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MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation

The Age of Industrialisation Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Question 1.

Column AColumn B
(i) Spinning Jenny(A) James Watt
(ii) Music Book(B) Richard Arkwright
(iii) Steam Engine(C) E. T. Pauli
(iv)Cotton Mill(D) James Hargreaves

(A) (i)-(D), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)
(B) (i)-(C),(ii)-P),(mHA),(iv)-(B)
(C) (i)-(B), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(C)
(D) (i)-(D), (iiHC), (ili)-(A), (iv)-(B)
Answer:
(D) (i)-(D), (iiHC), (ili)-(A), (iv)-(B)

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation

Question 2.

Column AColumn B
(i) Iron and Steel Plant(A) Seth Hukumchand
(ii) Bengali Industrialist(B) Dinshaw Petit
(iii) Marwari Busi-nessman(C) J.N. Tata
(iv) Parsi Industrialist(D) Dwarkanath Tagore

(A) (i)-(D), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)
(B) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)
(C) (i)-(B), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(C)
(D)(i)- (D), (iiHC), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)
Answer:
(B) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)

Question 3.

Arrange the following in the correct sequence:

(i) James Hargreaves invented the Spinning Jenny
(ii) James Watt patented the Steam Engine.
(iii) Richard Arkwright created the First Cotton Mill.
(iv) Mathew Boulton manufactured the new model of Steam Engine.

Options :

(A) (iv) – (i) – (iii) – (ii)
(B) (i) – (iii) – (ii) – (iv)
(C) (h) – (iv) – (i) – (iii)
(D) (iii) – (ii) – (iv) – (i)
Answer:
(B) (i) – (iii) – (ii) – (iv)

Explanation:

(i) James Hargreaves invented the Spinning Jenny in 1764.
(ii) Richard Arkwright created the First Cotton Mill in 1771.
(iii) James Watt patented the Steam Engine in 1781 produced by Newcomen.
(iv) Mathew Boulton manufactured the new model of Steam Engine in 1781.

Question 4.

Arrange the following in the correct sequence:

(i) J. N. Tata set up the first iron and steel plant in Jamshedpur.
(ii) Dwarkanath Tagore set up six j oint stock comp anies in Bengal.
(iii) Seth Hukumchand set up the first jute mill in Calcutta.
(iv) Music Publisher E. T. Pauli produced a music book.

Options:
(A) (iv) – (i) – (ii) – (iii)
(B) (i) – (iv) – (iii) – (ii)
(C) (ii) – (iv) – (i) – (iii)
(D) (iii) – (ii) – (iv) – (i)
Answer:
(C) (ii) – (iv) – (i) – (iii)

Explanation:
(i) Dwarkanath Tagore set up six joint stock companies in Bengal in 1830s and 1840s.
(ii) Music Publisher E. T. Pauli produced a music book in 1900.
(iii) J. N. Tata set up the first iron and steel plant in Jamshedpur in 1912.
(iv) Seth Hukumchand set up the first jute mill in Calcutta in 1917.

Question 5.

Which of the following was a European managing agency?

(A) Tata Iron and Steel Company
(B) Elgin Mill
(C) Andrew Yule
(D) Birla Industries
Answer:
(C) Andrew Yule

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation

Question 6.

From which of the following trade did the early entrepreneur make a fortune ?

(A) Textile trade
(B) China trade
(C) Trade in tea
(D) Share market
Answer:
(B) China trade

Explanation:
Britishers in India began exporting opium to China and took tea from China to England. Many Indians earned through this trade for developing industrial enterprises in India.

Question 7.

Whom did the British Government appoint to supervise weavers, collect supplies and to examine the quality of cloth?

(A) Jobber
(B) Sepoy
(C) Policeman
(D) Gomastha
Answer:
(D) Gomastha

Explanation:
The East India company tried to eliminate the existing cloth traders and brokers and establish a more control over the weaver.

Question 8.

The person who got people from village, ensured them jobs, helped them settle in cities and provided them money in times of need was known as:

(A) Stapler
(B) Fuller
(C) Gomastha
(D) Jobber
Answer:
(D) Jobber

Question 9.

Why were workers in England hostile to machines and new technology?

(A) They did not know how to use these machines.
(B) They feared that they would lose their jobs and livelihood.
(C) The workers were too poor to buy new machines.
(D) They were scared of machines.
Answer:
(B) They feared that they would lose their jobs and livelihood.

Question 10.

Study the picture and answer the question that follows: ‘Dawn of the Century’ produced by E. T. Pauli is what?

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation 1

(A) a music card
(B) a music album
(C) a music book
(D) a music record
Answer:
(C) a music book

Explanation:
Dawn of the Century, published by E.T. Pauli Music Co. of New York, England in 1900.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation

Question 11.

Study the picture of the famous Indian Entrepreneur and answer the question that follows :

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation 2
This is a picture of whom ?

(A) Dwarkanath Tagore
(B) Dinshaw Petit
(C) Jamsetjee Jejeebhoy
(D) Seth Hukumchand
Answer:
(A) Dwarkanath Tagore

Question 12.

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options:
The abundance of labour in the market affected the lives of workers. As news of possible jobs travelled to the countryside, hundreds tramped to the cities. The actual possibility of getting a job depended on existing networks of friendship and kin relations. If you had a relative or a friend in a factory, you were more likely to get a job quickly. But not everyone had social connections. Many job seekers had to wait weeks, spending nights under bridges or in night shelters. Some stayed in Night Refuges that were set up by private individuals; others went to the casual wards maintained by the Poor Law authorities.

(A) Abundance of labour
(B) Life of the workers
(C) Job seekers
(D) Employment of workers
Answer:
(B) Life of the workers

Question 13.

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options:
By the late nineteenth century, manufacturers were printing calendars to popularise their products. Unlike newspapers and magazines, calendars were used even by people who could not read. They were hung in tea shops and in poor people’s homes just as much as in offices and middle-class apartments. And those who hung the calendars had to see the advertisements, day after day, through the year. In these calendars, once again, we see the figures of Gods being used to sell new products. Like the images of gods, figures of important personages, of emperors and nawabs, adorned advertisement and calendars. The message very often seemed to say: if you respect the royal figure, then respect this product; when the product was being used by kings, or produced under Royal command, its quality could not be questioned.

(A) Use of calendars
(B) Use of advertisements
(C) Use of images
(D) Market for goods
Answer:
(D) Market for goods

Question 14.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) By the beginning of nineteenth century, manu facturers were printing calendars to popularise their products.
(B) Unlike newspapers and magazines, calendars were used even by people who could not read.
(C) They were hung in tea shops and in poor people’s homes just as much as in offices and middle-class apartments.
(D) And those hung the calendars had to see the Advertisements, day after day, through the year.
Answer:
(A) By the beginning of nineteenth century, manu facturers were printing calendars to popularise their products.

Explanation:
By the late nineteenth century, manufacturers were printing calendars to popularise their products.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation

Question 15.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) In most Industrial regions workers came from the districts around.
(B) Peasants and artisans who found no work in the village went to the industrial centres in search of work.
(C) Over 70 percent workers in the Bombay cotton industries in 1911 came from the neighbouring district of Ratnagiri.
(D) While the mills of Kanpur got most of their textile hands from the villages within the district of Kanpur.

Answer:
(C) Over 70 percent workers in the Bombay cotton industries in 1911 came from the neighbouring district of Ratnagiri.

Explanation:
Over 50 percent workers in the Bombay cotton industries in 1911 came from the neighbouring district of Ratnagiri.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions: In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is correct but R is wrong.
(D) A is wrong and R is correct.

Question 1.

Assertion (A) : European Managing Agencies, which dominated industrial production in India, were interested in certain kinds of products.
Reason (R) : They established tea and coffee plantations, acquiring land at cheap rates from the Colonial Government; and they invested in mining, indigo and jute.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): The most dynamic industries in Britain were clearly Cotton and Metals.
Reason (R) : By 1873, Britain was exporting iron and steel worth about £ 77 million, double the value of its cotton export.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Cotton was the leading sector in the first phase of industrialisation up to the 1840s. After that the iron and steel industry led the way in England from the 1840s and in the colonies from the 1860s as the demand for iron and steel increased rapidly.

Question 3.

Assertion (A) : The new emerging industries in England could not replace the traditional industries. ‘
Reason (R): Ordinary and small innovations were the basis of growth in many non -mechanised sectors.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Most of the output was not from the industrialised factories but from domestic units which employed more than 80 percent workforce.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation

Question 4.

Assertion (A) : There was a lot of opposition to the introduction of Spinning Jenny in the cotton industry.
Reason (R): Invention of machines threatened the employment of many women.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 5.

Assertion (A): The ports of Bombay and Calcutta declined.
Reason (R) : As European companies gradually gained power over Indian trade, local merchants start facing loss and exports from Surat and Hooghly ports fell.

Answer:
(D) A is wrong and R is correct.

Explanation:
The Old ports of Surat and Hoogly declined.

Question 6.

Assertion (A) : Certain group of weavers prospered even when being in competition with mill industries.
Reason (R) : Handicrafts people adopt new technology that decline production and pushing up costs excessively.

Answer:
(C) A is correct but R is wrong.

Explanation:
Special handicrafts materials like silk saris were bought by the well-to-do and their demand never decreased.

Case-Based MCQs

I. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
In the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, merchants from the towns in Europe began moving to the countryside, supplying money peasants and artisans, persuading them to produce for an international market. With the expansion of world trade and the acquisition of colonies in different parts of the world, the demand for goods began growing. But merchants could not expand production within towns. This was because here urban crafts and trade guilds were powerful. These were associations of producers that trained craftspeople, maintained control over production, regulated competition and prices, and restricted the entry of new people into the trade. Rulers granted different guilds the monopoly right to produce and trade in specific products. It was therefore difficult for new merchants to set up business in towns. So they turned to the countryside.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option

Question 1.

Merchants from the towns in Europe began moving to the:

(A) Countryside
(B) Cities
(C) Villages
(D) Foreign Countries
Answer:
(A) Countryside

Explanation:
Because the association of traders and manufactures confined the entry of new people. Hence, it was difficult to setup their business for new merchants in towns.

Question 2.

The Merchants persuaded peasants and artisans to produce for:

(A) Local market
(B) State market
(C) International market
(D) National market
Answer:
(C) International market

Explanation:
Merchants set monopoly to produce specific goods, so they persuaded artisans to produce for international market.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation

Question 3.

With the expansion of World trade, the demand for goods began…………

(A) slowing
(B) growing
(C) falling down
(D) increased
Answer:
(B) growing

Question 4.

Associations of…………….. trained Craftspeople, maintained control over production, regulated competition and prices, and restricted the entry of new people into the trade.

(A) Manufacturers
(B) Customers
(C) Producers
(D) Retailers
Answer:
(C) Producers

II. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
Consider the case of the steam engine. James Watt improved the steam engine produced by -Newcomen and patented the new engine in 1781. His industrialist friend Matthew Boulton manufactured the new model. But for years he could find no buyers. At the beginning of the nineteenth century, there were no more than 321 steam engines all over England. Of these, 80 were in cotton industries, nine in wool industries, and the rest in mining, canal works and iron works. Steam engines were not used in any of the other industries till much later in the century. So, even the most powerful new technology that enhanced the productivity of labour manifold was slow to be accepted by industrialists.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:

Question 1.

Who invented or produced the first Steam Engine?

(A) James Watt
(B) Isaac Newton
(C) Newcomen
(D) Albert Einstein
Answer:
(C) Newcomen

Question 2.

Who manufactured the new model of Steam Engine?

(A) Matthew Boulton
(B) Newcomen
(C) James Watt
(D) Isaac Newton
Answer:
(A) Matthew Boulton

Question 3.

How many Steam Engines were there at the beginning of the nineteenth century all over the England?

(A) 521
(B) 221
(C) 421
(D) 321
Answer:
(D) 321

Question 4.

Out of 321 Steam Engines, how many were used in Cotton Industries?

(A) 90
(B) 80
(C) 70
(D) 60
Answer:
(B) 80

III. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
A range of products could be produced only with hand labour. Machines were oriented to produce uniforms, standardised goods with intricate designs and specific shapes. In mid-nineteenth century Britain, for instance, 500 varieties of hammers were produced alongwith 45 kind of axes. These required human skill and not mechanical technology. In Victorian Britain, the upper classes – the aristocrats and the bourgeoisie – preferred things produced by hand. Handmade products came to symbolise refinement and class. They were better finished, individually produced, and carefully designed. Machine made goods were for export to the colonies. In countries with labour shortage, industrialists were keen on using mechanical power so that the needed for human labour can be minimised. This was the case in nineteenth-century America. Britain, however, had no problem hiring human hands.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:

Question 1

……………. were Standardised products, which were produced for a mass market

(A) Cotton
(B) Uniforms
(C) Wool
(D) Tools
Answer:
(B) Uniforms

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation

Question 2

……………varieties of hammers and………….. kinds of axes were produced in Britain in mid-nineteenth century.

(A) 500,45
(B) 500,55
(C) 300,145
(D) 400,45
Answer:
(A) 500,45

Question 3.

In Victorian Britain, the aristocrats and bourgeoisie belonged to the…………

(A) Priest classes
(B) Lower classes
(C) Upper classes
(D) Middle classes
Answer:
(C) Upper classes

Question 4.

……………. products symbolised refinement and

(A) Machine made
(B) Handmade
(C) Man made
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) Handmad

IV. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
The European companies gradually gained power – first securing a variety of concessions from local courts, then the monopoly rights to trade. This resulted in a decline of the old ports of Surat and Hooghly through which local merchants had operated. Exports from these ports fell dramatically, the credit that had financed the earlier trade began drying up, and the local bankers slowly went bankrupt. In the last years of the seventeenth century, the gross value of trade that passed through Surat had been ? 16 million. By the 1740s it had slumped to ? 3 million.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 1.

Who secured concessions from local Courts?

(A) The American companies
(B) The European companies
(C) The Asian companies
(D) The Africa companies
Answer:
(B) The European companies

Question 2.

Hooghly and………… were the old Ports.

(A) Surat
(B) Punjab
(C) Central Asia
(D) Persia
Answer:
(A) Surat

Question 3

………. slowly went bankrupt.

(A) Exporters
(B) Dealers
(C) Bankers
(D) Customers
Answer:
(C) Bankers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation

Question 4.

The gross value of trade that passed through Surat had been

(A)₹ 18 million
(B) ₹ 17 million
(C) ₹ 19 million
(D) ₹ 16 million
Answer:
(D) ₹ 16 million

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 4 The Making of Global World

The Making of Global World Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Question 1.

Column AColumn B
(i) Corn Laws(A) Detroit
(ii) Rinderpest(B) America
(iii) Small-pox(C) Britain
(iv) Car Plant(D) Africa

(A) (i)-(D), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)
(B) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(B),(iv)-(A)
(C) (i)-(D), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)
(D) (i)-(B), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(C)
Answer:
(C) (i)-(D), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)

Explanation:
(i) Cowries or seashells were used as a i currency in India.
(ii) Chinese pottery moved through the Silk 1 route to Europe and Asia.
(iii) Ready foodstuff came from China to West which was known as spaghetti.
(iv) In chain of ready foodstuff, pasta came from Italy through Arab Traders.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 4 The Making of Global World

Question 2.

Column AColumn B
(i) Indian(A) Pottery
(ii) Chinese(B) Pasta
(iii) Italian(C) Cowries
(iv) Arab Traders(D) Spaghetti

(A) (i)-(D), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)
(B) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)
(C) (i)-(C), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(B)
(D) (i)-(B), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(C)
Answer:
(C) (i)-(C), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(B)

Explanation:
(i) Cowries or seashells were used as a i currency in India.
(ii) Chinese pottery moved through the Silk 1 route to Europe and Asia.
(iii) Ready foodstuff came from China to West which was known as spaghetti.
(iv) In chain of ready foodstuff, pasta came from Italy through Arab Traders.

Question 3.

Arrange the following in the correct sequence:

(i) The Second World War.
(ii) The Great Depression.
(m) The Chinese Revolution.
(iv) The IMF and the World Bank commenced financial operations.

Options:
(A) (i) – (iii) – (iv) – (ii)
(B) (iii) – (iv) – (ii) – (i)
(C) (iv) – (ii) – (i) – (iii)
(D) (ii) – (i) – (iv) – (iii)
Answer:
(D) (ii) – (i) – (iv) – (iii)

Explanation:
(i) The Great Depression, 1936.
(ii) The Second World War in 1939.
(iii) The IMF and the World Bank commenced 1 financial operations in 1947.
(iv) The Chinese Revolution, 1949.

Question 4.

Arrange the following in the correct sequence:

(i) Indentured Labour was abolished.
(ii) Rinderpest (Cattle Plague) had a terrifying impact on livelihoods of the African people and the local economy.
(iii) The First World War was fought.
(iv) Potato Famine in Ireland.

Options:
(A) (iv) – (ii) – (iii) – (i)
(B) (iii) – (i) – (ii) – (iv)
(C) (i) – (iv) – (iii) – (ii)
(D) (ii) – (iii) – (iv) – (i)
Answer:
(A) (iv) – (ii) – (iii) – (i)

Explanation:
(i) Potato Famine in Ireland from 1845 to 1849.
(ii) Rinderpest (Cattle Plague) had a terrifying impact on livelihoods of the African people and the local economy in late 1880s.
(iii) The First World War was fought from 1914  to 1918.
(iv) Inden ured Labour was abolished in 1921.

Question 5.

In Trinidad what was referred as Hosay?

(A) Annual Muharram procession marking a Carnival.
(B) Christmas celebration
(C) Easter festival
(D) New Year celebration
Answer:
(A) Annual Muharram procession marking a Carnival.

Explanation:
In Trinidad the annual Muharram procession was transformed into a riotous carnival called ‘Hosay’ in which workers of all races and religions joined.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 4 The Making of Global World

Question 6.

Until 18th century, which two countries were considered the richest in the world?

(A) China and Japan
(B) England and France
(C) India and China
(D) England and Italy
Answer:
(C) India and China

Question 7.

Why were the Europeans attracted the most to Africa?

(A) By its natural beauty.
(B) By the opportunities for investment.
(C) For its vast land resources and mineral wealth.
(D) For recruitment of labour.
Answer:
(C) For its vast land resources and mineral wealth.

Question 8.

Most Indian Indentured workers came from :

(A) Eastern Uttar Pradesh
(B) North-Eastern States
(C) Jammu & Kashmir
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Eastern Uttar Pradesh

Explanation:
In the mid-nineteenth century Eastern UP faced cottage industries declined, land rents rose, lands were cleared for mines and plantations that affected the lives of the poor. Thus, they forced to migrate in search of work.

Question 9.

Study the picture and answer the question that follows:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 4 The Making of Global World 1

Which of the following aspects best signifies this image of ship “Alexandra” ?

(A) Irish emigrants waiting to board the ship.
(B) Meat being loaded on the ship.
(C) Emigrants leaving for the US.
(D) Transport to the gold mines.
Answer:
(B) Meat being loaded on the ship.

Explanation:
Till the 1870s, animals were shipped live from America to Europe but live animals took up a lot of ship space and also g became unfit to eat. Hence, Meat became an expensive luxury for European poor.

Question 10.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 4 The Making of Global World 2

Which of the following options best signifies the above picture ?

(A) A distant view of Surat and its river
(B) New Orleans
(C) Transvaal Gold Mines
(D) Stalingrad in Soviet Russia
Answer:
(A) A distant view of Surat and its river

Explanation:
In the seventeenth and early eighteenth centuries, Surat remained the main centre of overseas trade in the western Indian Ocean.

Question 11.

Analyze the information given below, considering one the following correct options :
Consider the jute producers of Bengal. They grew raw jute that was processed in factories for export in the form of gunny bags. But as gunny exports collapsed, the price of raw jute crashed more than 60 per cent. Peasants who borrowed in the hope of better times or to increase output in the hope of higher incomes faced ever lower prices, and fell deeper and deeper into debt. Thus the Bengal jute growers’ lament: Grow more jute, brothers, with the hope of greater cash. Costs and debts of jute will make your hopes get dashed. When you have spent all your money and got the crop off the ground, … traders, sitting at home, will pay only Rs 5 a maund.

(A) The Great Depression
(B) India and the Great Depression
(C) Post-War Recovery
(D) Rise of mass Production and Consumption
Answer:
(B) India and the Great Depression

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 4 The Making of Global World

Question 12.

Analyze the information given below, considering one the following correct options : The Silk Routes are a good example of vibrant pre¬modern trade and cultural links between distant parts of the world. The name ‘Silk Routes’ points to the importance of West-bound Chinese silk cargoes along this route. Historians have identified several silk routes, over land and by sea, knitting together vast regions of Asia, and linking Asia with Europe and northern Africa. They are known to have existed since before the Christian Era and thrived almost till the fifteenth century. But Chinese pottery also travelled the Same route, as did textiles and spices from India and Southeast Asia. In return, precious metals gold and silver flowed from Europe to Asia. Trade and cultural exchange always went hand in hand. Early Christian missionaries almost certainly travelled this route to Asia, as did early Muslim preachers a few centuries later. Much before all this, Buddhism emerged from eastern India and spread in several directions through intersecting points on the silk routes.

(A) Pre-modern Trade and cultural links
(B) Trade and cultural exchange
(C) Silk Routes link the world
(D) Chinese Silk cargoes
Answer:
(C) Silk Routes link the world

Question 13.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) Rinderpest arrived in Africa in the late 1980s.
(B) Rinderpest moved like forest fire in Africa.
(C) The loss of cattle due to this destroyed African livelihoods.
(D) Colonial government forced the Africans into the labour market.
Answer:
(A) Rinderpest arrived in Africa in the late 1980s.

Explanation:
Rinderpest or cattle plague I arrived in Africa in the late 1880s.

Question 14.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) The Great Depression began around 1929 and lasted till the mid-1930s.
(B) During this period most parts of the world experienced catastrophic declines in production, employment, incomes and trade.
(C) The exact timing and impact of the depression varied across countries.
(D) But in general, agricultural regions and communities were the best affected.
Answer:
(D) But in general, agricultural regions and communities were the best affected.

Explanation:
But in general, agricultural regions and communities were the worst affected.

Assertion and reason Based MCQs

Directions: In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false and R is True

Question 1.

Assertion (A): The Silk Routes are a good example of pre-modern trade and cultural links between distant parts of the world.
Reason (R) : The name ’Silk Routes’ points to the importance of West-bound Chinese silk cargoes along this route.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 4 The Making of Global World

Question 2.

Assertion (A): The First World War was a war like no other before.
Reason (R) : The First World War was mainly fought in Europe.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is True

Explanation:
The First World War was a war like no other before because this involved the world’s leading industrial nations.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): Most indentured labour in India came from present day Eastern UE Bihar, Central India and drydistricts of Tamil Nadu.
Reason (R): In mid 19th century, the regions of Eastern UR Bihar, Central India and Tamil Nadu due to inflation in prices after First World War.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false

Explanation:
In the mid-nineteenth century Eastern UP faced cottage industries declined, land rents rose, lands were cleared for mines and plantations that affected the lives of the poor. Thus, they forced to migrate in search of work.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Europe emerged as the centre of world trade in the 19th century.
Reason (R): Till the eighteenth century, China and India were among the world’s richest countries.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Reduced importance of China and India in World trade and the emergence of Americas pushed the centre of world trade westwards.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): US quickly recovered after First world war.
Reason (R): US exports boosted European recovery and world trade over the next six years.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false

Explanation:
The First World War was a war like no other before because this involved the world’s leading industrial nations.

Question 6.

Assertion (A): World Bank and IMF were established after the second world war.
Reason (R): Second world war caused an immense amount of economic destruction and many parts of Europe and Asia were destroyed.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Case-Based MCQs

I. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:
All through history, human societies have become steadily more interlinked. From ancient times, travellers, traders, priests and pilgrims travelled vast distances for knowledge, opportunity and spiritual fulfilment, or to escape persecution. They carried goods, money, values, skills, ideas, inventions, and even germs and diseases. As early as 3000 BCE an active coastal trade linked the Indus valley civilisations with present-day West Asia. For more than a millennia, cowries (the Hindi cowrie or seashells, used as a form of currency) from the Maldives found their way to China and East Africa. The long-distance spread of disease¬carrying germs may be traced as far back as the seventh century. By the thirteenth century it had become an unmistakable link.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:

Question 1.

In ancient times who travelled vast distances for knowledge, opportunity and spiritual fulfilment?

(A) Travellers
(B) Traders
(C) Priests
(D) All of them
Answer:
(D) All of them

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 4 The Making of Global World

Question 2.

Besides goods, money, values, skills, ideas, inventions they also carried:

(A) Gold
(B) Germs and diseases
(C) Silver
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) Germs and diseases

Question 3.

In Hindi, meaning of Cowrie is.

(A) Seashells
(B) Nutshells
(C) Walnut shells
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Seashells

Question 4.

The long distance spread of disease-carrying germs may be traced between:

(A) Sixth-twelfth Century
(B) Eight-fourteenth Century
(C) Seventh-thirteenth Century
(D) Ninth-sixteenth Century
Answer:
(C) Seventh-thirteenth Century

II. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:
The silk routes are a good example of vibrant pre-modern trade and cultural links between distant parts of the world. The name ’silk routes’ points to the importance of West-bound Chinese silk cargoes along this route. Historians have identified several silk routes, over land and by sea, knitting together vast regions of Asia, and linking Asiawith Europe and northern Africa. They are known to have existed since before the Christian Era and thrived almost till the fifteenth century. But Chinese pottery also travelled the same route, as did textiles and spices from India and Southeast Asia. In return, precious metals – gold and silver – flowed from Europe to Asia.Trade and cultural exchange always went hand in hand. Early Christian missionaries almost certainly travelled this route to Asia, as did early Muslim preachers a few centuries later. Much before all this, Buddhism emerged from eastern India and spread in several directions through intersecting points on the silk routes.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:

Question 1.

The silk routes are a good example of:

(A) Modern trade
(B) Pre-modern trade
(C) Ancient trade
(D) Global trade
Answer:
(B) Premodern trade

Question 2.

Silk is a product.

(A) Japanese
(B) Korean
(C) American
(D) Chinese
Answer:
(D) Chinese

Explanation:
The origin of silk in China since ancient time that symbolise the royalty of Chinese people.

Question 3.

What was exported from India through Silk route?

(A) Oil
(B) Petroleum
(C) Textile and Spices
(D) Herbs
Answer:
(C) Textile and Spices

Explanation:
As Oil and Petroleum exported from Arab countries, while China exported herbs.

Question 4.

Early Christian Missionaries and preachers travelled through this route to Asia.

(A) Christian
(B) Sikh
(C) Muslim
(D) Buddhist
Answer:
(C) Muslim

III. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:
Population growth from the late eighteenth century had increased the demand for food grains in Britain. As urban centres expanded and industry grew, the demand for agricultural products went up, pushing up food grain prices. Under pressure from landed groups, the government also restricted the import of corn. The laws allowing the government to do this were commonly known as the ‘Corn Laws’. Unhappy with high food prices, industrialists and urban dwellers forced the abolition of the Corn Laws. After the Corn Laws were scrapped, food could be imported into Britain more cheaply than it could be produced within the country. British agriculture was unable to compete with imports. Vast areas of land were now left uncultivated, and thousands of men and women were thrown out of work. They flocked to the cities or migrated overseas.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:

Question 1.

In eighteenth Century the demand for food grains increased in Britain due to:

(A) Less production
(B) Population growth
(C) Crop failure
(D) Ancient techniques
Answer:
(B) Population growth

Explanation:
As the population increases the demand for resources increases naturally.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 4 The Making of Global World

Question 2.

Expansion of urban centres and growth of industries pushed up the prices of:

(A) Agricultural products
(B) Defence products
(C) Economy
(D) Living
Answer:
(A) Agricultural products

Question 3.

The government restricted the import of:

(A) Medicines
(B) Textiles
(C) Corn
(D) Cooking oil
Answer:
(C) Corn

Explanation:
When the demand of food grains increases, government restricted the import of com, known as corn laws.

Question 4

were unhappy with high food prices.

(A) Urban dwellers
(B) Industrialists
(C) Poor people ‘
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer:
(D) Both (A) and (B)

IV .Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:
The trade in meat offers a good example of this connected process. Till the 1870s, animals were shipped live from America to Europe and then slaughtered when they arrived there. But live animals took up a lot of ship space. Many also died in voyage, fell ill, lost weight, or became unfit to eat. Meat was hence an expensive luxury beyond the reach of the European poor. High prices in turn kept demand and production down until the development of a new technology, namely, refrigerated ships, which enabled the transport of perishable foods over long distances. Now animals were slaughtered for food at the starting point – in America, Australia or New Zealand – and then transported to Europe as frozen meat. This reduced shipping costs and lowered meat prices in Europe. The poor in Europe could now consume a more varied diet. To the earlier monotony of bread and potatoes many, though not all, could now add meat (and butter and eggs) to their diet. Better living condition promoted social peace within the country and support for imperialism abroad.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:

Question 1.

Example of Connected process is trade in meat, Connection here refers to:

(A) Simple policies of the government
(B) Cheap Prices
(C) Role of Technology
(D) All the above
Answer:
(C) Role of Technology

Question 2.

Animals were shipped live from:

(A) Germany to America
(B) America to England
(C) America to Europe
(D) Europe to Asia
Answer:
(C) America to Europe

Question 3

………….enable the transport of perishable foods over long distances.

(A) Ships
(B) Big voyages
(C) Refrigerated Ships
(D) Steamers
Answer:
(C) Refrigerated Ships

Question 4.

America, Australia and New Zealand were the point for the export of meat to Europe.

(A) Starting
(B) Mid
(C) Ending
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Starting

V. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:
The Second World War broke out a mere two decades after the end of the First World War. It was fought between the Axis powers (mainly Nazi Germany, Japan and Italy) and the Allies (Britain, France, the Soviet Union and the US). It was a war waged for six years on many fronts, in many places, over land, on sea, in the air. Once again death and destruction was enormous. At least 60 million people, or about 3% of the world’s 1939 population, are believed to have been killed, directly or indirectly, as a result of the war. Millions more were injured. Unlike in earlier wards, most of these deaths took place outside the battlefields. Many more civilians than soldiers died from war-related causes. Vast parts of Europe and Asia were devastated, and several cities were destroyed by aerial bombardment or relentless artillery attacks. The war caused an immense amount of economic devastation and social disruption. Reconstruction promised to be long and difficult.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:

Question 1.

The difference between First World War and Second World War was:

(A) Two decades
(B) One decade
(C) Three decades
(D) Four decades
Answer:
(A) Two decades

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 4 The Making of Global World

Question 2.

The Second world war was fought for years on many fronts, in many places, over land, sea and air.

(A) Five years
(B) Two years
(C) Six years
(D) Ten years
Answer:
(C) Six years

Question 3.

In 1939 about………….. of world was at least million people, who were killed in ………….. Second World War.

(A) 5%, 50
(B) 6%, 60
(C) 3%, 30
(D) 3%, 60
Answer:
(D) 3%, 60

Question 4.

Vast parts of were devastated.

(A) Europe and Asia
(B) Africa and Asia
(C) Europe and Africa
(D) Africa and America
Answer:
(A) Europe and Asia

VI. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:
Rinderpest arrived in Africa in the late 1880s. It was carried by infected cattle imported from British Asia to feed the Italian soldiers invading Eritrea in East Africa. Entering Africa’s in the east, rinderpest moved west ‘like forest fire’, reaching Africa’s Atlantic coast in 1892. It reached to Cape (Africa’s southernmost tip) five years later. Along the way rinderpest killed 90% of the cattle. The loss of cattle destroyed Africa livelihoods, Planters, mine owners and colonial governments now successfully monopolised what scarce cattle resources remained, to strengthen their power and to force Africans into the labour market. Control over the scarce resource of cattle enabled European colonisers to conquer and subdue Africa. Similar stories can be told about the impact of Western conquest on other parts of the nineteenth century world.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:

Question 1.

Rinderpest arrived in Africa in the late

(A) 1980
(B) 1780
(C) 1880
(D) 1870
Answer:
(C) 1880

Question 2.

It was carried by infected

(A) Cows
(B) Hens
(C) Goats
(D) Cattle
Answer:
(D) Cattle

Question 3.

Rinderpest reached in the Cape after……. years.

(A) One year
(B) Five years
(C) Three years
(D) Four years
Answer:
(B) Five years

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 4 The Making of Global World

Question 4.

The loss of cattle destroyed livelihoods of

(A) Indians
(B) Americans
(C) Asians
(D) Africans
Answer:
(D) Africans

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 4 The Making of Global World Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India

Nationalism in India Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Question 1.

Which of the following was the reason for calling off ‘the Non-cooperation Movement1 by Gandhiji?

(A) Pressure from the British Government
(B) Second Round Table Conference
(C) Gandhiji’s arrest
(D) Chauri-Chaura incident
Answer:
(D) Chauri-Chaura incident

Explanation:
At Chauri Chaura in Gorakhpur, a peaceful demonstration turned into a violent clash with the police, thats why Mahatma Gandhi called off the Non-Cooperation Movement.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India

Question 2.

Who among the following wrote the Vande Mataram?

(A) Rabindranath Tagore
(B) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
(C) Abindranath Tagore
(D) Dwarkanath Tagore
Answer:
(B) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay

Question 3.

In which of the following Indian National Congress Session, the idea of Non-Cooperation Movement was accepted?

(A) Lahore Session
(B) Nagpur Session
(C) Calcutta Session
(D) Madras Session
Answer:
(C) Calcutta Session

Explanation:
At the Calcutta session of the’ Congress in September 1920, Gandhiji convinced other leaders of the need to start a non-cooperation movement in support of Khilafat as well as for Swaraj.

Question 4.

Study the picture and answer the question that follows:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 SST History Chapter 2 Nationalism in India 1

Which of the following events was related to this image of Gandhi?

(A) Non-Cooperation Movement
(B) Kheda Salyagraha
(C) Dandi March
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Dandi March

Question 5.

Identify the appropriate reason for the formation of the Swaraj party from the options given below:

(A) Wanted members of Congress to return to council politics.
(B) Wanted members of Congress to ask for Purna Swaraj for IndiAnswer:
(C) Wanted members of Congress to ask dominion Status for India.
(D) Wanted members of Congress to oppose Simon Commission.
Answer:
(A) Wanted members of Congress to return to council politics.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India

Question 6.

With the growth of Nationalism, who created the image of Bharat Mata ?

(A) Abanindranath Tagore
(B) Rabindranath Tagore
(C) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
(D) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer:
(A) Abanindranath Tagore

Question 7.

In the 19th Century India, which ideas were revived through a movement to develop nationalism ?

(A) History and fictions
(B) Figure or images
(C) Folklore or songs
(D) Popular prints
Answer:
(C) Folklore or songs

Question 8.

Study the picture and answer the question that follows :

MCQ Questions for Class 10 SST History Chapter 2 Nationalism in India 2

Which of the following personalities is shown in the given image ?

(A) Vallabhbhai Pate!
(B) C. R. Das
(C) Motilal Nehru
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Answer:
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Question 9.

Study the picture and answer the question that follows:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 SST History Chapter 2 Nationalism in India 3

Which of the following things is being held by Jawaharlal Nehru in this image ?

(A) Bhagwad Gita
(B) Image of Bharat Mata
(C) Discovery of India
(D) Hind Swaraj
Answer:
(B) Image of Bharat Mata

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India

Question 10.

Which of the following agreement gave seats to the depressed classes in Provincial and Central Legislative Council?

(A) Poona Pact
(B) Lucknow Pact
(C) Gandhi – Irvin Pact
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Poona Pact

Explanation:
Dr. B.R, Ambedkar demanded a separate electorate, this clashed with Mahatma Gandhi where the result was Poona Pact.

Question 11.

Column AColumn B
(i) Kheda Satyagraha(A) Motilal Nehru
(ii) Natesa Sastri(B) Mahatma Gandh
(ill) Swaraj Party(C) 1930
(iv) Depressed Classes Association(D) “The Folklore of Southern India”

(A) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)
(B) (i)-(B), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(A)
(C) (i)-(D), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(C)
(D) (i)-(C), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(D)
Answer:
(D) (i)-(C), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(D)

Explanation:
Column A shows the name of person that matches with Column B having s the creations by them.

Question 12.

Column AColumn B
(i) Second Round Table Conference(A) A tricolour flag designed in Bengal
(ii) Flindustan Socialist Republican Association(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(iii) All India Trade Union Congress(C) Chandrashek- har Azad
(iv) Swadeshi Mov- ment(D) N. M. Joshi

(A) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)
(B) (i)-(B), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(A)
(C) (i)-(D), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(C)
(D) (i)'(C), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(D)
Answer:
(B) (i)-(B), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(A)

Question 13.

Column AColumn B
(i) Abanindranath Tagore(A) Jana Gana Mana
(ii) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay(B) The Folklore of Southern India
(iii) Rabindranath Tagore(C) Bharat Mata im-age
(iv) Natesa Sastri(D) Vande Mataram

(A) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)
(B) (i)-(B), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(A)
(C) (i)-(D), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(C)
(D) (i)-(C), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(D)
Answer:
(D) (i)-(C), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(D)

Explanation:
Column A shows the name of person that matches with Column B having s the creations by them.

Question 14.

Certain events are given below. Choose the appropriate chronological order:

(i) Coming of Simon Commission to India
(ii) Demand of Puma Swaraj in Lahore Session of INC
(iii) Government of India Act, 1919
(iv) Champaran Satyagraha

Options:
(A) (iii) – (ii) – (iv) – (i)
(B) (i) – (ii) – (iv) – (iii)
(C) (ii) – (iii) – (i) – (iv)
(D) (iv) – (iii) – (i) – (ii)
Answer:
(D) (iv) – (iii) – (i) – (ii)

Explanation:

(i) Champaran Satyagraha in 1918.
(ii) Government of India Act, 1919.
(iii) Coming of Simon Commission of India in 1928.
(iv) Demand of Purna Swaraj in Lahore Session of INC in 1929.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India

Question 15.

Arrange the following in the correct sequence:

(i) Formation of the Muslim League.
(ii) The First Word War.
(iii) The first rrieeting of the Indian National Congress in Bombay.
(iv) Through the war prices increased in double.

Options:
(A) (ii) – (iv) – (iii) – (i)
(B) (i) – (iii) – (iv) – (ii)
(C) (iv) – (ii) – (i) – (iii)
(D) (iii) – (i) – (ii) – (iv)
Answer:
(D) (iii) – (i) – (ii) – (iv)

Explanation:

(i) The first meeting of the Indian National Congress in Bombay in 1885.
(ii) Formation of the Muslim League in 1906.
(iii) The First Word War in 1914.
(iv) Through the war prices increased in double in 1918.

Question 16.

Arrange the following in the correct sequence:

(i) Arrange the following in the correct sequence:
(ii) Rowlatt Act passed. The Partition of Bengal officially came into existence.
(iii) Satyagraha Movement in Ahmedabad.
(iv) Satyagraha Movement in Kheda District (Gujarat)

Options:
(A) (iv) – (ii) – (i) – (iii)
(B) (ii) – (iii) – (iv) – (i)
(C) (ii) – (iv) – (iii) – (i)
(D) (i) – (iii) – (ii) – (iv)
Answer:
(C) (ii) – (iv) – (iii) – (i)

Explanation:
(i) The Partition of Bengal officially came into existence in 1905.
(ii) Satyagraha Movement in Kheda District (Gujarat) in 1917.
(iii) Satyagraha Movement in Ahmedabad g 1918.
(iv) Rowlatt Act passed in 1919.

Question 17.

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options: Mahatma Gandhi’s letter was, in a way, an ultimatum. If the demands were not fulfilled by 11 March, the letter stated, the Congress would launch a civil disobedience campaign. Irwin was unwilling to negotiate. So Mahatma Gandhi started his famous salt march accompanied by 78 of his trusted volunteers.The march was over 240 miles, from Gandhiji’s ashram in Sabarmati to the Gujarati coastal town of Dandi. The volunteers walked for 24 days, about 10 miles a day. Thousands came to hear Mahatma Gandhi wherever he stopped, and – he told them what he meant by Swaraj and urged them to peacefully defy the British. On 6 April he reached Dandi, and ceremonially violated the law, manufacturing salt by boiling sea water.

(A) Non-Cooperation Movement
(B) Salt March
(C) Khilafat Movement
(D) Rowlatt Act
Answer:
(B) Salt March

Question 18.

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options: As the national movement developed, nationalist leaders became more and more aware of such icons and symbols in unifying people and inspiring in them a feeling of nationalism. During the Swadeshi Movement in Bengal, a tricolour flag (red, green and yellow) was designed. It had eight lotuses representing eight provinces of British India, and a crescent moon, representing Hindus and Muslims. By 1921, Gandhiji had designed the Swaraj flag. It was again a tricolour (red, green and white) and had a spinning wheel in the centre, representing the Gandhian ideal of self-help. Carrying the flag, holding it aloft, during marches became a symbol of defiance.

(A) Designing of icons
(B) Designing of tricolour flag
(C) Designing of national symbols
(D) Designing of images
Answer:
(B) Designing of tricolour flag

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India

Question 19.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) Mahatma Gandhi found sugar a powerful symbol that could unite a nation.
(B) On 31th January, 1930 he sent a letter to Viceroy Irwin stating eleven demands.
(C) Some of these were of general interest; others were specific demands of different classes, from industrialists to peasants.
(D) The idea was to make the demands wide-ranging, so that all classes within Indian society could identify with them and everyone could be brought together in a united campaign.
Answer:
(A) Mahatma Gandhi found sugar a powerful symbol that could unite a nation.

Explanation:
Mahatma Gandhi found salt a powerful symbol that could unite a nation as salt is used in our day to day life.

Question 20.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) Against this background the new Tory government in Britain constituted a Statutory Commission under Sir John Simon.
(B) Set up in response to nationalist movement, the Commission was to look into the functioning of the constitutional system in India and suggest changes.
(C) The problem was that the Commission did not have a single Indian member.
(D) They were all AmericAnswer:
Answer:
(D) They were all AmericAnswer:

Question 21.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) In 1928, Vallabhbhai Patel led the Peasant Movement in Bardoli, a taluka in Gujarat.
(B) It was against enhancement of land revenue, known as the Civil Disobedient Movement.
(C) This Movement was a success under the able leadership of Vallabhbhai Patel.
(D) The struggle was widely publicized and generated immense sympathy in many parts of India.
Answer:
(B) It was against enhancement of land revenue, known as the Civil Disobedient Movement.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions: In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false and R is True

Question 1.

Assertion (A) : It was declared that 26lh January, 1930 would be celebrated as the Independence Day when people were to take a pledge to struggle for Complete Independence.
Reason (R) : Mahatma Gandhi had to find a way to relate this abstract idea of freedom to more concrete issues of everyday life.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.

Assertion (A) : Dyer entered the area, blocked the exit points, and opened fire on the crowd, killing hundreds.
Reason (R): His object, as he declared later, was to ‘produce a moral effect’, to create in the minds of satyagrahis a feeling of terror and awe.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 3.

Assertion (A) : Foreign goods were boycotted, liquor shops picketed, and foreign cloth burnt in huge bonfires.
Reason (R): Students and teachers began trickling back to government schools and lawyers joined back work in government courts.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false

Explanation:
Boycott movement was also launched to collapse the British rule in India and promoting a culture to make in house products.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Mahatma Gandhi decided to take up the Khilafat issue. ‘
Reason (R): After many leaders were arrested, violent clashes broke out at many places in India and women and children were beaten up.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
Mahatma Gandhi alway.wanted to bring the Hindu-Muslims together ; and launch a broad nation wide resistance movement against the Britishers.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India

Question 5.

Assertion (A): Between 1921-1922, production of tea and coffee grew up.
Reason (R) : As the non-cooperation moved into economic sphere, foreign goods and clothes were boycotted and burnt.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is True

Explanation:
As the boycott movement spread, and people began discarding imported clothe , and wearing only Indian ones, production c:d Indian textile mills and handlooms grew up.

Question 6.

Assertion (A): Folklores gave a picture of traditional culture, it helps in discovering a national identify and restoring a sense of pride in one’s past.
Reason (R): Nationalism spreads when peep’e discover some unity that binds them together

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
Folklores played an important j role in developing a feeling of nationalism.

I. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
The movement started with middle-class participation in the cities. Thousands of students left government- controlled schools and colleges, headmasters and teachers resigned, and lawyers gave up their legal practices. The council elections were boycotted in most provinces except Madras, where the Justice Party, the party of the non-Brahmans, felt that entering the council was one way of gaining some power-something that usually only Brahmans had access to. The effects of non- cooperation on the economic front were more dramatic. Foreign goods were boycotted, liquor shops picketed, and foreign cloth burnt in huge bonfires. The import of foreign cloth halved between 1921 and 1922, its value dropping from ? 102 crore to ? 57 crore. In many places merchants and traders refused to trade in foreign goods or finance foreign trade. As the boycott movement spread, and people began discarding imported clothes and wearing only Indian ones, production of Indian textile mills and handlooms went up. But this movement in the cities gradually slowed down for a variety of reasons.

Khadi cloth was often more expensive than mass produced mill cloth and poor people could not afford to buy it. How then could they boycott mill cloth for too long? Similarly the boycott of British institutions posed a problem. For the movement to be successful, alternative Indian institutions had to be set up so that they could be used in place of the British Ones. These were slow to come up. So students and teachers began trickling back to government, schools and lawyers joined back work in government courts. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option

Question 1.

What was the purpose of Justice Party to contest Elections to the Council in Madras? Select the appropriate option:

(A) It wanted to contest elections to the council as it was one of the ways to gain some Income that usually only Brahmans had access to.
(B) It wanted to contest elections to the council as it was one of the ways to gain some power that usually only Brahmans had access to.
(C) It wanted to contest elections to the council as it was one of the way to gain more popularity that usually only Brahmans had access to.
(D) It wanted to contest elections to the council as it was one of the ways to take revenge from BrahmAnswer:
Answer:
(B) It wanted to contest elections to the council as it was one of the ways to gain some power that usually only Brahmans had access to.

Question 2.

How was the effects of ‘Non- Cooperation on the economic front’ dramatic?

(A) Merchants refused to trade in foreign goods or finance foreign trade.
(B) The merchants imported goods from other countries.
(C) The neighbouring countries were offering same goods at cheaper prices.
(D) Public was not interested in buying foreign goods.
Answer:
(A) Merchants refused to trade in foreign goods or finance foreign trade.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India

Question 3.

Theimport of foreigri cloth between 1921 and 1922 saw changes because :

(A) Its value dropped from? 100 crore to T 97 crove
(B) Its value dropped from? 201 crore to f IN) crore
(C) Its value dropped from? 102 crore to? 57 crore
(D) Its value dropped from? 102 crore to? 75 crore
Answer:
(C) Its value dropped from ? 102 crore to ? 57 crore

Question 4.

Thousands of………. left government controlled schools and colleges and …………gave up their legal practices.

(A) Teachers, Judges
(B) Headmasters, Clerks
(C) Students, Advocates
(D) Students, Lawyers
Answer:
(D) Students, Lawyers

II. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
The identity of the nation, as you know is most often symbolised in a figure or image. This helps create an image with which people can identify the nation. It was in the twentieth century, with the growth of nationalism, that the identity of India came to be visually associated with the image of Bharat Mata. The image was first created by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay. In the 1870s he wrote ‘Vande Mataram’ as a hymn to the motherland. Later it was included in his novel Anandamath and widely sung during the Swadeshi Movement in Bengal. Moved by the Swadeshi movement, Abanindranath Tagore painted his famous image of Bharat Mata. In this painting Bharat Mata is portrayed as an ascetic figure; she is calm, composed, divine and spiritual. In subsequent years, the image of Bharat Mata acquired many different forms, as it circulated in popular prints and was painted by different artists. Devotion to this mother figure came to be seen as evidence of one’s nationalism.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option

Question 1.

Means of creating a feeling of nationalism was through:

(A) Reinterpretation of Astronomy
(B) Reinterpretation of Philosophy
(C) Reinterpretation of Mythology
(D) Reinterpretation of History
Answer:
(D) Reinterpretation of History

Explanation:
Historical events led the feeling of nationalism.

Question 2.

Bharat Mata was first created by:

(A) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
(B) Natesa Sastri
(C) Rabindranath Tagore
(D) Abanindranath Tagore
Answer:
(A) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay

Question 3.

As Bharat Mata is to India,………..is to Italy and is………. to Germany.

(A) Statue of Liberty, Mother Mary
(B) Marianne, Germania
(C) Germania, Marianne
(D) Statue of Liberty, Germania
Answer:
(B) Marianne, Germania

Explanation:
These statues represents liberty, fraternity and equality of their respective countries.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India

Question 4.

What quality is emphasized by Bharat mata ?

(A) Anxious
(B) Sacred
(C) Mortal
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(B) Sacred

III. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
In the countryside, rich peasant communities – like the Patidars of Gujarat and the Jats of Uttar Pradesh – were active in the movement. Being producers of commercial crops, they were very hard hit by the trade depression and falling prices. As their cash income disappeared, they found it impossible to pay the government’s revenue demand. And the refusal of the government to reduce the revenue demand led to widespread resentment. These rich peasants became enthusiastic supporters of the Civil Disobedience Movement, organising their communities, and at times forcing reluctant members, to participate in the boycott programmes. For them the fight for Swaraj was a struggle against high revenues. But they were deeply disappointed when the movement was called off in 1931 without the revenue rates being revised. So, when the movement was restarted in 1932, many of them refused to participate.

The poorer peasantry were not just interested in the lowering of the revenue demand. Many of them were small tenants cultivating land they had rented from landlords. As the Depression continued and cash incomes dwindled, the small tenants found it difficult to pay their rent. They wanted the unpaid rent to the landlord to be remitted. They joined a variety of radical movements, often led by Socialists and Communists. Apprehensive of raising issues that might upset the rich peasants and landlords, the Congress was unwilling to support ‘no rent’ campaigns in most places. So, the relationship between the poor peasants and the Congress remained uncertain.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option

Question 1.

Patidars and Jats are rich Peasants of which State?

(A) Gujarat and Uttar Pradesh
(B) Gujarat and Himachal Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan
(D) Punjab and Haryana
Answer:
(A) Gujarat and Uttar Pradesh

Question 2.

Who led the Peasant’s Movement in Awadh?

(A) Baba Ramnath
(B) Baba Ramchandra
(C) Baba Ramdev
(D) Baba Ram Mohan
Answer:
(B) Baba Ramchandra

Question 3.

For plantation workers in Assam, which Act did not permit them to leave the tea gardens without permission?

(A) Inland Emigration Act of 1947
(B) Inland Emigration Act of 1839
(C) Inland Emigration Act of 1859
(D) Inland Emigration Act of 1887
Answer:
(C) Inland Emigration Act of 1859

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India

Question 4.

Congress was unwilling to support campaigns in most places.

(A) High Rent
(B) No Rent
(C) Low Rent
(D) Equal Rent
Answer:
(B) No Rent

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

The Rise of Nationalism in Europe Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Question 1.

Identify the correct statement with regard to ‘The Act of Union 1707’ from the following options.

(A) The British monarchy surrendered the power to English Parliament.
(B) The British Parliament seized power from Ireland.
(C) The formation of the ‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’.
(D) The British nation was formed as a result of a war with Scotland and Wales.
Answer:
(C) The formation of the ‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’.

Explanation:
The Act of Union (1707) between England and Scotland resulted in the formation of the ‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’ after which England was able to impose its influence on Scotland.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

Question 2.

Which of the following treaty recognized Greece as an independent nation?

(A) Treaty of Sevres
(B) Treaty of Versailles
(C) Treaty of Lausanne
(D) Treaty of Constantinople
Answer:
(D) Treaty of Constantinople

Explanation:
The borders of the Ottoman Empire were restated which confirmed the terms of the Constantinople Arrangement and marked the end of the Greek War of Independence creating modern Greece as an independent state.

Question 3.

Study the picture and answer the question that follows Which of the following aspect best signifies this image of Germania”?

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe 1

(A) Heroism and Justice
(B) Folk and Cultural Tradition
(C) Austerity and Asceticism
(D) Revenge and Vengeance
Answer:
(A) Heroism and Justice

Explanation:
In the given image, Germania wears a crown of Oak leaves and in German oak stands for heroism.

Question 4.

Which of the following revolutions is called as the first expression of ‘Nationalism’?

(A) Emphasis on social justice
(B) State planned socio economic system
(C) Freedom for individual and equality before law
(D) Supremacy of State oriented nationalism.
Answer:
(C) Freedom for individual and equality before law

Explanation:
Liberalism stands for equality and freedom that protects individual’s democratic right.

Question 6.

Who said “When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold”?

(A) Garibaldi
(B) Mazzini
(C) Bismarck
(D) Metternich
Answer:
(D) Metternich

Explanation:
Metternich said so when French Revolution overthrew the monarch that impacts other European countries as well.

Question 7.

Who among the following formed the secret society called ‘Young Italy’?

(A) Otto Von Bismarck
(B) Giuseppe Mazzini
(C) Johann Gottfried Herder
(D) Duke Metternich
Answer:
(B) Giuseppe Mazzini

Explanation:
Giuseppe formed this society to transform Italy into a united republican state.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

Question 8.

Which one of the following states was ruled by an Italian princely house before unification of Italy?

(A) Eombardy
(B) Kingdom of Two Sicilies
(C) Venetia
(D) Sardinia – Piedmont
Answer:
(D) Sardinia – Piedmont

Explanation:
Italian language was not commonly used and had territorial differences but only in Sardinia, people not considered themselves Italian.

Question 9.

Study the following picture and answer :
MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe 2
Who is represented as a postman in the given image?

(A) Giuseppe Mazzini
(B) Otto von Bismarck
(C) Napoleon Bonaparte
(D) Giuseppe Garibaldi
Answer:
(C) Napoleon Bonaparte

Explanation:
When Napoleon lost the battle of Leipzig in 1813, he dropped out the letters from his bag that has written the names of the territories he lost.

Question 10.

Which of the following countries is considered as the ‘Cradle of civilisation’?

(A) England
(B) Greece
(C) France
(D) Russia
Answer:
(B) Greece

Explanation:
As Greece was the land of educated elites who spread their culture from all over the Europe.

Question 11.

Which of the following option best signifies this caricature?

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe 3

(A) Otto von Bismarck in the German Reichstag (Parliament)
(B) Victor Emmanuel II in the Italian Parliament
(C) Kaiser William II in the Prussian Parliament
(D) Napolean Bonaparte in the French Parliament
Answer:
(A) Otto von Bismarck in the German Reichstag (Parliament)

Explanation:
In the given image, Bismarck is having hunter in his hand which shows how his subordinates were afraid of Bismarck when he become autocratic during assemblies.

Question 12.

Column AColumn B
(i) Napoleon Bonaparte(a) Frankfurt Parliament
(ii) Duke Metternich(b) Civil Code
(iii) Louis XVI(c) Congress of Vienna
(iv) Carl Welcker(d) French Revolution

(A) (i)-(B), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(A)
(B) (i)-(D), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(C)
(C) (i)-(B), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(C), (iv)-(D)
(D) (i)-(A), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(C)
Answer:
(A) (i)-(B), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(A)

Explanation:
(i) Napoleon Bonaparte introduced Civil Code of 1804, also known as Napoleonic Code.
(ii) The Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor Duke Mettemich.
(iii) The ast monarch of France was Louis XVI.
(iv) The liberal politician Carl Welcker was an elected member of the Frankfurt Parliament.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

Question 13.

Column AColumn B
(i) Giuseppe Mazzini(A) Unification of Germany
(ii) Otto von Bismarck(B) Unification of Italy
(iii) Napoleon Bonaparte(C) Battle of Waterloo
(iv) Cavour(D) Young Italy

(A) (i)-(B),(ii)-(C),(iii)-(D), (iv)-(A)
(B) (i)-(D),(ii)-(C),(iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)
(C) (i)-(D),(ii)-(A), (iii)-(C),(iv)-(B)
(D) (i)-(A),(ii)-(D),(iii)-(B), (iv)-(C)
Answer:
(C) (i)-(D),(ii)-(A), (iii)-(C),(iv)-(B)

Explanation:
(i) Giuseppe Mazzini formed a secret society called Young Italy.
(ii) Otto von Bismarck was the architect of the process of Germany’s Unification.
(iii) The defeat at Waterloo ended Napoleon Bonaparte’s rule as the Emperor of France.
(iv) Chief Minister Cavour led the movement to unify the Italy.

Question 14.

Column AColumn B
(i) Meaning of ‘liber’(A) The fatherland
(ii) Meaning of ‘elle’(B) The citizen
(iii) Meaning of ‘le citoyen’(C) Free
(iv) Meaning of ‘la patrie’(D) The measure of cloth

(A) (i)-(B), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(A)
(B) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)
(C) (i)-(D), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(C), (iv)-(B)
(D) (i)-(A), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(C)
Answer:
(B) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)

Explanation:
(i) In Roman, Liber means free.
(ii) Elle was used to measure cloth.
(iii) In French, citizens who lived inside city walls known as ‘le citoyen’.
(iv) In French, la patrie’ means ‘the fatherland’.

Question 15.

Column AColumn B
(i) Broken chains/ Red cap(A) Heroism
(ii) Sword(B) Symbol of the German Empire- strength
(iii) Breastplate with eagle(C) Being freed
(iv) Crown of oak leaves(D) Readiness to fight

(A) (i)-(B), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(A)
(B) (i)-(D), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(C), (iv)-(B)
(C) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)
(D) (i)-(A), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(C)
Answer:
(C) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)

Question 16.

Arrange the following in the correct sequence:

(i) Slav nationalism was the go to force in the Habsburg and Ottoman Empires.
(ii) Unification of Germany.
(iii) Victor Emmanuel was declared as the king of united Italy and Rome was declared the capital of Italy.
(iv) The Prussian King, William was proclaimed the German Emperor.
Option:

(A) (iv) – (ii) – (iii) – (i)
(B) (iii) – (iv) – (ii) – (i)
(C) (iii) – (ii) – (iv) – (i)
(D) (i) – (ii) – (iii) – (iv)
Answer:
(C) (iii) – (ii) – (iv) – (i)

Explanation:
(i) Victor Emmanuel was declared as the king of united Italy and Rome was declared the capital of Italy in 1861.
(ii) Unification of Germany from 1866 to 1871.
(iii) The Prussian King, William I was proclaimed the German Emperor in January, 1871.
(iv) Slav nationalism was the go to force in the Habsburg and Ottoman Empires in 1905.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

Question 17.

Arrange the following in the correct sequence:

(i) Treaty of Constantinople
(ii) First upheaval took place in France
(iii) Lord Byron died
(iv) Greek Struggle for independence begins

Option:
(A) (i) – (ii) – (iii) – (iv)
(B) (ii) – (iv) – (i) – (iii)
(C) (iv) – (iii) – (ii) – (i)
(D) (iii) – (iv) – (ii) – (i)
Answer:
(C) (iv) – (iii) – (ii) – (i)

Explanation:
(i) Greek Struggle for independence begins in 1821.
(ii) Lord Byron died in 1824.
(iii) First upheaval took place in France in July 1830.
(iv) Treaty of Constantinople in 1832.

Question 18.

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options: While it is easy enough to represent a ruler through a portrait or a statue, how does one go about giving a face to a nation? Artists in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries found a way out by personifying a nation. In other words, they represented a country as if it were a person.

(A) Portrait of a nation
(B) Idol of a nation
(C) Personification of a nation
(D) Visualising a nation
Answer:
(D) Visualising a nation

Question 19.

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options: He was perhaps the most celebrated of Italian freedom fighters. He came from a family engaged in coastal trade and was a sailor in the merchant navy. In 1833, he met Mazzini, joined the Young Italy Movement and participated in a Republican uprising in Piedmont in 1834.

(A) Otto von Bismarck
(B) Giuseppe Mazzini
(C) Count Camillio de Cavour
(D) Giuseppe Garibaldi
Answer:
(D) Giuseppe Garibaldi

Question 20.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) During the years following 1815, the fear of repression drove many liberal-nationalists underground.
(B) Secret Societies sprang up in many Indian states to train revolutionaries and spread their ideas.
(C) To be a revolutionary at this time meant a commitment to oppose monarchical forms that had bean established after the Vienna Congress, and to fight for liberty and freedom.
(D) Most of these revolutionaries also saw the creation of nation states as a necessary part of this struggle for freedom.
Answer:
(B) Secret Societies sprang up in many Indian states to train revolutionaries and spread their ideas.

Explanation:
Secret Societies sprang up in many European states to train revolutionaries and spread their ideas.

Question 21.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) The first upheaval took place in France in July 1930.
(B) The Bourbon Kings who had been restored to power during the conservative reaction after 1815, were now overthrown by liberal revolutionaries who installed a constitutional monarchy with Louis Philippe at its head.
(C) When America sneezes’ Metternich once remarked,’ the rest of Europe catches cold.’
(D) The July Revolution sparked an uprising in Brussels which led to Belgium breaking away from the United Kingdom of the Netherlands.
Answer:
(C) When America sneezes’ Metternich once remarked,’ the rest of Europe catches cold.’

Explanation:
When France sneezes, Metternich once remarked, the rest of Europe catches cold.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions: In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is true.

Question 1.

Assertion (A) : Giuseppe Garibaldi was an Italian General, politician and nationalist who played a large role in the history of Italy.
Reason (R): He was the architect in the process of nation – building.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Bismarck was the architect in the process of nation – building.

Question 2.

Assertion (A) : A large part of the Balkans was under the control of the Ottoman Empire.
Reason (R) : The spread of the ideas of Romantic Nationalism in the Balkans together with the disintegration of the Ottoman Empire made this region very explosive.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 3.

Assertion (A) : The French Revolution was an influential event that marked the age of revolutions in Europe.
Reason (R) : The French Revolution transferred the sovereignty from the people to the monarch.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
The French Revolution led to the transfer of sovereignty from the monarchy to a body of French citizens.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Serfdom and bonded labour were abolished both in the Habsburg dominions and in Russia.
Reason (R) : Monarchs were beginning to realise that the cycles of revolution and repression could only be ended by granting concessions to the liberal-nationalist revolutionaries.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 5.

Assertion (A) : The Scottish Highlands suffered terrible repression whenever they attempted to assert their independence.
Reason (R) : Catholic revolts against British dominance were suppressed.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
Scotland suffered because of the long-drawn-out process and Ireland got support from the English to suppress the Catholic revolts.

Question 6.

Assertion (A): Italy and Switzerland were divided into kingdoms, duchies and cantons whose rulers had their autonomous territories.
Reason (R) : They were closely bound to each other inspite of their autonomous rule.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Italy and Switzerland were under autocratic monarchies within the territories of which lived diverse peoples, sharing a collective identity or a common culture, spoke different languages and belonged to different ethnic groups.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

Question 7.

Assertion (A) : On 18 May 1848, 831 elected representatives revolted in the Frankfurt parliament.
Reason (R) : The parliament was dominated by the middle classes who resisted the demands of workers and lost their support.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is true.

Explanation:
On 18 May 1848, 831 elected representatives marched in a festive procession to take their places in the Frankfurt parliament. While the opposition of the aristocracy and military became stronger, the social basis of parliament eroded.

Question 8.

Assertion (A) : Mazzini’s relentless opposition to monarchy and his vision of democratic republics frightened the conservatives.
Reason (R): Metternich described Mazzini as ‘the most dangerous enemy of social order’.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Case-Based MCQs

I. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
Following the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, European governments were driven by a spirit of conservatism. Conservatives believed that established traditional institutions of state and society – like the monarchy, the Church, social hierarchies, property and the family – should be preserved. Most conservatives, however, did not propose a return to the society of pre- revolutionary days. Rather, they realised, from the changes initiated by Napoleon, that modernisation could in fact strengthen traditional institutions like the monarchy. It could make state’s power more effective and stronger. A modern army, an efficient bureaucracy, a dynamic economy, the abolition of feudalism and serfdom could strengthen the autocratic monarchies of Europe.

In 1815, representatives of the European powers who had collectively defeated Napoleon, met at Vienna to draw up a settlement for Europe. The Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor Duke Metternich. The delegates drew up the Treaty of Vienna of 1815 with the object of undoing most of the changes that had come about in Europe during the Napoleonic wars. The Bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed during the French Revolution, was restored to power, and France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon. A series of states
were set up on the boundaries of France to prevent French expansion in future.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 1.

Which of the following statement correctly describes about European conservative ideology?

(A) Preservation of beliefs introduced by Napoleon.
(B) Preservation of two sects of Christianity.
(C) Preservation of socialist ideology in economic sphere.
(D) Preservation of traditionalist beliefs in state and society
Answer:
(D) Preservation of traditionalist beliefs in state and society

Explanation:
Conservatism stands for the people who don’t like changes.

Question 2.

Identify the purpose to convene the Congress of Vienna in 1815 from the following options.

(A) To declare competition of German unification.
(B) To restore conservative regime in Europe.
(C) To declare war against France.
(D) To start the process of Italian Unification.
Answer:
(B) To restore conservative regime in Europe.

Explanation:
In 1815, the European powers collectively defeated Napoleon to draw up a settlement for Europe.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

Question 3.

What did conservatives focus on at the Congress of Vienna? Select the appropriate option.

(A) To reestablish peace and stability in Europe.
(B) To establish socialism in Europe.
(C) To introduce democracy in France.
(D) To set up a new Parliament in Austria.
Answer:
(A) To reestablish peace and stability in Europe.

Explanation:
The mam intention was to restore the monarchies that had been overthrown by Napoleon.

Question 4.

How did the Congress of Vienna ensure peace in Europe? Select the appropriate option.

(A) With the restoration of Bourbon Dynasty
(B) Austria was not given the control of Northern Italy
(C) Laying out a balance of power between all the great powers in Europe
(D) By giving power to the German confederation
Answer:
(C) Laying out a balance of power between all the great powers in Europe

Explanation:
A modern army, an efficient bureaucracy, a dynamic economy, the abolition of feudalism and serfdom could strengthen the autocratic monarchies of Europe.

II. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
One such individual was the Italian revolutionary, Giuseppe Mazzini. Born in Genoa in 1807, he became a member of the secret society of the Carbonari. As a young man of 24, he was sent into exile in 1831 for attempting a revolution in Liguria. He subsequently founded two more underground societies, first, Young Italy in Marseilles, and then, Young Europe in Berne, whose members were like-minded young men from Poland, France, Italy and the German states. Mazzini believed that God had intended nations to be the natural units of mankind.

So Italy could not continue to be a patchwork of small states and kingdoms. It had to be forged into a single unified republic within a wider alliance of nations. This unification alone could be the basis of Italian liberty. Following his model, secret societies were set up in Germany, France, Switzerland and Poland. Mazzini’s relentless opposition to monarchy and his vision of democratic republics frightened the conservatives. Metternich described him as ‘the most dangerous enemy of our social order’.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 1.

Where was Giuseppe Mazzini born?

(A) Berne
(B) Paris
(C) Genoa
(D) Liguria
Answer:
(C) Genoa

Question 2.

Giuseppe Mazzini was sent into exile in 1831 for attempting a revolution in.

(A) Genoa
(B) Liguria
(C) Poland
(D) Marseilles
Answer:
(B) Liguria

Question 3.

Who described Mazzini as ‘the most dangerous enemy of our social order’?

(A) Bismarck
(B) Cavour
(C) Metternich
(D) Garibaldi
Answer:
(C) Metternich

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

Question 4.

Which of the following societies was founded in Berne?

(A) Young Europe
(B) Young Germany
(C) Young Italy
(D) Young Britain
Answer:
(A) Young Europe

III. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
Like Germany, Italy too had a long history of political fragmentation. Italians were scattered over several dynastic states as well as the multi¬national Habsburg Empire. During the middle of the nineteenth century, Italy was divided into seven states, of which only one, Sardinia-Piedmont, was ruled by an Italian princely house. The north was under Austrian Habsburgs, the centre was ruled by the Pope and the southern regions were under the domination of the Bourbon kings of Spain. Even the Italian language had not acquired one common form and still had many regional and local variations.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 1.

During mid-19th century, Italy was divided into……………..states.

(A) six’
(B) seven
(C) eight
(D) nine
Answer:
(B) seven

Question 2.

Which of the following part of Italy was ruled by an Italian princely house?

(A) Rome
(B) Venetia
(C) Lombardy
(D) Sardinia-Piedmont
Answer:
(D) Sardinia-Piedmont

Question 3.

Who dominated the south regions of Italy?

(A) Pope
(B) Bourbon Kings of Spain
(C) Austrian Habsburgs
(D) Bourbon Kings of France
Answer:
(B) Bourbon Kings of Spain

Question 4.

Besides Italy, which of the following nation had a long history of political fragmentation?

(A) Germany
(B) Britain
(C) USA
(D) Japan
Answer:
(A) Germany

IV. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
Similar female allegories were invented by artists in the nineteenth century to represent the nation. In France she was christened Marianne, a popular Christian name, which underlined the idea of a people’s nation. Her characteristics were drawn from those of Liberty and the Republic – the red cap, the tricolour and the cockade. Statues of Marianne were erected in public squares to remind the public of the national symbol of unity and to persuade them to identify with it. Marianne images were marked on coins and stamps. Similarly, Germania became the allegory of the German nation. In visual representations, Germania wears a crown of oak leaves, as the German oak stands for heroism.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option

Question 1.

What was the name given to the female allegory in France?

(A) Germania
(B) Mary
(C) Flora
(D) Marianne
Answer:
(D) Marianne

Question 2.

Germania became the allegory of………….. .

(A) France
(B) Italy
(C) Germany
(D) Britain
Answer:
(C) Germany

Question 3.

What does the German oak stand for?

(A) Liberty
(B) Heroism
(C) Justice
(D) Strength
Answer:
(B) Heroism

Question 4.

…………… images marked on coins and stamps.

(A) Germania
(B) Marianne
(C) Mary
(D) Jesus
Answer:
(B) Marianne

V. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
In the German regions, a large number of political associations whose members were middle-class professionals, businessmen and prosperous artisans, came together in the city of Frankfurt and decided to vote for an all-German National Assembly. On 18 May, 1848, 831 elected representatives marched in a festive Procession to take their places in the Frankfurt Parliament convened in the Church of St Paul. They drafted a constitution for a German nation to be headed by a monarchy subject to a parliament. When the deputies offered the crown on these terms to Friedrich Wilhelm IV, King of Prussia, he rejected it and joined other monarchs to oppose the elected assembly.

While the opposition of the aristocracy and military became stronger, the social basis of parliament eroded. The Parliament was dominated by the middle classes who resisted the demands of workers and artisans and consequently lost their support. In the end, troops were called in and the assembly was forced to disband. The issue of extending political rights to women was a controversial one within the liberal movement, in which large numbers of women had participated actively over the years. Women had formed their own political associations, founded newspapers and taken part in political meetings and demonstrations. Despite this, they were denied suffrage rights during the election of the Assembly. When the Frankfurt Parliament convened in the Church of St Paul, women were admitted only as observers to stand in the visitors’ gallery.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option

Question 1.

People from which classes mainly constituted the members of many political associations in the German region?

(A) Middle-class professionals
(B) Businessmen
(C) Prosperous Artisans
(D) All above classes
Answer:
(D) All above classes

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

Question 2.

On 18th May, 1848 where was Frankfurt Parliament convened? Choose the correct option.

(A) St. Peters’ church
(B) St. Pauls’ church
(C) St. Johns’ church
(D) St. Mary church
Answer:
(B) St. Pauls’ church

Question 3.

Otto Von Bismarcks’ contribution in building nation of Germany is remarkable. Who was he?

(A) The King of Prussia
(B) The Prime Minister of Prussia
(C) The President of Prussia
(D) The Chief Minister of Prussia
Answer:
(D) The Chief Minister of Prussia

Question 4.

What was the role of women in the Church of St. Paul?

(A) They were allowed to take active part.
(B) They suggested their option.
(C) They dominated and fought for their right.
(D) They were admitted only as observers to stand in the visitors’ gallery.
Answer:
(D) They were admitted only as observers to stand in the visitors’ gallery.

VI. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
During the 1830s, Giuseppe Mazzini had sought to put together a coherent programme for a unitary Italian Republic. He had also formed a secret society called Young Italy for the dissemination of his goals. The failure of revolutionary uprisings both in 1831 and 1848 meant that the mantle now fell on Sardinia-Piedmont under its ruler, King Victor Emmanuel II, to unify the Italian states through war. In the eyes of the ruling elites of this region, a unified Italy, offered them the possibility of economic development and political dominance. Chief Minister Cavour who led the movement to unify the regions of Italy, was neither a revolutionary nor a democrat.

Like many other wealthy and educated members of the Italian elite, he spoke French much better than he did Italian. Through a tactful diplomatic alliance with France engineered by Cavour, Sardinia-Piedmont succeeded in defeating the Austrian forces in 1859. Apart from the regular troops, a large number of armed volunteers under the leadership of Giuseppe Garibaldi joined the fray. In 1860, they marched into South Italy and the Kingdom of the Two Sicilies and succeeded in winning the support of the local peasants in order to drive out the Spanish rulers. In 1861, Victor Emmanuel II was proclaimed King of united Italy. However, much of the Italian population, among whom rates of illiteracy were very high, remained blissfully unaware of liberal-nationalist ideology. The peasant masses who had supported Garibaldi in southern Italy had never heard of Italia, and believed that ‘La Talia’ was Victor Emmanuel’s wife

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option

Question 1.

Who formed a secret society called ‘Young Italy’?

(A) Giuseppe Mazzini
(B) Giuseppe Garibaldi
(C) Otto Von Bismarck
(D) Victor Emmanuel
Answer:
(A) Giuseppe Mazzini

Question 2.

Who led the movement to unify the regions of Italy?

(A) Napoleon Bonaparte
(B) Kaiser William II
(C) Chief Minister Cavour
(D) Chief Minister Otto Von Bismarck
Answer:
(C) Chief Minister Cavour

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

Question 3.

According to the extract, what was the reason for a large part of Italian population remaining unaware of the liberal ideology?

(A) They were unaware of the circumstances.
(B) They didn’t want to get involved in mess.
(C) They were busy in their lives and had no time.
(D)They were illiterate, so they remained unaware of the liberal ideology.
Answer:
(D)They were illiterate, so they remained unaware of the liberal ideology.

Question 4.

Who proclaimed himself as the king of united Italy?

(A) La Taila
(B) Giuseppe Garibaldi
(C) Sardinia
(D) Victor Emmanuel
Answer:
(D) Victor Emmanuel

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources

Management of Natural Resources Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Question 1.

It was found that water from a river was contaminated with Coliform bacteria. Which one of the following pollutant might have got mixed with the water?

(A) Fertilizer run off
(B) Industrial waste
(C) Pesticides
(D) Human faecal matter.
Answer:
(D) Human faecal matter.

Explanation:
Coliform bacteria is a group of bacteria found in human intestine whose presence in water indicates contamination by disease causing micro-organisms.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources

Question 2.

Which one of the following stakeholders of forests causes the maximum damage to forest?

(A) People who live in or around the forest.
(B) The forest department of the government.
(C) The wildlife and native enthusiasts.
(D) The industrialists.
Answer:
(D) The industrialists.

Explanation:
Industrialists who use various forests produce for their factories causes the maximum damage to forest.

Question 3.

Soil fertility is determined by its ability to:

(A) Decay organic matter
(B) Hold organic matter
(C) Hold water
(D) Support life
Answer:
(D) Support life

Explanation:
Soil fertility is the ability of the soil to supply essential plant nutrients and soil water in adequate amounts for plant growth and reproduction, thereby support life.

Question 4.

The most appropriate definition of a natural resource is that it is a substance/commodity that is :

(A) present only on land.
(B) a gift of nature which is very useful to mankind.
(C) a man-made substance placed in nature.
(D) available only in the forest.
Answer:
(B) a gift of nature which is very useful to mankind.

Explanation:
Natural resource is a gift of nature which is very useful to mankind. Option (C) can be easily ruled out because natural resources are not man-made. Option (A) can be ruled out, because natural resources are present everywhere.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources

Question 5

The three R’s that will help us to conserve natural resources for long term use are

(A) recycle, regenerate, reuse
(B) reduce, regenerate, reuse
(C) reduce, reuse, redistribute
(D) reduce, recycle, reuse
Answer:
(D) reduce, recycle, reuse

Explanation:
The three R’s that will help us to conserve natural resources for long term use are reduce, recycle and reuse.

Question 6.

Given below are a few statements related to biodiversity. Pick those that correctly describe the concept of biodiversity.

(i) Biodiversity refers to the different species of flora and fauna present in an area
(ii) Biodiversity refers to only the flora of a given area
(iii) Biodiversity is greater in a forest
(iv) Biodiversity refers to the total number of individuals of a particular species living in an area

(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(C) (i) and (iii)

Explanation:
Both flora and fauna are included in biodiversity. Biodiversity is in greater degree in a forest. Hence, options (ii) and (iv) are incorrect.

Question 7.

The main cause for abundant coliform bacteria in the river Ganga is

(A) disposal of unbumt corpses into water.
(B) discharge of effluents from electroplating industries.
(C) washing of clothes.
(D) immersion of ashes.
Answer:
(A) disposal of unbumt corpses into water.

Explanation:
Coliform bacteria mainly come from human excreta, They can be present in unburnt corpses. Waste referred in other options does not contain human excreta.

Question 8.

A successful forest conservation strategy should involve

(A) protection of animals at the highest trophic level.
(B)protection of only consumers.
(C) protection of only herbivores.
(D) comprehensive programme to protect all the physical and biological components.
Answer:
(D) comprehensive programme to protect all the physical and biological components.

Explanation:
Protection of organisms at a single trophic level cannot maintain balance of our ecosystem. Hence, other options are ruled out.

Question 9.

Which one of the following is responsible for the sustenance of underground water?

(A) Loss of vegetation cover
(B) Diversion for high water demanding crops
(C) Pollution from urban wastes
(D) Afforestation
Answer:
(D) Afforestation

Explanation:
Afforestation (plantation of trees) will save ground water from getting depleted.

Question 10.

Incomplete combustion of coal and petroleum:

(i) increases air pollution.
(ii) increases efficiency of machines.
(iii) reduces global warming.
(iv) produce poisonous gases.

The correct option is:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
(B) (i) and (iv)

Explanation:
Incomplete combustion of coal and petroleum increases air pollution and produce poisonous gases.

Question 11.

Several factories were pouring their wastes in rivers A and B. Water samples were collected from these two rivers. It was observed that sample collected from river A was acidic while that of river B was basic. The factories located near A and B are:

(A) Soaps and detergents factories near A and alcohol distillery near B.
(B) Soaps and detergents factories near B and alcohol distillery near A.
(C) Lead storage battery manufacturing factories near A and soaps and detergents factories near B.
(D) Lead storage battery manufacturing factories near B and soaps and detergents factories near
Answer:
(D) Lead storage battery manufacturing factories near B and soaps and detergents factories near

Explanation:
Lead storage battery manufacturing factories near A and soaps and detergents factories near B led to the given observation.

Question 12.

Opposition to the construction of large dams is due to

(A) social reasons.
(B) economic reasons.
(C) environmental reasons.
(D) all the above.
Answer:
(D) all the above.

Explanation:
Dam construction adversely affects local flora and fauna by raising social, economic and environmental problems.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources

Question 13.

Pick the right combination of terms which has no fossil fuel.

(A) Wind, ocean and coal
(B) Kerosene, wind and tide
(C) Wind, wood, sun
(D) Petroleum, wood, sun
Answer:
(C) Wind, wood, sun

Explanation:
Wind, sun and wood are natural resources.

Question 14.

It is important to make small check dams across the flooded gullies because they

(i) hold water for irrigation.
(ii) hold water and prevent soil erosion.
(iii) recharge ground water.
(iv) hold water permanently.

(A) (i) and (iv)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (ii) and (iv)
Answer:
(B) (ii) and (iii)

Explanation:
Small check dams or temporary dams across the flooded gullies helps to prevent adverse effects of flooding on nearby areas and land.

Question 15.

Ground water will not be depleted due to

(A) afforestation.
(B) thermal power plants.
(C) loss of forest, and decreased rainfall.
(D) cropping of high water demanding crops.
Answer:
(A) afforestation.

Explanation:
Plantation of tree is called as afforestation. Afforestation conserves the soil moisture and allows the run-off water to infiltrate into ground water thereby adding to ground water recharge.

Question 16.

Khadins, Bundhis, Ahars and Kattas are ancient structures that are examples for

(A) grain storage.
(B) wood storage.
(C) water harvesting.
(D) soil conservation.
Answer:
(C) water harvesting.

Explanation:
Khadins, Bundhis, Ahara and Kattas are ancient water conservation practices.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions : In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is true.

Question 1.

Assertion (A): We need to conserve natural resources.
Reason (R): Natural resources are limited.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
We need to manage natural resources because natural resources are limited. Human population is increasing at a tremendous rate and utilization of natural resources is increasing at an exponential rate. Therefore, we need to conserve resources for future generations.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): Reuse is better than recycle.
Reason (R): Recycle prevents environmental pollution.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Reuse is better than recycle because it saves energy by using material again without any changes and also, it prevents environmental pollution.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): The development which can be maintained for a long time without undue damage to the environment is called sustainable development.
Reason (R): It provide the economic well being to the present and future generation.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Sustainable development is the development which can be maintained for a longtime without undue damage to the environment. It has two main objectives: To provide economic well being to the present and future generations and to maintain a healthy environment and life support system.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Chipko Andolan was done by women of Reni village.
Reason (R): Chipko Andolan was done to protect wild life.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Chipko movement was started in early 1970s in village Reni in Garhwal by the women of Uttarakhand to stop cutting of forest trees of their area.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): Wildlife should be conserved.
Reason (R): Human activities cause several plants and animals to extinct.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Wild life is found in forests. Over a period of time, wildlife has become extinct because of certain human activities like deforestation, hunting, poaching etc.

Question 6.

Assertion (A): Coliform is a group of bacteria found in human stomach.
Reason (R): Presence of coliform in water indicates contamination by disease causing microorganisms.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is true.

Explanation:
Coliform is a group of bacteria found in human intestine whose presence in water indicates contamination by disease causing micro-organisms.

Question 7.

Assertion (A): Water is a valuable resource.
Reason (R): Turn off the taps when not in use.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Water is a valuable resource. So, we need to conserve it by turning off the taps when not in use.

Question 8.

Assertion (A): Coal and petroleum are categorised as natural resources, so should be used judiciously.
Reason (R): They are formed from the degradation of biomass subjected to various biological and geological processes over a million of years.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Coal and petroleum are formed from the degradation of biomass subjected to various biological and geological processes over a million of years. Thus, cannot be manufactured by humAnswer:Therefore, coal and petroleum are categorised as natural resource.

Question 9.

Assertion (A): Water harvesting is the method to capture every trickle of water that falls on the land.
Reason (R): Water harvesting recharges wells and ground water.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Water harvesting is a technique of capturing rain water when it falls and taking measure to keep the water clean. It recharges wells/ground water and provides moisture for vegetation over a wide area.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources

Question 10.

Assertion (A): Bundhis are found in Rajasthan.
Reason (R): Bundhis are traditional water harvesting structures.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is true.

Explanation:
Bundhis are found in Madhya Pradesh whereas in Rajasthan, Khadins and nadis are found. They all are ancient water conservation practices.
Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Case-Based MCQs

Attempt any 4 sub-parts from each question. Each sub-part carries 1 mark.
I. Observe the following diagram and answer any four questions from Question 1. to Question 5.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources 1
Question 1.

Choose the waste management strategy that is matched with correct example.

(A) RefuseChoose products that use less packaging
(B) ReduceGive unwanted toys and books to hospitals or schools
(C) ReuseNot using single use plastic
(D) RepurposeMaking flower pot from used plastic bottle

Answer:
Option (D) is correct.

Explanation:
Reusing a waste material to make something that is useful is called repurposing. Using a plastic bottle to make a flower pot is thus repurposing.

Question 2.

Recycling of paper is a good practice but recycled paper should not be used as food packaging because

(A) recycled papers may release color /dyes on food items
(B) recycled papers are not absorbent
(C) recycled papers can cause infection due to release of methane
(D) recycled papers are costly
Answer:
(B) recycled papers are not absorbent

Explanation:
It is because decomposition of paper produces chemicals like methane which may cause infection.

Question 3.

According to the ‘Solid Waste Management Rule 2016’, the waste should be segregated into three categories. Observe the table below and select the row that has correct information

Wet wasteDry wasteHazardous waste
(A) Cooked food, vegetable peelsUsed bulbs, fluorescent lampsPlastic carry bags, bottles, newspaper, cardboard
(B) Coffee and tea powder, garden wastePlastic carry bags, bottles, newspaper, cardboardExpired medicines, razors, paint cans
(C) Leftover food, vegetable peelsCoffee and tea powder, garden wasteInsect  repellents,cleaning solutions
(D) Uncooked food, tea leavesOld crockery, frying pansCoffee and tea powder, garden waste

Answer:
Option (B) is correct.

Explanation:
Coffee and tea powder, garden waste are recyclable wet waste, plastic carry bags, bottles, newspaper, cardboard are kitchen dry waste while expired medicines, razors, paint cans are domestic hazardous wastes.

Question 4.

Effective segregation of wastes at the point of generation is very important. Select the appropriate statements giving the importance of waste segregation.

(i) less waste goes to the landfills
(ii) better for public health and the environment
(iii) help in reducing the waste
(iv) resulting in deterioration of a waste picker’s health

(A) both (i) and (ii)
(B) both (i) and (iii)
(C) both (ii) and (iii)
(D) both (i) and (iv)
Answer:
(A) both (i) and (ii)

Explanation:
Waste segregation is included in law because it is much easier to recycle. Effective segregation of wastes means that less waste goes to landfill which makes it cheaper and better for people and the environment. It is also important to segregate for public health.

Question 5.

When recycling a plastic water bottle, what should you do with the cap?

(A) The cap goes into a garbage can and the bottle goes in a recycling bin
(B) Screw the cap back on the bottle, then put the bottle and cap in a recycling bin
(C) Screw the cap back on the bottle, then put the bottle and cap in the garbage can
(D) Recycle the cap separately.
Answer:
(A) The cap goes into a garbage can and the bottle goes in a recycling bin

Explanation:
The bottle cap goes into a garbage can and the bottle goes in a recycling bin.

II. Study the passage and answer any of the four questions from Question 1. to Question 5.
Management and conservation of natural resources means the scientific utilization of resources. This method yields the greatest sustainable benefit of available resources to the present generations, while maintaining its potential to meet the needs and aspirations of future generations. In recent years, it has been observed that most of our natural resources are being depleted. It is mainly due to the over exploitation of resources as a result of changing lifestyle, over population and technological development. Thus the need of the hour is to wisely manage our natural resources and minimize their wastage. For this, we should remember the 3 R’s that can save environment.

Question 1.

Which of the following R’s is not used to save the environment?

(A) Reduce
(B) Remove
(C) Recycle
(D) Reuse
Answer:
(B) Remove

Explanation:
Remove is not the 3 R’s that can g save the environment.

Question 2.

Conservation is:

(A) Proper use of natural resources
(B) Protection of natural resources
(C) Utilisation of natural resources
(D) All of these.
Answer:
(A) Proper use of natural resources

Explanation:
Proper management of natural resources is essential for judicial use and conservation of natural resources.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources

Question 3.

If we are using discarded items of paper, plastic and sending them to the respective industries for making useful objects. Then which R to save the environment we are following?

(A) Reuse
(B) Remove
(C) Recycle
(D) Reduce
Answer:
(C) Recycle

Explanation:

We are using recycle method to save the environment.

Question 4.

Which of these you would practice in your daily life?

(A) Reuse
(B) Recycle
(C) Reduce
(D) Remove
Answer:
(A) Reuse

Explanation:
Reuse, because process of recycling uses some energy and takes some time.

Question 5.

Which of these statements is incorrect about sustainable development ?

(A) Economic development is linked to environmental conservation
(B) Sustainable development encourages development for current generation and conservation of resources for future generations
(C) Sustainable development does not consider the view points of stakeholders
(D) Sustainable development is a long planned and persistent development
Answer:
(C) Sustainable development does not consider the view points of stakeholders

Explanation:
Sustainable developments take into consideration both economic growth and ecological conservation simultaneously besides giving due considerations to the viewpoint any four stakeholders.

III. Study the given diagrams and answer any of the four questions from Question 1. to Question 5.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources 2
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources 3
Question 1.

The water reservoir in fig (1) and (2) is………….. and…………… respectively.

(A) Pond, underground water body
(B) Underground water body, pond
(C) Underground water body in both
(D) Pond in both
Answer:
(A) Pond, underground water body

Explanation:
In fig (1), the water reservoir is a pond while in fig (2), it is underground water body.

Question 2.

Which has an advantage over the other?

(A) Fig (1) has more advantage than fig (2).
(B) Fig (2) has more advantage than fig (1)
(C) Both has equal advantage.
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Fig (2) has more advantage than fig (1)

Explanation:
Fig (2) has more advantage than fig (1). It is because, ground water does not evaporate. It provides moisture for vegetation over a wide area. It is also protected from contamination by animal and human wastes.

Question 3.

Which of these reservoirs contains the most water?

(A) Atmosphere
(B) Biosphere
(C) Groundwater
(D) Lakes and rivers.
Answer:
(C) Groundwater

Explanation:
Ground water is the water that seeps through rocks and soil and is stored below the ground.

Question 4.

Ground water will not be depleted due to:

(A) Afforestation
(B) thermal power plants
(C) loss of forest, and decreased rainfall
(D) cropping of high water demanding crops
Answer:
(A) Afforestation

Explanation:
Afforestation (plantation of trees) will save ground water from getting depleted.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources

Question 5.

Khadins, Bundhis, Ahars and Kattas are ancient structures that are examples for

(A) grain storage.
(B) wood storage.
(C) water harvesting.
(D) soil conservation.
Answer:
(C) water harvesting.

Explanation:
Khadins, Bundhis, Ahars and Kattas are ancient water conservation practices.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment

Our Environment Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Question 1.

In the given food chain, suppose the amount of energy at fourth trophic level is 5 kj, what will be the energy available at the producer level?
Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Hawk

(A) 5 kj
(B) 50 kj
(C) 500 kj
(D) 5,000 kj
Answer:
(D) 5,000 kj

Explanation:
According to 10% law, only 10% of energy is transferred to the next trophic level and remaining 90% energy is used in life processes by present trophic level.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment
MCQ Questions for Chapter 15 Our Environment 1
Therefore,
Energy available to Grass = 10% of 5000 kj. Energy available to Grasshopper = 10% of 500kj Energy available to Frog = 10% of 5000 kj = 50kj Energy available to Hawk= 10% of 50 kj = 5 kj

Question 2.

In an ecosystem, the 10% of energy available for transfer from one trophic level to the next is in the form of:

(A) heat energy.
(B) light energy.
(C) chemical energy.
(D) mechanical energy.
Answer:
(C) chemical energy.

Explanation:
In an ecosystem, the 10% of energy available for transfer from one trophic level to the next is in the form of chemical energy. The producers or green plants capture the energy in sunlight and convert it into chemical energy which is passed onwards to the other trophic level.

Question 3.

Organisms of a higher trophic level which feed on several types of organisms belonging to a lower trophic level constitute the

(A) food web.
(B) ecological pyramid.
(C) ecosystem.
(D) food chain.
Answer:
(A) food web.

Explanation:
Food web is a network of food chains. Each organism is generally eaten by two or more kinds of organisms which are again eaten bv several other organisms and so instead of straight line food chain, the series of organisms dependent on one another for their food can be shown by branched chain which is called as a food web.

Question 4.

Which group of organisms are not constituents of a food chain?

(i) Grass, lion, rabbit, wolf
(ii) Plankton, man, fish, grasshopper
(iii) Wolf, grass, snake, tiger
(iv) Frog, snake, eagle, grass, grasshopper

(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (iii) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i) and (iv)
Answer:
(C) (ii) and (iii)

Explanation:
Food chain (ii): It is an aquatic food chain so grasshopper cannot be a part of it.
In food chain (iii): Wolf, snake and tiger, all are carnivores. There are no herbivores to eat grass therefore grass cannot be a part of food chain (iii).

Question 5.

The percentage of solar radiation absorbed by all the green plants for the process of photosynthesis is about:

(A) 1%.
(B) 5%.
(C) 8%.
(D) 10%.
Answer:
(A) 1%.

Explanation:
Green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem capture about 1% of the energy of sunlight that falls on the leaves and converts it into food energy.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment

Question 6.

Select the mismatched pair in the following and correct it.

(A) Bio-magnification—Accumulation of chemicals at the successive trophic levels of a food chain
(B) Ecosystem—Bio tic components of environment
(C) Aquarium — A man-made ecosystem
(D) Parasites — Organisms which obtain food from other living organisms
Answer:
(B) Ecosystem—Bio tic components of environment

Explanation:
Both biotic and abiotic components of environment constitute an ecosystem.

Question 7.

Which one of the followings is an artificial ecosystem?

(A) Pond
(B) Crop field
(C) Lake
(D) Forest ‘Ff
Answer:
(B) Crop field

Explanation:
Ecosystems which are made by man, are called artificial ecosystem. For example, in crop fields abiotic and biotic components are selected bv humAnswer: Sowing of seeds, irrigation and further progress in crop fields is also closely kept under observation to get good crop yield.

Question 8.

In a food chain, the third trophic level is always occupied by

(A) carnivores.
(B) herbivores.
(C) decomposers.
(D) producers.
Answer:
(A) carnivores.

Explanation:
In food chain, (i) plants occupy the first trophic level, (ii) herbivores occupy the second trophic level, (iii) carnivores occupy the third trophic level.

Question 9.

Which one of the following green house gases is a contributor due to incomplete combustion of coal and petroleum?

(A) Oxides of nitrogen
(B) Methane
(C) Carbon monoxide
(D) Carbon dioxide
Answer:
(C) Carbon monoxide

Explanation:
Incomplete combustion of coal and petroleum releases carbon monoxide, which is a contributor of greenhouse effect.

Question 10.

Depletion of ozone is mainly due to .

(A) chlorofluorocarbon compounds.
(B) carbon monoxide.
(C) methane.
(D) pesticides.
Answer:
(A) chlorofluorocarbon compounds.

Explanation:
Depletion of ozone layer occurs due to chlorofluorocarbons . Other chemicals do not cause depletion of ozone layer in the environment.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment

Question 11.

Excessive exposure of humans to UV-rays results in

(i) damage to immune system.
(ii) damage to lungs.
(iii) skin cancer.
(iv) peptic ulcers.

(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
(C) (i) and (iii)

Explanation:
Excessive exposure of humans to ultraviolet (UV)-rays results in :
(i) Skin cancer.
(ii) Damage to the immune system of the body.

Question 12.

Which of the followings are environment-friendly practices?

(A) Carrying cloth-bags to put purchases in while shopping.
(B) Switching off unnecessary lights and fAnswer:
(C) Walking to school instead of getting your mother to drop you on her scooter.
(D) All of the above.
Answer:
(D) All of the above.

Explanation:
The eco-friendly habits that we should adopt in our day-to-day life are:
(i) Switch off the lights when not in use.
(ii) Walk to school or use bicycle.
(iii) Always carry cotton bags instead of using plastic bags.

Question 13.

Accumulation of non-biodegradable pesticides in the food chain in increasing amount at each higher trophic level is known as

(A) eutrophication.
(B) pollution.
(C) bio-magnification.
(D) accumulation.
Answer:
(C) bio-magnification.

Explanation:
The phenomenon of increasing accumulation of non-hiodegradable pesticides at each higher trophic level in a food chain is known as bio-magnification.

Question 14.

Disposable plastic plates should not be used because

(A) they are made of materials with light weight.
(B) they are made of toxic materials.
(C) they are made of biodegradable materials.
(D) they are made of non-biodegradable materials.
Answer:
(D) they are made of non-biodegradable materials.

Explanation:
Disposable plastic plates should not be used because they are made of non- biodegradable materials. Under certain conditions, the non-biodegradable substances can persist for longer time and can also harm the various components of ecosystem.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment

Question 15.

What happens to the earth’s temperature due to the greenhouse effect?

(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remains the same
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(A) Increases

Explanation:
When the carbon dioxide concentration in the atmosphere increases, it creates a blanket around the earth, trapping heat that is reflected from the earth. The trapped heat causes the earth’s temperatures to rise leading to global warming.

Question 16.

Why is it difficult to degrade non-biodegradable wastes?

(A) Because non-biodegradable wastes cannot be recycled.
(B) Because microorganisms cannot decompose it.
(C) They can be made into organic wastes.
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(B) Because microorganisms cannot decompose it.

Explanation:
It is difficult or rather impossible to degrade non-biodegradable wastes because microorganisms cannot decompose these.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions : In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is true.

Question 1.

Assertion (A): Food chain is responsible for the entry of harmful chemicals in our bodies.
Reason (R): The length and complexity of food chains vary greatly.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Through biomagnification, harmful chemicals that are not metabolised by our body pass into the food chain, irrespective of the length and complexity of the food chain, which may vary in nature.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): Greater number of individuals are present in lower trophic levels.
Reason (R): The flow of energy is unidirectional.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
There are generally a greater number of individuals at the lower trophic levels of an ecosystem; the greatest number is of the producers. The flow of energy in an ecosystem is always linear or unidirectional. The energy captured from producers does not revert to the solar input. Also, the energy which passes to the herbivores does not come back to autotrophs.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): Herbivores are called first order consumers.
Reason (R): Tiger is a top carnivore.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Herbivores obtain their food from plants. Hence, are known as first order carnivores. The carnivores like tiger that cannot be preyed upon further, lie at the top of food chain and hence termed as top carnivores.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Flow of energy in a food chain is unidirectional.
Reason (R): Energy captured by autotrophs does not revert back to the solar input and it passes to the herbivores.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
The flow of energy through different steps in the food chain is unidirectional. This means that energy captured by autotrophs does not revert back to the solar input and it passes to the herbivores.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): First trophic level in a food chain is always a green plant.
Reason (R): Green plants are called producers.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Green plants are producers. The first trophic level in a food chain is the producers i.e. those organisms which produce food by photosynthesis.

Question 6.

Assertion (A): Decomposers keep the environment clean.
Reason (R): They recycle matter by breaking down the organic remains and waste products of plants and animals.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Decomposers keep the environment clean by decomposing or consuming the dead remains of other organisms.

Question 7.

Assertion (A): The concentration of harmful chemicals is more in human beings.
Reason (R): Man is at the apex of the food chain.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Harmful chemicals accumulate progressively at each trophic level. Since the man is at the apex of all the food chains, the concentration of harmful chemicals may be more in human beings. The phenomenon involved is known as biomagnification.

Question 8.

Assertion (A): CFCs deplete the ozone layer.
Reason (R): CFCs are used as refrigerants and in fire extinguishers.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Ozone layer is getting depleted at the higher levels of the atmosphere due to effect of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) which are
used as refrigerants and in fire extinguishers.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment

Question 9.

Assertion (A): Polythene bags and plastic containers are non-biodegradable substances.
Reason (R): They can be broken down by micro-organisms in natural simple harmless substances.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Substances like polythene bags and plastics are non-biodegradable because they cannot be broken down by micro-organisms into simpler harmless substance in nature. Substances that can be broken down by micro-organisms in natural simple harmless substances are biodegradable substances.

Question 10.

Assertion (A): Ozone is both beneficial and damaging.
Reason (R): Stop the release of chlorofluorocarbons to protect the ozone.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Ozone is damaging as it is a deadly poison. It is beneficial as it shields the surface of the earth from UV radiations of the Sun. We should stop the release of Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) to protect the ozone.

Question 11.

Assertion (A): Wastes such as plastics, paper, vegetable or fruit peels, which are generated in our house daily are biodegradable.
Reason (R): Biodegradable wastes can be broken down into simpler, harmless substance in nature in due course of time by the biological processes such as action of microorganisms.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is true.

Explanation:
Household wastes like paper, vegetable and fruit peels are biodegradable wastes that can be degraded by microorganisms while waste like plastics are non-biodegradable. They cannot be broken down into simpler, harmless substances in nature.

Case-Based MCQs

Attempt any 4 sub-parts from each question. Each sub-part carries 1 mark.
I. Read the following and answer any four the questions from Q.1 to Q.5.
Food chains are very important for the survival of most species. When only one element is removed from the food chain it can result in extinction of a species in some cases. The foundation of the food chain consists of primary producers. Primary producers, or autotrophs, can use either solar energy or chemical energy to create complex organic compounds, whereas species at higher trophic levels cannot and so must consume producers or other life that itself consumes producers. Because the sun’s light is necessary for photosynthesis, most life could not exist if the sun disappeared. Even so, it has recently been discovered that there are some forms of life, chemotrophs, that appear to gain all their metabolic energy from chemosythesis driven by hydrothermal vents, thus showing that some life may not require solar energy to thrive.
MCQ Questions for Chapter 15 Our Environment 2

Question 1.

If 10,000 J solar energy falls on green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem, what percentage of solar energy will be converted into food energy?

(A) 10,000 J
(B) 100J
(C) 1000 J
(D) It will depend on the type of the terrestrial plant.
Answer:
(B) 100J

Explanation:
As we know, only 1 % of energy of sunlight that falls on leaves is converted into food energy by plants. So, of 10,000 J is the energy of the sunlight, then (1/100) x 10,000 = 100 J of energy will be converted into food energy.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment

Question 2.

If Ravi is consuming curd/yogurt for lunch, which trophic level in a food chain he should be considered as occupying ?

OR
Mr. X is eating curd/yogurt. For this food intake in a food chain he should be considered as occupying

(A) First trophic level
(B) Second trophic level
(C) Third trophic level
(D) Fourth trophic level
Answer:
(C) Third trophic level

Explanation:
Curd is made from milk which is obtained from cow. Cow is a primary consumer that feeds on producer (grass) and occupies second trophic level. Thus, consuming the produce obtained from an organism at second trophic level makes Ravi belong to third trophic level.

Question 3.

The decomposers are not included in the food chain. The correct reason for the same is because decomposers:

(A) Act at every trophic level of the food chain
(B) Do not breakdown organic compounds
(C) Convert organic material to inorganic forms
(D) Release enzymes outside their body to convert organic material to inorganic forms
Answer:
(A) Act at every trophic level of the food chain

Explanation:

Decomposers act at every trophic level of the food chain. So, they do not belong to any particular trophic level.

Question 4.

Matter and energy are two fundamental inputs of an ecosystem. Movement of

(A) Energy is bidirectional and matter is repeatedly circulating.
(B) Energy is repeatedly circulation and matter is unidirectional.
(C) Energy is unidirectional and matter is repeatedly circulating.
(D) Energy is multidirectional and matter is bidirectional.
Answer:
(C) Energy is unidirectional and matter is repeatedly circulating.

Explanation:
The flow of energy in an ecosystem is always linear or unidirectional. The energy captured from producers does not revert to the solar input. Also, the energy which passes to the herbivores does not come back to autotrophs. Also, the matter is repeatedly circulating in ecosystem.

Question 5.

Which of the following limits the number of trophic levels in a food chain?

(A) Decrease in energy at higher trophic levels
(B) Less availability of food
(C) Polluted air
(D) Water
Answer:
(A) Decrease in energy at higher trophic levels

Explanation:
At every step in a food chain the energy received by the organism is also used for its own metabolism and maintenance. The left over is passed to next higher trophic level. Thus energy flow decreases with successive trophic levels. This means, the number of trophic levels in a food chain is restricted by 10 % flow of energy, less amount of energy available to the last trophic level.

II. Carefully study the given food web and answer any four questions from Q.1. to Q.5.
MCQ Questions for Chapter 15 Our Environment 3

Question 1.

The mussel can be described as

(A) Producer
(B) Primary consumer
(C) Secondary consumer
(D) decomposer
Answer:
(C) Secondary consumer

Explanation:
In the give food web, the algae is the primary producer, microscopic animals consume algae and are the primary consumers and mussels are at the next trophic level and are the secondary consumers.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment

Question 2.

Which trophic level is incorrectly defined?

(A) Carnivores – secondary or tertiary consumers
(B) Decomposers – microbial heterotrophs
(C) Herbivores – primary consumers
(D) Omnivores – molds, yeast and mushrooms
Answer:
(D) Omnivores – molds, yeast and mushrooms

Explanation:
Omnivores consume both plant and animal matter. Molds, yeast and mushrooms are saprophytes that feed on dead and decaying matter.

Question 3.

The given figure best represents:

MCQ Questions for Chapter 15 Our Environment 4
(A) Grassland food chain
(B) Parasitic food chain
(C) Forest food chain
(D) Aquatic food chain
Answer:
(A) Grassland food chain

Explanation:
Since, the given food chain comprises grass, grasshopper, frog and snake, so they belong to grassland food chain.

Question 4.

Why do all food chains start with plants?

(A) Because plants are easily grown
(B) Because plants are nutritious
(C) Because plants can produce its own energy
(D) Because plants do not require energy
Answer:
(C) Because plants can produce its own energy

Explanation: The first trophic level in a food chain is producer i.e. those organisms which produce food by photosynthesis.

Question 5.

In the food web, which two organisms are competing for food?

MCQ Questions for Chapter 15 Our Environment 5
(A) A and B
(C) A and C
(B) D and F
(D) B and D
Answer:
(D) B and D

Explanation:
B and D are present at the same trophic level. This means they consume the same organisms and thus compete for the food,

III. Read the following and answer the questions any four from Q.1. to Q.5.
Biosphere is a global ecosystem composed of living organisms and abiotic factors from which they derive energy and nutrients. And ecosystem is defined as structural and functional unit of the biosphere comprising of living and non-living environment that interact by means of food chains and chemical cycles resulting in energy flow, biotic diversity and material cycling to form a stable, selfsupporting system.

Biotic vs. Abiotic Factors

LivingNon-Living
ExamplesExamples
PlantsWater
AnimalsSunlight
FungiSoil
BacteriaAir
Temperature

Question 1.

Which trophic level is incorrectly defined?

(A) Carnivores – secondary or tertiary consumers
(B) Decomposers – microbial heterotrophs
(C) Herbivores – primary consumers
(D) Omnivores – molds, yeast and mushrooms
Answer:
(C) Herbivores – primary consumers

Explanation:
Omnivores consume both plant and animal matter. Molds, yeast and mushrooms are saprophytes that feed on dead and decaying matter.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment

Question 2.

The diagram below shows a food web from the sea shore

MCQ Questions for Chapter 15 Our Environment 6
The mussel can be described as
(A) Producer
(B) Primary consumer
(C) Secondary consumer
(D) Decomposer
Answer:
(A) Producer

Explanation:
In the give food web, the algae is the primary producer, microscopic animals consume algae and are the primary consumers and mussels are at the next trophic level and are the secondary consumers.

Question 3.

The given figure best represents:

MCQ Questions for Chapter 15 Our Environment 7
(A) Grassland food chain
(B) Parasitic food chain
(C) Forest food chain
(D) Aquatic food chain
Answer:
(C) Forest food chain

Explanation:
Since, the given food chain comprises grass, grasshopper, frog and snake, so they belong to grassland food chain.

Question 4.

Consider the following statements concerning food chains:

I. Removal of 80% tigers from an area resulted in greatly increased growth of vegetation
II. Removal of most of the carnivores resulted in an increased population of herbivores.
III. The length of the food chains is generally limited to 3 – 4 trophic levels due to energy loss
IV. The length of the food chains may vary from 2 to 8 trophic levels
Which two of the above statements are correct?

(A) (I), (IV)
(B) (I), (II)
(C) (II), (III)
(D) (III), (IV)
Answer:
(C) (II), (III)

Explanation:
Removal of tigers from an area will lead to an increase in number of herbivores and hence there will be decreased growth of vegetation in that particular area. The number of trophic levels in a food chain does not reach 8 rather there are 3 or 4 trophic levels.

Question 5.

Which of the following group of organisms are not included in ecological food chain?

(A) Carnivores
(B) Saprophytes
(C) Herbivores
(D) Predators
Answer:
(B) Saprophytes

Explanation:
Saprophytes feed on dead and decaying matter. So they act on every trophic level of the food chain. Thus they do not belong to any particular trophic level and are not part of any ecological pyramid though they play an important role in the ecosystem.

IV. Read the given passage and answer any of the four questions from Q.1. to Q.5.
Waste management is essential in today’s society. Due to an increase in population, the generation of waste is getting doubled day by day. Moreover, the increase in waste is affecting the lives of many people. Waste management is the managing of waste by disposal and recycling of it. Moreover, waste management needs proper techniques keeping in mind the environmental situations. For instance, there are various methods and techniques by which the waste is disposed of. You must have come across 5 R’s to save the environment: refuse, reduce, reuse, repurpose and recycle.

Question 1.

Choose the waste management strategy that is matched with correct example.

(A) RefuseChoose products that use less packaging
(B) ReduceGive unwanted toys and books to hospitals or schools
(C) ReuseNot using single use plastic
(D) RepurposeMaking flower pot from used plastic bottle

Answer:
Option (D) is correct.

Explanation:
Reusing a waste material to make something that is useful is called repurposing. Using a plastic bottle to make a flower pot is thus repurposing.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment

Question 2.

Recycling of paper is a good practice but recycled paper should not be used as food packaging because

(A) recycled papers take lots of space
(B) recycled papers can’t cover food properly
(C) recycled papers can cause infection
(D) recycled papers are costly
Answer:
(C) recycled papers can cause infection

Explanation:
It is because decomposition of paper produces chemicals like methane which may cause infection.

Question 3.

According to the ‘Solid Waste Management Rule 2016’, the waste should be segregated into three categories. Observe the table below and select the row that has correct information.

Wet wasteDry wasteHazardous waste
(A) Cooked food, vegetable peelsUsed bulbs, fluorescent lampsPlastic carry bags, bottles, newspaper, cardboard
(B) Coffee and tea powder, garden wastePlastic carry bags, bottles, newspaper, cardboardExpired medicines, razors, paint cans
(C) Leftover food, vegetable peelsCoffee and tea powder, garden wasteInsect  repellents,cleaning

solutions

(D) Uncooked food, tea leavesOld crockery, frying pansCoffee and tea powder, garden waste

Answer:
Option (B) is correct.

Explanation:
Coffee and tea powder, garden waste are recyclable wet waste, plastic carry bags, bottles, newspaper, cardboard are kitchen dry waste while expired medicines, razors, paint cans are domestic hazardous wastes.

Question 4.

Effective segregation of wastes at the point of generation is very important. Select the appropriate statements giving the importance of waste segregation.

(i) less waste goes to the landfills
(ii) better for public health and the environment
(iii) help in reducing the waste
(iv) resulting in deterioration of a waste picker’s health

(A) both (i) and (ii)
(B) both (i) and (iii)
(C) both (ii) and (iii)
(D) both (i) and (iv)
Answer:
(A) both (i) and (ii)

Explanation:
Waste segregation is included in law because it is much easier to recycle. Effective segregation of wastes means that less waste goes to landfill which makes it cheaper and better for people and the environment. It is also important to segregate for public health.

Question 5.

The given graph shows the amount of waste generated, dumped and treated in percentage. Identify the reason of low success rate of waste management process.

MCQ Questions for Chapter 15 Our Environment 8
(A) only 15% of urban India’s waste is processed
(B) less than 60% of waste is collected from households
(C) more than 60% of waste is collected from households
(D) both (A) and (B)
Answer:
(D) both (A) and (B)

Explanation:
The reason for the low success rate of waste management process is that only 15 % of urban India’s waste is processed and less than 60 % of waste is collected from households.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment

V. Read the following passage and answer the questions from Q.1. to Q.5.
Human body is made up of five important components, of which water is the main component. Food as well as potable water is essential for every human being. The food is obtained from plants through agriculture; Pesticides are being used extensively for a high yield in the fields.

These pesticides are absorbed by the plants from the soil along with water and minerals and from the water bodies these pesticides are taken up by the aquatic animals and plants. As these chemicals are not biodegradable, they get accumulated progressively at each trophic level. The maximum concentration of these chemicals gets accumulated in our bodies and greatly affects the health of our mind and body.

Question 1.

The maximum concentration of pesticides are found in

(A) Man
(B) Plants
(C) Deer
(D) Tiger
Answer:
(A) Man

Explanation:
It is because humans are at the top of the food chain and due to biomagnification, the concentration of pesticides increases as one goes up the trophic levels.

Question 2.

Which of these methods could be applied to reduce our intake of pesticides through food to some extent ?

(A) Organic farming
(B) Mixed cropping
(C) Single cell protein
(D) Biofortification
Answer:
(A) Organic farming

Explanation:
Organic farming should be done or more bio-pesticides should be used.

Question 3.

Various steps in a food chain represent:

(A) Food web
(B) Trophic level
(C) Ecosystem
(D) Biomagnification
Answer:
(B) Trophic level

Explanation:
Trophic levels in a food chain represent various steps where transfer of food energy takes place.

Question 4.

With regard to various food chains operating in an ecosystem, man is a:

(A) Consumer
(B) Producer
(C) Producer and consumer
(D) Producer and decomposer
Answer:
(A) Consumer

Explanation:
With regards to various food chains operating an ecosystem,man is a consumer. They consumes the products of producers and eat other organisms.

Question 5.

First link in any food chain is usually green plants. Which of the following statements gives the correct explanation about the above statement?

(A) Only green plants have the capacity to synthesize food using sunlight.
(B) There are more herbivores than carnivores in a food chain.
(C) Green plants are the only ones fixed at one place in the soil and do not show any kind of movements.
(D) Green plants are widely distributed.
Answer:
(A) Only green plants have the capacity to synthesize food using sunlight.

Explanation:
The first link in any food chain is green plants because only they have the capacity to trap sunlight and synthesize food.

VI. Study the following food web and answer any four questions from Q.1. to Q.5.
MCQ Questions for Chapter 15 Our Environment 9

Question 1.

Which of these is the producer?

(A) K
(B) G
(C) J
(D) F
Answer:
(D) F

Explanation: F is the producer.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment

Question 2.

Which organisms are primary consumers?

(A) F, L, H, K
(B) M,G,J,H
(B) J, L, K, M
(D) F, K, M, H
Answer:
(B) M,G,J,H

Explanation:
M, G,J, H are primary consumers.

Question 3.

Which organisms will receive maximum energy in the ecosystem?

(A) M
(B) K
(C) F
(D) G
Answer:
(C) F

Explanation:
F will receive the maximum energy in the ecosystem.

Question 4.

Which organisms represent top level carnivores?

(A) K
(B) M
(C) G
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer:
(A) K

Explanation:
K is top level carnivores.

Question 5.

What will happen if we kill all the organisms in one trophic level ?

(A) Population of organisms in previous trophic level will increase.
(B) Population of organism in previous trophic level will decrease.
(C) Population of organism in next trophic level will increase.
(D) This will not affect the population of any trophic level.
Answer:
(C) Population of organism in next trophic level will increase.

Explanation:
If we kill all the organisms in one trophic level, the population of organisms in next trophic level will increase.

VII. Read the following passage given below and answer the any of the four questions from Q.1. to Q.5.
A water body characterized by nutrient rich water supports abundant growth of phytoplanktons and other water plants on its surface. Over time, the water body gets filled with a large number of such plants and the process is called Eutrophication. In such water bodies, dissolved oxygen content is nil or very less.

Question 1.

Eutrophicated water usually looks turbid green in colour because of

(A) Excessive growth of phytoplanktons
(B) Accumulation of minerals and nutrients
(C) ater body becoming polluted
(D) Release of degraded plant chlorophyll in water
Answer:
(A) Excessive growth of phytoplanktons

Explanation:
Eutrophicated water usually looks turbid green in colour because of excessive growth of phytoplanktons.

Question 2.

In eutrophicated water body, growth rate of phvtoplankton is high because of:

(A) Light penetrating the lower surfaces of water body
(B) Enrichment of nutrients in the water body
(C) Less of dissolved oxygen in the water body.
(D) Aquatic fauna flourishes well in eutrophicated water body.
Answer:
(B) Enrichment of nutrients in the water body

Explanation:
In eutrophicated water body, growth rate of phytoplankton is high because of enrichment of nutrients in the water body.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment

Question 3.

There is an extremely low level of dissolved oxygen in a eutrophicated water body because:

(A) Excessive growth of bacterial decomposers feeding on dead material which consume the dissolved oxygen
(B) Plants grow to such a great extent that they do not allow free flow of water hence oxygen in the atmosphere does not get mixed with water.
(C) The dissolved oxygen in water reacts with minerals and nutrients to form compounds and hence greatly reduces the quantity of oxygen.
(D) Oxygen released is consumed by fishes in the eutrophicated water and hence the quantity of dissolved oxygen is very low.

Question 4.

A portion of a river is covered with a green layer of tiny floating organisms L on its surface and the pond water also contains organisms like tadpole, small fish, Alligator. Which of the following is the correct food chain for the above organisms?

(A) Algae → Tadpole → Small fish → Alligator
(B) Tadpole→Small fish → Algae → Alligator
(C) Algae → Tadpole → Alligator → Small fish
(D) Algae → Alligator → Small fish v Tadpole
Answer:
(A) Algae → Tadpole → Small fish → Alligator

Explanation:
The correct food chain is : Algae → Tadpole → Small fish → Alligator
Answer:
(A) Algae → Tadpole → Small fish → Alligator

Explanation:
There is an extremely low level of dissolved oxygen in a eutrophicated water body because excessive growth of bacterial decomposers feeding on dead material which consume the dissolved oxygen.

Question 5.

Which of the following steps are used to treat industrial wastes and reduce pollution?

(i) Recycle the wastes
(ii) Discharge the wastes into the sea
(iii) Treat and neutralise harmful chemicals in the wastes

(A) Only (i) and (iii)
(B) Only (i) and (ii)
(C) Only (ii) and (iii)
(D) All the these
Answer:
(A) Only (i) and (iii)

Explanation:
Discharging industrial wastes into the sea can cause water pollution.

VIII. Based on the information given and your knowledge, answer any of the four questions from Q.1. to Question 5.

Food chains and the energy flow within an ecosystem provide an important understanding of contingencies and mutual dependencies of organisms. The given below flow chart depicts the energy flow within some members of a grassland ecosystem. The grass in the below ecosystem transducer 120,000Jof sunlightandfixesitinto 12,000 J of energy. It is established that 90% of the energy of one trophic level is not passed to the next trophic level. Further assume that the energy transferred from one trophic level to the next is equally shared
MCQ Questions for Chapter 15 Our Environment 10

Question 1.

How many food chains are present in the food web depicted above?

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 6
Answer:
(C) 5

Explanation:
There are five food chains depicted in the above flow chart.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment

Question 2.

Based on the above information, indicate the amount of energy that an organism C may have received from an organism from the previous trophic level.

(A) 1,20,000 J
(B) 12,000 J
(C) 1200 J
(D) 120 J
Answer:
(C) 1200 J

Explanation:
This is based on ten percent law. According to ten percent law, only 10% of energy entering a particular trophic level of organisms is available for transfer to the next higher trophic level.A = 1200 J, B = 1200 J, C = 1200 J, D = 120 J, E = 12 or 120 J, F = 120 J

Question 3.

In the food web depicted above, identify the most energy efficient link for tertiary consumer.

(A) Rabbit
(B) Rat
(C) Lizard
(D) Grasshopper
Answer:
(A) Rabbit

Explanation:
Tertiary consumer here is Eagle, so for eagle the most energy efficient link is rabbit, as the rabbit is not being eaten in any other food chain.

Question 4.

Which organism acts as both the secondary consumer and the tertiary consumer?

(A) Snake
(B) Hawk
(C) Chicken
(D) Rat
Answer:
(B) Hawk

Explanation:
In the given food web hawk acts as both the secondary consumer and the teritiary consumer.

Question 5.

Tropic levels are formed by which of the following components?

(A) Only plants
(B) Only animals
(C) Only carnivores
(D) Organisms linked in food chain
Answer:
(D) Organisms linked in food chain

Explanation:
Trophic levels are formed by organisms linked in food chains. They include various plants and animals in the different feeding (trophic) levels.

IX. Read the given passage and answer any of the four questions from Q.1. to Q.5. given below:
A farmer is growing a crop regularly in his field. He uses chemical fertilizers, pesticides, organic manure as well as bio-fertilizers. Very close to his field is a factory which emits smoke as a byproduct. There is also a huge lake in the nearby area.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment

Question 1.

A considerable increase in plant life in the lake was noticed after the farming activity intensified. The most likely reason for this could be:

(A) Chemical fertilizers leached into the lake from the field.
(B) Pesticides leached into the lake from the field.
(C) Organic manure leached into the lake from the field.
(D) Smoke particles from the industry got settled in moist surroundings of the lake.
Answer:
(A) Chemical fertilizers leached into the lake from the field.

Explanation:
A considerable increase in plant life in the lake was noticed after the farming activity intensified. The most likely reason for this could be chemical fertilizers leached into the lake from the field.

Question 2.

Consider the following food chain in the same lake. Aquatic plant(A) Small fish → Big fish → Birds Which of the above organisms is likely to show minimum amount of pesticide concentration in them after considerable time?

(A) Aquatic plants.
(B) Small fish.
(C) Big fish.
(D) Birds.
Answer:
(A) Aquatic plants.
Explanation:
Aquatic plants beings at the first trophic level will show minimum amount of pesticide concentration in them after considerable time.

Question 3.

……………is the increase in the concentration of harmful chemical substances in the body of living organisms.

(A) Biological oxygen demand
(B) Biomagnification
(C) Biosynthesis
(D) Biogeochemical cycle
Answer:
(B) Biomagnification

Explanation:
Increase in the concentration of harmful chemical substances in the body of living organisms is known as biomagnification. Biological magnification increases at each trophic level.

Question 4.

An expert agriculturist suggests to the farmer to minimize the use of chemical fertilizers and instead use biofertilizers as they have many advantages over chemical fertilizers. Which ofthe folio wingisNOT true for biofertilizers?

(A) They are economical
(B) They help in reducing pollution in the lake
(C) They are renewable
(D) They require large set-up for their production.
Answer:
(D) They require large set-up for their production.

Explanation:
Biofertilisers do not require large set-up for their production.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment

Question 5.

Which of these is a way to prevent accumulation of harmful chemicals in our bodies?

(A) Minimize the use of pesticides in agriculture
(B) Minimize the use of CFCs.
(C) Plant more and more trees.
(D) All of these
Answer:
(A) Minimize the use of pesticides in agriculture

Explanation:
Minimize the use of chemicals pesticides in agriculture is a way to prevent biomagnification.

X. Study the passage and answer any four questions from Q.1. to Q.5.
The activities of man had adverse effects on all forms of living organisms in the biosphere. Unlimited exploitation of nature by man disturbed the delicate ecological balance between the living and non-living components of the biosphere. The unfavourable conditions created by man himself threatened the survival not only of him but also of the entire living organisms on the mother earth. One of your classmates is an active member of ‘Eco club’ of your school which is creating environmental awareness amongst the school students, spreading the same in the society and also working hard for preventing environmental degradation of the surroundings.

Question 1.

Which of the following does NOT exist in a balanced ecosystem?

(A) Interconnected food chains
(B) Interdependence among living organisms and the environment
(C) Animals dependent on plants but plants are not dependent on animals
(D) Communities made up of different populations of organisms
Answer:
(C) Animals dependent on plants but plants are not dependent on animals

Explanation:
The components of an ecosystem depend on each other to maintain the ecological balance. Plants not only depend on animals for their supply of carbon dioxide but also for other processes like pollination and dispersal of seed.

Question 2.

The green dustbin signifies:

(A) Non- biodegradable waste
(B) Biodegradable waste
(C) Plastic waste
(D) Garbage
Answer:
(B) Biodegradable waste

Explanation:
Green dustbins are for biodegradable wastes while blue dustbins are for non-biodegradable wastes.

Question 3.

Degradation of non-biodegradable waste is difficult because:

(A) Non-biodegradable wastes cannot be recycled.
(B) Microorganisms cannot decompose it.
(C) They can be made into organic wastes.
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(B) Microorganisms cannot decompose it.

Explanation:
It is difficult or rather impossible to degrade non-biodegradable wastes because microorganisms cannot decompose them.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment

Question 4.

Which of these group(s) contains only non- biodegradable items?

(i) Wood, paper, leather
(ii) Polythene, detergent, PVC
(iii) Plastic, detergent, grass
(iv) Plastic, bakelite, DDT

(A) (iii)
(B) (iv)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iv)
Answer:
(D) (ii) and (iv)

Explanation:
Substances which are not broken down by the bacteria or saprophytes are called non-biodegradable substances. Under certain conditions, the non-biodegradable substances can persist for longer time and can also harm the various components of our ecosystem.

Question 5.

We should minimize the use of disposable plastic bags as

(A) they are made of materials with light weight
(B) they are made of toxic materials
(C) they are made of biodegradable materials
(D) they are made of non-biodegradable materials
Answer:
(D) they are made of non-biodegradable materials

Explanation:
Disposable plastic plates should not be used because they are made of non- biodegradable materials

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

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