Author name: Prasanna

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Civics Chapter 3 Why Do We Need a Parliament with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 8 Social Science with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Why Do We Need a Parliament Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ of Chapter 3 Civics Objective Questions.

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Question 1.
What is the total strength of the Lok Sabha including the 2 nominated members?
(a) 545
(b) 233
(c) 549
(d) 588

Answer

Answer: (a) 545

---

Question 2.
The ………………………. , allowed for some elected representation.
(a) Pitts India Act 1784
(b) Regulating Act 1773
(c) Govt of India Act 1909
(d) Government of India act 1858.

Answer

Answer: (c) Govt of India Act 1909

---

Question 3.
EVM was used throughout the country for the first time in:
(a) 2000
(b) 2004
(c) 2006
(d) 2008

Answer

Answer: (b) 2004

---

Question 4.
How many nominated members are there in the Rajya Sabha by the President?
(a) 2
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 12

Answer

Answer: (d) 12

---

Question 5.
Situation in which there is no easy solutions to the problems is called:
(a) Approval
(b) Coalition
(c) unresolved
(d) Crucial

Answer

Answer: (c) unresolved

---

Question 6.
What is the full form of EVM?
(a) Election Valid Machine
(b) Electronic Voting Machine
(c) Election Voting Machine
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Electronic Voting Machine
Electronic Voting Machine. EVMs were used throughout the country for the first time in the 2004 general elections. The use of EVMs in 2004 saved around 150,000 trees.

---

Question 7.
What do you mean by the Houses of people?
(a) Lok sabha
(b) Vidhan sabha
(c) Rajya sabha
(d) Parliament

Answer

Answer: (a) Lok sabha
The Parliament of India has two Houses, the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha. Lok Sabha (House of the People), with a total membership of 545, is presided over by the Speaker.

---

Question 8.
The parliament of India has how many houses?
(a) 2
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 3

Answer

Answer: (a) 2
The Parliament of India is the supreme law-making institution. It has two Houses, the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha.

---

Question 9.
When was the EVM used for the first time?
(a) 2007
(b) 2004
(c) 2003
(d) 1990

Answer

Answer: (b) 2004
EVMs were used throughout the country for the first time in the 2004 general elections. The use of EVMs in 2004 saved around 150,000 trees that have been cut to produce about 8,000 tons of paper for printing the ballot papers.

---

Question 10.
For what period of time the President of India holds office?
(a) 6 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 4 years
(d) 7 years

Answer

Answer: (b) 5 years
Most elected members whether in the Panchayat or the Vidhan Sabha or the Parliament are elected for a fixed period of five years. There are 233 elected members plus 12 members nominated by the President.

---

Question 11.
The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by whom?
(a) Legislative Assemblies
(b) Parliament member
(c) Advocate
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Legislative Assemblies
The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of various states.

---

Question 12.
How Many members are nominated by president in Rajya sabha?
(a) 15
(b) 14
(c) 12
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) 12
The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of various states. There are 233 elected members plus 12 members nominated by the President.

---

Question 13.
When did the Indian congress demanded the elected members in the legislature?
(a) 1880
(b) 1885
(c) 1896
(d) 1945

Answer

Answer: (b) 1885
1885, the Indian National Congress demanded that there be elected members in the legislature with a right to discuss the budget and ask questions.

---

Question 14.
Who is the head of the Executive at the central level?
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief Minister
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) President
The President is the head of the Executive at the central level. This is a very important way through which the Parliament controls the executive.

---

Question 15.
Who implements laws?
(a) Court
(b) President
(c) Executives
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Executives
Executives implement laws. The executive is a group of persons who work together to implement the laws made by the Parliament. This executive is often in mind when we use the term government.

---

Write true (T) or false (F)

1. The executive is a group of persons who work together to implement the laws made by the judiciary.

Answer

Answer: False

---

2. The total numbers of elected members in the Lok Sabha is 233 plus 12 members.

Answer

Answer: False

---

3. Parliaments performs its function by controlling guiding and informing the Government.

Answer

Answer: True

---

4. Largest among the parties who oppose the majority party/coalition formed is called the Opposition party.

Answer

Answer: True

---

5. The use of EVMs in 2004 saved around 90,000 trees.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Match the following

1.

Column-I	Column-II
1. Lok Sabha	(a) 233
2. Rajya Sabha	(b) 1909
3. EVMS	(c) Adult citizens have the right to vote
4. Govt, of India Act	(d) 545
5. Universal Adult Franchise	(e) 2004

Answer

Answer:

Column-I	Column-II
1. Lok Sabha	(d) 545
2. Rajya Sabha	(a) 233
3. EVMS	(e) 2004
4. Govt, of India Act	(b) 1909
5. Universal Adult Franchise	(c) Adult citizens have the right to vote

---

Fill in the blanks

1. There is a ……………………… that when interests and experiences separate us it is important to ensure that communities that have been historically ……………………… are given adequate ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: realisation, marginalised, representation

---

2. The government gets valuable ……………………… and is kept on its toes by the questions asked by the MPs.

Answer

Answer: feedback

---

3. ……………………… selects ministers to work with him and to take important decisions.

Answer

Answer: The Prime Minister

---

4. The Lok Sabha is usually elected once every ……………………… years.

Answer

Answer: Five

---

5. The dreams and aspirations of the freedom struggle were made concrete in the Constitution of independent India that laid down the principle of ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: Universal adult franchise

---

Picture Based Questions

1.

1. What does the picture shows?
2. Around how much trees were saved after the use of EVM’s in 2004?

Answer

Answer:
1. It shows a voter reading instructions on how to use an EVM (i.e. Electronic Voting Machine).
2. The use of EVM in 2004 saved around 1,50,000 trees.

---

2.

1. What does the picture shows?
2. Is it that much necessary to carry polling material in such conditions?

Answer

Answer:
1.It shows the election staff using an elephant to carry polling material and EVM’s to polling stations located in difficult terrain.
2. Yes.

---

3.

1. What does the picture shows?
2. Which is known as the supreme law making institution?
3. How many houses are there in the Parliament? Name them.

Answer

Answer:
1.The picture shows the Parliament of India (Sansal).
2. The Parliament of India (Sansad) is the supreme law-making institution.
3. It has 2 houses
(i) The Rajya Sabha (ii) The Lok Sabha.

---

Map Skills

(i) The state where your currently live and from where your known to had elected there Parliamentary representatives.
(ii) Represent the state where the prime minister office (PMO) is situated.

Answer

Answer: Delhi

---

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Appearing Students of Class 8 Exams can download MCQ on Understanding Laws Class 8 with Answers from here. By practicing Class 8 Civics Chapter 4 MCQ with Answers, you can score well in the exam. Download Class 8 SST Civics Chapter 4 MCQ in PDF format from the below access links and start practicing on a regular basis for better subject knowledge.

Question 1.
According to which law, sons, daughters and their mothers can get an equal share of family property?
(a) Sedition Act 2005
(b) Family Protection Act 2007
(c) Hindu Succession Act 2005
(d) Sedition Act 1870

Answer

Answer: (c) Hindu Succession Act 2005

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Question 2.
When did the Rowlatt Act come into effect?
(a) 13th April 1919
(b) 10th Feb 2020
(c) 14th March 1921
(d) 10th Mar 1919

Answer

Answer: (d) 10th Mar 1919

---

Question 3.
When did the Standing Committee submitted its recommendation to the Rajya Sabha and also tabled in the Lok Sabha regarding the implementation Domestic Violence Act?
(a) In December 2002
(b) In October 2005
(c) In October 2006
(d) In May 2002

Answer

Answer: (a) In December 2002

---

Question 4.
“To find fault with or disapprove of a person or thing” for which team this definition is used in Glossary.
(a) Sedition
(b) Evolution
(c) Criticise
(d) Repressive

Answer

Answer: (c) Criticise

---

Question 5.
One example of the arbitrariness that continued to exist as part of British law is the sedition Act of
(a) 1870
(b) 1890
(c) 1919
(d) 1921

Answer

Answer: (a) 1870

---

Question 6.
What were lay down by Hindu Succession Amendment Act 2005?
(a) Sons, daughters and their mother can get equal share of family property
(b) Only sons can get a share in the property
(c) Only sons and daughters can get a share in the property
(d) Only sons and mother can get a share in the family property

Answer

Answer: (a) Sons, daughters and their mother can get equal share of family property
Hindu Succession Amendment Act 2005 lay down that Sons, daughters and their mother can get equal share of family property.

---

Question 7.
What do you mean by the Domestic violence?
(a) Injury and abuse
(b) Threat of injury
(c) Physical beating
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these
Domestic violence refers to the injury or harm or threat of injury or harm caused by an adult male, usually the husband, against his wife. Injury may be caused by physically beating up the woman or by emotionally abusing her.

---

Question 8.
What do you mean by the rule of law?
(a) All are equal before law.
(b) Same laws are applicable to all
(c) No one is above law
(d) All of these.

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these.
Rules of law states that all are equal before law, same laws are applicable to all and no one is above law.

---

Question 9.
When was the Rowlatt Act was passed?
(a) 10 March, 1919
(b) 8 March, 1919
(c) 12 March, 1919
(d) 3 March, 1919

Answer

Answer: (a) 10 March, 1919
Despite the large number of protests, the Rowlatt Act came into effect on 10 March 1919. The Rowlatt Act allowed the British government to imprison people without due trial.

---

Question 10.
What do understand by Sedition Act of 1870?
(a) A person could be arrested and deported.
(b) Any person criticizing or protesting the British government could be arrested without a trial.
(c) The arrested person could not engage an advocate.
(d) Arrested person could be detained in police custody for an indefinite period of time.

Answer

Answer: (b) Any person criticizing or protesting the British government could be arrested without a trial.
According to Sedition Act of 1870 any person criticizing or protesting the British government could be arrested without a trial.

---

Question 11.
Who introduced the rule of law in India?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Mughals
(c) British colonialists
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) British colonialists
It is believed that it was the British colonialists who introduced the rule of law in India.

---

Question 12.
Who was General Dyer?
(a) English officer
(b) Indian officer
(c) Congress head
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) English officer
General Dyer was an English officer responsible for Jallianwala Bagh tragedy. Several hundreds of people died in this gunfire and many more were wounded including women and children.

---

Question 13.
What is violation of law?
(a) Crime against the law
(b) To make new law
(c) To remove one law
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Crime against the law
To do something wrong or a crime against the law is called violation of law.

---

Question 14.
What are criminal cases?
(a) Related to taxes
(b) Related to property
(c) Related to criminal
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Related to criminal
Cases involving violation of penal laws such as murder, theft, assault etc. are called criminal cases.

---

Question 15.
Who made the law?
(a) Laws are made by president
(b) Laws are made by prime minister
(c) Laws are made by sovereign power
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Laws are made by sovereign power
Laws are generally made and enforced by the sovereign power in a country. Neither a government official, nor a wealthy person nor even the President of the country is above the law.

---

Question 16.
What was the Sedition Act 1870?
(a) Rowlatt act
(b) Arbitrary act
(c) Protection against British
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Arbitrary act
The Sedition Act 1870 was the arbitrary act passed by the British government. According to it government could arrest any person protesting or criticizing it. Indian nationalists protested and criticized against this arbitrary act of the Bruisers.

---

Question 17.
What was the Rowlatt Act?
(a) To control migrants
(b) To control revolutionary activities
(c) To control wealth of Indian
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) To control revolutionary activities
Rowlatt Act was passed by the British Government to control revolutionary activities. Under this new rule the government had the authority and the power to arrest people and keep them imprisoned without trial if they are suspected with the charge of terrorism.

---

Question 18.
Who has the power to modify laws?
(a) Parliament
(b) High Court
(c) Supreme Court
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Parliament
The parliament has the power to modify or cancel laws which it finds don’t adhere to the constitution.

---

Question 19.
What is rule of law?
(a) To balance wealth
(b) To maintain the situation
(c) To maintain the price
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) To maintain the situation
To govern or to maintain the situation according to law is known as rule of law.

---

Question 20.
What do you mean by repressive law?
(a) Based on force or pressure
(b) Passed against the will of the people
(c) To prevent the person’s right to criticize
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these
Repressive law means law based on force or pressure, passed against the will of the people and to prevent the person’s right to criticize.

---

Write true (T) or false (F)

1. The Domestic Violence Act came into effect in 2006.

Answer

Answer: True

---

2. Rosa Parks refusal was the key event that marked the start of Civil Rights Movement.

Answer

Answer: True

---

3. Repressive means to find fault with on disapprove of a person or thing.

Answer

Answer: False

---

4. General Dyer order to fire during the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre.

Answer

Answer: True

---

5. A public meeting was held on 12th April at Jallianwala Bagh in Talwandi Pakistan.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Match the following

1.

Column-I	Column-II
1. Sedition Act of 1870	(a) Arrested as per Rowlatt Act.
2. Dr Satyapal	(b) 2006
3. Injury harm or threat by male against his wife.	(c) Arbitrations
4. Domestic Violence Act	(d) 1964
5. Civil Rights Act	(e) Domestic violence

Answer

Answer:

Column-I	Column-II
1. Sedition Act of 1870	(c) Arbitrations
2. Dr Satyapal	(a) Arrested as per Rowlatt Act.
3. Injury harm or threat by male against his wife.	(e) Domestic violence
4. Domestic Violence Act	(b) 2006
5. Civil Rights Act	(d) 1964

---

Fill in the blanks

1. The law cannot ……………………… between persons on the basis of their religion, caste or gender.

Answer

Answer: discriminate

---

2. The Rowlatt Act came into effect on ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: 10th March 1919

---

3. Indians played a major role in the ……………………… of the ……………………… during the colonial period.

Answer

Answer: evolution, rule of law

---

4. The Parliament has the important role in ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: making laws

---

5. Several women’s organisations, Nation commission for Women unmade submission to the ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: Parliamentary Standing Committee

---

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Question 1.
Mountainous areas are more prone to which of the following:
(a) cyclones
(b) landslides
(c) floods
(d) fire

Answer

Answer: (b) landslides

---

Question 2.
On 29th October, 1999, a super cyclone lashed across which of the following state:
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Orissa
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) M.P.

Answer

Answer: (b) Orissa

---

Question 3.
Which one of the following countries is one of the most cyclone prone in the world:
(a) Thailand
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Maldives
(d) Fiji Island

Answer

Answer: (b) Bangladesh

---

Question 4.
TFM stands for:
(a) task force members
(b) task family members
(c) task first members
(d) task future members

Answer

Answer: (a) task force members

---

Question 5.
Which one of the following is a natural hazard:
(a) leakage of toxic waste
(b) pollution and dam failure
(c) cyclone
(d) war and civil strife

Answer

Answer: (c) cyclone

---

Question 6.
On 23rd May, 2003,500 people died in Andhra Pradesh due to which of the following season :
(a) dehydration and sunstroke
(b) cyclone
(c) floods
(d) earthquake

Answer

Answer: (a) dehydration and sunstroke

---

Question 7.
A person living in a cane and thatch hut in coastal regions are vulnerable to which of the following:
(a) floods
(b) cyclone
(c) earthquake
(d) landslide

Answer

Answer: (b) cyclone

---

Question 8.
People living in low-lying areas are prone to which of the following disaster:
(a) earthquake
(b) fire
(c) floods
(d) landslides

Answer

Answer: (c) floods

---

Write true (T) or false (F)

1. A disaster disrupts the normal functioning of society.

Answer

Answer: True

---

2. Vulnerability may not turn to in a risk.

Answer

Answer: False

---

3. Economically or socially underprivileged people are not vulnerable to disasters.

Answer

Answer: False

---

4. Pregnant or lactating women are more vulnerable to disasters.

Answer

Answer: True

---

5. Unchecked growth of settlements in unsafe areas exposes communities to

Answer

Answer: True

---

Fill in the blanks

1. ……………. is a measure of the potential to cause damage.

Answer

Answer: risk

---

2. People with ……………. need more attention.

Answer

Answer: natural

---

3. A disaster can be manmade or ……………. .

Answer

Answer: disabilities

---

4. Flooding may be increased through ……………. .

Answer

Answer: landslides

---

5. Hazard may cause injury, loss of life or ……………. .

Answer

Answer: damage to property

---

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Chemical Effects of Electric Current Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

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Question 1.
The negative charged ions are called:
(a) cations
(b) anions
(c) ions
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) cations
Anions are negative charged ions.

---

Question 2.
Kerosene is:
(a) electrolyte
(b) non-electrolyte
(c) electrode
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) electrolyte
Kerosene is non-electrolyte.

---

Question 3.
Magnetic compass connected In a circuit is used to check:
(a) magnetism in electric current
(b) slow current
(c) small current
(d) none of these

Answer

(c) small current
Magnetic compass connected in a circuit is used to check small current.

---

Question 4.
LED glows:
(a) when a strong electric current flows through it
(b) whenever a weak electric current flows through it
(c) when no electric current flows through it
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) whenever a weak electric current flows through it
LED glows when even a weak electric current flows through it.

---

Question 5.
Which of the following is a good conductor of electricity:
(a) istilled water
(b) tap water
(c) kerosene
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) tap water
Tap water is a good conductor of electricity.

---

Question 6.
When current flows through a conducting solution than the electrode connected to the negati’wc terminal of the battery is called :
(a) anode
(b) cathode
(c) rod
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) cathode
Cathode is the electrode connected to the negative terminal of the battery.

(a) anode
(b) cathode
(c) rod
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) anode
Anode is the electrode connected to the positive terminal of the battery.

---

Question 7.
Current is the flow of:
(a) electrons
(b) protons
(c) neutrons
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) electrons
Current is the flow of electrons.

---

Question 8.
A battery is used to:
(a) convert chemical current into electric
(b) maintain a potential difference current
(c) measure the current
(d) measure the temperature

Answer

(a) convert chemical current into electric
A battery is used to convert chemical current into electric current.

---

Question 9.
When electric current is passed through the copper sulphate solution, copper sulphate dissociates into:
(a) copper and sulphur
(b) copper and oxygen
(c) copper and sulphate
(d) none of these

Answer

(c) copper and sulphate
On passing electric current through the copper sulphate solution, copper sulphate dissociates into copper and sulphate.

---

Question 10.
The cans, used for storing food, are made by electroplating ……………. on to irons
(a) chromium
(b) zinc
(c) tin
(d) none of these

Answer

(c) tin
The cans, used for storing food, are made by electroplating tin onto iron.

---

Question 11.
……………….. is deposited on Iron used in bridges and automobiles to protect it from corrosion and formation of rust.
(a) Chromium
(b) Zinc
(c) lin
(d) None of these

Answer

(b) Zinc
Zinc is deposited on iron used in bridges and automobiles.

---

Question 12.
Car parts, bath taps, kitchen gas burners, bicycle handlebars arc electroplated with:
(a) chromium
(b) zinc
(c) tin
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) chromium
Carparks, bath taps, kitchen gas burners, bicycle handle bars are electroplated

---

Question 13.
A tester is used to check the conduction of electricity through two liquids, labelled A and B. It is found that the bulb of the tester glows brightly for liquid. A white it glows very dimly for liquid H. You would conclude that:
(a) liquid A is a better conductor than liquid B
(b) liquid B is a better conductor than liquid A
(c) both liquids are equally conducting
(d) conducting properties of liquid cannot be compared in this manner

Answer

(a) liquid A is a better conductor than liquid B
Liquid A is a better conductor than liquid B.

---

Question 14.
Which one is the conductor
(a) brass
(b) plastic
(c) mica
(d) leather

Answer

(a) brass
Brass is the conductor, plastic, mica and leather are insulators.

---

Question 15.
The process in which a chemical change takes place in a substance, when electric current is passed through it is called:
(a) electrolysis
(b) electrodes
(c) thermal conduction
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) electrolysis
The process in which chemical change takes place in a substance when electric current is passed through it is called electrolysis.

---

Question 16.
Electroplating is a process which is:
(a) magnetic effect of electricity
(b) heating effect of electricity
(c) chemical effect off electricity
(d) none of these

Answer

(c) chemical effect off electricity
Electroplating is a process which is chemical effect of electricity.

---

Question 17.
Which of the fallowing liquid is poor conductor:
(a) salty water
(b) orange juice
(c) lemon juice
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) salty water
Salty water, orange juice and lemon juice, all are good conductors.

---

Question 18.
The substance which is conductor of electricity is:
(a) rubber
(b) paper
(c) nails
(d) plastic

Answer

(c) nails
Nails (iron) is conductor of electricity, whereas member, paper and plastic are poor conductor

---

Question 19.
We use magnetic needle to find the effect of:
(a) slow electric current
(b) small electric current
(c) magnetism
(d) none of these

Answer

(b) small electric current
Magnetic needle is used to find the effect of small electric current.

---

Question 20.
If a switch has some sparking, we will switch it off with the help of:
(a) an iron nail
(b) cotton cloth
(c) wooden stick
(d) any of (b) and (c)

Answer

(d) any of (b) and (c)
Cotton cloth or wooden stick can be used to switch off the switch if it has some parking

---

Question 21.
During electroplating in CuSO₄, (Copper sulphate) solution …………………. will get deposit on electrode at negative terminal.
(a) Copper from positive electrode
(b) Sulphur
(c) Copper from CuSO₄, solution
(d) None of these

Answer

(c) Copper from CuSO₄, solution
During electroplating in CuSO₄ (copper sulphate) solution copper from CuSO4 solution will get deposited on electrode at negative terminal.

---

Question 22.
Electroplating is a method of:
(a) making plates
(b) coating a metal on another metal using electric current
(c) making plates which use electricity
(d) making a metal with another metal

Answer

(b) coating a metal on another metal using electric current
Electroplating is a method of coating a metal on another metal using electric current.

---

Question 23.
Which one of the following is the insulator:
(a) human body
(b) paper
(c) acid
(d) steel

Answer

(b) paper
Paper is insulator whereas human body, acid and steel are conductors.

---

Question 24.
Which liquid do not conduct electricity?
(a) common salt solution
(b) acidic solution
(c) distilled water
(d) none of these

Answer

(c) distilled water
Distilled water do not, conduct electricity. Common salt solution and acidic solution conduct electricity.

---

Question 25.
An electrolyte is:
(a) a metal
(b) a solution
(c) a liquid that conducts electricity
(d) none of these

Answer

(c) a liquid that conducts electricity
An electrolyte is a liquid that conducts electricity.

---

Question 26.
Adding lime water to tap water makes it:
(a) an electrolyte
(b) electrolysis
(c) no change occur
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) an electrolyte
Adding lime water to tap water makes it an electrolyte.

---

Question 27.
The positive charged ions are called:
(a) cations
(b) anions
(c) ions
(d) none of these

Answer

(a) cations
Cations are positive charged ions.

---

Match the Column-A with Column-B:

Question 1.

Column-A	Column-B
(a) Copper allows electric current to pass through it easily	(i) copper
(b) Adding some salt in distilled water makes it	(ii) because they are insulators
(c) Plastics are used to make handles of electric appliances	(iii) a conductor
(d) It is used to make electric wires	(iv) a conductor

Answer

Column-A	Column-B
(a) Copper allows electric current to pass through it easily	(iv) a conductor
(b) Adding some salt in distilled water makes it	(iii) a conductor
(c) Plastics are used to make handles of electric appliances	(ii) because they are insulators
(d) It is used to make electric wires	(i) copper

---

Question 2.

Column-A	Column-B
(a) Path through which electric current passes	(i) confirms the flow of current
(b) The filament of the bulb glows	(ii) electroplating
(c) Deflection in magnetic compass	(iii) electric circuit.
(d) Coating of silver and gold on jewellery made from less expensive metals	(iv) due to heating effect of electrical circuit

Answer

Column-A	Column-B
(a) Path through which electric current passes	(iii) electric circuit
(b) The filament of the bulb glows	(iv) due to heating effect of electrical circuit
(c) Deflection in magnetic compass	(i) confirms the flow of current
(d) Coating of silver and gold on jewellery made from less expensive metals	(ii) electroplating

---

Question 3.

Column-A	Column-B
(a) Positive ion	(i) Insulator
(b) Negative ion	(ii) Conductor
(c) Tap water	(iii) Cations
(d) Wood	(iv) Anions

Answer

Column-A	Column-B
(a) Positive ion	(iii) Cations
(b) Negative ion	(iv) Anions
(c) Tap water	(ii) Conductor
(d) Wood	(i) Insulator

---

State whether the following statements are True or False:

Question 1.
Pure water is good conductor of electricity.

Answer

False

---

Question 2.
Bodies of human beings and animals are insulators of electricity.

Answer

False

---

Question 3.
Electroplating of nickel and chromium on clean iron surface is done by employing the heating effect of current.

Answer

False

---

Question 4.
Distilled water is an insulator.

Answer

True

---

Question 5.
Electrolyte is a substance which produces ions in a solution.

Answer

True

---

Question 6.
Anode is the electrode which is connected to the negative terminal of the battery.

Answer

False

---

Question 7.
Kerosene is an electrolyte.

Answer

False

---

Question 8.
Leather is a good conductor of electricity.

Answer

False

---

Question 9.
Addition of sodium hydroxide in distilled water makes it non-electrolyte.

Answer

False

---

Question 10.
On passing current in water, bubbles of oxygen are formed on the electrode connected to the positive terminal of the battery.

Answer

True

---

Question 11.
Petrol is agood conductor of electricity.

Answer

False

---

Question 12.
All vegetable oils are non-electrolytes.

Answer

True

---

Question 13.
Electroplating is heating effect of electric current.

Answer

False

---

Question 14.
On passing electric current through the copper sulphate solution, it dissociates into copper and sulphate.

Answer

True

---

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
An electric lamp glows due to …………………….. effect of electric current.

Answer

heating

---

Question 2.
Materials which do not allow an electric current to pass through them are called ………………………

Answer

insulators

---

Question 3.
Handles of doors are coated with …………………….. to give them lustre.

Answer

chromium

---

Question 4.
Electrolysis occur when the electrolyte is in the …………………….. state.

Answer

liquid

---

Question 5.
Addition of caustic soda in distilled water makes it an ………………………

Answer

electrolyte

---

Question 6.
Most liquids that conduct electricity are solutions of …………………….. and ………………………

Answer

acids, bases and salts

---

Question 7.
The passage of an electric current through a solution causes …………………….. effect.

Answer

chemical

---

Question 8.
If you pass current through copper sulphate solution, copper gets deposited on the plate connected to the …………………….. terminal of the battery.

Answer

negative

---

Question 9.
The process of depositing a layer of any desired metal on another metallic object, by means of electricity, is called ………………………

Answer

electroplating

---

Question 10.
Materials which allow an electric current to pass through them are called ………………………

Answer

conductors

---

Question 11.
Current flows from …………………….. terminal to …………………….. terminal in an electric current.

Answer

positive to negative

---

Question 12.
Path through which an electric current flows is called ………………………

Answer

electric circuit

---

Question 13.
The …………………….. of a bulb glows when current passes through it.

Answer

filament

---

Question 14.
Materials connected at …………………….. terminal gets electroplated with desired metals.

Answer

negative

---

Question 15.
Deflection in …………………….. shows current is passing.

Answer

magnetic compass

---

Question 16.
A conducting wire carrying current behaves like a ………………………

Answer

magnet

---

Question 17.
Flow of negatively charged electrons is called ………………………

Answer

electric current

---

Question 18.
When electricity is passed through a liquid, it causes a …………………….. change.

Answer

chemical

---

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Components of Disaster Management Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

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Question 1.
Relief and response includes which of the following:
(a) mobilising resources
(b) identifying the vulnerable groups
(c) proper waiting system
(d) disaster resistant building

Answer

Answer: (a) mobilising resources

---

Question 2.
Recovery and rehabilitation includes which of the following.
(a) proper warning system
(b) mutual aid arrangement
(c) reconstructing new buildings
(d) land use planning

Answer

Answer: (c) reconstructing new buildings

---

Question 3.
Planning Prevention and mitigation includes.
(a) preventing habitation in risk zones
(b) peconstructing new buildings
(c) proving financial support
(d) medical camps.

Answer

Answer: (a) preventing habitation in risk zones

---

Question 4.
Which of the following disaster struck village Killari on 30th Sept, 1993.
(a) landslides
(b) earthquake
(c) floods
(d) cyclone

Answer

Answer: (b) earthquake

---

Question 5.
Preparedness does not includes which of the following:
(a) mock drill
(b) mutual aid arrangement
(c) community awareness
(d) issuing updated warnings

Answer

Answer: (d) issuing updated warnings

---

Write true (T) or false (F)

1. There has been a shift from ‘disaster response and recovery to’ disaster risk management and risk reduction.

Answer

Answer: True

---

2. Community awareness and education is a part of preparedness.

Answer

Answer: False

---

3. Prevention means a measure to eliminate or reduce the incidence to severity of emergencies.

Answer

Answer: True

---

4. Kobe in Japan earthquakes are considered as temporary inconveniences.

Answer

Answer: True

---

5. In California, U.S.A. buildings are not resistant to earthquakes.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Match the following

1.

Column A	Column B
1. Preparedness	(a) Providing adequate shelter
2. Recovery and Rehabilitating	(b) Preventing habitation in risk zones
3. Relief and Response	(c) Identifying the vulnerable groups
4. Planning, Prevention and Mitigatior	(d) Finding employment opportunities

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
1. Preparedness	(c) Identifying the vulnerable groups
2. Recovery and Rehabilitating	(d) Finding employment opportunities
3. Relief and Response	(a) Providing adequate shelter
4. Planning, Prevention and Mitigatior	(b) Preventing habitation in risk zones

---

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Question 1.
Countries like India and Iran suffer greater losses due to earthquakes in comparison to USA or Japan due to which of the following reasons:
(a) high population
(b) low literacy
(c) no awareness
(d) Socio-economic vulnerabilities.

Answer

Answer: (d) Socio-economic vulnerabilities.

---

Question 2.
Which one of the following is not a component of Risk Management.
(a) risk identification
(b) risk reduction
(c) risk transfer
(d) risk mitigation

Answer

Answer: (d) risk mitigation

---

Question 3.
Public awareness is necessary to ensure which of the following
(a) public participation in community preparedness programs
(b) planning and analysis of structural measures
(c) locating the building in a safe place
(d) design and proper detailing of structural components.

Answer

Answer: (a) public participation in community preparedness programs

---

Question 4.
Between 1992 and 2001, how many people were killed on an average due to natural hazards.
(a) 62,000
(b) 60,000
(c) 61,000
(d) 63,000

Answer

Answer: (b) 60,000

---

Question 5.
Bhuj, in Gujarat was struck by an earthquake in which of the following years:
(a) 2000
(b) 2002
(c) 2001
(d) 2003

Answer

Answer: (c) 2001

---

Write true (T) or false (F)

1. Risk transfer refers to ensure that losses from disasters are compensated.

Answer

Answer: True

---

2. Stringent building code can reduce collapse of a building due to flood.

Answer

Answer: False

---

3. Mitigation involves structural and non-structural measures to limit the impact of natural hazards.

Answer

Answer: True

---

4. Disaster resistant construction is achieved through construction with suitable material.

Answer

Answer: True

---

5. Disaster Management Committees are set up only at national level.

Answer

Answer: False

---

6. The municipalities can prevent disaster impact by conducting selected mitigation activities before a disaster strikes.

Answer

Answer: True

---

7. In a developing country, privati insurance sector is a major contribution for funding of reconstruction after; natural disaster.

Answer

Answer: False

---

8. In developed countries, it is the government and the individual who take up the major burden of the cost of disaster.

Answer

Answer: False

---

9. The Government of India is developing tools to assist the very poor.

Answer

Answer: True

---

10. Local masons should be training in disaster resistant construction techniques.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Match the following

1.

Column A	Column B
1. Non-engineered structures	(a) Govt, grants or subsidies
2. Legal framework	(b) Awareness of effective mitigation measures
3. Land-use planning	(c) Construction by owners using local masons.
4. Incentives and financial framework	(d) More applicable to man-made and technological disasters.
5. Training and Education	(e) Building codes for built structures.
6. Public awai’eness	(f) Controlling of human activities in hazard prone areas.
7. Prevention	(g) Awareness and know how to govern­ment official involved in disaster

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
1. Non-engineered structures	(c) Construction by owners using local masons.
2. Legal framework	(e) Building codes for built structures.
3. Land-use planning	(f) Controlling of human activities in hazard prone areas.
4. Incentives and financial framework	(a) Govt, grants or subsidies
5. Training and Education	(g) Awareness and know how to govern­ment official involved in disaster
6. Public awai’eness	(b) Awareness of effective mitigation measures
7. Prevention	(d) More applicable to man-made and technological disasters.

---

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