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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Federalism

Federalism Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Question 1

When was States Reorganisation Commission formed?

(A) In 1951
(B) In 1963
(C) In 1997
(D) In 1953
Answer:
(D) In 1953

Explanation:
State Reorganization Commission was formed in 1953 by the Central Government to recommend the reorganization of state boundaries on the basis of language, culture, ethnicity, or geography.

Question 2.

How many Union Territories are there in the Indian Federation?

(A) 7
(B) 9
(C) 5
(D) 3
Answer:
(B) 9

Explanation:
India has been divided into Union Territories in order to maintain effective administration, maintain law and order, provide citizens their necessities and for overall development.

Question 3.

Which of the following falls under the Concurrent List?

(A) Trade
(B) Adoption
(C) Agriculture
(D) Foreign affairs
Answer:
(B) Adoption

Explanation:
Adoption falls into Concurrent list because the Concurrent List contains subjects of common interest to both the Union as well as the States.

Question 4.

What status has been given to Hindi by the Constitution of India?

(A) Regional language
(B) Official language
(C) National language
(D) Community language
Answer:
(B) Official language

Explanation:
Article 343(1) of the Constitution provides that Hindi in Devanagari script shall be the Official Language of the Union. Article 343(2) also provided for continuing the use of English in official work of the Union for a period of 15 years (i.e. up to 25 January 1965) from the date of commencement of the Constitution.

Question 5.

Who is the head of urban local government?

(A) Sarpanch
(B) Ward Commissioner
(C) Mukhiya
(D) Mayor

Explanation:
Mayors take on a dual role, serving not only as chief executive officer of the municipal administration but also as agents of the Central Government charged with such functions as maintaining public order, security and health.

Question 6.

In which year, a major step was taken towards decentralisation?

(A) In 1994
(B) In 1989
(C) In 1992
(D) In 1997
Answer:
(C) In 1992

Explanation:
The major steps taken towards decentralization after 1992 included :
(i) It was made constitutionally mandatory to hold regular elections to local government bodies.
(ii) Seats were reserved for Scheduled Castes jg (SCS) Scheduled Tribes (STs) and OBCs.
(iii) Women were given one-third representation.

Question 7.

Study the given cartoon and answer the following:

Which one of the following leaders is shown in this cartoon?

(A) Rajiv Gandhi
(B) I. K. Gujral
(C) H. D. Deve Gowda
(D) A. B. Vajpayee
Answer:
(D) A. B. Vajpayee

Explanation:
A. B. Vajpayee served three terms as the prime minister of India. He was one of the co-founders and a senior leader of the Bharatiya Janata Party.

Question 8.

Study the picture and answer the following:

Which one of the following options best signifies this cartoon?

(A) The State representatives are begging before the Central Government.
(B) The Central Government is undermining the spirit of federalism.
(C) A lady is distributing food to the beggars.
(D) None of the above.
Answer:
(B) The Central Government is undermining the spirit of federalism.

Explanation:
The Central Government often used to misuse the Constitution to dismiss the State government that were controlled by rival parties. This undermined the spirit of federalism.

Question 9.

Analyse the information given below, considering one of the following correct options: It includes subjects of National importance such as defence of the country, foreign affairs, banking, communications and currency. They are included in this list because we need a uniform policy on these matters throughout the country.

(A) State List
(B) Concurrent List
(C) Union List
(D) Enrolment List
Answer:
(C) Union List

Explanation:
Union List is a list of subjects of national importance. All subjects listed in the Union List are financed by the Government of India wholly or in part. The Parliament has exclusive power to make laws with respect to any of the matters enumerated in the Union List.

Question 10.

Analyse the information given below, considering one of the following correct options: It includes subjects of common interest to both the Union Government as well as the State Governments, such as education, forest, trade unions, marriage, adoption and succession. Both the Union as well as the State Governments can make laws on the subjects mentioned in this list.

(A) Concurrent List
(B) Union List
(C) State List
(D) Government List
Answer:
(A) Concurrent List

Explanation:
The Concurrent List contains subjects of common interest to both the Union as well as the States. The aim of the concurrent list is to ensure uniformity across the country where independently both Centre and State can legislate.

Question 11.

Which of the following pair is incorrect?

(A) State government – State List
(B) Central government – Union List
(C) Central and State – Concurrent List government List
(D) Local government – Residuary powers
Answer:
(D) Local government – Residuary powers

Explanation:
The Local governments are not empowered to legislate on any matter. They are vested with limited powers. The Constitution of India has vested the ‘residuary powers’ with the Centre. But, the final authority to decide whether a matter falls under the list of residuary powers or not, rests with the Supreme Court because it is the judiciary which decides whether any matter falls under residuary list or not.

Question 12.

Major steps towards decentralization taken in 1992 were:

(A) To hold regular elections of local government bodies.
(B) At least one-third of all positions are reserved for men.
(C) State Election Commission has been created in each state.
(D) The state governments are required to share some powers and revenue with local government bodies.
Answer:
(B) At least one-third of all positions are reserved for men.

Explanation:
According to the 73rd amendment act, l/3rd seats are reserved for women apart from the total number of seats in order to uplift and empower them.

Question 13.

Column A	Column B
(i) Union of India	(A) Prime Minister
(ii) State	(B) Sarpanch
(iii) Municipal Corpo-ration	(C) Governor
(iv) Gram Panchayat	(D) Mayor

(A) (i)-(B), (ii)-(A),(iii)-(D),(iv)-(D)
(B) (i)-(A),(ii)-(C), (iii)-(D),(iv)-(D)
(C) (i)-(D),(ii)-(A),(iii)-(C),(iv)-(B)
(D) (i)-(D),(ii)-(C),(iii)-(A),(iv)-(B)
Answer:
(B) (i)-(A),(ii)-(C), (iii)-(D),(iv)-(D)

Explanation:
The power at each stage has been decentralized starting from the Union of India to the Gram Panchayat with each having its own head. This involved range of powers and responsibilities at each step makes them accountable to the people for each and every policy made and action taken.

Question 14.

Column A	Column B
(i) Union List	(A) Education
(ii) State List	(B) Computer Software
(iii) Concurrent List	(C) Foreign Affairs
(iv) Residuary Sub-jects	(D) Agriculture

(A) (i)–(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)
(B) (i) -(A), (ii) -(B), (iii) -(C), (iv)-(D)
(C) (i)-(D), (ii) -(C), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)
(D) (i)-(B), (ii) -(A), (iii)-(C), (iv)-(D)
Answer:
(A) (i)–(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)

Explanation:
(i) Foreign Affairs is included in Union List because we need a uniform policy on these matters throughout the country.
(ii) Agriculture is included in State list as states are entirely competent to enact laws on agriculture.
(iii) Education is included in Concurrent List as the Indian constitution has provisions to ensure that the state provides education to all its citizens. Education being a concurrent list subject enables the central government to legislate it in the manner suited to it.
(iv) Computer Software is included in the Residuary Subjects as it was not present at the time when the Constitution was being written. Union Government has the powers to make laws regarding this subject.

Assertuion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions: In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is False
(D) A is false and R is True

Question 1.

Assertion (A): When power is taken away from Central and State government and given to local government, it is called decentralization.
Reason (R): The basic idea behind decentralization is that there are a large number of problems and issues which are best settled at the local level.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
The people belonging to local areas have better knowledge of problems, so can solve easily and the best thing about decentralisation is that people participate directly in decision making.

Question 2.

Assertion (A) : Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central authority and various constituent units of the country.
Reason (R): Usually, a federation has one level of government.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is False

Explanation:
Usually, a federation has two levels of government. One is the government for the entire country that is usually responsible for a few subjects of common national interest. The others are governments at the level of provinces or states that look after much of the day-to-day administering of their state.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): India has a federal system.
Reason (R): Under a unitary system, either there is only one level of government or the sub-units are subordinate to central government.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
India has a federal government. There is a central government for the entire country and state governments for different regions. The reason is also true but does not justify the statement.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Hindi is identified as the only official language of India.
Reason (R): It helped in creating supremacy of Hindi speaking people over others.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is False

Explanation:
Hindi is the identified as official language of India. However, it is spoken by only 40 per cent of IndiAnswer:Thus, to safeguard the rights and interest of other linguistic communities, 21 other languages were recognized as Scheduled Languages by the Constitution of India.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): Belgium and Spain have ‘holding together’ federation.
Reason (R): A big country divides power between constituent states and national government.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 6.

Assertion (A): The subjects which are not included in Union List, State List and Concurrent List are considered as residuary subjects.
Reason (R): The subjects included those that came after constitution was made and thus could not be classified.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 7.

Assertion (A): Zilla Parishad Chairperson is the political head of the zilla parishad.
Reason (R): Mayor is the head of municipalities.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
All the Panchayat Samitis or mandals in a district together constitute the ZilaParishad. Its chairperson is the head of the Zilla Parishad. Whereas, municipalities are set up in towns and Mayor is the head of the city municipalities.

Question 8.

Assertion (A): Third-tier of government is local government.
Reason (R): It made democracy stumble.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is False

Explanation:
The third tier of government is done through decentralisation. It helped in making democracy stronger by involving itself to the grass root level.

Case-Based MCQs

I. Read the given extract and answer the questions that follows:
A second test for Indian federation is the language policy. Our Constitution did not give the status of national language to any one language. Hindi was identified as the official language. But Hindi is the mother tongue of only about 40 per cent of IndiAnswer:Therefore, there were many safeguards to protect other languages. Besides Hindi, there are 21 other languages recognised as Scheduled Languages by the Constitution. A candidate in an examination conducted for the Central Government positions may opt to take the examination in any of these languages. States too have their own official languages. Much of the government work takes place in the official language of the concerned State. Unlike Sri Lanka, the leaders of our country adopted a very cautious attitude in spreading the use of Hindi. According to the Constitution, the use of English for official purposes was stopped in 1965. However, many non- Hindi speaking States demanded that the use of English should continue. In Tamil Nadu, this movement took a violent form. The Central Government responded by agreeing to continue the use of English along with Hindi for official purposes. Many critics think that this solution favoured the English-speaking elites. Promotion of Hindi continues to be the official policy of the Government of India. Promotion does not mean that the Central Government can impose Hindi on States where people speak a different language. The flexibility shown by Indian political leaders helped our country avoid the kind of situation that Sri Lanka finds itself in.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 1.

What was the first and major test for democratic politics in our country?

(A) The creation of linguistic states
(B) The creatiomof the language policy
(C) The creation of new federal states
(D) The creation of new federal territories
Answer:
(A) The creation of linguistic states

Explanation:
The creation of Linguistic States was the first and a major test for democratic politics in our country. In 1947, the boundaries of several old States were changed in order to create new States so that people who spoke the same language lived in the same State.

Question 2.

A candidate in an examination conducted for the Central Government positions has to opt for which language?

(A) Hindi
(B) English
(C) Both Hindi and English
(D) Any of the 21 languages recognised as Scheduled Languages by the Constitution.
Answer:
(D) Any of the 21 languages recognised as Scheduled Languages by the Constitution.

Explanation:
Our Constitution did not give the status of national language to any one language. There were many safeguards to protect other languages.
A candidate in an examination conducted for the Central Government positions may opt to take the examination in any of these languages.

Question 3.

Which non- Hindi speaking State demanded that the use of English should continue after 1965?

(A) Hyderabad
(B) Chennai
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Kerala
Answer:
(C) Tamil Nadu
Explanation:
In Tamil Nadu, the movement took a violent form. The Central Government responded by agreeing to continue the use of English along with Hindi for official purposes.

Question 4.

How many languages are included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

(A) 21 languages
(B) 20 languages
(C) 25 languages
(D) 22 languages
Answer:
(D) 22 languages

II. Read the given extract and answer the questions that follows:
Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between a Central authority and various constituent units of the country. Usually, a federation has two levels of government. One is the government for the entire country that is usually responsible for a few subjects of common national interest. The others are governments at the level of provinces or states that look after much of the day-to-day administering of their state. Both these levels of governments enjoy their power independent of the other. In this sense, federations are contrasted with unitary governments. Under the unitary system, either there is only one level of government or the sub-units are subordinate to the Central Government. The Central Government can pass on orders to the Provincial or the Local government. But in a federal system, the Central Government cannot order the State Government to do something. State government has powers of its own for which it is not answerable to the Central Government. Both these governments are separately answerable to the people.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:

Question 1.

Usually, a federation has………….. levels of government.

(A) three
(B) four
(C) two
(D) five
Answer:
(C) two

Question 2.

Which of the following types of government is responsible for the whole country?

(A) State government
(B) Central government
(C) Local government
(D) Community government
Answer:
(B) Central government

Explanation:
A Central Government is the government that is a controlling power over a unitary state. Essentially, the Central government has the power to make laws for the whole country, in contrast with local governments.

Question 3.

Central and State governments are separately answerable to the .

(A) people
(B) none
(C) each other
(D) president
Answer:
(A) people

Explanation:
The Central government cannot order the State government to do something. State government has powers of its own for which ‘ it is not answerable to the Central government. Both these governments are separately answerable to the people.

Question 4.

Under which of the following systems, the Central government can pass on orders to the provincial government?

(A) Federal system
(B) Monarchy
(C) Unitary system
(D) Dictatorship
Answer:
(C) Unitary system

Explanation:
In a Unitary system, there is no list of distribution of powers in the constitution. All powers belong to the Central Government.

III. Read the given extract and answer the questions that follows:
What about subjects that do not fall in any of the three lists? Or subjects like computer software that came up after the constitution was made? According to our Constitution, the Union Government has the power to legislate on these ‘residuary’ subjects. We noted above that most federations that are formed by ‘holding together’ do not give equal power to its constituent units. Thus, all states in the Indian Union do not have identical powers. Some states enjoy a special status. Jammu and Kashmir has its own Constitution. Many provisions of the Indian Constitution are not applicable to this state without the approval of the State Assembly. Indians who are not permanent residents of this State cannot buy land or house here. Similar special provisions exist for some other states of India as well.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:

Question 1.

Which of the following subjects comes under ‘Residuary’ subjects?

(A) Education
(B) Trade
(C) Banking
(D) Computer software
Answer:
(D) Computer software

Explanation:
Union Government has the powers to make laws on Residuary Subjects. Subjects like Computer came into being after the constitution was created, hence it was included in the Residuary list.

Question 2.

Which of the following states has its own Constitution?

(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Kerala
Answer:
(B) Jammu and Kashmir

Explanation:
The Constitution of India granted special status to Jammu and Kashmir among Indian states, and it was the only state in India to have a separate constitution.

Question 3.

Who has the power to legislate on ‘Residuary’ subjects?

(A) Central government
(B) State government
(C) Community government
(D) Local government
Answer:
(A) Central government

Explanation:
The Central Government has the power to legislate on ‘Residuary’ subjects and the parliament has the power to amend laws on the subjects mentioned in it.

Question 4.

Indians who are not permanent residents of………….. cannot buy land or house here.

(A) Kerala
(B) Assam
(C) Jammu & Kashmir
(D) Bihar
Answer:
(C) Jammu & Kashmir

Explanation:
Non-Resident Indians could not buy property in Jammu and Kashmir because of the special status given to the state.

IV. Read the given extract and answer the questions that follows:
How many languages do we have in India? The answer depends on how one counts it. The latest information that we have is from the Census of India held in 2001. This census recorded more than 1500 distinct languages which people mentioned as their mother tongues. These languages were grouped together under some major languages. For example, languages like Bhojpuri, Magadhi, Bundelkhandi, Chhattisgarhi, Rajasthani, Bhili and many others were grouped together under ‘Hindi’. Even after this grouping, the Census found 114 major languages. Of these 22 languages are now included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution and are therefore, called ‘Scheduled Languages’. Others are called ‘Non-Scheduled Languages’. In terms of languages, India is perhaps the most diverse country in the world.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:

Question 1.

How many languages are spoken in India?

(A) More than 1200
(B) More than 1100
(C) More than 1400
(D) More than 1300
Answer:
(D) More than 1300

Explanation:
India is a land of vast cultural and linguistic diversity. India has about linguistic diversity as that of a continent leading to linguistic diversity. Each State has its own language.

Question 2.

Bhojpuri, Magadhi,…………… , Rajasthani and many others were grouped under ‘Hindi’.

(A) Bundelkhandi
(B) Urdu
(C) Kashmiri
(D) Bengali
Answer:
(A) Bundelkhandi

Explanation:
Bhojpuri, Magadhi, Bundelkhandi, Rajasthani and many other were grouped under Hindi as they are all considered to be the dialect of the same language of which Hindi is now the standard form.

Question 3.

How many languages are included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

(A) 18
(B) 20
(C) 21
(D) 22
Answer:
(D) 22

Explanation:
Scheduled languages are one that is included in the 8th schedule of the constitution of India. States have the freedom to use whatever language they decide to use for official purposes. English is not a scheduled language.

Question 4.

In terms of …………… , India is perhaps the most diverse country in the world.

(A) population
(B) languages
(C) forests
(D) religions
Answer:
(B) languages

Explanation:
While a number of people speak various languages, they remain geographically segregated. India is a diverse country in terms of languages is well known. The 2011 census lists 121 different mothertongues spoken by IndiAnswer:Fourteen of these languages have at least 10 million speakers.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Federalism Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing

MCQ Questions, Uncategorized / Prasanna

Power Sharing Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Question 1.

Which one of the following is a major caste group of Sri Lanka?

(A) Christian and Tamil
(B) Buddhist and Hindu
(C) Sinhali and Tamil
(D) Sinhali and Christian
Answer:
(C) Sinhali and Tamil

Explanation:
Sri Lanka is few kilometres off the southern coast of Tamil Nadu. The major social groups are the Sinhalese and the Tamils.

Question 2.

Modern democracies maintain check and balance system. Identify the correct option based on the horizontal power sharing arrangement.

(A) Central government, state government, local bodies
(B) Legislature, executive, judiciary
(C) Among different social groups
(D) Among different pressure groups
Answer:
(B) Legislature, executive, judiciary

Explanation:
Power is shared among the legislature, executive and judiciary, this is known as horizontal distribution of power because it allows these organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers.

Question 3.

Which language is spoken by majority of Sri Lankans?

(A) Tamil
(B) Sinhala
(C) Hindi
(D) Urdu
Answer:
(B) Sinhala

Question 4.

Study the following caricature and answer the question that follows :

Which of the following options best signifies this cartoon?

(A) Concentration of power in few hands.
(B) Democracy is like a horse-cart.
(C) Putin and Bush are good friends.
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Concentration of power in few hands.

Explanation:
In a democratic country, Elected representatives has a power in their hands and S they want to concentrate these powers.

Question 5.

When was Sinhala recognised as the official language of Sri Lanka?

(A) In 1954
(B) In 1955
(C) In 1956
(D) In 1958
Answer:
(C) In 1956

Question 6.

Study the following caricature and answer the question that follows :

Which of the following option best signifies this cartoon?

(A) Problems of two party system
(B) A car with two steering
(C) Problems of a coalition government
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Problems of a coalition government

Explanation:
When two or more political parties form a government & if they both form an opinion to run the government, conflicts arises.

Question 7.

A belief that the majority community should be able to rule a country in whichever way it wants, by disregarding the wishes and needs of the minority is:

(A) Power Sharing
(B) Central Government
(C) Majoritarianism
(D) Community Government
Answer:
(C) Majoritarianism

Explanation:
It means that the majority community rules a country by their own by disregarding the wishes and needs of the minority community.

Question 8.

A system of ‘checks and balances’ is another name for which one of the following power-sharing arrangements:

(A) Power sharing among different social groups.
(B) Vertical division of power or power shared among different levels of government.
(C) Horizontal division of power or power shared among different organs of the government.
(D) Power sharing in the form of political parties, pressure groups and governments.
Answer:
(C) Horizontal division of power or power shared among different organs of the government.

Question 9.

Which is a federal division of power?

(A) Governments at the provincial or regional level.
(B) Legislature, executive and judiciary
(C) Among different social groups
(D) Political parties, pressure groups and movements
Answer:
(A) Governments at the provincial or regional level.

Explanation:
General government at the provincial or regional level for the entire country is known as federal government.

Question 10.

Name one prudential reason for power sharing?

(A) Power sharing is the very spirit of democracy.
(B) People have a right to be consulted on how they are to be governed.
(C) Citizens, through participation, acquire a stake in the system
(D) Power sharing is good because it helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups
Answer:
(D) Power sharing is good because it helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups

Explanation:
Prudential reasons bring out better outcomes for power sharing.

Question 11.

Column A	Column B
(i) Power shared among different organs of govern-ment	(A) 18 per cent
(ii) Tamil speakers	(B) 80 per cent
(iii) Dutch speakers	(C) Coalition government, Federal govern-ment
(iv) Power shared by two or more political parties	(D) Separation of powers
(v) French speakers	(E) 20 per cent

(A) (i)-(D), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(E), (iv)-(C), (v)-(B)
(B) (i)-(A), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(C), (iv)-(E), (v)-(B)
(C) (i)-(B), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(E), (iv)-(A), (v)-(D)
(D) (i)-(E), (ii)-(B), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(D), (v)-(C)
Answer:
(A) (i)-(D), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(E), (iv)-(C), (v)-(B)

Explanation:
(i) Power is shared among the legislature, executive and judiciary and that separation ensures that none of the organs can exercise unlimited power.
(ii) Sri Lanka has 74% Sinhala- speakers and 18% Tamil-speakers.
(iii) In Brussels, 80% French speakers and 20% Dutch speakers.
(iv) When two or more parties form an alliance to contest elections. If their alliance is elected, they form a coalition government and thus share power.

Question 12.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) Belgium is a big country in North America.
(B) It has borders with France, the Netherlands, Germany and Luxembourg.
(C) It has a population of a little over one crore.
(D) The ethnic composition of this small country is very complex.
Answer:
(A) Belgium is a big country in North America.

Explanation:
Belgium is a smaller than Haryana. In Europe it shares borders with France, the Netherlands, Germany and Luxembourg.

Question 13.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) Power is shared among different organs of government.
(B) Such as the legislature, executive and judiciary.
(C) We call this as vertical distribution of powers.
(D) Because it allows different organs of government placed at same level to exercise different powers.
Answer:
(C) We call this as vertical distribution of powers.

Explanation:
When power is shared among different organs at the same level to exercise different powers, it is known as horizontal distribution of power.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Question 1.

Assertion (A): Pbwer sharing is good for democracy.
Reason (R): It helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): Power can be shared among governments at different levels.
Reason (R): Power may also share among different social groups.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Horizontal distribution of power allows different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): The Belgian leaders recognized the existence of regional differences and cultural diversities.
Reason (R): Between 1970 and 1993, they amended their constitution four times so as to work out an arrangement that would enable everyone to live together within the same country.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Sinhala was recognised as only official language of Sri Lanka.
Reason (R): The government of Sri Lanka wanted to establish dominance of Tamil community.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Sinhala was recognised as only official language of Sri Lanka so that the government of Sri Lanka establish the supremacy of Sinhala community.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): Power should not reside with one person and group located at one place in a democracy.
Reason (R): If the dispersed, it will not be possible to take decision quickly and enforce it.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is True.

Explanation:
In a democratic country, due respect is given to diverse groups that exist in the society. Thus, political power should be distributed among citizens.

Case-Based MCQs

I. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in 1948. The leaders of the Sinhala community sought to secure dominance over government by virtue of their majority. As a result, the democratically elected government adopted a series of MAJORITARIAN measures to establish Sinhala supremacy. In 1956, an Act was passed to recognise Sinhala as the only official language, thus disregarding Tamil.

The governments followed preferential policies that favoured Sinhala applicants for university positions and government jobs. A new constitution stipulated that the state shall protect and foster Buddhism. All these government measures coming one after the other, gradually increased the feeling of alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamils. They felt that none of the major political parties led by the Buddhist Sinhala leaders was sensitive to their language and culture. They felt that the constitution and government policies denied them equal political rights, discriminated against them in getting jobs and other opportunities and ignored their interests. As a result, the relations between the Sinhala and Tamil communities strained over time.

The Sri Lankan Tamils launched parties and struggles for the recognition of Tamil as an official language, for regional autonomy and equality of opportunity in securing education and jobs. But their demand for more autonomy to provinces populated by the Tamils was repeatedly denied. By 1980s several political organisations were formed demanding an independent Tamil Eelam (state) in northern and eastern parts of Sri Lanka. The distrust between the two communities turned into widespread conflict. It soon turned into a CIVIL WAR. As a result, thousands of people of both the communities were killed. Many families were forced to leave the country as refugees and many more lost their livelihoods.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:

Question 1.

The process of dominance over the government by virtue of majority is seen in which country?

(A) Bangladesh
(B) Belgium
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) The Netherlands
Answer:
(C) Sri Lanka

Question 2.

Which is the official language of Sri Lanka?

(A) Sinhala and Tamil
(B) Sinhala
(C) Tamil
(D)None of these
Ans.
(B) Sinhala

Explanation:
Tamil speakers were minor in Srilanka. So, in 1956 an act was passed that recognises Sinhala as the official language.

Question 3.

What is the prudential reason behind Power Sharing?

(A) It gives absolute power to the citizens.
(B) It gives absolute power to the government.
(C) It reduces the possibility of conflict between social groups.
(D) It ensures foreign investments.
Answer:
(C) It reduces the possibility of conflict between social groups.

Question 4.

The ratio of Sinhala speaking and Tamil speaking in Sri Lanka is :

(A) 20:80
(B) 50:50
(C) 70:30
(D) 80:20
Answer:
(D) 80:20

Explanation:
The prudential reasons for power sharing have the need to stabilise political order that reduces the possibility of conflict between social groups.

II. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
Belgium is a small country in Europe, smaller in area than the state of Haryana. It has borders with France, the Netherlands, Germany and Luxembourg. It has a population of a little over one crore, about half the population of Haryana. The ETHNIC composition of this small country is very complex. Of the country’s total population, 59 per cent lives in the Flemish region and speaks Dutch language. Another 40 per cent people live in the Wallonia region and speak French.

Remaining one per cent of the Belgians speak German. In the capital city Brussels, 80 per cent people speak French while 20 per cent are Dutch speaking. The minority French-speaking community was relatively rich and powerful. This was resented by the Dutch-speaking community who got the benefit of economic development and education much later. This led to tensions between the Dutch¬speaking and French-speaking communities during the 1950s and 1960s. The tension between the two communities was more acute in Brussels. Brussels presented a special problem: the Dutchspeaking people constituted a majority in the country, but a minority in the capital.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:

Question 1.

Belgium shares its border with:

(A) France
(B) Germany
(C) Luxembourg
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Question 2.

Capital of Belgium:

(A) Netherlands
(B) Brussels
(C) Wallonia
(D) Europe
Answer:
(B) Brussels

Question 3.

Which language speaks on majority level in the country? ‘

(A) Dutch
(B) German
(C) French
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Dutch

Question 4.

Area of Belgium is:

(A) equals to Haryana
(B) greater than Haryana
(C) smaller than Haryana
(D) equals to Europe
Answer:
(C) smaller than Haryana

Explanation:
Belgium is the small Europeon country whose area is smaller than Indian state, Haryana.

III. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
Power is shared among different organs of government, such as the legislature, executive and judiciary. Let us call this horizontal distribution of power because it allows different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers. Such a separation ensures that none of the organs can exercise unlimited power. Each organ checks the others.

This results in a balance of power among various institutions. Even though ministers and government officials exercise power, they are responsible to the Parliament or State Assemblies. Similarly, although judges are appointed by the executive, they can check the functioning of executive or laws made by the legislatures. This arrangement is called a system of checks and balances. Power can be shared among governments at different levels – a general government for the entire country and governments at the provincial or regional level. Such a general government for the entire country is usually called federal government. In India, we refer to it as the Central or Union Government. The governments at the provincial or regional level are called by different names in different countries. In India, we call them State Governments. This system is not followed in all countries. There are many countries where there are no provincial or state governments. But in those countries like ours, where there are different levels of government, the constitution clearly lays down the powers of different levels of government. This is what they did in Belgium, but was refused in Sri Lanka.

This is called federal division of power. The same principle can be extended to levels of government lower than the State government, such as the municipality and panchayat. Power may also be shared among different social groups such as the religious and linguistic groups. ‘Community government’ in Belgium is a good example of this arrangement. In some countries there are constitutional and legal arrangements whereby socially weaker sections and women are represented in the legislatures and administration. This type of arrangement is meant to give space in the government and administration to diverse social groups who otherwise would feel alienated from the government. This method is used to give minority communities a fair share in power.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:

Question 1.

In horizontal distribution, power is shared among:

(A) Legislature, Executive and Judiciary
(B) Union government, State government and Local government
(C) Majority and minority community
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Legislature, Executive and Judiciary

Question 2.

Community government solves issues related to:

(A) Culture
(B) Education
(C) Language
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Explanation:
A government that handle issues related to their particular community is called community government. Hence, the given options are the part communal issues.

Question 3.

Federal System was refused by:

(A) India
(B) Belgium
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) USA
Answer:
(C) Sri Lanka

Question 4.

Who can check the functioning of executives?

(A) Legislature
(B) Judiciary
(C) State Government
(D) Community Government
Answer:
(B) Judiciary

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Lifelines of National Economy

MCQ Questions / Prasanna

Lifelines of National Economy Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Question 1.

Column A	Column B
(i) Sher Shah Suri Marg	(A) Kandla
(ii) Tidal Port	(B) Super Highways
(iii) Chhatrapati Shi-vaji Airport	(C) Delhi to Amritsar
(iv) Golden Quadri-lateral	(D) Mumbai

(A) (i)-(C), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(B)
(B) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)
(C) (i)-(D), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(C)
(D) (i)-(B), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(A)
Answer:
(A) (i)-(C), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(B)

Explanation:

(i) The historical Sher-Shah Suri Marg is also known as National Highway No.l which connects Delhi to Amritsar.
(ii) Kandla in Kuchchh was the first port to trade on the Mumbai port, after the Partition.
(iii) Chhatrapati Shivaji Airport is an international airport at Mumbai.
(iv) Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways project launched by government which links Delhi-Kolkata-Chennai-Mumbai.

Question 2.

Column A	Column B
(i) New Mangalore Port	(A) Goa
(ii) Deendayal Port	(B) Tamil Nadu
(iii) Marmago Port	(C) Karnataka
(iv) Tuticorin Port	(D) Kuchchh

Explanation:
The above mentioned ports are situated at the states cities mentioned in Column B.

Question 3.

Which two of the following extreme locations are connected by the east-west corridor?

(A) Mumbai and Nagpur
(B) Silchar and Porbandar
(C) Mumbai and Kolkata
(D) Nagpur and Siliguri
Answer:
(B) Silchar and Porbandar

Explanation:
Silchar is in Assam that lies in east and Pbrbandar is in Gujarat that lies in west.

Question 4.

Which mode of transportation reduces transshipment losses and delays? [R]

(A) Railways
(B) Pipeline
(C) Roadways
(D) Waterways
Answer:
(B) Pipeline

Explanation:
As pipelines requires less cost and labour.

Question 5.

Which one of the following states is not connected with the HVJ pipeline?

(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Gujarat
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
(B) Maharashtra

Explanation:
Gas pipeline from Hazira in Gujarat connects Jagdishpur in Uttar Pradesh, through Vijaipur in Madhya Pradesh. So, here, H stands for Hazira, V stands for Vijaipur and J stands for Jagdishpur.

Question 6.

Which one of the following ports is the deepest land-locked and well-protected port along the east coast?

(A) Chennai
(B) Paradip
(C) Tuticorin
(D) Visakhapatnam
Answer:
(D) Visakhapatnam

Explanation:
Among all the options, only Vishakhapatnam is a port which is surrounded by land from all sides with a water passage towards the sea or ocean.

Question 7.

Which one of the following is the most important modes of transportation in India?

(A) Pipeline
(B) Railways
(C) Roadways
(D) Airways
Answer:
(B) Railways

Explanation:
Railways is considered as most important mode of transportation because it is a wide network which connects entire country,

Question 8.

Which one of the following terms is used to describe trade between two or more countries?

(A) International trade
(B) External trade
(C) Internal trade
(C) Local trade
Answer:
(A) International trade

Explanation:
(i) Internal trade takes place between two parties within the geographical boundaries of a nation.
(ii) Exchange of the items in local markets where items of local needs are catered are called local trade.
(iii) External trade is a synonym for International trade.

Question 9.

Which one of the following states has the highest road density?

(A) Goa
(B) Kerala
(C) Karnataka
(D) Gujarat
Answer:
(B) Kerala
Explanation:
The road density is highest in Kerala with 375 kms.

Question 10.

The first class mail includes which one of the following?

(A) Book packets
(B) Registered newspapers
(C) Envelopes and cards
(D) Periodicals and journals
Answer:
(C) Envelopes and cards

Explanation:
Cards and envelopes are considered first-class mail as it covers both land and air stations.

Question 11.

Study the picture given below and answer the question that follows :

This is a picture of :

(A) Super Highway
(B) State Highway
(C) Expressway
(D) National Highway
Answer:
(C) Expressway

Explanation:
As the picture shows access ramps, grade separation, lane dividers and elevated section, that considers the characteristics of an expressway.

Question 12.

Which one of the following means of transport is used for carrying solids in a slurry form?

(A) Trucks
(B) Railways
(C) Pipelines
(D) Ships
Answer:
(C) Pipelines

Question 13.

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options: Since the ancient period, India was one of the seafaring countries. Its seamen sailed far and near, thus, carrying and spreading Indian commerce and culture. Waterways are the cheapest means of transport. They are most suitable for carrying heavy and bulky goods.

(A) Roadways
(B) Waterways
(C) Highways
(D) Airways
Answer:
(B) Waterways

Question 14.

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options: From oil field in upper Assam to Kanpur (Uttar Pradesh), via Guwahati, Barauni and Allahabad. It has branches from Barauni to Haldia, via Rajbandh, Rajbandh to Mourigram and Guwahati to Siliguri.

(A) Waterways
(B) Railways
(C) Pipelines
(D) Sea ports
Answer:
(C) Pipelines

Question 15.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) Export and import are the components of trade.
(B) The balance of trade of a country is the addition of its export and import.
(C) When the value of exports exceeds the value of imports, it is called a favourable balance of trade.
(D) On the contrary, if the value of imports exceeds the value of exports, it is termed as unfavourable balance of trade.
Ans.
(B) The balance of trade of a country is the addition of its export and import.

Explanation:
The balance of trade of a country is the difference between its export and import.

Question 16.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) National Highways link extreme parts of the country.
(B) These are the primary road systems and are laid and maintained by Central Public Works Department (CPWD).
(C) A number of major National Highways run in North-South and East-West directions.
(D) The historical Sher Shah Suri Marg is called National Highway No. 4 between Delhi and Amritsar.
Answer:
(D) The historical Sher Shah Suri Marg is called National Highway No. 4 between Delhi and Amritsar.

Explanation:
The historical Sher Shah Suri I Marg is called National Highway No. 1 I between Delhi and Amritsar.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Question 1.

Assertion (A): Goods and services do not move from supply locales to demand locales on their own. Reason (R): For a long time, trade and transport were restricted to a limited space.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
The movement of goods and services from their supply locations to demand locations necessitates the need for transport.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): Railways have been a great integrating force for more than 150 years.
Reason (R): Railways in India bind to economic life of the country as well as accelerate the development of the industry and agriculture.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Since, the first train steamed off from Mumbai to Thane in 1853, Railways make it possible for people to conduct multifarious activities like business, sightseeing, pilgrimage along with transportation of goods over longer distances.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): Waterways are the cheapest means of transport.
Reason (R): It is fuel efficient and environment friendly.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Cost of laying pipelines is minimum but subsequent running costs are higher.
Reason (R): Pipelines facilitate easy transportation.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is True.

Explanation:
Cost of lying pipelines is highly but cost is minimum. It rules out transshipment delays.

Case-Based MCQs

I. Read the extract and answer the questions that follows :
Today, the world has been converted into a large village with the help of efficient and fast moving transport. Transport has been able to achieve this with the help of equally developed communication system. Therefore, transport, communication and trade are complementary to each other. Today, India is well-linked with the rest of the world despite its vast size, diversity and linguistic and socio-cultural plurality. Railways, airways, waterways, newspapers, radio, television, cinema and internet, etc. have been contributing to its socio-economic progress in many ways. The trades from local to international levels have added to the vitality of its economy. It has enriched our life and added substantially to growing amenities and facilities for the comforts of life. In this chapter you will see how modern means of transport and communication serve as lifelines of our nation and its modern For a long time, trade and transport were restricted to a limited space. With the development in science and technology, the area of influence of trade and transport economy. It is thus, evident that a dense and efficient network of transport and communication is a prerequisite for local, national and global trade of today.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 1.

Why is there a need to interlink with the world?

(A) For development
(B) For war and destruction
(C) For isolation
(D) To restrict spread of terrorism
Answer:
(A) For development

Question 2.

Infer the importance of means of transportation and communication for socio-economic progress?

(A) Help spread love
(B) Help to grow economy
(C) Help create empathy
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) Help to grow economy

Question 3.

How does trade strengthen the economy of a country?

(A) It helps in earning foreign exchange
(B) It helps in student exchange programme
(C) It helps in increasing cross border interaction
(D) Promotes respect
Answer:
(A) It helps in earning foreign exchange

Question 4.

The trades from local to international levels have added to the vitality of the.

(A) country
(B) Community
(C) economy
(D) trade
Answer:
(C) economy

II. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows :
The exchange of goods among people, states and countries is referred to as trade. The market is the place where such exchanges take place. Trade between two countries is called international trade. It may take place through sea, air or land routes. While local trade is carried in cities, towns and villages, state level trade is carried between two or more states. Advancement of international trade of a country is an index to its economic prosperity. It is, therefore, considered the economic barometer for a country. As the resources are space bound, no country can survive without international trade. Export and import are the components of trade. The balance of trade of a country is the difference between its export and import. When the value of exports exceeds the value of imports, it is called a favourable balance of trade. On the contrary, if the value of imports exceeds the value of exports, it is termed as unfavourable balance of trade. India has trade relations with all the major trading blocks and all geographical regions of the world. Among the world, the commodities exported from India to other countries include gems and jewellery, chemicals and related products, agriculture and allied products, etc. The commodities imported to India include petroleum crude and products, gems and jewellery, chemicals and related products, base metals, electronic items, machinery, agriculture and allied products. India has emerged as a software giant at the international level and it is earning large foreign exchange through the export of information technology.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 1.

…………… trade takes place between two countries.

(A) Local Trade
(B) National Trade
(C) International Trade
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(C) International Trade

Explanation:
As the question asked about the trade between countries so we can opt international trade for it.

Question 2.

Advancement of international trade of a country is an………….. to its economic prosperity.

(A) update
(B) index
(C) indicator
(D) content
Answer:
(B) index

Question 3.

The commodities………….. to India include petroleum crude and products, gems and jewelery, chemicals and related products, base metals, electronic items, machinery, agriculture and allied product.

(A) exported
(B) imported
(C) discarded
(D) sanctioned
Answer:
(B) imported

Question 4.

Export and import are the components of:

(A) Business
(B) prosperity
(C) trade
(D) dealing
Answer:
(C) trade

Explanation:
Export means send goods or services to another country for sale and Import means bring goods or services into a country from another country for sale.

II. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follows :
Ever since humans appeared on the earth, they have used different means of communication. But, the pace of change, has been rapid in modern times. Long distance communication is far easier without physical movement of the communicator or receiver. Personal communication and mass communication including television, radio, press, films, etc. are the major means of communication in the country. The Indian postal network is the largest in the world. It handles parcels as well as personal written communications. Cards and envelopes are considered first-class mail and are airlifted between stations covering both land and air. The second-class mail includes book packets, registered newspapers and periodicals. They are carried by surface mail, covering land and water transport. To facilitate quick delivery of mails in large towns and cities, six mail channels have been introduced recently. They are called Rajdhani Channel, Metro Channel, Green Channel, Business Channel, Bulk Mail Channel and Periodical Channel.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 1.

Which are the major means of communication in the country?

(A) Personal communication
(B) Mass communication
(C) Interpersonal Communication
(D) Personal and Mass communication
Answer:
(D) Personal and Mass communication

Explanation:
Personal communication and mass communication includes television, radio, press, films, etc.

Question 2.

Book packets, registered newspapers and periodicals are considered…………. mail.

(A) first class
(B) second class
(C) priority
(D) classified
Answer:
(B) second class

Question 3.

Which mail channel is introduced recently by Indian Postal Networks?

(A) Rajdhani Channel
(B) Duronto Channel
(C) Air India Channel
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(A) Rajdhani Channel

Explanation:
To facilitate quick delivery of mails in large towns and cities, Rajdhani Channel is introduced by Indian Postal Services.

Question 4.

Long distance………… is far easier without physical movement of the communicator or receiver.

(A) travelling
(B) communication
(C) networking
(D) Living
Answer:
(B) communication

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Lifelines of National Economy Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Manufacturing Industries

MCQ Questions / Prasanna

Manufacturing Industries Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Question 1.

Column A	Column B
(i) Agro Based Industry	(A) Amul
(ii) Private Sector Industry	(B) Oil India Ltd.
(iii) Joint Sector Industry	(C) Jute Industry
(iv) Cooperative Sector Industry	(D) TISCO

(A) (i)-(B), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(C)
(B) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)
(C) (i)-(D), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)
(D) (i)-(A), (ii)-(B), (iii)-(C), (iv)-(D)
Answer:
(B) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)

Explanation:
Agro based industries are based on source of raw materials. Private sector industries owned and operated by individuals or a group of individuals. Joint sector industries which are jointly run by the state and individuals or a group of individuals. Cooperative sector industries are owned and operated by the producers or suppliers of raw materials, workers or both.

Question 2.

Column A	Column B
(i) Information Technology and Elec-tronics Industry	(A) Gurugram
(ii) Cement Industry	(B) Rajasthan
(iii) Automobile Industry	(C) Gujarat
(iv) Fertilizer Industry	(D) Bengaluru

(A) (i)-(B), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(C)
(B) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)
(C) (i)-(D), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)
(D) (i)-(A), (ii)-(B), (iii)-(C), (iv)-(D)
Answer:
(C) (i)-(D), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)

Explanation:
(i) Major IT industries are at Bengaluru, Noida, Mumbai, Chennai, Hyderabad and Pune.
(ii) Major Cement plants are situated at Gujarat.
(iii) The industry is located around Delhi, Gurugram, Mumbai, Pune, Chennai, Kolkata, Lucknow, Indore, Hyderabad, Jamshedpur and Bengaluru.
(iv) Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, Punjab and Kerala are the major fertilizer production states.

Question 3.

How to make garment ? Arrange the following in the correct sequence:

(i) Weaving or knitting of fabric
(ii) Manufacturing of garment (stitching)
(iii) Spinning of yarn
(iv) Dyeing and finishing of garment

Options:
(A) (iii) – (iv) – (i) – (ii)
(B) (iv) – (iii) – (ii) – (i)
(C) (iii) – (i) – (iv) – (ii)
(D) (i) – (iv) – (ii) – (iii)
Answer:
(C) (iii) – (i) – (iv) – (ii)

Question 4.

How to manufacture Steel ? Arrange the following in the correct sequence:

(i) Pig iron
(ii) Blast furnace
(iii) Shaping metal
(iv) Steel making

Options :
(A) (ii) – (i) – (iv) – (iii)
(B) (iii) – (i) – (iv) – (ii)
(C) (i) – (iv) – (ii) – (iii)
(D) (ii) – (iii) – (iv) – (i)
Answer:
(A) (ii) – (i) – (iv) – (iii)

Question 5.

Identify the process in sequence for the shaping of Steel:

(i) Forging
(ii) Pressing
(iii) Casting
(iv) Rolling

Options:
(A) (i) – (iv) – (ii) – (iii)
(B) (iv) – (ii) – (iii) – (i)
(C) (iii) – (i) – (iv) – (ii)
(D) (ii) – (i) – (iii) – (iv)
Answer:
(B) (iv) – (ii) – (iii) – (i)

Question 6.

On what basis is the industrial sector classified into Public and Private Sectors ?

(A) Employment conditions
(B) The nature of economic activity
(C) Ownership of enterprises
(D) Number of workers employed in the enterprise
Answer:
(C) Ownership of enterprises

Explanation:
If the various industries classified into Public and Private sector then we would be able to understand their manufacturing better.

Question 7.

Which one of the following agencies markets steel for the public sector plants ?

(A) HAIL
(B) SAIL
(C) TATA Steel
(D) MNCC
Answer:
(B) SAIL

Question 8.

Which one of the following industries manufactures telephones, computer, etc ?

(A) Steel
(B) Electronic
(C) Aluminium Smelting
(D) Information Technology
Answer:
(B) Electronic

Question 9.

Which one of the following industries uses limestone as a raw material ?

(A) Aluminium
(B) Cement
(C) Plastic
(D) Automobile
Answer:
(B) Cement

Explanation:
Cement is essential for construction of building houses, factories, bridges, roads, airports, dams and for other commercial establishments.

Question 10.

Which of the two steel plants are in collaboration with Russia ?

(A) Bhadravati and Salem
(B) Bokaro and Jamshedpur
(C) Burnpur and Durgapur
(D) Bhilai and Bokaro
Answer:
(D) Bhilai and Bokaro

Question 11.

Which of the following industries use bauxite as a raw material ?

(A) Aluminium
(B) Cement
(C) Jute
(D) Steel
Answer:
(A) Aluminium

Explanation:
Cement and Steel are finished goods while Jute is used as raw material in agro based industries.

Question 12.

Study the table given below and answer the following question:

Year	Total Production of finished steel in India
	(in metric tonnes per annum)
2010-11	68-62
2011-12	75-70
2012-13	81-68
2013-14	87-67
2014-15	92-16
2015-16	91-00
2016-17	101-30

Source: Ministry of Steel, Government of India How much steel was produced in the year 2014-15 ?

(A) 101.30 metric tonnes
(B) 75.70 metric tonnes
(C) 92.16 metric tonnes
(D) 91.00 metric tonnes
Answer:
(C) 92.16 metric tonnes

Question 13.

Study the picture given below and answer the following question :

Where is this Sewage Treatment Plant under Yamuna Action Plan situated ?

(A) Faridabad
(B) Firozabad
(C) Ahmedabad
(D) Nasirabad
Answer:
(A) Faridabad

Explanation:
As the question suggests the name Yamuna, so out of all the options, Faridabad is correct as Yamuna flows through Faridabad.

Question 14.

It not only results in irritation and anger. It can also cause hearing impairment, increased heart rate and blood pressure among other physiological effect. Unwanted sound is an irritant and a source of stress. Industrial and construction activities, machinery, factory equipment, generators, saws and pneumatic and electric drills also make a lot of noise.

(A) Water Pollution
(B) Noise Pollution
(C) Air Pollution
(D) Soil Pollution
Answer:
(B) Noise Pollution

Question 15.

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options:
These plants are smaller, have electric furnaces, use steel scrap and sponge iron. They have re-rollers that use steel ingots as well. They produce mild and alloy steel of given specifications.

(A) Heavy Steel Plants
(B) Major Steel Plants
(C) Mini Steel Plants
(D) Light Steel Plants
Answer:
(C) Mini Steel Plants

Question 16.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) Agriculture and industry are not exclusive of each other.
(B) They move away from each other.
(C) The agro- industries in India have given a major boost to agriculture by raising its productivity.
(D) They depend on the latter for raw materials and to sell their products.
Answer:
(B) They move away from each other.

Explanation:
Agriculture and industry move hand in hand.

Question 17.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) We have a large share in the world trade of cotton yarn.
(B) Our spinning mills are competitive at the global level and capable of using all the fibres we produce.
(C) The weaving, knitting and processing units can use much of the high quality yarn that is produced in the coasonuntry.
(D) There are some large and modern factories in these segments.
Answer:
(C) The weaving, knitting and processing units can use much of the high quality yarn that is produced in the country.

Explanation:
The weaving, knitting and processing units cannot use much of the high quality yam that is produced in the country.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Question 1.

Assertion (A : The handspun Khadi provides large scale employment to weavers in their homes as a cottage industry
Reason (R : Mahatma Gandhi lay emphasis on spinning yarn and weaving khadi.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): India is the largest producer of raw jute and jute goods and stands at second place as an exporter after Bangladesh.
Reason (R) : Other problems are the law output of labour and stiff competition with the synthetic fibre industry.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Due to the proximity of the jute producing areas, inexpensive water transport, supported by a good network of railways, roadways and waterways to facilitate movement of raw material to the mills, abundant water for processing raw jute and cheap labour from West Bengal, Bihar, Odisha and Uttar Pradesh.

Question 3.

Assertion (A) : Rain water harvesting increases IndustriaTPollution.
Reason (R) : Rain water helps industry to meet water requirements.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is True.

Explanation:
Pollution occurs when waste water discharged by industry that pollutes fresh water. Rain water harvesting replenish the water which helps industries to meet water requirements.

Question 4.

Assertion (A) : The economic strength of the country is measured by the development of manufacturing industries.
Reason (R) : India’s prosperity lies in diversifying its manufacturing industries.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
India manufactures various kind of goods which reduces the dependency upon agriculture. Economy enhances when export of goods increases.

Case-Based MCQs

I. Read the text given below and answer the questions that follows:
Manufacturing industries not only help in modernising agriculture, which forms the backbone of our economy, they also reduce the heavy dependence of people on agriculturalincome by providing them jobs in secondary and tertiary sectors. Industrial development is a precondition for eradication of unemployment and poverty from our country. This was the main philosophy behind public sector industries and joint sector ventures in India. It was also aimed at bringing down regional disparities by establishing industries in tribal and backward areas. Export of manufactured goods expands trade and commerce, and brings in much needed foreign exchange. Countries that transform their raw materials into a wide variety of finished goods of higher value are prosperous. India’s prosperity lies in increasing and diversifying its manufacturing industries as quickly as possible. Agriculture and industry are not exclusive of each other. They move hand in hand. For instance, the agro- industries in India have given a major boost to agriculture by raising its productivity.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 1.

Manufacturing industries fall in………. and agriculture in………..

(A) Primary, Secondary Sector
(B) Secondary, Tertiary Sector
(C) Primary, Tertiary Sector
(D) Secondary, Primary Sector
Answer:
(D) Secondary, Primary Sector

Explanation:
Tertiary sector is a service sector that consists the production of services instead of end products.

Question 2.

Manufacturing provides job opportunities to reduce dependence on agriculture. Identify which sector the following jobs belong to:

Choose the correct option :

Jobs created or promoted by manufacturing industries	Sector
a. Garment production	1. Primary
b. Research and Development	2. Tertiary
c. Banking	3. Secondary
c. Banking	4. Quaternary

(A) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
(B) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
(C) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-2
(D) a-4, b-1, c-4, d-3
Answer:
(B) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1

Question 3.

Which of the following options does not help in modernising agriculture?

(A) Manufacturing farm equipment
(B) Providing unskilled labour force
(C) Supplying fertilizers and pesticides
(D) Producing tube well pumps and sprinklers
Answer:
(B) Providing unskilled labour force

Explanation:
Because Skilled labour in India focus on the faster growing areas of the economy such as manufacturing and service sector, as compared to agriculture.

Question 4.

In order to attract foreign manufacturing firms, a country needs to develop:

(A) Agrarian facilities
(B) Cultivable lands
(C) Media facilities
(D) Infrastructure facilities
Answer:
(D) Infrastructure facilities

II. Read the text given below and answer the questions that follows:
The iron and steel industry is the basic industry since all the other industries heavy, medium and light, depend on it for their machinery. Steel is needed to manufacture a variety of engineering goods, construction material, defence, medical, telephonic, scientific equipment and a variety of consumer goods. Production and consumption of steel is often regarded as the index of a country’s development. Iron and steel is a heavy industry because all the raw materials as well as finished goods are heavy and bulky, entailing heavy transportation costs. Iron ore, coking coal and limestone are required in the ratio of approximately 4:2:1. Some quantities of manganese are also required to harden the steel. Where should the steel plants be ideally located? Remember that the finished products also need an efficient transport network for their distribution to the markets and consumers. In 2016 with 95.6 million tonnes of crude steel production, India ranked 3rd among the world crude steel producers. It is the largest producer of sponge iron. In 2016 per capita consumption of steel in the country was only around 63 kg per annum against the world average of 208 kg.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 1.

Which industry is called the basic industry of India?

(A) Iron Industry
(B) Steel Industry
(C) Cement Industry
(D) Iron and Steel Industry
Answer:
(D) Iron and Steel Industry

Explanation:
As India has abundant resources of iron ore and it is the basic mineral which is the backbone of industrial development also.

Question 2.

Index of a country is regarded on what basis? Select the appropriate option :

(A) Extraction and processing of steel.
(B) Production and consumption of steel.
(C) Production and manufacturing of steel.
(D) Consumption and manufacturing of steel.
Answer:
(B) Production and consumption of steel.

Question 3.

Explain the process of manufacturing of steel. Choose the correct option:

(i) Pig iron
(ii) Blastfurnace
(iii) Shaping metal
(iv) Steel making

(A) (ii)-(i)-(iv)-(iii)
(B) (iii)-(i)-(iv)-(ii)
(C) (i)-(iv)-(ii)-(iii)
(D) (ii)-(iii)-(iv)-(i)
Answer:
(A) (ii)-(i)-(iv)-(iii)

Question 4.

Manufacturing steel is not every person’s business. Suppose you are working in a steel industry, what will be the proportion of Iron Ore, coking coal and limestone you would use to produce steel?

(A) 2 : 1 : 4
(B) 4 : 1 : 2
(C) 4 : 2 : 1
(D) 2 : 4 : 1
Answer:
(C) 4 : 2 : 1

Explanation:
For steel manufacturing, Iron ore, coking coal and lime stone are required in the ratio of approximately 4 : 2 : 1.

III. Read the text given below and answer the questions that follows:
Every litre of waste water discharged by our industry pollutes eight times the quantity of fresh water. How can the industrial pollution of fresh water be reduced ? Some suggestions are
(i) minimising the use of water for processing by reusing and recycling it in two or more successive stages.
(ii) harvesting of rainwater to meetwaterrequirements.
(iii) treating hot water and effluents before releasing them in rivers and ponds. Treatment of industrial effluents can be done in three phases.
(A) Primary treatment by mechanical means it involves screening, grinding, flocculation and sedimentation.
(B) Secondary treatment by biological process.
(C) Tertiary treatment by biological, chemical and physical processes.
This involves recycling of waste water. Overdrawing of ground water reserves by industry where there is a threat to ground water resources also needs to be regulated legally. Particulate matter in the air can be reduced by fitting smoke stacks to factories with electrostatic precipitators, fabric filters, scrubbers and inertial separators. Smoke can be reduced by using oil or gas instead of coal in factories. Machinery and equipment can be used and generators should be fitted with silencers. Almost all machinery can be redesigned to increase energy efficiency and reduce noise. Noise absorbing material may be used apart from personal use of earplugs and earphones. The challenge of sustainable development requires integration of economic development with environmental concerns.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 1.

How many treatments are there for industrial effluents?

(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) 5
(D) 4
Answer:
(A) 3

Explanation:
Treatment of industrial effluents can be done in three phases- Primary, Secondary and Tertiary.

Question 2.

What could be done to reduce pollution of machinery and equipment?

(A) Stop the use of machinery
(B) Use generators fitted with silencers
(C) use manual labour
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) Use generators fitted with silencers

Question 3.

The challenge of sustainable development requires integration of economic development with………… concerns.

(A) social
(B) cultural
(C) environmental
(D) political
Answer:
(C) environmental

Question 4.

…………. treatment involves biological, chemical and physical processes.

(A) Primary
(B) Secondary
(C) Tertiary
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Tertiary

Explanation:
Primary involves mechanical process and secondary involves biological.

IV. Read the text given below and answer the questions that follows:
In ancient India, cotton textiles were produced with hand spinning and handloom weaving techniques. After the 18th century, power-looms came into use. Our traditional industries suffered a setback during the colonial period because they could not compete with the mill-made cloth from England. In the early years, the cotton textile industry was concentrated in the cotton growing belt of Maharashtra and Gujarat. Availability of raw cotton, market, transport including accessible port facilities, labour, moist climate, etc. contributed towards its localisation. This industry has close links with agriculture and provides a living to farmers, cotton boll pluckers and workers engaged in ginning, spinning, weaving, dyeing, designing, packaging, tailoring and sewing. The industry by creating demands supports many other industries, such as, chemicals and dyes, packaging materials and engineering works. While spinning continues to be centralised in Maharashtra, Gujarat and Tamil Nadu, weaving is highly decentralised to provide scope for incorporating traditional skills and designs of weaving in cotton, silk, zari, embroidery, etc. India has world class production in spinning, but weaving supplies low quality of fabric as it cannot use much of the high-quality yarn produced in the country. Weaving is done by handloom, power loom and in mills. The handspun khadi provides large scale employment to weavers in their homes as a cottage Industry.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 1.

Why did our traditional industries suffer a setback during the colonial period ?

(A) No machines were available.
(B) They could not compete with the mill-made cloth from England.
(C) They lacked knowledge.
(D) They had no motivation to compete.
Answer:
(B) They could not compete with the mill-made cloth from England.

Explanation:
Because in India industries used hand spinning and handloom weaving techniques.

Question 2.

The handspun khadi provides large scale employment to weavers in their homes as a industry.

(A) cottage
(B) primary
(C) secondary
(D) basic
Answer:
(A) cottage

Explanation:
Because a cottage industry is often run out of a person’s home. Availability of raw cotton, market, transport including accessible port facilities, labour, moist climate, etc., contributed towards its localisation.

Question 3.

Availability of raw cotton, market, transport including accessible port facilities, labour, moist climate, etc., contributed towards its localisation.

(A) False
(B) True
(C) Some what true
(D) Not sure
Answer:
(C) Some what true

Question 4.

Weaving is done by:

(A) hand loom
(B) power loom
(C) mills
(D) All of these
Answer:.
(D) All of these

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Manufacturing Industries Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture

MCQ Questions / Prasanna

Agriculture Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Question 1.

Column A	Column B
(i) Jute	(A) Millet
(ii) Rubber	(B) Golden fibre
(iii) Coffee	(C) Industrial crop
(iv) Jowar	(D) Plantation crop

(A) (i)-(B), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(A)
(B) (i)-(D), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)
(C) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)
(D) (i)-(A), (ii)-(B), (iii)-(C), (iv)-(D)
Answer:
(A) (i)-(B), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(A)

Explanation:
(i) Jute is known as Golden Fibre.
(ii) Rubber is used in many industries as a raw material.
(iii) Since the production of coffee is mainly for market, markets plays an important role in the development of plantations.
(iv) Jowar is a important millet produces in Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka and Madhya Pradesh.

Question 2.

Column A	Column B
(i) Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra	(A) Apples,Pears, walnuts and Apricots
(ii) Tamil Nadu, Ker-ala, Karnataka	(B) Oranges
(iii) Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir	(C) Mangoes
(iv) Nagpur and Meghalaya	(D) Bananas

Explanation:
(i) Mangoes of Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal.
(ii) Bananas of Kerala, Mizoram, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu.
(iii) Oranges of Nagpur and Cherrapunjee (Meghalaya).
(iv) Apples, pears, apricots and walnuts of Jammu and Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh.

Question 3.

Barley: Rabi crop,Cotton: Kharif crop,……….:Zaid crop.

(A) Wheat
(B) Mustard
(C) Soya bean
(D) Cucumber
Answer:
(D) Cucumber

Explanation:
Wheat and Mustard are Rabi crops and Soyabean is Kharif Crop.

Question 4.

A type of millet rich in iron, calcium, other micro nutrients and roughage is………….

(A) Wheat
(B) Rice
(C) Tea
(D) Ragi
Answer:
(D) Ragi

Explanation:
Among all the above options, only Ragi is a millet crop whereas Wheat is a Rabi crop, Rice and Groundnut is a Kharif Crop.

Question 5.

Which one of the following describes a system of agriculture where a single crop is grown on a large area ?

(A) Shifting Agriculture
(B) Plantation Agriculture
(C) Horticulture
(D) Intensive Agriculture
Answer:
(B) Plantation Agriculture

Question 6.

Which one of the following is announced by the government in support of a crop ?

(A) Maximum Support Price
(B) Minimum Support Price
(C) Moderate Support Price
(D) Influential Support Price
Answer:
(B) Minimum Support Price

Explanation:
A price set by government on which they purchase agricultural product directly from farmer, is known as MSP

Question 7.

ICAR refers to :

(A) International Council of Aeronautical Research
(B) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
(C) Indian Council of Animal Research
(D) International Commission for Agricultural Research
Answer:
(B) Indian Council of Agricultural Research

Question 8.

Grouping of small land holding into a bigger one is called:

(A) Ceiling of land holding
(B) Collectivization
(C) Cooperative Farming
(D) Consolidation of land holding
Answer:
(D) Consolidation of land holding

Question 9.

Which one of the following is a leguminous crop ?

(A) Jowar
(B) Pulses
(C) Millets
(D) Sesamum
Answer:
(B) Pulses

Explanation:
Leguminous crops are those plants that help to restore the fertility of the soil as their small nodes absorb nitrogen from the air and fix it into the soil. All pulses are leguminous except arhar.

Question 10.

Study the picture and answer the question that follows:

Which type of cultivation is that?

(A) Wheat cultivation
(B) Rice cultivation
(C) Sugarcane cultivation
(D) Tea cultivation
Answer:
(C) Sugarcane cultivation

Question 11.

Study the picture and answer the question that follows:

Which type of soil is required for this cultivation?

(A) Black Soil
(B) Red soil
(C) Laterite soil
(D) Desert soil
Answer:
(A) Black Soil

Explanation:
The above picture shows cotton cultivation and it grows well in drier parts of the black soil of the Deccan plateau.

Question 12

……………….. is a food crop as well as a fodder crop.

(A) Maize
(B) Wheat
(C) Coffee
(D) Tea
Answer:
(A) Maize

Explanation:
Wheat is a food crop while Tea-Coffee is a beverage crop.

Question 13.

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options:This type of farming is practiced in areas of high population pressure on land. It is labour intensive farming, where high doses of biochemical inputs and irrigation are used for obtaining higher production.

Options:
(A) Commercial Farming
(B) Primitive Subsistence Farming
(C) Jhumming
(D) Intensive Subsistence Farming
Answer:
(D) Intensive Subsistence Farming

Question 14.

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options: It is known as the golden fibre. Jute grows well on well-drained fertile soils in the flood plains where soils are renewed every year. High temperature is required during the time of growth. West Bengal, Bihar, Assam, Odisha and Meghalaya are the major jute producing states. It is used in making gunny bags, mats, ropes, yarn, carpets and other artefacts. Due to its high cost, it is losing market to synthetic fibres and packing materials, particularly the nylon.

(A) Jute
(B) Cotton
(C) Rubber
(D) Silk
Options :
Answer:
(A) Jute

Question 15.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) Groundnut is a Kharif crop and accounts for about half of the major oil seeds produced in the country.
(B) Gujarat was the largest producer of groundnut followed by Rajasthan and Tamil Nadu in 2015-16.
(C) Linseed and mustard are Kharif crops.
(D) Sesamum is a Kharif crop in north and Rabi crop in south India.
Answer:
(C) Linseed and mustard are Kharif crops.

Explanation:
Linseed and mustard are Rabi crops.

Question 16.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) Kisan Credit Card (KCC), Personal Accident Insurance Scheme (PAIS) are some other schemes introduced by the Government of India for benefit of the farmers.
(B) Moreover, special news bulletins and entertainment programmes for farmers were introduced on the radio and television.
(C) The government also announces minimum support price, remunerative and procurement prices for important crops to check the exploitation of farmers by speculators and middlemen.
Answer:
(B) Moreover, special news bulletins and entertainment programmes for farmers were introduced on the radio and television.

Explanation:
Moreover special weather bulletins and agricultural programmes for farmers were introduced on the radio and television.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Question 1.

Assertion (A): Tea is an important beverage crop introduced in India initially by the British.
Reason (R): In 2015, India was the second largest producer of tea after China.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): A few economists think that Indian farmers have a bleak future if they continue growing food grains on the holdings that grow smaller and smaller as the population rises.
Reason (R) : Indian farmers should diversify their cropping pattern from cereals to high-value crops.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): Agriculture is an old economic activity.
Reason (R): Farming varies from subsistence to commercial type.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Cultivation methods changed significantly depending upon the characte-ristics of physical, environmental and technological methods.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Organic farming is much in vogue.
Reason (R): In organic farming, crops are grown using high doses to increase production.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Organic farming is much in vogue because it is practiced without factory made chemicals such as fertilisers and pesticides. Hence, it does not affect environment in negative manner.

Case-Based MCQs

I. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:
SOURCE A : Primitive Subsistence Farming This type of farming is still practised in few pockets of India. Primitive Subsistence Agriculture is practised on small patches of land with the help of primitive tools like hoe, dao and digging sticks, and family/community labour. This type of farming
depends upon monsoon, natural fertility of the soil and suitability of other environmental conditions to the crops grown. It is a ‘slash and burn’ agriculture. Farmers clear a patch of land and produce cereals and other food crops to sustain their family. When the soil fertility decreases, the farmers shift and clear a fresh patch of land for cultivation. This type of shifting allows Nature to replenish the fertility of the soil through natural processes; land productivity in this type of agriculture is low as the farmer does not use fertilisers or other modern inputs. It is known by different names in different parts of the country.

SOURCE B : Commercial Farming Plantation is also a type of commercial farming. In this type of farming, a single crop is grown on a large area. The plantation has an interface of agriculture and industry. Plantations cover large tracts of land, using capital intensive inputs, with the help of migrant labourers. All the produce is used as raw material in respective industries. In India, tea, coffee, rubber, sugarcane, banana, etc., are important plantation crops. Tea in Assam and North Bengal coffee in Karnataka are some of the important plantation crops grown in these states. Since the production is mainly for market, a well-developed network of transport and communication connecting the plantation areas, processing industries and markets plays an important role in the development of plantations.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 1.

Primitive Subsistence farming depends on:

(A) Monsoon
(B) Fertility of Soil
(C) Environmental Conditions
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Question 2.

When the……… decreases, the farmers clear a fresh patch of land for cultivation.

(A) Production
(B) Soil fertility
(C) Natural Calamities
(D) Industries
Answer:
(B) Soil fertility

Question 3.

…………. crop is grown in Commercial farming.

(A) Zaid
(B) Rabi
(C) Single
(D) Kharif
Answer:
(C) Single

Question 4.

In commercial farming, we used:

(A) HYV seeds
(B) Old methods of inputs
(C) Small patches of land
(D) Skilled labour
Answer:
(A) HYV seeds

Explanation:
Commercial farming is the use of higher doses of modern inputs in order to obtain higher productivity.

II. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:
SOURCE A: Wheat This is the second most important cereal crop. It is the main food crop, in north and north-western part of the country. This rabi crop requires a cool growing season and a bright sunshine at the time of ripening. It requires 50 to 75 cm of annual rainfall evenly-distributed over the growing season. There are two important wheat-growing zones in the country – the Ganga-Satluj plains in the north¬west and black soil region of the Deccan. The major wheat-producing states are Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Rajasthan and parts of Madhya Pradesh.

SOURCE B : Rice It is the staple food crop of a majority of the people in India. Our country is the second largest producer of rice in the world after China. It is a kharif crop which requires high temperature, (above 25°C) and high humidity with annual rainfall above 100 cm. In the areas of less rainfall, it grows with the help of irrigation.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 1.

How much annual rainfall is required for Wheat?

(A) 50 to 75 cm
(B) below 50 cm
(C) Above 100 cm
(D) 75 to 150 cm
Answer:
(A) 50 to 75 cm

Explanation:

Wheat requires a cool growing season and a bright sunshine at the time of ripening.

Question 2.

What is climatic conditions required for Rice?

(A) High rainfall
(B) High temperature
(C) High humidity
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Question 3.

Wheat growing zones in India :

(A) The Ganga-Satluj plains in the north-west
(B) Black soil region of the Deccan plateau
(C) Both ‘a’ and b’
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Both ‘a’ and b’

Question 4.

…………….. is the largest producer of Rice.

(A) Brazil
(B) India
(C) China
(D) Australia
Answer:
(C) China

Explanation:
Rice grows in the areas of less rainfall and China’s climate is favourable for rice as it requires high temperature, (above 25°C) and high humidity with annual rainfall above 100 cm.

III. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follows:
Tea cultivation is an example of plantation agriculture. It is also an important beverage crop introduced in India initially by the British. Today, most of the tea plantations are owned by IndiAnswer:The tea plant grows well in tropical and sub tropical climates endowed with deep and fertile well-drained oil, rich in humus and organic matter. Tea bushes require warm and moist frost- free climate all through the year. Frequent showers evenly distributed ver the year ensure continuous growth of tender leaves. Tea is a labour-intensive industry. It requires abundant, cheap and skilled labour. Tea is processed within the tea garden to restore its freshness. Major tea producing states are Assam, hills of Darjeeling and Jalpaiguri districts, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Kerala. Apart from these, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Meghalaya, Andhra Pradesh and Tripura are also tea-producing states in the country. In 2015 India was the second largest producer of tea after China. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 1.

Who introduced tea cultivation in India?

(A) German
(B) British
(C) French
(D) Dutch
Answer:
(B) British

Question 2.

Which of the following states is the largest producer of tea?

(A) Assam
(B) West Bengal
(C) Uttarakhand
(D) Kerala
Answer:
(A) Assam

Explanation:
The tea plant grows well in tropical and sub-tropical climates endowed with deep and fertile well-drained soil, rich in humus and organic matter.

Question 3.

Tea bushes require and moist frost-free climate all through the year.

(A) cold
(B) warm
(C) moderate
(D) None of the these
Answer:
(B) warm

Question 4.

Which of the following countries was the largest production of tea in 2016?

(A) China
(B) India
(C) USA
(D) Sri Lanka
Answer:
(C) USA

Explanation:
In 2016, frequent showers evenly distributed over the year in China which ensures continuous growth of tea production.

IV. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follows:
Mahatma Gandhi declared Vinoba Bhave as his spiritual heir. He also participated in Satyagraha as one of the foremost satyagrahis. He was one of the votaries of Gandhi’s concept of gram swarajya. After Gandhiji’s martyrdom, Vinoba Bhave undertook padyatra to spread Gandhiji’s message covered almost the entire country. Once, when he was delivering a lecture at Pochampalli in Andhra Pradesh, some poor landless villagers demanded some land for their economic well-being. Vinoba Bhave could not promise it to them immediately but assured them to talk to the Government of India regarding provision of land for them if they undertook cooperative farming. Suddenly, Shri Ram Chandra Reddy stood up and offered 80 acres of land to be distributed among 80 land¬less villagers. This act was known as ‘Bhoodan’. Later he travelled and introduced his ideas widely all over India. Some zamindars, owners of many villages offered to distribute some villages among the landless. It was known as Gramdan. However, many land-owners chose to provide some part of their land to the poor farmers due to the fear of land ceiling act. This Bhoodan-Gramdan movement initiated by Vinoba Bhave is also known as the Blood-less Revolution.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 1.

Who declared Vinoba Bhave as his spiritual heir?

(A) Nehru
(B) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) All of the Above
Answer:
(C) Mahatma Gandhi

Question 2.

The act done by Shri Ram Chandra Reddy was called .

(A) Tyag
(B) Bhoodan
(C) Annaprasana
(D) Atmasamman
Answer:
(B) Bhoodan

Question 3.

Some zamindars, owners of many villages offered to distribute some villages among the landless. What was it known as?

(A) Atmadan
(B) Gramdan
(C) Bhoodan
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Gramdan

Question 4.

Where did Vinoba Bhave delivered his lecture for villagers well- being?

(A) Pochampalli in Andhra Pradesh
(B) Warangal in Andhra Pradesh
(C) Panchvati in Himachal Pradesh
(D) Sirmaur in Himachal Pradesh
Answer:
(A) Pochampalli in Andhra Pradesh

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Resources and Development

MCQ Questions / Prasanna

Resources and Development Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Question 1.

Column A	Column B
(i) Black Soil	(A) Western Rajasthan
(ii) Alluvial Soil	(B) Himalayan Region
(iii) Arid Soil	(C) Northern Plains
(iv) Forest Soil	(D) Maharashtra

(A) (i)-(D), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)
(B) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)
(C) (i)-(B), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(C)
(D) (i)-(A), (ii)-(B), (iii)-(C), (iv)-(D)
Answer:
(A) (i)-(D), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)

Explanation:
(i) Black soil is typical of the Basalt region spread over northwest Deccan plateau and is made up of lava flows.
(ii) Northern plains are made of alluvial soil deposited by Himalayan rivers.
(iii) In Western Rajasthan, due to dry climate and high temperature, only after proper irrigation Arid soil become cultivable.
(iv) In hilly and mountainous areas enough rain forests are available.

Question 2.

Column A	Column B
(i) Red and Yellow Soil	(A) Rajasthan, Gujarat
(ii) Laterite Soil	(B) Odisha, Chhattisgarh
(iii) Alluvial Soil	(C) Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh
(iv) Black Soil	(D) Karnataka, Kerala

(A) (i)-(D), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)
(B) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)
(C) (i)-(B), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(C)
(D) (i)-(B), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(C)
Answer:
(C) (i)-(B), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(C)

Question 3.

Arrange the following in the correct sequence:

(i) The Summit was convened for addressing urgent problems of environmental protection and Socio-Economic development at the global level.
(ii) The Rio Convention endorsed the global Forest Principles and adopted Agenda 21 for achieving Sustainable Development in the 21st century.
(iii) The assembled leaders signed the Declaration on Global Climatic Change and Biological Diversity.
(iv) In June 1992, more than 100 heads of states met in Rio de Janeiro in Brazil, for the first International Earth Summit.

Options:
(A) (iv) – (i) – (iii) – (ii)
(B) (iii) – (ii) – (i) – (iv)
(C) (iv) – (iii) – (ii) – (i)
(D) (i) – (iii) – (iv) – (ii)
Answer:
(A) (iv) – (i) – (iii) – (ii)

Question 4.

Arrange the following in the correct sequence: Resource planning in India which involves :

(i) Evolving a planning structure endowed with appropriate technology, skill and institutional set up for implementing resource development plans.
(ii) Identification and inventory of resources across the regions of the country. This involves surveying, mapping and qualitative and quantitative estimation and measurement of the resources.
(iii) Matching the resource development plans with overall national development plans.

Options:
(A) (i) – (ii) – (iii)
(B) (iii) – (i) – (ii)
(C) (ii) – (i) – (iii)
(D) (i) – (iii) – (ii)

Answer:
(C) (ii) – (i) – (iii)

Question 5.

Which of the following is an example of Cultivable Wasteland?

(A) Gross cropped area
(B) Uncultivated land
(C) Barren wasteland
(D) Current fallow land
Answer:
(B) Uncultivated land

Explanation:
Wasteland is not available for cultivation.

Question 6.

“There is enough for everybody’s need and not for anybody’s greed”. Who said this?

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(C) M.K. Gandhi
(D) Sunder Lai Bahuguna
Answer:
(C) M.K. Gandhi

Explanation:
According to Gandhiji, the greedy and selfish individuals, and exploitative nature of modern technology are the root cause for resource depletion at the global level.

Question 7.

Study the given graph and answer the following :

About how much percent land area is plains ?

(A) 27%
(B) 72%
(C) 30%
(D) 43%
Answer:
(D) 43%

Explanation:
India has variety of relief features. About 43 per cent of the land area is plain, which utilises for agriculture and industry.

Question 8.

Study the given figure and answer the following:

How many layers of soil are seen in this soil profile?

(A) 2 layers
(B) 4 layers
(C) 1 layer
(D) 3 layers
Answer:
(B) 4 layers

Explanation:
It takes millions of years to form soil upto a few cm in depth. Relief, parent rock or bed rock, climate, vegetation and other forms of life and time are important factors in the formation of soil.

Question 9.

Resources which are surveyed and their quantity and quality have been determined for utilisation is known as

(A) Potential resources
(B) Stock
(C) Developed resources
(D) Reserves
Answer:
(C) Developed resources

Explanation:
The development of resources depends on technology and level of their feasibility.

Question 10

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options :

(i) It is formed by the deposition of alluvium brought down by the east flowing peninsular rivers.
(ii) It is highly fertile.
(iii) It consists of various proportions of sand, silt and clay.
(iv) It is rich in potash, phosphoric acid and lime but deficient in organic matter.

Options:
(A) Main features of alluvial soil
(B) Main features of black soil
(C) Main features of arid soil
(D) Main features of laterite soil.
Answer:
(A) Main features of alluvial soil

Question 11

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options :

(i) Contour ploughing
(ii) Terrace farming
(iii) Strip cropping
(iv) Afforestation

Options:
(A) Measures for ploughing
(B) Measures for soil conservation
(C) Measures for terrace farming
(D) Measures for afforestation
Answer:
(B) Measures for soil conservation

Explanation:
(i) Contour Ploughing can decelerate the flow of water down the slopes.
(ii) Terrace cultivation restricts erosion.
(iii) Strips cropping breaks up the force of the wind.
(iv) Afforestation manage wastelands.

Question 12.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) The cold desert of Ladakh is relatively isolated from rest of the country.
(B) It has very rich cultural heritage.
(C) It has sufficiency in water, infrastructure and some vital minerals.
(D) This calls for balanced resource planning at the national, state, regional and local levels.
Answer:
(C) It has sufficiency in water, infrastructure and some vital minerals.

Explanation:
The Cold Desert of Ladakh has deficiency in water, infrastructure and vital minerals.

Question 13.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) It is formed by the deposition of alluvium brought down by the east flowing peninsular rivers.
(B) It is highly infertile.
(C) It consists of various proportions of sand, silt and clay.
(D) It is rich in potash, phosphoric acid and lime but deficient in organic matter.
Answer:
(B) It is highly infertile.

Explanation:
Alluvial Soil Is highly fertile as it contains enough proportion of potash, phosphoric add and lime.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions: In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false and R is True

Question 1.

Assertion (A) : Resources are vital for human survival as well as for maintaining the quality of life.
Reason (R): It was believed that resources are free gifts of nature.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
Resources are using to satisfy the needs, bases for economic strength and prosperity of the people. They provide material, energy and favourable conditions for development.

Question 2.

Assertion (A) : India has varied relief features, landforms, climatic realms and vegetation types.
Reason (R) : These have been deposited by three important Himalayan river systems-the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false

Explanation:
Assertions refers to various relief features that are helpful in the formation of soil. However, Reason refers to the formation of Alluvial Soil.

Question 3.

Assertion (A) : The availability of resources is a necessary condition for the development of any region.
Reason (R): Availability of resources in the absence of corresponding changes in technology may obstruct development.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 4.

Assertion (A) : Proper discharge and disposal of industrial wastes can reduce land degradation in suburban areas.
Reason (R) : In the states of Punjab, Haryana, western Uttar Pradesh, over irrigation is responsible for land degradation.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is True

Case-Based MCQs

I. Read the extract and answer the questions that follows:
Resources are vital for human survival as well as for maintaining the quality of life. It was believed that resources are free gifts of nature. As a result, human beings used them indiscriminately and this has led to the following major problems.

Depletion of resources for satisfying the greed of a few individuals.
Accumulation of resources in few hands, which, in turn, divided the society into two segments i.e. haves and have nots or rich and poor.
Indiscriminate exploitation of resources has led to global ecological crisis such as, global warming, ozone layer depletion, environmental pollution and land degradation.

An equitable distribution of resources has become essential for a sustained quality of life and global peace. If the present trend of resource depletion by a few individuals and countries continues, the future of our planet is in danger.
Therefore, resource planning is essential for sustainable existence of all forms of life. Sustainable existence is a component of sustainable development.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:

Question 1.

Resources are vital for human survival as well as for maintaining the quality of…………

(A) Work
(B) life
(C) peace
(D) all of the above
Answer:
(A) Work

Explanation:
Resources changed the way of life from traditional to modern that improves the quality of life.

Question 2.

……………. existence is a component of sustainable development.

(A) Sustainable
(B) Mutual
(C) Cooperative
(D) Happy
Answer:
Option (A) is correct

Explanation:
To sustain life, people have to conserve natural resources and distribute them equally.

Question 3.

Resource …………. is essential for sustainable existence of all forms of life.

(A) planning
(B) maintenance
(C) development
(D) existence
Answer:
(A) planning

Explanation:
Through resource planning, we can reduce wastage of resources.

Question 4.

Which of the following crisis occurs due to exploitation of resources?

(A) global warming
(B) afforestation
(C) soil conservation
(D) All of these
Answer:
(A) global warming

Explanation:
Natural resources are unlimited so if we exploit them consequences occurs.

II. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follows:
We have shared our land with the past generations and will have to do so with the future generations too. Ninety-five per cent of our basic needs for food, shelter and clothing are obtained from land. Human activities have not only brought about . degradation of land but have also aggravated the pace of natural forces to cause damage to land. Some human activities such as deforestation, overgrazing, mining and quarrying too have contributed significantly in land degradation. Mining sites are abandoned after excavation work is complete leaving deep scars and traces of overburdening.

In states like Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha deforestation due to mining have caused severe land degradation. In states like Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra overgrazing is one of the main reasons for land degradation. In the states of Punjab, Haryana, western Uttar Pradesh, over irrigation is responsible for land degradation due to water logging leading to increase in salinity and alkalinity in the soil. The mineral processing like grinding of limestone for cement industry and calcite and soapstone for ceramic industry generate huge quantity of dust in the atmosphere. It retards the process of infiltration of water into the soil after it settles down on the land. In recent years, industrial effluents as waste have become a major source of land and water pollution in many parts of the country.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:

Question 1.

With whom do we share our land?

(A) enemies
(B) oceans and seas
(C) China
(D) Past and future generations
Answer:
(D) Past and future generations

Question 2.

Name some Indian states which are deforested due to mining and overgrazing activities.

(A) Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh
(B) Karnataka, Kerala
(C) Ladakh and Kashmir
(D) Lakshadweep
Answer:
(A) Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh

Question 3.

What harm does the mineral processing and cement industry do to the environment and land?

(A) helps in growing of trees
(B) generates huge quantity of dust in the atmosphere
(C) Kills animals
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) generates huge quantity of dust in the atmosphere

Question 4.

Which of the following activity leads land degradation?

(A) Quarrying
(B) Mining
(C) Afforestation
(D) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
Answer:
(D) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Resources and Development Read More »

Author name: Prasanna

Federalism Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

When was States Reorganisation Commission formed?

How many Union Territories are there in the Indian Federation?

Which of the following falls under the Concurrent List?

What status has been given to Hindi by the Constitution of India?

Who is the head of urban local government?

In which year, a major step was taken towards decentralisation?

Study the given cartoon and answer the following:

Which one of the following leaders is shown in this cartoon?

Study the picture and answer the following:

Which one of the following options best signifies this cartoon?

Which of the following pair is incorrect?

Major steps towards decentralization taken in 1992 were:

Assertion (A): When power is taken away from Central and State government and given to local government, it is called decentralization. Reason (R): The basic idea behind decentralization is that there are a large number of problems and issues which are best settled at the local level.

Assertion (A) : Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central authority and various constituent units of the country. Reason (R): Usually, a federation has one level of government.

Assertion (A): India has a federal system. Reason (R): Under a unitary system, either there is only one level of government or the sub-units are subordinate to central government.

Assertion (A): Hindi is identified as the only official language of India. Reason (R): It helped in creating supremacy of Hindi speaking people over others.

Assertion (A): Belgium and Spain have ‘holding together’ federation. Reason (R): A big country divides power between constituent states and national government.

Assertion (A): The subjects which are not included in Union List, State List and Concurrent List are considered as residuary subjects. Reason (R): The subjects included those that came after constitution was made and thus could not be classified.

Assertion (A): Zilla Parishad Chairperson is the political head of the zilla parishad. Reason (R): Mayor is the head of municipalities.

Assertion (A): Third-tier of government is local government. Reason (R): It made democracy stumble.

What was the first and major test for democratic politics in our country?

A candidate in an examination conducted for the Central Government positions has to opt for which language?

Which non- Hindi speaking State demanded that the use of English should continue after 1965?

How many languages are included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

Usually, a federation has………….. levels of government.

Which of the following types of government is responsible for the whole country?

Central and State governments are separately answerable to the .

Under which of the following systems, the Central government can pass on orders to the provincial government?

Which of the following subjects comes under ‘Residuary’ subjects?

Which of the following states has its own Constitution?

Who has the power to legislate on ‘Residuary’ subjects?

Indians who are not permanent residents of………….. cannot buy land or house here.

How many languages are spoken in India?

Bhojpuri, Magadhi,…………… , Rajasthani and many others were grouped under ‘Hindi’.

How many languages are included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

In terms of …………… , India is perhaps the most diverse country in the world.

Power Sharing Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Which one of the following is a major caste group of Sri Lanka?

Modern democracies maintain check and balance system. Identify the correct option based on the horizontal power sharing arrangement.

Which language is spoken by majority of Sri Lankans?

Study the following caricature and answer the question that follows :

Which of the following options best signifies this cartoon?

When was Sinhala recognised as the official language of Sri Lanka?

Study the following caricature and answer the question that follows :

Which of the following option best signifies this cartoon?

A belief that the majority community should be able to rule a country in whichever way it wants, by disregarding the wishes and needs of the minority is:

A system of ‘checks and balances’ is another name for which one of the following power-sharing arrangements:

Which is a federal division of power?

Name one prudential reason for power sharing?

Find the incorrect option from the following:

Find the incorrect option from the following:

Assertion (A): Pbwer sharing is good for democracy. Reason (R): It helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups.

Assertion (A): Power can be shared among governments at different levels. Reason (R): Power may also share among different social groups.

Assertion (A): The Belgian leaders recognized the existence of regional differences and cultural diversities. Reason (R): Between 1970 and 1993, they amended their constitution four times so as to work out an arrangement that would enable everyone to live together within the same country.

Assertion (A): Sinhala was recognised as only official language of Sri Lanka. Reason (R): The government of Sri Lanka wanted to establish dominance of Tamil community.

Assertion (A): Power should not reside with one person and group located at one place in a democracy. Reason (R): If the dispersed, it will not be possible to take decision quickly and enforce it.

The process of dominance over the government by virtue of majority is seen in which country?

Which is the official language of Sri Lanka?

What is the prudential reason behind Power Sharing?

The ratio of Sinhala speaking and Tamil speaking in Sri Lanka is :

Belgium shares its border with:

Capital of Belgium:

Which language speaks on majority level in the country? ‘

Area of Belgium is:

In horizontal distribution, power is shared among:

Community government solves issues related to:

Federal System was refused by:

Who can check the functioning of executives?

Lifelines of National Economy Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Which two of the following extreme locations are connected by the east-west corridor?

Which mode of transportation reduces transshipment losses and delays? [R]

Which one of the following states is not connected with the HVJ pipeline?

Which one of the following ports is the deepest land-locked and well-protected port along the east coast?

Which one of the following is the most important modes of transportation in India?

Which one of the following terms is used to describe trade between two or more countries?

Which one of the following states has the highest road density?

The first class mail includes which one of the following?

Study the picture given below and answer the question that follows :

Assertion (A): When power is taken away from Central and State government and given to local government, it is called decentralization.
Reason (R): The basic idea behind decentralization is that there are a large number of problems and issues which are best settled at the local level.

Assertion (A) : Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central authority and various constituent units of the country.
Reason (R): Usually, a federation has one level of government.

Assertion (A): India has a federal system.
Reason (R): Under a unitary system, either there is only one level of government or the sub-units are subordinate to central government.

Assertion (A): Hindi is identified as the only official language of India.
Reason (R): It helped in creating supremacy of Hindi speaking people over others.

Assertion (A): Belgium and Spain have ‘holding together’ federation.
Reason (R): A big country divides power between constituent states and national government.

Assertion (A): The subjects which are not included in Union List, State List and Concurrent List are considered as residuary subjects.
Reason (R): The subjects included those that came after constitution was made and thus could not be classified.

Assertion (A): Zilla Parishad Chairperson is the political head of the zilla parishad.
Reason (R): Mayor is the head of municipalities.

Assertion (A): Third-tier of government is local government.
Reason (R): It made democracy stumble.

Assertion (A): Pbwer sharing is good for democracy.
Reason (R): It helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups.

Assertion (A): Power can be shared among governments at different levels.
Reason (R): Power may also share among different social groups.

Assertion (A): The Belgian leaders recognized the existence of regional differences and cultural diversities.
Reason (R): Between 1970 and 1993, they amended their constitution four times so as to work out an arrangement that would enable everyone to live together within the same country.

Assertion (A): Sinhala was recognised as only official language of Sri Lanka.
Reason (R): The government of Sri Lanka wanted to establish dominance of Tamil community.

Assertion (A): Power should not reside with one person and group located at one place in a democracy.
Reason (R): If the dispersed, it will not be possible to take decision quickly and enforce it.

Assertion (A): Railways have been a great integrating force for more than 150 years.
Reason (R): Railways in India bind to economic life of the country as well as accelerate the development of the industry and agriculture.

Assertion (A): Waterways are the cheapest means of transport.
Reason (R): It is fuel efficient and environment friendly.

Assertion (A): Cost of laying pipelines is minimum but subsequent running costs are higher.
Reason (R): Pipelines facilitate easy transportation.

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options:
These plants are smaller, have electric furnaces, use steel scrap and sponge iron. They have re-rollers that use steel ingots as well. They produce mild and alloy steel of given specifications.

Assertion (A : The handspun Khadi provides large scale employment to weavers in their homes as a cottage industry
Reason (R : Mahatma Gandhi lay emphasis on spinning yarn and weaving khadi.

Assertion (A): India is the largest producer of raw jute and jute goods and stands at second place as an exporter after Bangladesh.
Reason (R) : Other problems are the law output of labour and stiff competition with the synthetic fibre industry.

Assertion (A) : Rain water harvesting increases IndustriaTPollution.
Reason (R) : Rain water helps industry to meet water requirements.

Assertion (A) : The economic strength of the country is measured by the development of manufacturing industries.
Reason (R) : India’s prosperity lies in diversifying its manufacturing industries.