10
(b) +6
(c) +4
(d) +5

Answer

Answer: (b) +6
Explanation:
From the above structure we can observe that 4 oxygen atoms are linked by peroxide linkage. So there oxidation state is -1 as in peroxide.
One oxygen atom is attached normally so its oxidation state is -2. So oxidation state of Cr is x + 4(−1) + (−2) = 0, x = +6


Question 10.
Pure water is bad conductor of electricity because
(a) It has high boiling point
(b) It is almost unionised
(c) Its molecules are associated with H- bonds
(d) Its pH is 7 at 25°C

Answer

Answer: (b) It is almost unionised
Explanation:
Distilled water is a poor conductor of electricity because it does not contain any dissolved salts in it which can provide it ions to conduct electricity. Impurities in water get ionised to conduct electricity. Hence pure water cannot conduct electricity.


Question 11.
The oxidation process involves
(a) Increase in oxidation number
(b) Decrease in oxidation number
(c) No change in oxidation number
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Increase in oxidation number
Explanation:
Oxidation process Involves:-
Addition of O2 or electronegative element
Removal of H/ electropositive element
Loss of electrons
Increase in oxidation number


Question 12.
The ionic mobility of alkali metal ions in aqueous solution is maximum for
(a) Li+
(b) Na+
(c) K+
(d) Rb+

Answer

Answer: (d) Rb+
Explanation:
The smaller is the ion, the more is hydration, the larger is size, lesser is the mobility.


Question 13.
Pure water is bad conductor of electricity because
(a) It has high boiling point
(b) It is almost unionised
(c) Its molecules are associated with H- bonds
(d) Its pH is 7 at 25°C

Answer

Answer: (b) It is almost unionised
Explanation:
Distilled water is a poor conductor of electricity because it does not contain any dissolved salts in it which can provide it ions to conduct electricity.
Impurities in water get ionised to conduct electricity. Hence pure water cannot conduct electricity.


Question 14.
The oxidation number of Fe in K4 [Fe (CN)6] is
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) Zero

Answer

Answer: (c) 2
Explanation:
The oxidation number of Fe in K4 Fe (CN)6 can be calculated as follows,
Oxidation state of K = 1, CN = -1.
Let Oxidation state of Fe be x. so
4(+1) + x + 6(-1) = 0
Hence x = +2


Question 15.
A standard hydrogen electrode has zero electrode potential because
(a) Hydrogen is easiest to oxidise
(b) This electrode potential is assumed to be zero
(c) Hydrogen atom has only one electron
(d) Hydrogen is the lightest element

Answer

Answer: (b) This electrode potential is assumed to be zero
Explanation:
The electrode potential of a standard hydrogen electrode is arbitrarily assumed to be zero.


Question 16.
Burning of lime to give calcium oxide and carbon dioxide is
(a) An Oxidation Process
(b) A Reduction Process
(c) Disproportionation
(d) Decomposition.

Answer

Answer: (d) Decomposition.
Explanation:
Lime water formula is Calcium hydroxide (Ca(OH)2)
Ca(OH)2 in the presence of excess heat gives calcium oxide(CaO) , Carbon dioxide (CO2), and water(H2O).
In this process excess of heat is given and lime water breaks down in different compounds, therefore it undergoes Thermal decomposition reaction.


Question 17.
The colourless solution of silver nitrate slowly turns blue on adding copper chips to it because of
(a) Dissolution of Copper
(b) Oxidation of Ag+ → Ag
(c) Reduction of Cu2+ ions
(d) Oxidation of Cu atoms.

Answer

Answer: (d) Oxidation of Cu atoms.
Explanation:
When copper turnings are added to silver nitrate solution, the solution becomes brown in color after sometime because copper is more reactive than silver so it displaces silver from silver nitrate solution and form copper nitrate solution.


Question 18.
The oxidation number of carbon in CH2 Cl2 is
(a) 0
(b) +2
(c) +3
(d) +5

Answer

Answer: (a) 0
Explanation:
The oxidation state of carbon in dichloromethane as x.
Also the charges on H and Cl are +1 and −1 respectively.
Therefore, CH2​Cl2 ​→ x + 2(+1) +2(−1) = 0
⇒ x = 0


Question 19.
The oxidation state of I in IPO4 is
(a) +1
(b) +3
(c) +5
(d) +7

Answer

Answer: (b) +3
Explanation:
Let oxidation state of iodine be x.
x − 3 = 0, x = +3,
Because PO43- has combined oxidation number −3.
Therefore, x − 3 = 0
∴ x = +3
Thus oxidation state of iodine is +3.


Question 20.
The relationship between electrode potentials and concentrations of the substances involved in half cell reaction is given by
(a) Habers process
(b) Hess Law
(c) Nernst Equation
(d) None of the Above

Answer

Answer: (c) Nernst Equation
Explanation:
The relationship between electrode potentials and concentrations of the substances involved in half cell reaction is given by Nernst Equation.
E = E°−(2.303RT)/(nF) log[Mn+]/[M]
Where
E = cell potential (V) under specific conditions
E°= cell potential at standard-state conditions
R = ideal gas constant = 8.314 J/mol-k
T = temperature (kelvin), which is generally 25C (298 K)
n = number of moles of electrons transferred in the balanced equation
F = Faradays constant, the charge on a mole of electrons = 95,484.56 C/mol
[M] and [Mn+] are molar concentrations of element and its cation resp.


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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 9 Hydrogen with Answers

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 9 Hydrogen with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Hydrogen Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Hydrogen Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Hydrogen Multiple Choice Questions of Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 9 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Hydrogen Class 11 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 9 Chemistry Class 11 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
When water is dropped over sodium peroxide, the colourless gas produced is:
(a) DiNitrogen
(b) DiOxygen
(c) DiHydrogen
(d) Hydrogen Peroxide

Answer

Answer: (b) DiOxygen
Explanation:
When sodium peroxide dissolves in water:
2Na2O2 + 2H2O → 4NaOH + O2


Question 2.
The atomic weights of isotopes of all element are different due to different number of __________.
(a) Protons
(b) Electrons
(c) Neutrons
(d) None of Above

Answer

Answer: (c) Neutrons
Explanation:
Isotopes are variants of a particular chemical element which differ in neutron number, and consequently in nucleon number. All isotopes of a given element have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons in each atom.


Question 3.
During the reaction of natural gas and steam the catalyst used is
(a) Fe
(b) Zn
(c) Ni
(d) Cr

Answer

Answer: (c) Ni
Explanation:
Steam reforming of natural gas is the most common method of producing commercial bulk hydrogen at about 95% of the world production of 500 billion m3 in 1998, or 70 million tonnes by 2018.Hydrogen is used in the industrial synthesis of ammonia and other chemicals. At high temperatures (700 – 1100°C) and in the presence of a metal-based catalyst (nickel), steam reacts with methane to yield carbon monoxide and hydrogen.
CH4 + H2O ⇌ CO + 3 H2


Question 4.
Cavendish in 766 discovered.
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Oxygen
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Helium

Answer

Answer: (c) Hydrogen
Explanation:
Henry Cavendish FRS was an English natural philosopher, scientist, and an important experimental and theoretical chemist and physicist. He is noted for his discovery of hydrogen, which he termed “inflammable air”. He described the density of inflammable air, which formed water on combustion, in a 1766 paper, On Factitious Airs. Antoine Lavoisier later reproduced Cavendishs experiment and gave the element its name.


Question 5.
Dihydrogen gas may be prepared by heating caustic soda on
(a) Cu
(b) Zn
(c) Na
(d) Ag

Answer

Answer: (b) Zn
Explanation:
When a base reacts with a metal salt in hydrogen gas is formed. In this reaction metal is zinc & base is Sodium hydroxide. When sodium hydroxide solution is heated with zinc granules then Sodium zincate and hydrogen gas are formed.
2NaOH (aq) + Zn(s) → Na2ZnO2 (aq)+ H2(g)
The salt formed by the reaction between a base and a metal, the metal is present as a part of the Negative ion. In the sodium zincate salt (Na2ZnO2) formed by the reaction between Sodium Hydroxide and Zinc metal, the zinc metal is present at a part of a negative ions , zincate ion (ZnO2-2 ) All the metals do not react with bases to form salt and hydrogen gas. The main product formed in this reaction is sodium zincate (Na2ZnO2)


Question 6.
Hydrogen set free at the time of its preparation from its compound in atomic form are called _________.
(a) Nascent Molecular Hydrogen
(b) Nascent Atomic Hydride
(c) Both (1) and (2)
(d) Nascent Hydrogen

Answer

Answer: (a) Nascent Molecular Hydrogen
Explanation:
The hydrogen set free at the time of its preparation from its compounds is also in atom from and is commonly known nascent hydrogen. The newly born hydrogen is in atomic form that is why it is called nascent hydrogen.


Question 7.
Which substance does not speed up decomposition of H2O2
(a) Glycerol
(b) Pt
(c) Gold
(d) MnO2

Answer

Answer: (b) Pt
Explanation:
Glycerol, phosphoric acid or acetanilide is added to H2O2 to check its decomposition.


Question 8.
Water shows anomalous behavior between
(a) 0 to 4 °C
(b) 0 to 5 °C
(c) 0 to -4 °C
(d) 4 to 0 °C

Answer

Answer: (a) 0 to 4 °C
Explanation:
Water show a wide range of anomalies compared to similar liquids or hydrides of other group 16 elements. One of the most talked-about anomalies is the formation of ice from liquid water and how the density changes when we cool the water.

O is a small atom and highly electronegative compared to Hydrogen. So O attracts the covalent clouds of O-H towards itself, thus making water a polar molecule. The hydrogen bonding in water molecules causes high boiling point and liquid state compared to other hydrides of group 16.

When we cool water from higher temperature, the density steadily decreases. At 4 degree C it is the highest. But below 4 degree C, The H-bonds break between the molecules and the molecules get drifted further apart, the volume increases and density decreases. The crystalline form of water is ice. At atmospheric pressure ice crystallises in the hexagonal form, but at very low temperatures it condenses to cubic form leaving gap between the structures, thus increasing the volume again.

Density of ice is less than that of water. Therefore, an ice cube floats on water. In winter season ice formed on the surface of a lake provides thermal insulation which ensures the survival of the aquatic life.


Question 9.
Which of the following pair of substance will not evolve H2 gas
(a) Iron and aqueous H2SO4
(b) Copper and HCl(aq)
(c) Sodium and Ethanol
(d) Iron and Steam

Answer

Answer: (b) Copper and HCl(aq)
Explanation:
Copper is a noble metal. As it lies below hydrogen in the electrochemical series. Therefore it cant displace hydrogen from dilute HCl. While iron and sodium lie above hydrogen in the electrochemical series. so they can liberate H2 either from steam or H2SO4 solution.
Fe + H2SO4 ↔ FeSO4 + H2
3Fe + 4H2O (steam) ↔ Fe3O4 + 4H2
Cu + HCl(g) → No reaction
2Na + 2C2H5OH → 2C2H5ONa + H2


Question 10.
Tritium __________ radio active isotope.
(a) Beta-Emitting
(b) Alpha – Emitting
(c) Gamma-Emitting
(d) None of the Above

Answer

Answer: (a) Beta-Emitting
Explanation:
Tritium is a beta-emitting radioactive isotope of hydrogen. Its nucleus consists of one proton and two neutrons, making it three times as heavy as a hydrogen nucleus (with its one proton) and one-and-a-half times as heavy as deuterium (which contains one proton and only one neutron).


Question 11.
The maximum density of water at 40C is :
(a) 1.0 g / cm³
(b) 0.998 g / cm³
(c) 0.918 g / cm³
(d) 1.2 g / dm³

Answer

Answer: (a) 1.0 g / cm³
Explanation:
Water never has an absolute density because its density varies with temperature. Water has its maximum density of 1 g/cm³ at 4 degrees Celsius. When the temperature changes from either greater or less than 4 degrees, the density will become less then 1 g/cm³. Water has the maximum density of 1 g/cm³ only when it is pure water. Other factors affect waters density such as whether it is tap or fresh water or salt water. These variations of water changes its density because whats in the water has its own density.


Question 12.
Water gas is mixture of hydrogen H2 and
(a) CO
(b) CO2
(c) Cl2
(d) SO2

Answer

Answer: (a) CO
Explanation:
Water gas is a combustion fuel containing carbon monoxide (CO) and hydrogen gas (H2). Water gas is made by passing steam over heated hydrocarbons.


Question 13.
The volume of oxygen gas evolved at STP by decomposition of 0.68 g “20 volume” hydrogen peroxide is:
(a) 112 ml
(b) 224 ml
(c) 56 ml
(d) 336 ml

Answer

Answer: (b) 224 ml
Explanation:
2H2O2 → 2H2O + O2
2 × 34 g = 22400 ml
As 2 × 34 g = 68 g of H2O2 liberates
22400 ml O2 at STP
Therefore, 0.68 g of H2O2 liberates
= (0.68 × 22400)/(68) = 224 ml


Question 14.
Which of the following statements regarding hydrogen peroxide is/are incorrect?
(a) As aerating agent in production of sponge rubber
(b) As an antichlor
(c) For restoring white colour of blackened lead painting
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above
Explanation:
H2O2 show all these properties


Question 15.
_______ on water decolourises H2O2
(a) O3
(b) Acidic KMnO4 solution
(c) Black Suspension of Lead Sulphide( PbS)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Black Suspension of Lead Sulphide(PbS)
Explanation:
Lead sulphide (black suspension) on reaction with hydrogen peroxide forms lead sulphate and water. Lead sulphate as well as water are colourless, therefore lead sulphite decolourises on addition of hydrogen peroxide.
PbS(s) + 4H2O2 (aq) → PbSO4 (s) + 4H2O (aq)


Question 16.
The number of electron hydrogen contains in its K shell is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer

Answer: (a) 1
Explanation:
The maximum number of electrons present in a shell is given by the formula 2n², where “n” is the orbit number or energy level index, 1, 2, 3 , …… Hence the maximum number of electrons in different shells are as follows:
First orbit or K-shell will be = 2 × 12 = 2
Hydrogen (H), lithium (Li), and sodium (Na), all have one electron in their outermost shells. This means that they can achieve a stable configuration and a filled outer shell by donating or losing an electron.


Question 17.
On shaking H2O2 with acidified potassium dichromate and ether, ethereal layer becomes:
(a) Green
(b) Red
(c) Blue
(d) Brown

Answer

Answer: (c) Blue
Explanation:
This is due to the formation of CrO5
K2Cr2O7 + H2SO4 + 4H2O2 → K2SO4 + 2CrO5 + 5H2O
So it is Blue


Question 18.
Hydrogen atom contains one electron. But, the spectrum of hydrogen contains number of lines.
(a) Single
(b) Multiple
(c) Cannot be determined
(d) None of the Above

Answer

Answer: (b) Multiple
Explanation:
In a sample of hydrogen gas, the number of hydrogen molecules is present. These molecules dissociate and produce hydrogen atoms when heated. Each hydrogen atom contains one electron. The hydrogen atoms absorb different amounts of energy and go to different excited states. From there, they take different paths and come back to ground state. Since different paths are associated with different energies, different spectral lines are formed in the spectrum.


Question 19.
H2O2 used in rocket has the concentration:
(a) 50%
(b) 90%
(c) 70%
(d) 30%

Answer

Answer: (b) 90%
Explanation:
H2O2 is used as an oxidant for rocket fuel. Usually, 90% concentration of H2O2 is used.


Question 20.
Hydrogen has isotopes
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

Answer

Answer: (c) 4
Explanation:
Hydrogen has three main isotopes; Protium (1H), deuterium (²H) and tritium (³H). These isotopes form naturally in nature. Protium and deuterium are stable. Tritium is radioactive and has a half-life of about 12 years. Scientists have created four other hydrogen isotopes (4H to 7H), but these isotopes are very unstable and do not exist naturally.
The main isotopes of hydrogen are unique because they are the only isotopes that have a name.


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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 1 Introduction to Macroeconomics with Answers

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 1 Introduction to Macroeconomics with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Introduction to Macroeconomics Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Introduction to Macroeconomics Class 12 Objective Questions.

Introduction to Macroeconomics Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct alternative.

Question 1.
What is known as the study of individual units?
(a) Macroeconomics
(b) Microeconomics
(c) Income and employment theory
(d) Development economics

Answer

Answer: (b) Microeconomics


Question 2.
The study of aggregates is known as
(a) Macroeconomics
(b) Microeconomics
(c) Price theory
(d) Factor price determination

Answer

Answer: (a) Macroeconomics


Question 3.
What is the name of the book written by J.M. Keynes?
(a) The Wealth of Nation
(b) The General Theory of Employment, Interest, and Money
(c) Political Economy
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) The General Theory of Employment, Interest, and Money


Question 4.
When was the famous book of Prof. Keynes published?
(a) 1930
(b) 1931
(c) 1936
(d) 1940

Answer

Answer: (c) 1936


Question 5.
When did the great depression occur?
(a) 1929-30
(b) 1934-35
(c) 1938-39
(d) 1941-42

Answer

Answer: (a) 1929-30


Question 6.
Who is known as the father of modern macroeconomics?
(a) Adam Smith
(b) J. M. Keynes
(c) Samuelson
(d) Hicks

Answer

Answer: (b) J. M. Keynes


Question 7.
Mr. Skund Kumar wants to study the national income. Which branch of economics will he have to study?
(a) Microeconomics
(b) Price theory
(c) Factor price determination
(d) Macroeconomics

Answer

Answer: (d) Macroeconomics


Fill in the blanks with the correct word.

Question 8.
The mother of all economic problems is _______

Answer

Answer: scarcity


Question 9.
Macroeconomics is defined as that branch of economics which studies economic activities of an economy as a _______

Answer

Answer: whole


Question 10.
______ was the founding father of modern economics.

Answer

Answer: Adam Smith


Question 11.
Keynes book on Income and Employment came to light in the year ________

Answer

Answer: 1936


Question 12.
Aggregate Demand is the sum total of consumption and _______

Answer

Answer: investment


Question 13.
The period of the Great Depression was from _______

Answer

Answer: 1929-33


State whether the following statements are True or False.

Question 14.
Capital, land, labour, and entrepreneur are the factors of production.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 15.
The expenses which raise productive capacity are known as investment expenditure.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 16.
The domestic country may sell goods to the rest of the world. It is called imports.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 17.
The capitalist economy works for social welfare.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 18.
Microeconomics deals with the aggregate economic variable of an economy.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 19.
‘Save more’ is always a virtue.

Answer

Answer: False


Match the alternatives given in Column II with respective terms in Column I.

Question 20.

Column IColumn II
(i) Macroeconomic variable(a) 1936
(ii) Microeconomic variable(b) Rate of inflation
(iii) Capitalism(c) Private ownership
(iv) The Great Economic Depression(d) Demand for cars
(v) General Theory of Employment, Interest, and Money(e) 1929
Answer

Answer:

Column IColumn II
(i) Macroeconomic variable(b) Rate of inflation
(ii) Microeconomic variable(d) Demand for cars
(iii) Capitalism(c) Private ownership
(iv) The Great Economic Depression(e) 1929
(v) General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money(a) 1936

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