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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes

Life Processes Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Question 1.

Which of the following statements about the autotrophs is incorrect?

(A) They synthesise carbohydrates from carbon dioxide and water in the presence of sunlight and chlorophyll.
(B) They store carbohydrates in the form of starch.
(C) They convert carbon dioxide and water into carbohydrates in the absence of sunlight.
(D) They constitute the first trophic level in food chains
Answer:
(C) They convert carbon dioxide and water into carbohydrates in the absence of sunlight.

Explanation:
Autotrophs take in food from the outside world and convert them into stored forms of energy. This material is taken in the form of carbon dioxide and water which is converted into carbohydrates in the presence of sunlight and chlorophyll.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes

Question 2.

In which of the following groups of organisms, food material is broken down outside the body and absorbed?

(A) Mushroom, green plants, Amoeba
(B) Yeast, mushroom, bread mould
(C) Paramecium, Amoeba, Cuscuta
(D) Cuscuta, lice, tapeworm W
Answer:
(B) Yeast, mushroom, bread mould

Explanation:
These are saprotrophs and digestion in saprotrophs take place before ingestion. They break down and convert complex organic molecules present in dead and decaying matter into simpler substances outside their body.

Question 3.

Which is the correct sequence of parts in human alimentary canal?

(A) Mouth → stomach → small intestine → oesophagus → large intestine
(B) Mouth → oesophagus → stomach → large intestine → small intestine
(C) Mouth → stomach → oesophagus → small intestine → large intestine
(D) Mouth → oesophagus → stomach → small intestine → large intestine
Answer:
(D) Mouth → oesophagus → stomach → small intestine → large intestine

Explanation:
The sequence of organs in human alimentary canal are: Mouth, oesophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine and anus.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes

Question 4.

If salivary amylase is lacking in the saliva, which of the following events in the mouth cavity will be affected?

(A) Proteins breaking down into amino acids
(B) Starch breaking down into sugars
(C) Fats breaking down into fatty acids and glycerol
(D) Absorption of vitamins
Answer:
(B) Starch breaking down into sugars

Explanation:
If salivary amylase is lacking in the saliva, the process of starch digestion will get disturb as salivary amylase helps in digestion of starch.

Question 5.

Select the correct statement.

(A) Heterotrophs do not synthesise their own food.
(B) Heterotrophs utilise solar energy for photosynthesis.
(C) Heterotrophs synthesise their own food.
(D) Heterotrophs are capable of converting carbon dioxide and water into carbohydrates.
Answer:
(A) Heterotrophs do not synthesise their own food.

Explanation:
Heterotrophs are organisms which cannot make their own food from inorganic substances like CO2 and water as they do not have chlorophyll to trap solar energy. They depend on other organisms for their food. Autotrophs synthesize their own food through photosynthesis by utilizing solar energy, e.g., green plants.

Question 6.

The autotrophic mode of nutrition requires

(A) carbon dioxide and water
(B) chlorophyll
(C) sunlight
(D) all of these
Answer:
(D) all of these

Explanation:
The autotrophic mode of nutrition requires carbon dioxide, water, chlorophyll and sunlight.

Question 7.

The inner lining of stomach is protected by one of the following from hydrochloric acid. Choose the correct one.

(A) Pepsin
(B) Mucus
(C) Salivary amylase
(D) Bile 5
Answer:
(B) Mucus

Explanation:
The stomach has a lining of mucus cells. The mucus is secreted in the gastric juice by the glands present in the stomach wall. It helps to protect the wall of stomach from its own secretions of hydrochloric acid. If mucus is not secreted, HCl will cause the erosion of inner lining of stomach leading to ulcer formation.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes

Question 8.

A few drops of iodine solution were added to rice water. The solution turned blue-black in colour. This indicates that rice water contains

(A) complex proteins
(B) simple proteins
(C) fats
(D) starch
Answer:
(D) starch

Explanation:
The formation of blue-black colour of rice water confirms the presence of starch. Starch forms a dark blue complex with iodine. When iodine is added it will show no colour change in case of proteins or fats.

Question 9.

The breakdown of pyruvate to give carbon dioxide, water and energy takes place in

(A) cytoplasm
(B) mitochondria
(C) chloroplast
(D) nucleus
Answer:
(B) mitochondria

Explanation:
The breakdown of pyruvate to give carbon dioxide, water and energy takes place in mitochondria.

Question 10.
The correct sequence of anaerobic reactions in yeast is
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes 1
Answer:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes 8

Explanation:
Yeast is an unicellular eukaryote which carries out ethanol fermentation. In the first phase, glucose is converted into pyruvate (glycolysis) in the cytoplasm of the cell. Due to limited oxygen availability, pyruvate remains in cytoplasm where pyruvate decarboxylase and alcohol dehydrogenase enzymes carry out the second phase of anaerobic respiration and produce ethanol and carbon dioxide.

Question 11.

Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct?

(i) Pyruvate can be converted into ethanol and carbon dioxide by yeast.
(ii) Fermentation takes place in aerobic bacteria.
(iii) Fermentation takes place in mitochondria.
(iv) Fermentation is a form of anaerobic respiration.

(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i) and (iv)
(D) (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(C) (i) and (iv)

Explanation:
Yeast is a unicellular organism which brings out ethanol fermentation. The first stage is break down of one molecule of glucose into two molecules of pyruvate that occurs in cytoplasm. Because of limited oxygen availability, pyruvate remains in cytoplasm where pyruvate decarboxylase and alcohol dehydrogenase enzymes carry out the second phase of anaerobic respiration and produce ethanol and carbon dioxide.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes

Question 12.

During deficiency of oxygen in tissues of human beings, pyruvic acid is converted into lactic acid in the

(A) cytoplasm
(B) chloroplast
(C) mitochondria
(D) golgi body
Answer:
(A) cytoplasm

Explanation:
Lactic acid is formed after anaerobic respiration in muscle cells and this happens in cytoplasm.

Question 13.

Which of the following completes the given equation? Glucose + Oxygen (?)

(A) Only carbon dioxide + water + energy
(B) Only carbon dioxide + water
(C) Only carbon dioxide
(D) Only water + energy
Answer:
(A) Only carbon dioxide + water + energy

Explanation:
The given equation represents aerobic respiration. Glucose + oxygen -»carbon dioxide + water+ energy

Question 14.

Which of the following take place after we exercise?

(A) Out body needs more oxygen.
(B) Our body needs to replace the energy used.
(C) Our body needs to get rid of excess carbon dioxide.
(D) All of these 53
Answer:
(D) All of these 53

Explanation:
Our body needs more energy when we do exercise. We get energy by the oxidation of food. Due to exercise the body is able to get rid of excess carbon dioxide.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes

Question 15.

Which of these statements is correct about alveoli?

(A) They form a very large surface area.
(B) They have a very thin wall.
(C) They are covered with blood capillaries.
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Explanation:
Alveoli have a large surface area with very thin walls which is richly supplied with blood vessels and are always moist.

Question 16.

As air passes through the nasal cavity, it is

(A) Filtered in the nostrils
(B) Moistened by mucus
(C) Warmed to the body temperature
(D) Al of these
Answer:
(D) Al of these

Explanation:
Before air is breathed into the lungs, it is filtered in the nostrils, moistened by mucus and gets warmer equal to the body temperature.

Question 17.

What prevents back flow of blood inside the heart during contraction?

(A) Valves in heart
(B) Thick muscular walls of ventricles
(C) Thin walls of atria
(D) Al of the above
Answer:
(A) Valves in heart

Explanation:
Valves ensure that blood does not flow backwards when the atria or ventricles contract. Semilunar valves, the valves present between ventricles and their attached vessels, serve to prevent the backflow of blood to ventricles from their respective attached vessels. Likewise, atrioventricular (AV) valve between atrium and ventricle directs the flow of blood and prevents any backflow into atria.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes

Question 18.

Single circulation, i.e., blood flows through the heart only once during one cycle of passage through the body, is exhibited by

(A) Labeo, Chameleon, Salamander
(B) Hippocampus, Exocoetus, Anabas
(C) Hyla, Ram, Draco
(D) Whale, Dolphin, Turtle
Answer:
(B) Hippocampus, Exocoetus, Anabas

Explanation:
Hippocampus, Exocoetus, Ambas belong to class pisces. Fishes have two chambered heart and exhibit single circulation while three chambered heart of amphibians and reptiles and four chambered heart of birds and mammals exhibit double circulation.

Question 19.

The blood leaving the tissues becomes richer in

(A) carbon dioxide
(B) water
(C) haemoglobin
(D) oxygen 5
Answer:
(A) carbon dioxide

Explanation:
The anterior vena cava collects deoxygenated blood from the head, chest, and arms and enters the right atrium while the inferior vena cava collects blood from the lower body regions. Both venae cavae pass the deoxygenated blood to the right atrium. Therefore, blood from tissues is rich in carbon dioxide.

Question 20.

The xylem in plants are responsible for

(A) transport of water
(B) transport of food
(C) transport of amino acids
(D) transport of oxygen
Answer:
(A) transport of water

Explanation:
In a plant, the xylem is responsible for transport of water.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes

Question 21.

Which of the following statement(s) is (are) true about heart?

(i) Left atrium receives oxygenated blood from different parts of body while right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from lungs.
(ii) Left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood to different body parts while right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood to lungs.
(iii) Left atrium transfers oxygenated blood to right ventricle which sends it to different body parts,
(iv) Right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from different parts of the body while left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood to different parts of the body

(A) (i)
(B) (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iii)
Answer:
(C) (ii) and (iv)

Explanation:
Blood from right atrium enters right ventricle and pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood from right ventricle to lungs for oxygenation.

Question 22.

In which of the following vertebrate group/ groups, heart does not pump oxygenated blood to different parts of the body?

(A) Pisces and amphibians
(B) Amphibians and reptiles
(C)Amphibians only
(D) Pisces only
Answer:
(D) Pisces only

Explanation:
In fishes, heart sends the blood to gills from where blood is circulated to different orgAnswer:

Question 23.

Choose the correct statement that describes arteries.

(A) They have thick elastic walls, blood flows under high pressure; collect blood from different organs and bring it back to the heart.
(B) They have thin walls with valves inside, blood flows under low pressure and carry blood away from the heart to various organs of the body.
(C) They have thick elastic walls, blood flows under low pressure; carry blood from the heart to various organs of the body.
(D) They have thick elastic walls without valves inside, blood flows under high pressure and carry blood away from the heart to different parts of the body.
Answer:
(D) They have thick elastic walls without valves inside, blood flows under high pressure and carry blood away from the heart to different parts of the body.

Explanation:
Arteries are the valveless blood vessels which serve to transport the blood away from the heart to various body parts. The thick strong elastic walls of arteries withstand the high pressure of blood coming from heart.

Question 24.

Which of these statements is correct about the function of blood?

(A) It helps in transportation of respiratory gases.
(B) It regulates body temperature.
(C) It helps in transportation of waste products.
(D) All the above
Answer:
(D) All the above

Explanation:
Blood has many different functions, like transporting oxygen and nutrients to the lungs and tissues, regulating body temperature, forming blood clots to prevent excess blood loss, and carrying cells and antibodies that fight infection.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes

Question 25.

The filtration units of kidneys are called

(A) ureter
(B) urethra
(C) neurons
(D) nephrons
Answer:
(D) nephrons

Explanation:
Nephrons are the structural and functional unit of kidney that serve in filtration, reabsorption and secretion. Ureters are small muscular tubes that extend from the kidney and carry urine into the urinary bladder. The urethra is a canal that carries urine from bladder and expels it out of body. Neurons are structural and functional unit of nervous system.

Question 26.

The kidneys in human beings are a part of the sys-tem for

(A) nutrition
(B) respiration
(C) excretion
(D) transportation.
Answer:
(C) excretion

Explanation:
In human beings, the kidneys are a part of the system for excretion.

Question 27.

Match the words of Column (A) with that of Column (B)

Column (A)Column (B)
(A) Phloem(i) Excretion
(B) Nephron(ii) Translocation of food
(C) Veins(iii) Clotting of blood
(D) Platelet(iv) Deoxygenated blood

(A) A – (ii), B – (i), C – (iv), D – (iii)
(B) A – (iii), B – (ii), C – (i), D – (iv)
(C) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (i)
(D) A – (i), B – (iv), C – (iii), D – (iv)
Answer:
(A) A – (ii), B – (i), C – (iv), D – (iii)
Explanation:
S. No. Column
(A) Column
(B) Explanation

S. NoColumn (A)Column (B) Expianation
APhloem(ii)Phloem helps in translocation of food.
BNephron(i)Nephron helps in excretion.
CVeins(iv)Veins carry deoxy-genated blood.
DPlatelets(iii)Platelets helps in clotting of blood.

Question 28.

Which of the following is the structural and functional unit of the excretory system?

(A) Neuron
(B) Nephron
(C) Alveolus
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer:
(B) Nephron

Explanation:
Nephron is the structural and functional unit of excretory system.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes

Question 29.

Choose the correct path of urine in our body :

(A) kidney → ureter → urethra → urinary bladder
(B) kidney → urinary bladder → urethra → ureter
(C) kidney → ureters —> urinary bladder →urethra
(D) urinary bladder → kidney → ureter → urethra
Answer:
(C) kidney → ureters —> urinary bladder →urethra

Explanation:
Kidneys are the paired organ where urine formation takes place. Small muscular tube, called as ureter, extend from kidneys and carry blood to urinary bladder. The urethra is a small tube that extends from the urinary bladder to an external opening.

Question 30.

Which of the following substances are removed from blood in the kidneys?

(A) Water
(B) Urea
(C) Sodium
(D) Ammonia
Answer:
(B) Urea

Explanation:
Urea is removed by the blood in kidneys by filtration.

Question 31.

Each nephron has a cup shaped upper end called…………… . which contains a………. .

(A) Bowman’s capsule, Ampulla
(B) Capillaries, Bowman’s capsule
(C) Ampulla, Glomerulus
(D) Bowman’s capsule, Glomerulus
Answer:
(D) Bowman’s capsule, Glomerulus

Explanation:
The upper cup shaped end of a nephron is called Bowman’s capsule. It contains glomerulus which is a group of blood capillaries.

Question 32.

Which of the following is used artificially to remove nitrogenous waste products from the blood?

(A) Ventilator
(B) Transfusion
(C) Hemodialysis
(D) Angiogram
Answer:
(C) Hemodialysis

Explanation:
Hemodialysis is used to remove nitrogenous waste products from the blood.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs 

Directions : In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is true.

Question 1.

Assertion (A): HCl converts pepsinogen into active enzyme pepsin.
Reason (R): Pepsin converts protein into proteoses and peptones.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
HCl creates an acidic medium, which facilitates activation of pepsinogen into pepsin. The active enzyme pepsin converts proteins into proteoses and peptones.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): Digestion breaks large complex molecules to simple smaller molecules which can be easily absorbed.
Reason (R): Digestion is necessary for the absorption of all molecules.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Digestion breaks large complex organic molecules to simple smaller ones which can be easily absorbed. However, certain molecules such as glucose, vitamin C etc, do not need any digestion before their absorption.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): Muscles of stomach wall possess thick layers of muscle fibers.
Reason (R): These muscles help in mixing the food with the enzymes present in the alimentary canal.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
The lining of alimentary canal has muscles that contract rhythmically in order to push the food forward. This is known as peristaltic movement.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Lipases help in emulsification of fats.
Reason (R): Lipases hydrolyses fats and oils.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is true.

Explanation:
Bile helps in emulsification of fats whereas lipases are the enzymes which hydrolyze fats and oils.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): Photosynthesis is an anabolic process.
Reason (R): The process of photosynthesis occurs in chlorophyll.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Photosynthesis is an anabolic process as it takes C02 and H20 and then assembles them into glucose. The process of photosynthesis occurs in chloroplast.

Question 6.

Assertion (A): Energy is used during the process of respiration.
Reason (R): Respiration stores energy in the form of ATP.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is true.

Explanation:
Respiration involves the oxidation of glucose inside the mitochondria to produce energy, which is stored in the high energy bonds of ATP molecules as biologically useful energy.

Question 7.

Assertion (A): Humans are not truly aerobic.
Reason (R): They produce lactic acid anaerobically.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Humans are aerobically respiring animals, but sometimes anaerobic respiration takes place in certain tissues like skeletal muscles, which do not get immediately as much oxygen as it requires. Therefore, the muscles respire anaerobically and produce lactic acid from glucose.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes

Question 8.

Assertion (A): In humans, there is a complex respiratory system.
Reason (R): Human skin is impermeable to gases.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Humans need more oxygen to maintain their high metabolic rates. Thus, a complex respiratory system has evolved so as to meet this need.

Question 9.

Assertion (A): Alveoli contain an extensive network of blood vessels.
Reason (R): Alveoli is the site where exchange of gases occurs.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
The alveoli of lungs are richly supplied with blood and are the sites where exchange of gases (O2 and CO2) occurs between blood and atmosphere.

Question 10.

Assertion (A): The muscular walls of ventricles are thicker than auricles.
Reason (R): This helps in preventing the back flow of blood.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Since ventricles have to pump blood into various organs, they have thicker muscular walls than atria do. Valves prevent back flow of blood.

Question 11.

Assertion (A): In human heart, there is no mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.
Reason (R): Valves are present in the heart which allows the movement of blood in one direction only.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
There is no mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood due to presence of inter-auricular and inter – ventricular septum. On the other hand, valves are present in the heart which allows the movement of blood in one direction only.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes

Question 12.

Assertion (A): Valves are present in the arteries.
Reason (R): Arteries carry oxygenated blood from heart to different body parts except pulmonary artery.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is true.

Explanation:
Valves are absent in arteries, I whereas it is present in veins, which prevent  back flow of blood.

Question 13.

Assertion (A): Plants have low energy needs.
Reason (R): Plant bodies have large proportion of dead cells.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Because plants have a large proportion of dead cells in many tissues. So, their energy needs are low and they can afford to have slow transport system.

Question 14.

Assertion (A): Human body produces highly toxic substances, which if not eliminated may cause the death.
Reason (R): Excretory substance removes nitrog-enous waste from the body.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
The biological process which involves the removal of harmful metabolic wastes from the body is called excretion. If these harmful wastes are not removed from the body, then it may cause the death of the organism.

Question 15.

Assertion (A): Excretory unit of kidneys are nephrons.
Reason (R): It has no role in secretion of urine.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Nephrons are the basic filtration unit of kidneys. They carry out filtration, selective reabsorption and tubular secretion to from urine in kidneys, which is then passed out through the urethra, via the ureters and urinary bladder.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes

Question 15.

Assertion (A): Haemodialysis can save the life of patients with kidney failure.
Reason (R): Waste products like urea can be removed from the blood by haemodialysis.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
In case of kidney failure, haemodialysis is the process of purifying blood (or removing waste products like urea) by an artificial kidney. This can save the life of the patient.

Question 16.

Assertion (A): In humans, major amount of water is absorbed by the tubular part of nephron.
Reason (R): Absorption of water depends on the dissolved waste to be excreted from the body.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Major amount of water is selectively re-absorbed by the tubular part of nephron in humAnswer: It depends on the amount of excess water present in the body and dissolved waste to be excreted from the body.

Case-Based MCQs

Attempt any 4 sub-parts from each question. Each sub-part carries 1 mark.

I. Read the given passage and answer any of the four questions from Question l. to Question 5.
Sanjana is suffering from a frequent stomach pain and vomiting. She went to the Doctor. The doctor asked her to go for an ultrasound. In the report, a stone was found in her gall bladder. Doctor asked her to remove the gall bladder by operation. But she was reluctant to go for the operation.

Question 1.

The role played by gall bladder in human body is

(A) To store bile
(B) To secrete bile
(C) To emulsify fats
(D) To digest fats
Answer:
(A) To store bile

Explanation:
Gall bladder stores bile.

Question 2.

Removal of gall bladder

(A) affects the person’s health
(B) Has no effect on the person’s health
(C) Effects the secretion of bile
(D) Effects the digestion of proteins
Answer:
(B) Has no effect on the person’s health

Explanation:
No, the removal of gall bladder will not affect person’s health.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes

Question 3.

Which of the following statement is correct about bile?

(A) It helps in emulsification of fat.
(B) It helps in digestion of carbohydrates
(C) It helps in absorption of digested food.
(D) It helps in egestion of undigested food.
Answer:
(A) It helps in emulsification of fat.

Explanation:
Bile helps in emulsification of fat.

Question 4.

Which part of alimentary canal receives bile from the liver?

(A) Stomach
(B) Small intestine
(C) Large intestine
(D) Oesophagus
Answer:
(B) Small intestine

Explanation:
Bile is dark green or a yellowish brown fluid which is produced by the liver and comes to the small intestine through hepato-pancreatic duct.

Question 5.

What is the function of bile salt in the intestine?

(A) Activator of lipase
(B) Emulsifier
(C) Co factor of cholesteryl esterase
(D) Inhibitor of lipid absorption
Answer:
(B) Emulsifier

Explanation:
Bile contains bile salts that help in proper digestion of fats by breaking down large fat globules into smaller ones, so that enzyme can easily act on it and digest them. This process is known as emulsification of fats.

II. The given diagram is of human digestive human. Study the diagram and answer any of the four questions from Question 1. to Question 5.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes 2

Question 1.

Which of these correctly represent the labels B, C, D and E?

(A) B- Oesophagus, C- Liver, D- Stomach, E- pancreas
(B) B- Pancreas, C- Oesophagus, D- Liver, E- Stomach
(C) B- Stomach, C- Pancreas, D- Oesophagus, E- Liver
(D) B- Liver, C- Stomach, D- Pancreas, E- Oesophagus
Answer:
(A) B- Oesophagus, C- Liver, D- Stomach, E- pancreas

Explanation:
In the given picture of human digestive system, B is Oesophagus, C is Liver,D is Stomach, and E is pancreas.

Question 2.

The secretion that is released by label C is:

(A) Bile
(B) Pepsin
(C) Saliva
(D) Gastric juice
Answer:
(A) Bile

Explanation:
Label C represents liver. Liver secretes bile, which is stored in gall bladder.

Question 3.

Name the digestive juice that lacks enzyme but helps in digestion.

(A) Bile juice
(B) Pancreatic juice
(C) Ptyalin
(D) Pepsin
Answer:
(A) Bile juice

Explanation:
Bile juice doesn’t contain any enzyme. It helps in digestion of fats.

Question 4.

The digestion of food starts in

(A) A
(B) D
(C) E
(D) F
Answer:
(A) A

Explanation:
Label A represents mouth. The digestion of food starts in mouth.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes

Question 5.

In case of diarrhoea, which major process does not takes place normally in region F?

(A) Absorption of food
(B) Absorption of water
(C) Secretion of hormones
(D) Removal of waste material
Answer:
(B) Absorption of water

Explanation:
Absorption of water is not occurring normally in region F (Large I intestine).

III. Study the given flow chart and answer any of the four questions from Question l. to Question 5.
CO2+ H2OCO2+ C2H5OH +energy + energy
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes 3

Question 1.

Identify X, Y and Z.

(A) X-Glycolysis, Y-Anaerobic, Z-Aerobic
(B) X -Krebs’s cycle, Y-Aerobic, Z-Anaerobic
(C) X-Glycolysis, Y-Aerobic, Z-Anaerobic
(D) X-Glycolysis, Y-Aerobic, Z-Krebs’s cycle
Answer:
(C) X-Glycolysis, Y-Aerobic, Z-Anaerobic

Explanation:
The label X represents the process of Glycolysis, Y – Aerobic respiration, and Z – Anaerobic respiration.

Question 2.

The process X occurs in……….. and Y occurs in………. part of cell.

(A) Mitochondria and cytoplasm respectively
(B) Cytoplasm and mitochondria respectively
(C) Both takes place in cytoplasm
(D) Both takes place in mitochondria
Answer:
(B) Cytoplasm and mitochondria respectively

Explanation:
The breakdown of glucose (a six- carbon molecule) into a three-carbon molecule called pyruvate takes place in the cytoplasm whereas the process of aerobic respiration takes place in mitochondria.

Question 3.

In which of these organisms the process Z takes place?

(A) Bacteria
(B) Humans
(C) Yeast
(D) Spirogyra
Answer:
(C) Yeast

Explanation:
The Z (anaerobic respiration) takes place in yeast. Since the process takes place in the absence of air, it is called anaerobic respiration.

Question 4.

In which part of human body do the process Z takes place?

(A) In muscle cells
(B) In kidneys
(C) In liver cells
(D) In leydig’s cell
Answer:
(A) In muscle cells

Explanation:
In human body, Z (anaerobic  respiration) takes place in muscle cells.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes

Question 5.

Where does aerobic respiration occur in a cell ?

(A) Mitochondria
(B) Cytoplasm
(C) Nucleus
(D) Plastid
Answer:
(A) Mitochondria

Explanation:
Aerobic respiration occurs in mitochondria. Since the process takes place in presence of air (oxygen), it is called aerobic respiration.

IV. Study the diagram of human respiratory system and answer any of the four questions Question 1. to Question 5.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes 4

Question 1.

The balloon like structures present in ‘S’ is:

(A) Nephron
(B) Alveoli
(C) Bronchi
(D) Bronchiole
Answer:
(C) Bronchi

Explanation:
The balloon like structure are alveoli. Alveoli are air sacs at the end of bronchioles. They allow oxygen and carbon dioxide to move between the lungs and the blood-stream.

Question 2.

Which of these organ is surrounded by cartilaginous rings?

(A) P
(B) Q
(C) R
(D) S
Answer:
(C) R

Explanation:
R (Trachea) is supported by rings I of cartilage.

Question 3.

Which of these statements is incorrect regarding human lungs?

(A)It is the secondary organ for respiration.
(B) It is located on the two sides of heart.
(C) The membrane that encloses lungs is pleural membrane.
(D) The alveolar epithelium of lungs is non-ciliated epithelium.
Answer:
(A)It is the secondary organ for respiration.

Explanation:
Lungs are the primary breathing organ. It is the main respiratory surface available for the exchange of gases (O2 CO2).

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes

Question 4.

Trachea is divided into two smaller tubes called………… .

(A) Bronchi
(B) Bronchioles
(C) Larynx
(D) Alveoli
Answer:
(A) Bronchi

Explanation:
Pharynx splits into trachea and oesophagus. It connects the larynx to the bronchi of the lungs. It provides air flow to and from the lungs for respiration.

Question 5.

Which of these is the function of balloon like structure present in lungs?

(A) Exchange of gases
(B) Absorption of nutrients
(C) Transport of food
(D) Removal of waste materials
Answer:
(A) Exchange of gases

Explanation:
The balloon like structure called alveoli allow oxygen and carbon dioxide to move between the lungs and the blood-stream.

V. The given diagram represents the structure of a human excretory system. Study the diagram and answer any of the four questions from Question 1. to Question 5.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes 5

Question 1.

Identify the part  in excretion.

(A) Kidney
(B) Ureter
(C) Urethra
(D) Nephron
Answer:
(B) Ureter

Explanation:
Part is ureter. It transports urine from kidney to urinary bladder.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes

Question 2.

Which of these is the structural and functional unit of part 2?

(A) Alveoli
(B) Nephron
(C) Neuron
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Nephron

Explanation:
Nephrons are the structural and functional filtration unit of kidney that serve in filtration, reabsorption and secretion.

Question 3.

How can we purify the blood by artificial methods?

(A) Filtration
(B) Dialysis
(C) Reabsorption
(D) All of these
Answer:
(B) Dialysis

Explanation:
Urea is the main waste present in the urine.

Question 4.

The main waste present in the urine is:

(A) Glucose
(B) Urea
(C) Blood
(D) Protein
Answer:
(B) Urea

Explanation:
Dialysis is a procedure to remove waste products and excess fluid from the blood when the kidneys stop working properly. It often involves diverting blood to a machine to be cleaned.

Question 5.

Choose the correct path of urine in our body:

(A) kidney →tureter → urethra → urinary bladder
(B) kidney → urinary bladder → urethra → ureter
(C) kidney → ureters → urinary bladder → urethra
(D) urinary bladder → kidney → ureter → urethra
Answer:
(C) kidney → ureters → urinary bladder → urethra

Explanation:
Kidneys are the paired organs where urine formation takes place. Small muscular tube, called as ureter, extend from kidneys and carries urine to urinary bladder. The urethra is a small tube that extends from the urinary bladder to an external opening.

VI. Read the given passage and answer any of the four questions from Question l. to Question 5.

Oxygen-rich blood from the lungs comes to the thin-walled upper chamber of the heart on the left. The left upper chamber (A) then relaxes. It then contracts and the blood is allowed to enter the next chamber (B), as it expands. When the muscular left lower chamber of heart contracts the blood is pumped out to the body via aorta.

Deoxygenated blood reaches from the body to the upper chamber on the right side of heart (C) and it expands. As this part contracts, the corresponding lower chamber (D) dilates. This transfers the blood to right ventricle, which in turn pumps it to the lungs for oxygenated.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes

Question 1.

Which of these correctly represents the label A, B, C and D in the above passage?

(A) A- Left atrium, B- Left Ventricle, C- Right atrium, D- Right ventricle
(B) A- Right ventricle, B- Left atrium, C- Left Ventricle, D- Right atrium
(C) A- Right atrium, B- Right ventricle, C- Left atrium, D- Left ventricle
(D) A- Left ventricle, B- Right atrium, C- Right ventricle, D- Left atrium
Answer:
(A) A- Left atrium, B- Left Ventricle, C- Right atrium, D- Right ventricle

Explanation:
A is Left atrium, B is Left Ventricle, C is Right atrium, and D is Right ventricle.

Question 2.

Which chambers of human heart contain oxygenated blood?

(A) A and B
(B) A and C
(C) C and B
(D) C and D
Answer:
(A) A and B

Explanation:
A (Left atrium) and B (Left ventricle) contain oxygenated blood from lungs.

Question 3.

What is the correct route of blood in a human?

(A) A → B → Lungs → C → D
(B) A → B → D → C → Lungs
(C) C → D → B→ A → Lungs
(D) C → D → Lung → A → B
Answer:
(D) C → D → Lung → A → B

Explanation:
The correct route of blood in a human is : C (Right atrium)→ D (Right ventricle) →Lungs → A (Left atrium) → B (Left ventricle.

Question 4.

What prevents backflow of blood inside the heart during contraction?

(A) Valves in heart
(B) Thick muscular walls of ventricles
(C) Thin walls of atria
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(A) Valves in heart

Explanation:
Valves prevent the back flow of blood inside the heart during contraction of heart chambers (atria or ventricles).

Question 5.

Assertion (A): Human heart does not allow mixing of oxygen rich blood with carbon dioxide rich blood.
Reason (R): Human heart has different chambers.

(A) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of the assertion.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Human heart is four chambered. It is composed of four chambers : right atrium, right ventricle, left ventricle and left atrium. The chambers are separated by a muscular wall that prevents the mixing of the blood rich in oxygen with the blood rich in carbon dioxide.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes

VII. Read the passage and answer any of the four questions from Question l. to Question 5.
Some experiments were carried out using Croton sp. plants to understand the process of photosynthesis. It was observed that the leaves of the plant exposed to light for longer duration accumulated more starch. However, due to presence of pre-formed starch in the leaves, it was difficult to find the net productivity on a fixed exposure to light source. Therefore, it was necessary to obtain starch free leaves in the plant before starting the experiment.

Question 1.

Which of the following would help obtain starch free leaves in the plant?

(A) Expose the leaves to blue light for 48 hours before starting the experiment.
(B) Keep the plant in dark for about 48 hours before starting the experiment.
(C) Remove starch from the leaves by exosmosis, 48 hours before starting the experiment.
(D) Keep the leaves to red light for 48 hours before starting the experiment.
Answer:
(B) Keep the plant in dark for about 48 hours before starting the experiment.

Explanation:
The starch free leaves can be j obtained by keeping the plant in dark, so that 1 already present starch is utilized in 48 hrs.

Question 2.

After a period of illumination, the leaves were boiled in alcohol to make them colourless. Which of the following could be used to test the end product stored in the leaves?

(A) Cobalt chloride paper
(B) Litmus paper
(C) Iodine solution
(D) Copper sulphate solution
Answer:
(C) Iodine solution

Explanation:
Starch presence can be tested by adding iodine solution which gives bluish black colour of starch iodine mixture.

Question 3.

Some of the starch free leaves were coated with wax on both the surfaces. The plant was maintained under normal environmental conditions. At the end of the experiment, the wax coated leaves are likely to show .

(A) Accumulation of more water.
(B) Wilting of the wax coated leaves.
(C) Increase in sucrose accumulation.
(D) Decrease in number of chloroplasts
Answer:
(B) Wilting of the wax coated leaves.

Explanation:
Wilting occurs due to wax blocks the transpiration so water transportation inhibits.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes

Question 4.

During the morning hours, using a fine blade, an incision was made to the leaves such that the phloem tissue was cut open. Analysis of the liquid oozing out was found to contain high amount of:

(A) Xylose
(B) Ribose
(C) Sucrose
(D) Galactose
Answer:
(C) Sucrose

Explanation:
The transport of glucose, occurs in the form of sucrose, in phloem therefore, when cell sap oozes out, liquid contains sucrose.

Question 5.

The equation given below represents photosynthesis. Identify P and Question
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes 6

(A) P – Carbon dioxide, Q – Oxygen
(B) P – Oxygen, Q – Oxygen
(C) P – Carbon dioxide, Q – Carbon dioxide
(D) P – Oxygen, Q – Carbon dioxide
Answer:
(A) P – Carbon dioxide, Q – Oxygen

Explanation:
The process by which autotrophs take in CO2 and H2 O and convert these into carbohydrates in the presence of chlorophyll, and sunlight is called photosynthesis.
Equation for photosynthesis is :
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes 7

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements

Periodic Classification of Elements Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Question 1.

The positions of four elements A, B, C and D in the modern periodic table are shown below. Which element is most likely to form an acidic oxide?

(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
Answer:
(C) C

Explanation:
Element C to form an acidic oxide because it lies in non-metal category.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 2.

Elements P, Q, R and S have atomic numbers 11,15, 17 and 18 respectively. Which of them are reactive non-metals?

(A) P and Q
(B) P and R
(C) Q and R
(D) R and S
Answer:
(C) Q and R

Explanation:
Element Q and R are reactive non-metals because they have great tendency to accept the electrons to occupy the stable state configuration.

Question 3.

Consider the following statements about an element ‘X’ with number of protons 13.

(A) It forms amphoteric oxide.
(B) Its valency is three.
(C) The formula of its chloride isHCl.
(D) The correct statements(s) is/are:

(A) only (A)
(B) only (B)
(C) (A) and (C)
(D) (A), (B) and (C)
Answer:
Option (A) and (B) is correct.

Question 4.

Upto which element, the Law of Octaves was found to be applicable ?

(A) Oxygen
(B) Calcium
(C) Cobalt
(D) Potassium
Answer:
(B) Calcium

Explanation:
It was found that the Law of Octaves was applicable only upto calcium, as after calcium every eighth element did not possess properties similar to that of the first.

Question 5.

According to Mendeleev’s Periodic Law, the elements were arranged in the periodic table in the order of

(A) increasing atomic number
(B) decreasing atomic number
(C) increasing atomic masses
(D) decreasing atomic masses R
Answer:
(C) increasing atomic masses

Explanation:
Mendeleev arranged the known elements according to increasing order of their atomic masses because according to him, fundamental property of an element was atomic mass.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 6.

In Mendeleev’s periodic table, gaps were left for the elements to be discovered later. Which of the following elements found a place in the periodic table later ?

(A) Germanium
(B) Chlorine
(C) Oxygen
(D) Silicon
Answer:
(A) Germanium

Explanation:
Many gaps for the undiscovered elements were left in the periodic table by Mendeleev. For instance, the elements scandium (Sc), gallium (Ga), and germanium (Ge) were not known at Mendeleev’s time, but he had predicted their existence in advance of their discovery.

Question 7.

What type of oxide would Eka- aluminium form?

(A) EO3
(B) E2O2
(C) E2O3
(D) EO
Answer:
(C) E2O3

Explanation:
Since, Aluminium forms its oxide as Al(C) E2O3O(C) E2O3. Hence, Formula of oxide is E2O3.

Explanation:
Since, Aluminium forms its oxide as Al(C) E2O3O(C) E2O3. Hence, Formula of oxide is E2O3.

Question 8.

Which of these does not represent Dobereiner’s triad?

(A) Li, Na, K
(B) Cl, Br, I
(C) Be, Mg, Ca
(D) N P As
Answer:
(D) N P As
Explanation:
N, P and As will not represent Dobereiner’s triad. It is because; the average of atomic masses of Nitrogen and Arsenic is not equal to atomic mass of phosphorus.

Question 9.

An element ‘X’ is forming an acidic oxide. Its position in modern periodic table will be:

(A) Group 1 and Period 3
(B) Group 2 and Period 3
(C) Group 13 and Period 3
(D) Group 16 and Period 3
Answer:
Option (D) is correct.

Explanation:
Group 16 and Period 3. Non-metals form acidic oxides.

Question 10.

Where would you locate the element with electronic configuration 2, 8 in the Modern Periodic Table?

(A) Group 8
(B) Group 2
(C) Group 18
(D) Group 10
Answer:
(C) Group 18

Explanation:
Element with electronic configuration 2, 8 has octet configuration, so must be placed in group 18.

Question 11.

Which of the following is the outermost shell for elements of period 2?

(A) K shell
(B) L shell
(C) M shell
(D) N shell
Answer:
(B) L shell

Explanation:
The elements of 2nd period contain two shells, K and L shell.

Question 12.

Arrange the following elements in the order of their decreasing metallic character: Na, Si, Cl, Mg, Al.

(A) Cl > Si >A1 > Mg >Na
(B) Na >Mg >A1 >Si > Cl
(C) Na > Al > Mg > Cl > Si
(D) Al > Na> Si > Ca> Mg
Answer:
(B) Na >Mg >A1 >Si > Cl

Explanation:
As we move from left to right in periodic table, metallic characters decreases and non-metallic characters increases.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 13.

Which of the following elements will form an acidic oxide?

(A) An element with atomic number 7
(B) An element with atomic number 3
(C) An element with atomic number 12
(D) An element with atomic number 19
Answer:
(A) An element with atomic number 7

Explanation:
Formation of acidic oxides is a characteristic of non-metals. Here, element with atomic number 7 is a non-metal that is nitrogen. Rest three elements are metals and hence it forms basic oxide.

Question 14.

Which of the following set of elements is written in order of their increasing metallic character?

(A) Be, Mg, Ca
(B) Na, Li, K
(C) Mg, Al, Si
(D) C,0,N
Answer:
(A) Be, Mg, Ca

Explanation:
As we move down in a group, metallic nature increases. Be, Mg and Ca belong to same group that is group 2 of Modern Periodic table.

Question 15.

Which of the following are the characteristics of isotopes of an element?

(i) Isotopes of an element have same atomic masses.
(ii) Isotopes of an element have same atomic number.
(iii) Isotopes of an element show same physical properties.
(iv) Isotopes of an element show same chemical properties.

(A) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iv) [R
Answer:
(D) (ii) and (iv) [R

Explanation:
Isotopes are the atoms of the same element which have same atomic number but different number of neutrons hence their atomic masses are different.

Question 16.

Which of the following statements is not a correct statement about the trends when going from left to right across the periods of periodic table?

(A) The elements become less metallic in nature
(B) The number of valence electrons increases
(C) The atoms lose their electrons more easily
(D) The oxides become more acidic.
Answer:
(C) The atoms lose their electrons more easily

Explanation:
The atoms lose their electrons more easily. Because on moving from left to right across the periods of the periodic table, the non-metallic character increases. Hence, the tendency to lose electrons decreases.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions : In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is true.

Question 1.

Assertion (A): Mendeleev arranged element in horizontal rows and vertical columns.
Reason (R): Mendeleev ignored the order of atomic weight thinking that the atomic measurements might be incorrect.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Mendeleev arranged elements in horizontal rows and vertical columns. He ignored the order of atomic weight thinking that the atomic measurements might be incorrect and placed the elements with similar properties.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 2.

Assertion (A): Mendeleev left the gap under aluminium and silicon and called these Eka-aluminium and Eka-silicon, respectively. Reason (R): Dobereiner arranged elements on the basis of increasing atomic number.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Dobereiner arranged elements on the basis of increasing atomic weights.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): In triad, the three elements have same gaps of atomic masses.
Reason (R): Elements in a triad have similar properties.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is true.

Explanation:
In a triad, the atomic mass of the middle element is the mean of the atomic masses of the first and third elements.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): According to Mendeleev, periodic properties of elements is a function of their atomic number.
Reason (R): Atomic number is equal to the number of protons.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is true.

Explanation:
According to Mendeleev, periodic properties of elements is a function of their atomic masses.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): Sixth and seventh periods in the periodic table contains 14 elements.
Reason (R): In the periodic table, 14 elements of sixth and seventh periods are known as lanthanoids and actinoids.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is true.

Explanation:
Sixth period contains 32 elements and seventh period is incomplete and like sixth, the period would have 32 elements.

Question 6.

Assertion (A): Be and A1 show some similar properties.
Reason (R): The metallic radius of Be is less than the metallic radius of Al.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Be and Al show diagonal relationship because Be resembles in its properties with Al. Metallic radius of the Be (111 pm) is less than the metallic radius of Al (143 pm). Although smaller size is the reason for the anomalous behaviour of Be but not a reason for its diagonal relation with Al.

Question 7.

Assertion (A): The atomic and ionic radii generally decrease towards right in a period.
Reason (R): The ionisation enthalpy increases on moving towards left in a period.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
The ionisation enthalpy increases on moving towards the extreme right element in period and atomic and ionic radii decreases in a period from left to right.

Question 8.

Assertion (A): Smaller the size of an atom, greater is the electronegativity.
Reason (R): Electronegativity refers to the tendency of atom to share electrons with other atom.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Electronegativity refers to the tendency of an atom to attract bonding electrons.

Question 9.

Assertion (A): Noble gases are highly reactive.
Reason (R): Noble gases have stable closed shell electronic configuration.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is true.

Explanation:
Inert gases (noble gases) are very less reactive due to stable closed shell electronic configuration like ns2, np6 or ns2.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements

Case-Based MCQs

Attempt any 4 sub-parts from each question. Each sub-part carries 1 mark.
I. Read the passage and answer any four questions from Question 1. to Question 5.
Mendeleev was a Russian chemist, who contributed the most for the development of periodic table of elements wherein the elements were arranged on the basis of their fundamental property, the atomic mass and also on the similarity of chemical properties. Only 63 elements were known at his time. He arranged the 63 elements in the increasing order of their atomic masses and found that there was a periodic recurrence of elements with similar physical and chemical properties. He observed that elements with similar properties fall in the same vertical column. These vertical columns are called groups and horizontal rows of elements are called periods. Mendeleev predicted the existence of certain elements not known at that time and named two of them as Eka-silicon and Eka-aluminium.

Question 1.

Mendeleev arranged the periodic table on the basis of their fundamental property:

(A) Atomic mass
(B) Atomic number
(C) Number of neutrons
(D) Valence electrons
Answer:
(A) Atomic mass

Explanation:
Mendeleev arranged the known elements according to increasing order of their atomic masses because according to him, fundamental property of an element was atomic mass.

Question 2.

Eka aluminium and eka silicon were later replaced respectively as:

(A) Germanium and gallium
(B) Gallium and scandium
(C) Gallium and germanium
(D) Germanium and scandium
Ans.
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Mendeleev name unnamed elements as EKA- Boron EKA- Aluminium and EKA Silicon which were later replaced as Scandium, Gallium, and germanium respectively.

Question 3.

The elements eka aluminium and eka silicon discovered by Mendeleev later found place in periodic table. Both of these elements belong to :

(A) Period 2
(B) Group 13
(C) Group 14
(D) Period 4
Answer:
(D) Period 4

Explanation:
Eka silicon replaced with Germanium : Group 14, Period 4 and Eka aluminium replaced with Gallium : Group 13, Period 4.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 4.

Mendeleev’s periodic table has :

(A) 8 groups and 7 periods
(B) 7 groups and 8 periods
(C) 7 groups and 7 periods
(D) 8 groups and 8 periods
Answer:
(A) 8 groups and 7 periods

Explanation:
Mendeleev’s periodic table consists of 8 vertical columns called ‘groups’ and 7 horizontal rows called ‘periods’.

Question 5.

How do we classify these newly discovered elements (eka-aluminium and eka-silicon)?

(A) Metals
(B) Non metals
(C) Metalloids
(D) Inert gases
Answer:
(C) Metalloids

Explanation:
The newly discovered elements were metalloids. A metalloid is an element that has properties that are intermediate between those of metals and nonmetals.

Question 1.

Which of these elements have smallest atomic size?

(A) B
(B) C
(C) D
(D) E
Answer:
(D) E

Explanation:
Element E has the smallest atomic size.

Question 2.

Write valency of element E.

(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 0
Ans.
(C) 2

Explanation:
The valency of element E is 2.

Question 3.

Identify the elements which have similar chemical properties as the element X.

(A) YandZ.
(B) Y and B
(C) All Y, Z and B
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) YandZ.

Explanation:
Y and Z have similar physical and chemical properties as X.

Question 4.

The number of period that the modern periodic table has

(A) Seven
(B) Eight
(C) Seventeen
(D) Eighteen
Answer:
(A) Seven

Explanation:
There are seven horizontal rows in the modern periodic table. These rows are called periods.

Question 5.

Which of them will have largest atomic radii:

(A) E
(B) X
(C) C
(D) D
Answer:
(B) X

Explanation:
X has the largest atomic radii. It is because atomic radii decrease from left to right along a period.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements

III. Read the passage and answer any four questions from Question 1. to Question 5.
Atoms of eight elements A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H have the same number of electronic shells but are different in their outermost shells. It was found that elements A and G combine to form an ionic compound which can also be extracted from sea water. Oxides of the elements A and B are basic in nature while those of E and F are acidic. The oxide of elements D is almost neutral.

Question 1.

Which of the following is likely to be halogen?

(A) D
(B) G
(C) H
(D) A
Answer:
(B) G

Explanation:
G belongs to group 17 as it has 7 valence electrons.

Question 2.

Which one of the following elements is likely to be a noble gas?

(A) A
(B) H
(C) D
(D) F
Answer:
(B) H

Explanation:
H belongs to group 18.

Question 3.

Which two elements amongst these are likely to be the non-metals ?

(A) A and G
(B) D and F
(C) E and F
(D) A and B
Answer:
(C) E and F

Explanation:
E and F belong to group 15 and 16 as they form acidic oxides.

Question 4.

Which one of the following will have largest atomic radii?

(A) A
(B) H
(C) G
(D) B
Answer:
(A) A

Explanation:
A has largest atomic radii.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 5.

To which period the listed elements belong?

(A) 2nd
(B) 7th
(C) 8th
(D) 3rd
Answer:
(D) 3rd

Explanation:
A and B belong to group 1 and 2 because they form basic oxides. C belongs to group 13 as it has 3 valence electrons. D belongs to group 14 as it forms almost neutral oxide. E and F belong to group 15 and 16 as they form acidic oxides, G belongs to group 17 as it has 7 valence electrons, and H to group 18. They belong to 3rd period of the periodic table.

(A) Lithium
(B) X
(C) Y
(D) Z
Answer:
(D) Z

Explanation:
Z is the most reactive metal.

Question 2.

Name the family of fluorine Q, R, T:

(A) Alkali metals
(B) Noble gas
(C) Halogens
(D) Alkaline metals
Ans.
(C) Halogens

Explanation:
The family of fluorine are Halogen.

Question 3.

Which of the following element belongs to group 2?

(A) Sodium
(B) Magnesium
(C) Aluminium
(D) Carbon
Answer:
(B) Magnesium

Explanation:
Magnesium belong to group 2.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements

Question 4.

Which other element is likely to present in the group in which fluorine is present:

(A) Neon
(B) Aluminium
(C) Chlorine
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Chlorine

Explanation:
The halogen elements are fluorine (F), chlorine (Cl), bromine (Br), iodine (I), astatine (At), and tennessine (Ts).

Question 5.

Name the element P placed below Carbon in group 14:

(A) Aluminium
(B) Silicon
(C) Phosphorus
(D) Sulphur
Answer:
(B) Silicon

Explanation:
Silicon is the element placed below carbon in group 14.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 4 Carbon and Its Compounds

Carbon and Its Compounds Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Question 1.

Which of the following is not observed in a homologous series? Give reason for your choice.

(A) Change in chemical properties
(B) Difference in CH2 and 14u molecular mass
(C) Gradation in physical properties
(D) Same functional group
Answer:
(A) Change in chemical properties

Explanation:
Change in chemical properties due to presence of same functional group.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 4 Carbon and Its Compounds

Question 2.

Ethane, with the molecular formula C2H6 has

(A) 6 covalent bonds
(B) 7 covalent bonds
(C) 8 covalent bonds
(D) 9 covalent bonds
Answer:
(B) 7 covalent bonds

Explanation:
Ethane has 7 covalent bonds. One bond is between two carbon atoms and rest of the six are between hydrogen atoms.

Question 3.

Carbon forms four covalent bonds by sharing its four valence electrons with four univalent atoms, e.g. hydrogen. After the formation of four bonds, carbon attains the electronic configuration of

(A) helium
(B) neon
(C) argon
(D) krypton
Answer:
(B) neon

Explanation:
The nearest inert gas from carbon is Neon. An element try to attain the electronic configuration of its nearest noble gas while attaining a fully-filled outermost shell.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 4 Carbon and Its Compounds

Question 4.

The correct electron dot structure of a water molecule is

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 4 Carbon and Its Compounds 1

Answer:
(C) H :Q: H
Explanation:Oxygen has a complete after octet, while each atom of hydrogen has two electrons in outermost shell.

Question 5.

Oils on treating with hydrogen in the presence of palladium or nickel catalyst form fats. This is an example of

(A) Addition reaction
(B) Substitution reaction
(C) Displacement reaction
(D) Oxidation reaction
Answer:
(A) Addition reaction

Explanation:
Hydrogenation reaction means addition of hydrogen to double bonds of unsaturated compounds found in oil in the presence of catalysts such as palladium or nickel to give saturated hydrocarbons.

Question 6.

When sodium hydrogen carbonate is added to ethanoic acid a gas evolves. Consider the following statements about the gas evolved.

(a) It turns lime water milky.
(b) It is evolved with a brisk effervescence.
(c) It has a smell of burning sulphur.
(d) It is also a byproduct of respiration.

The correct statements are :
(A) (a) and (b) only
(B) (b) and (d) only
(C) (a), (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (b) and (d)
Answer:
(D) (a), (b) and (d)

Explanation:
(a), (b) and (d). The gas evolved is carbon dioxide with brisk effervescence. It turns lime water milky. It is also a by-product of respiration.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 4 Carbon and Its Compounds

Question 7.

While cooking, if the bottom of the vessel is getting blackened on the outside, it means that

(A) the food is not cooked completely.
(B) the fuel is not burning completely.
(C) the fuel is wet.
(D) the fuel is burning completely
Answer:
(B) the fuel is not burning completely.

Explanation:
While cooking, if the bottom of the vessel is getting blackened on the outside, then it means that the fuel is not burning completely.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions : In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is true.

Question 1.

Assertion (A): In a homologous series of alcohols, the formula for the second member is C2H5OH and the third member is C3H7OH.
Reason (R): The difference between the molecular masses of the two consecutive members of a homologous series is 14u.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
In homologous series of alcohols, the formula for the second member is C2H5OH and the third member is C3H7OH. The difference between the molecular masses of the two consecutive members of a homologous series is 14u.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): Following are the members of a homologous series :
CH3OH, CH3CFI2OH,CH3CH2CH2 OH
Reason (R): A series of compounds with same functional group but differing by CH2 unit is called a homologous series.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): Following are the structural isomers of boutane.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 4 Carbon and Its Compounds 2
Reason (R): Structural isomers have the same molecular formula but they differ in their structures.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Isomers are defined as those compounds that possess same molecular formula but different structural arrangement. Butane has the molecular formulae C<sub<4H<sub<10. Therefore, the structural isomers of butane will be n-butane and iso-butane.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 4 Carbon and Its Compounds

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Third member of alkane is propane (C3H8)
Reason (R): It is obtained from general formula C2H2n + 2

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
C3H8 can be obtained from general formula, CnH2n+ 2.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): CH3Cl is obtained from CH4 by the action of Cl2 in the presence of sunlight.
Reason (R): It is obtained by addition reaction.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
CH3Cl is obtained from CH by substitution reaction by the action of Cl in the I presence of sunlight.

Question 6.

Assertion (A): Most of the carbon compounds are good conductors of electricity.
Reason (R): They do not dissociate to form ions and remain as molecules.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is true.

Explanation:
Carbon compounds are mainly poor conductors of electricity.

Case-Based MCQs

Attempt any 4 sub-parts from each question. Each sub-part carries 1 mark.

I. Read the passage and answer any four questions from Question l. to Question 5.
A homologous series is a series of organic compounds which belong to the same family (i.e. possess same functional group) and show similar chemical properties. The members of this series are called homologous and differ from each other by the number of CH units in the main carbon chain.

Question 1.

The chemical properties of which of the following compounds is similar to the butane?

(A) Butyne
(B) Propene
(C) Propyne
(D) Pentane
Answer:
(D) Pentane

Explanation:
Methane, ethane, propane, butane, pentane etc. are all part of the alkane homologous series and have similar chemical properties.

Question 2.

The difference between two consecutive members in a homologous series in alkanes in terms of molecular mass and number of atoms of elements is:

(A) 14 a.m.u and CH2 respectively
(B) 12 a.m.u and CH3 respectively
(C) 14 a.m.u and CH respectively
(D) 12 a.m.u and CH3 respectively
Answer:
(A) 14 a.m.u and CH2 respectively

Explanation:
Homologous series is a series of compounds in which the members present have the same functional group and similar chemical properties and any two successive members in a particular series differ in their molecular formula by a CH2 unit.

Question 3.

The name and structure of a saturated compound in which 6 carbon atoms are arranged in a ring is :

(A) Hexane
(B) Cyclohexane
(C) Pentane
(D) cyclopentane
Answer:
(B) Cyclohexane

Explanation:
The series like methanol, ethanol, propanol and so on is also a homologous series. The functional group attached to these compounds is alcohol.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 4 Carbon and Its Compounds

Question 4.

Which of the following is not the property of a homologous series?

(A) They show similar chemical properties.
(B) They differ by 14 units by mass.
(C) They all contain double bond
(D) They can be represented by a general formula.
Answer:
(C) They all contain double bond

Explanation:

  • The characteristics of a homologous series are:
  •  They have same general formula.
  •  Successive compounds differ by CH2 unit.
  •  Successive compounds have molecular mass difference of 14u.
  • Molecular mass increases down the series. Therefore members of homologous series show gradation in physical properties such as melting point and boiling points.
  • Members of homologous series show similar chemical properties.

Question 5.

Which of the following represent the name and formula of the 2nd member of homologous series having general formula Cn H2n + 2 ?

(A) Methane CH4
(B) Ethane C2H6
(C) Ethene C2H4
(D) Ethyne C2H6
Answer:
(B) Ethane C2 H6

Explanation:
Methane, ethane, propane, butane, etc. are all part of the alkane homologous series. The general formula of this series is CnH2n+2.

II. Read the given passage and answer any of the four questions from Question l. to Question 5.
Carbon has the unique property to form bonds with other atoms of carbon.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 4 Carbon and Its Compounds 3

Question 1.

Name the characteristic property of carbon as depicted in the fig. A

(A) Catenation
(B) Polymerisation
(C) Isomerisation
(D) None of the above.
Answer:
(A) Catenation
Explanation:
Carbon forms bond with other atoms of carbon. This property of carbon is known as catenation.

Question 2.

Carbon forms large number of compounds due to :

(A) Catenation only
(B) Tetravalency only
(C) Both catenation and tetravalency
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Both catenation and tetravalency

Explanation:
Carbon forms large number of compounds due to the following:
(i) Catenation: Carbon forms bond with other atoms of carbon.
(ii) Tetravalency: Carbon share four electrons with other atoms.

Question 3.

Write the name and structure of a saturated compound in which 6 carbon atoms are arranged in a ring.

(A) Hexane
(B) Cyclohexane
(C) Pentane
(D) cyclopentane
Answer:
(B) Cyclohexane

Explanation:
Cyclohexane is the carbon compounds in which carbon atoms are arranged in the form of a ring. It is a cyclic carbon compounds. Its structure is :
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 4 Carbon and Its Compounds 4

Question 4.

Give the number of single bonds present in the above mentioned compound.

(A) 16
(B) 14
(C) 6
(D) 18
Answer:
(D) 18

Explanation:
The chemical bond formed by the sharing of electrons between the atoms is known as a covalent bond. The total no. of single bonds in cyclohexane (C6H12) is 18.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 4 Carbon and Its Compounds

Question 5.

Carbon is :

(A) Divalent
(B) Monovalent
(C) tetravalent
(D) Trivalent
Answer:
(C) tetravalent

Explanation:
Carbon has valency of four. It is capable of bonding with four other atoms of carbon or atoms of some other monovalent element. Carbon can form bond with Oxygen, Hydrogen, Nitrogen, Sulphur, Chlorine and many other elements giving rise to compounds with specific properties.

III. Read the passage and answer any four questions Question l. to Question 5.

An organic compound A of molecular formula C2H4 on reduction gives another compound B of molecular formula C2H6. B on reaction with chlorine in the presence of sunlight gives C of molecular formula C7H.Cl.

Question 1.

The compounds A, B and C are:

(A) A: ethene B: ethane C: chloroethane
(B) A: ethane B: ethyne C: chloromethane
(C) A: ethyne B: ethane C: chloroethane
(D) A: ethene B: ethyne C: chloroethane
Answer:
(A) A: ethene B: ethane C: chloroethane

Explanation:
The compound is A: CH2 = CH2 (Ethene), B is CH3—CH3(Ethane) and C is CH3—CH2—Cl (Chloroethane)

Question 2.

Unsaturated hydrocarbons undergo…………… reaction.

(A) Substitution
(B) Halogenation
(C) Addition
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(C) Addition

Explanation:
Unsaturated hydrocarbons undergo addition reactions. In unsaturated hydrocarbon, hydrogen added in the presence of catalyst palladium or nickel.

Question 3.

Which of these statements is correct regarding addition reaction?

(A) Addition of hydrogen does not require catalyst.
(B) Multiple bonds (double and triple bonds) must be present between carbon atoms in the chain of hydrocarbon.
(C) Multiple bonds are not required for the reaction to take place.
(D) None of the above.
Answer:
(B) Multiple bonds (double and triple bonds) must be present between carbon atoms in the chain of hydrocarbon.

Explanation:
Essential conditions required for the addition reaction to occur:
(i) Multiple bonds (double and triple bonds) must be present between carbon atoms in the chain of hydrocarbon.
(ii) Addition of hydrogen should be carried out in the presence of catalyst such as nickel or platinum.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 4 Carbon and Its Compounds

Question 4.

The general formula for alkene is:

(A) CnH2n
(B) CnH2n+2
(C) CnH2n-2
(D) CnH2n+1
Answer:
(A) CnH2n

Explanation:
The General formula for alkenes are CnH2n, where n = number of carbon atoms. C2H4,C4H6,C4H8.

Question 5.

Choose the correct condition for conversion of ethene to ethane:

(A) Dehydrogenation at 450°C
(B) Hydrogenation in presence of catalyst like nickel or platinum
(C) Photolytic decomposition
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(B) Hydrogenation in presence of catalyst like nickel or platinum

Explanation:
Hydrogenation of ethene forms ethane in the presence of metal catalyst like Nickel at high temperature. This reaction is called hydrogenation reaction.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 4 Carbon and Its Compounds 5

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

 

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Case Based MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 8 Biomechanics and Sports

Biomechanics and Sports Class 12 Case Based MCQ Questions

Case-Based Questions

Case Study 1

Altaf, a new student in the school was very much interested / in taking part in the school sports events. He was taught the latest rules and regulations of football game. In due course, he learnt biomechanical aspects of the game including various movements.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 8 Biomechanics and Sports Part 1 11

Question 1.

The type of movement in which the angle between joint decreases is called:

(a) flexion
(b) extension
(c) gliding
(d) sliding
Answer:
(a) flexion

Case Based MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 8 Biomechanics and Sports

Question 2.

Straightening parts of a joint so that the angle increases:

(a) flexion
(b) extention
(c) abduction
(d) adduction
Answer:
(b) extention

Question 3.

Moving a part away from mid line is:

(a) flexion
(b) extension
(c) abduction
(d) adduction
Answer:
(c) abduction

Question 4.

Moving a part towards the mid line is:

(a) flexion
(b) extension
(c) abduction
(d) adduction
Answer:
(d) Adduction

Question 5.

Flexion and extension comes under movement.

(a) gliding
(b) angular
(c) rotation
(d) circumduction
Answer:
(b) angular

Case Study 2

Abhishek, the Class 12 monitor, was asked to speak on different types of movements possible in human body and their importance. He talked about four basic movements namely flexion, extension, abduction and adduction. Rest of the movements at different joints are combinations of these four basic movements. He also demonstrated about dorsiflexion and planter flexion movements.

Question 1.

What movement that he demonstrated were possible at the shoulder joint?

(a) Gliding
(b) Angular
(c) circumduction
(d) Rotation
Answer:
(c) Circumduction

Question 2.

At what joint do dorsiflexion and planter flexion movements take place?

(a) Knee joint
(b) Shoulder joint
(c) Ankle joint
(d) Hip joint
Answer:
(c) Ankle joint

Question 3.

Which is the maximum range of movement possible at any joint?

(a) 90 degree
(b) 180 degree
(c) 270 degree
(d) 360 degree
Answer:
(d) 360 degree

Case Based MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 8 Biomechanics and Sports

Case Study 3

In biomechanics class, Gopi, the teacher, brings the students to the physics lab of his school. The students get confuse(d) After the completion of the class, they realized the fact.

Question 1.

Why does the teacher bring the students to physics lab for biomechanics class?

(a) To explain the principle of Physics
(b) To explain the law of inertia
(c) To discuss about law of acceleration
(d) To explain the law of reaction
Answer:
(a) To explain the principle of Physics

Question 2.

Biomechanics is associated with:

(a) Mechanics
(b) Physics
(c) Mechanics and Physics
(d) Mechanics and Anatomy
Answer:
(d) Mechanics and Anatomy

Question 3.

Biomechanics is the science concerned with the:

(a) internal forces
(b) external forces
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and b.

Case Study 4

While talking about Newton’s laws of motion and their application in sports, a Physical Education teacher gave examples from cycling, swimming and cricket. He also told that while cycling, the cyclists only move when they start to pedal and stop only when they apply brakes. While swimming, the swimmers use the wall of the pool to generate the force needed to take off.

Question 1.

Which law is applied to cyclists?

(a) Law of inertia
(b) Law of acceleration
(c) Law of reaction
(d) Law of momentum
Answer:
(a) Law of inertia

Case Based MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 8 Biomechanics and Sports

Question 2.

Which law is in force when the swimmer pushes off the wall of the swimming pool to start the race?

(a) Law of inertia
(b) Law of acceleration –
(c) Law of reaction
(d) Law of momentum
Answer:
(b) Law of acceleration

Question 3.

Which law is in play when the ball is hit by the batsman?

(a) Law of inertia
(b) Law of acceleration
(c) Law of reaction
(d) Law of momentum
Answer:
(c) Law of reaction.

Case Study 5

During the physical education class Newton’s Laws of motion were discussed and their practical application in sports events was explained to students. These laws are most relevant in sports as most of the actions in sports are related to these laws.

Question 1.

What is the relationship between mass and force?

(a) Directly proportional
(b) No relationship
(c) Inversely proportional
(d) Both (a) and c.
Answer:
(c) Inversely proportional

Case Based MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 8 Biomechanics and Sports

Question 2.

The acceleration of an object depends inversely upon the object’s:

(a) weight
(b) mass
(c) height
(d) density
Answer:
(b) mass

Question 3.

A high jumper can jump higher off a solid surface because it opposes his or her body with as much force as he or she is able to generate. This example refers to:

(a) Law of conservation
(b) Law of inertia
(c) Law of action and reaction
(d) Law of gravity
Answer:
(c) Law of action and reaction

Case Study 6

The teachers as well as coaches always make their best efforts to improve the performance of their students in various competitive games and sports. They can help to improve the performance of students if they have adequate knowledge of biomechanics.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 8 Biomechanics and Sports Part 1 12

Question 1.

The more force one exerts on the downward bounce, the higher the ball bounces into the air. Which law in this statement being referred to?

(a) Newton’s 1st law
(b) Newton’s 2nd law
(c) Newton’s 3rd law
(d) Law of gravitation
Answer:
(c) Newton’s 3rd law .

Question 2.

The acceleration of an object depends directly upon the net force acting upon the object and inversely upon the object’s:

(a) weight
(b) mass
(c) height
(d) density
Answer:
(b) mass

Case Based MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 8 Biomechanics and Sports

Question 3.

The study of human body and various forces acting on it is:

(a) Biology
(b) Biomechanics
(c) Physiology
(d) Anatomy
Answer:
(b) Biomechanics

Case Study 7

Mr Sunder is a Physical Education teacher in a government school. Ramesh, a student is a long jumper but his landing is improper. So he could not win the event on sports day in the school. So Ramesh approached Mr Sunder to seek his help to improve his performance. Mr Sunder explained to Ramesh the proper technique to be followed so as to have the correct body posture while landing. Mr Sunder also motivated Ramesh to constantly practise this technique to perfect it. After the one year of training, Ramesh won the gold medal in the Inter Zonal Athletic Meet.

Question 1.

What was the problem faced by Ramesh?

(a) Improper landing in long jump event
(b) Not winning any medal
(c) improper performance
(d) Incorrect body posture
Answer:
(a) Improper landing in long jump event

Question 2.

Why did Ramesh approached Mr Sunder?

(a) To follow proper technique
(b) To seek help to improve his performance
(c) To win the medal
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) To seek help to improve his performance

Question 3.

Mention the reason why Mr Sunder explained Ramesh to follow proper technique.

(a) To have correct body posture
(b) To improve his movements while playing
(c) To have perfection in long jump
(d) So that he could win the medal in the Inter Zonal Athletic Meet
Answer:
(a) To have correct body posture

Case Based MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 8 Biomechanics and Sports

Assertion-Reason Type Questions

Directions (Q.NOS. 85-94): Each of che following questions consists of two statements, one is Assertion (A) and the other is Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a) (b) (c) and (d) as given below:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

Question 1.

Assertion (A): Biomechanics plays a vital role in the enhancement of performance of an athlete.
Reason (R): Biom echanics helps the athletes in the prevention of several serious injuries.

Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): The magnitude of the force of friction depends on the roughness of the surface.
Reason (R): When both the surfaces are smooth, the force of friction reduces to almost zero.

Answer:
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): Biomechanics aims to achieve performance enhancement in sports.
Reason (R) : Qualitative analysis helps in technique improvement and injury prevention.

Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

Case Based MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 8 Biomechanics and Sports

Question 4.

Assertion (A): The primary purpose of biomechanics is to evaluate a living organism’s motion as well as its application of force.
Reason (R) : Biomechanics is the study of forces and their effects on living systems.

Answer:
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): Angular motion decreases or increases the angle between two adjoining bones.
Reason (R): Extension is a type of angular motion.

Answer:
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 6.

Assertion (A): Circumduction takes place between the head of a bone and its articular cavity.
Reason (R) : It is a compound circular movement which involves flexion, extension, adduction and abduction.

Answer:
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Case Based MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 8 Biomechanics and Sports

Question 7.

Assertion (A): Rotation is moving a part around an axis.
Reason (R): Rotation is seen in shoulder and hip joints.

Answer:
(c) A is true but R is false.

Question 8.

Assertion (A): A high jumper can jump higher off a solid surface.
Reason (R): The solid surface opposes his/her body with as much force as he/she is able to generate in contrast to sand or any other unstable surface.

Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

Case Based MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 8 Biomechanics and Sports

Question 9.

Assertion (A): Law of acceleration is applied in various sports.
Reason (R): If two equal forces are applied to objects of equal mass, the object that has greater force applied will move faster.

Answer:
(c) A is true but R is false.

Question 10.

Assertion (A): Law of acceleration is the second law of motion.
Reason (R) : For every action, there is always an equal and opposite reaction.

Answer:
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education with Answers

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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 8 Biomechanics and Sports Part 2

Biomechanics and Sports Class 12 MCQ Questions Part 2

Question 1.

On ‘set’ command the sprinter is in:

(a) stable equilibrium
(b) unstable equilibrium
(c) neutral equilibrium
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) unstable equilibrium

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 8 Biomechanics and Sports Part 2

Question 2.

Muscles which cause the joints to bend are called:

(a) flexors
(b) extensors
(c) abductors
(d) adductors
Answer:
(c) abductors

Question 3.

Match the following:

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 8 Biomechanics and Sports Part 1 10 b

(a) 1-A. 2-B, 3-C
(b) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B
(c)1-B, 2-A, 3-C
(d)1-A. 2-C, 3-B

Answer:
(c) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C

Question 4.

Abduction and adduction take place about which axis?

(a) ObliQuestion ue
(b) Longitudinal or vertical
(c) Frontal or mediolateral
(d) Sagittal or anteroposterior
Answer:
(d) Sagittal or anteroposterior

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 8 Biomechanics and Sports Part 2

Question 5.

In normal walking at a person’s preferred speed, the ratio of the durations of the stance and swing phases is roughly:

(a) one
(b) two to’three
(c) two to one
(d) three to two
Answer:
(d) three to two

Question 6.

In the action phase of a counter movement vertical jump from a standing position, the leg joints:

(a) are synchronised, extending for plantar flexing together.
(b) are synchronised, extending or plantar flexing together
(c) extend or plantar flex seQuestion uentially
(d) flex or dorsiflex seQuestion uentially
Answer:
(a) are synchronised, extending for plantar flexing together.

Question 7.

Internal and external rotation are movements in which anatomical plane?

(a) Sagittal
(b) Frontal
(c) Horizontal (transverse)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Horizontal (transverse)

Question 8.

Movements that occur primarily in the sagittal plane are:

(a) adduction, lateral flexion, flexion, dorsiflexion
(b) flexion, extension, dorsiflexion, plantar flexion
(c) flexion, extension, dorsiflexion, internal-external rotation
(d) supination and pronation of the forearm
Answer:
(b) flexion, extension, dorsiflexion, plantar flexion

Question 9.

Which of the following correctly identify the human movements?

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 8 Biomechanics and Sports Part 1 8
(a) A-Inversion, B-Circumduction
(b) A-Circumduction, B-Inversion
(c) A-Dorsiflexion, B-Circumduction
(d) A-Circumduction, B-Eversion
Answer:
(b) A-Circumduction, B-Inversion

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 8 Biomechanics and Sports Part 2

Question 10.

Which of the following movements are fundamental to sport and exercise?

(a) Walking, running, jumping, kicking
(b) Walking, rolling, jumping, bowling
(c) Lifting, running, jumping, throwing
(d) Walking, running, jumping, throwing
Answer:
(d) Walking, running, jumping, throwing.

Question 11.

Which of the following movements are most characteristic of over arm as opposed to side arm or under arm throws?

(a) Abduction-adduction of the upper arm
(b) Flexion-extension of the upper arm
(c) External-internal rotation of the upper arm
(d) Rotation of the pelvis and trunk with the arm abducted
Answer:
(c) External-internal rotation of the upper arm.

Question 12.

Match the following:

List IList II
(A) Flexion(i) increase in angle
(B) Extension(ii) away from midline of body
(C) Abduction(iii) towards the midline of body
(D) Adduction(iv) decrease in angle

(a) (A)-iv, (B)-i, (C)-iii, (D)-ii
(b) (C)-ii, (D)-iii, (A)-i, (B)-iv
(c) (A)-iv, (B)-i, (C)-ii, (D)-iii
(d) (C)-i, (D)-iv, (A)-iii, (B)-ii
Answer:
(b) (C)-ii, (D)-iii, (A)-i, (B)-iv

Question 13.

Which of the following is a major problem in qualitative analysis of sports movements?

(a) Communicating the results to a coach.
(b) Managing the large amounts of numerical data generated by the analysis.
(c) Establishing reliability by objectivity.
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Establishing reliability by objectivity.

Question 14.

The movements around ball and socket joints are:

(a) flexion and extension
(b) rotation and circumduction
(c) hyper extension
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 15.

Find the correct option for the following human movements:

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 8 Biomechanics and Sports Part 1 9

(a) A-Dorsiflexion, B-Inversion
(b) A-inversion, B-Circumduction
(c) A-Dorsiflexion, B-Eversion
(d) A-Inversion, B-Eversion
Answer:
(c) A-Dorsiflexion, B-Eversion

Question 16.

Which of the following is most likely to result in the longest standing long jump distance?

(a) One with a normal arm swing.
(b) One with no arm movements.
(c) One with arms moving backwards-the opposite direction from a normal jump.
(d) They would all produce the same jump distance.
Answer:
(a) One with a normal arm swing.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 8 Biomechanics and Sports Part 2

Question 17.

Ball and socket joints are an example of:

(a) rotation
(b) gliding
(c) planter flexion
(d) dorsi flexion
Answer:
(a) rotation

Question 18.

Hip and shoulder joints can do:

(a) circumduction
(b) gliding
(c) planter flexion
(d) dorsi flexion
Answer:
(a) circumduction

Question 19.

……… of the hip squeezes the legs towards each other.

(a) Flexion
(b) Extension
(c) Abduction
(d) Adduction
Answer:
(d) Adduction

Question 20.

Which of the following Laws of Motion given by Sir Issac Newton is also known as ‘Law of Inertia?’

(a) Second law
(b) Third law
(c) First law
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) First law

Question 21.

Which one of the following is an example of the Law of Inertia?

(a) Soccer
(b) Softball
(c) Basketball
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 22.

A body at rest tends to remain at rest and that in motion tends to continue in motion with constant speed is known as:

(a) Law of inertia
(b) Law of acceleration
(c) Law of reaction
(d) Gravitational pull
Answer:
(a) Law of inertia

Question 23.

Newton gave laws of motion.

(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) ten
Answer:
(b) three

Question 24.

Which one of the following is not a law of motion?

(a) Law of inertia
(b) Law of reaction
(c) Law of readiness
(d) Law of acceleration
Answer:
(c) Law of readiness

Question 25.

Which one of the following is an example of the law of inertia?

(a) Starting in rowing
(b) Stating on roman rings
(c) Raising an opponent in wrestling
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 26.

Match the following:

List IList II
(A) Abduction1. Decreasing in Angle
(B) Newton’s 2nd law2. Frictional force
(C) Force that opposse3. Away from midline movement
(D) Flexion4. Law of Acceleration

(a) (A)-3, (B)-4, (C)-2, (D)-1
(b) (A)-4, (B)-3, (C)-2, (D)-1
(c) (A)-4, (B)-3, (C)-1, (D)-2
(d) (A)-2, (D)-4, (B)-3, (C)-1
Answer:
(a) (A)-3, (B)-4, (C)-2, (D)-1. .

Question 27.

Match the following:

List IList II
(A) Mechanical friction1. Increased in angle
(B) Law of Inertia2. Object are solid comes in contract
(C) Take off high jump3. 3rd law of motion
(D) Extensio4. Things Remains in its position

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 8 Biomechanics and Sports Part 2

(a) (A)-2, (B)-4, (C)-3, (D)-2
(b) (A)-4, (B)-2, (C)-3, (D)-1
(c) (A)-4, (B)-2, (C)-1, (D)-3
(d) (A)-3, (B)-2, (C)-1, (D)-4
Answer:
(b) (A)-4, (B)-2, (C)-3, (D)-1

Question 28.

Newton’s first law of motion is known as:

(a) Law of inertia
(b) law of acceleration
(c) Law of reaction
(d) Gravitational pull
Answer:
(a) Law of Inertia

Question 29.

The law of acceleration is also known as:

(a) law of inertia
(b) law of action and reaction
(c) law of momentum
(d) boyle’s law
Answer:
(b) law of action and reaction

Question 30.

Which of Newton’s laws of motion deals with acceleration?

(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) 5econd

Question 31.

A basketball shot towards the basket follows a parabolic path due to

(a) friction with the air
(b) effect of Newton’s third law of motion
(c) gravitation
(d) All of the above Answer:
(c) gravitation

Question 32.

Newton’s second law of motion is also known as:

(a) law of inertia
(b) law of action-reaction
(c) law of acceleration
(d) law of gravitation
Answer:
(c) law of acceleration

Question 33.

Which one of the following is not the part of Newton’s second law?

(a) Force
(b) Mass
(c) Acceleration
(d) Laceration
Answer:
(d) Laceration

Question 34.

Second Newton’s law of motion deals with

(a) law of inertia
(b) opposite reaction
(c) acceleration
(d) extension
Answer:
(c) acceleration.

Question 35.

In cricket, the greater the force exerted by the bat on the ball, ‘ the higher is the speed with which the ball moves towards the boundary. This is an application of which law of motion given by Newton?

(a) First law
(b) Second law
(c) Third law
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Second law

Question 36.

An athlete performing a hammer throw is an example of which law of motion?

(a) Law of inertia
(b) Law of acceleration
(c) Law of reaction
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Law of acceleration

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 8 Biomechanics and Sports Part 2

Question 37.

Which of the following Newton’s laws of motion applies to an athelte performing a high jump off a solid surface?

(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) Third

Question 38.

Outcome of vertical jump relate with which law of motion?

(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Third

Question 39.

In the long jump take off which law works?

(a) 1st law of Newton
(b) 2nd law of Newton
(c) 3rd law of Newton
(d) Law of conservation of mass
Answer:
(c) 3rd law of Newton.

Question 40.

Which one of the following is an example of the Law of Reaction?

(a) Bouncing on trampoline
(b) Springing on the diving board
(c) Thrust against the water in swimming
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 41.

An athlete covering 100 m distance in 10 seconds, ran at a speed of:

(a) 10 m/s
(b) 100 m/s
(c) 20 m/s
(d) 1000 m/s
Answer:
(a) 10 m/s

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 8 Biomechanics and Sports Part 2

Question 42.

In swimming, a swimmer gets propelled faster in the forward direction if she pushes the water faster in the backward direction. This is an application of which law of motion was given by Newton?

(a) First law
(b) Second law
(c) Third law
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Third law.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 8 Biomechanics and Sports Part 2 Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 8 Biomechanics and Sports Part 1

Biomechanics and Sports Class 12 MCQ Questions Part 1

Question 1.

The study of human body and various forces acting on it is:

(a) biology
(b) biomechanics
(c) physiology
(d) anatomy
Answer:
(d) biomechanics

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 8 Biomechanics and Sports Part 1

Question 2.

Biomechanics helps in which of the following?

(a) In improving techniQuestion ue
(b) In improving designs of sports eQuestion uipment
(c) In improving performance
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 3.

Biomechanics helps in……..

(a) treating injuries to sportspersons
(b) improving performance of athletes
(c) increasing friction between the athlete and the ground surface
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) improving performance of athletes

Question 4.

Study of the structure, function and motion of the mechanical aspects of biological systems is called as:

(a) biomechanics
(b) kinesiology
(c) physiology
(d) psychology
Answer:
(a) biomechanics

Question 5.

Biomechanics refers to the study of human movements, including……….

(a) interaction between the athletes
(b) sports eQuestion uipment
(c) exercise environment
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 8 Biomechanics and Sports Part 1

Question 6.

Biomechanics is branch of physics in combination……… with which understands the human movements in a scientific way.

(a) chemistry
(b) sociology
(c) biology
(d) psychology
Answer:
(c) biology

Question 7.

Biomechanics deals with:

(a) muscles involved in movement
(b) effect of force on different movements done by human body
(c) to understand the physiology of the body
(d) to understand time and distance concept of various movement
Answer:
(b) effect of force on different movements done by human body

Question 8.

Mechanics is the branch of physics that deals with bodies:

(a) at rest
(b) in motion
(c) Both (a) and (d)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) in motion

Question 9.

Biomechanics helps in which of the following?

(a) In improving techniQuestion ue
(b) In improving designs of sports eQuestion uipment
(c) In improving teaching and learning
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 8 Biomechanics and Sports Part 1

Question 10.

How do we define the phases into which we often break fundamental movements to simplify biomechanical analysis?

(a) Biomechanically distinct functions and easily identified boundaries.
(b) Easily identified functions and clearly defined boundaries.
(c) Anatomically distinct functions and easily identified boundaries.
(d) Medically distinct functions and clearly defined boundaries
Answer:
(a) Biomechanically distinct functions and easily identified boundaries.

Question 11.

The law of gravity is an example of a law of motion studied in the body of knowledge called:

(a) chemistry
(b) physics
(c) mechanics
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) mechanics

Question 12.

When the angle between the two bones decreases, it is termed as:

(a) flexion
(b) extension
(c) abduction
(d) adduction
Answer:
(a) flexion

Question 13.

Which of the following is not a type of movment related to physical activity?

(a) Extension
(b) Adduction
(c) Abduction
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) None of these

Question 14.

When a joint reduces the angle between the bones at the joint, the movement is called:

(a) Abduction
(b) Adduction
(c) Flexion
(d) Extension
Answer:
(c) Flexion

Question 15.

If a segment come towards Line of body, movement is known as:

(a) alexion
(b) extension
(c) adduction
(d) abduction
Answer:
(a) Flexion

Question 16.

Which of the following occur in the sagittal plane about the frontal axis?

(a) Flexion
(b) Adduction
(c) Abduction
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Flexion

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 8 Biomechanics and Sports Part 1

Question 17.

Identify the following human movement:

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 8 Biomechanics and Sports Part 1 3

(a) flexion
(b) extension
(c) abduction
(d) adduction
Answer:
(a) flexion

Question 18.

Bending of elbow when our hand is going towards our chest is:

(a) flexion
(b) extension
(c) abduction
(d) adduction
Answer:
(a) flexion

Question 19.

A decrease in the angle between the femur and the tibia because of the movement of the knee is an example of which type of movement?

(a) Flexion
(b) Extension
(c) Abduction
(d) Adduction
Answer:
(a) Flexion

Question 20.

At touchdown in walking, the knee is normally:

(a) fully extended
(b) slightly flexed
(c) full flexed
(d) slightly extended
Answer:
(d) slightly flexed

Question 21.

In plantar flexion of the foot about the ankle joint:

(a) the foot moves upwards towards the front of the calf
(b) the foot moves upwards towards the rear of the calf
(c) the foot moves sideways
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(d) the foot moves upwards towards the rear of the calf.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 8 Biomechanics and Sports Part 1

Question 22.

Bending of head towards right or left side of the shoulder is:

(a) extension
(b) flexion
(c) lateral flexion
(d) lateral extension
Answer:
(c) lateral flexion

Question 23.

The terms reset and motion are studied under:

(a) biochemistry
(b) anatomy
(c) biomechanics
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) biomechanics

Question 24.

………………. takes place when the angle between two bones attached to a joint

(a) Flexion, increases
(b) Extension, decreases
(c) Adduction, increases
(d) Extension, increases
Answer:
(d) Extension, increases

Question 25.

Flexion and extension are:

(a) movements in the frontal plane about the sagittal axis.
(b) movements in the sagittal plane about the frontal axis.
(c) movements in the horizontal plane about the vertical axis.
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(d) movements in the sagittal plane about the frontal axis

Question 26.

Anatomically, the term ‘Superior’ means:

(a) towards the midline of the body
(b) away from the trunk
(c) towards from the head
(d) towards the feet
Answer:
(c) towards from the head

Question 27.

The sagittal plane is also known as:

(a) the frontal plane
(b) the coronal plane
(c) the horizontal plane
(d) the anteroposterior plane
Answer:
(d) the anteroposterior plane

Question 28.

Movement possible in ball and socket joint are:

(a) rotation
(b) flexion
(c) extension
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 8 Biomechanics and Sports Part 1

Question 29.

Match List-1 with List-ll and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List IList II
(a) Extension1. lifting the upper limb horizontally to form a right angle with the side of the body.
(b) Abduction2. returning the upper limb from horizontal position to the side of the body.
(c) Adduction3. bending the lower limb at the knee.
(d) Flexion4. straightening the lower limb at knee.

ABCD
(a) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
(b) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
(c) A-4, B-1,C-2, D-3
(d) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
Answer:
(c) A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3

Question 30.

Range of movement at joints is:

(a) flexibility
(b) strength
(c) endurance
(d) agility
Answer:
(a) flexibility

Question 31.

During abduction the arm moves:

(a) towards the body
(b) away from the body
(c) in front of the chest
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) away from the body

Question 32.

Medial movement towards the centre is known as:

(a) adduction
(b) abduction
(c) flexion
(d) extension
Answer:
(a) adduction

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 8 Biomechanics and Sports Part 1

Question 33.

Which of the following is not a type of movement related to physical activity?

(a) Abduction
(b) Adduction
(c) Extension
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) None of these

Question 34.

include abduction, adduction, flexion, extension, etc.

(a) Body movements
(b) Wellness
(c) exercise
(d) Physical exercise
Answer:
(a) Body movements

Question 35.

Which kind of human movement is this?

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 8 Biomechanics and Sports Part 1 1

(a) Flexion
(b) Gliding
(c) Adduction
(d) Abduction
Answer:
(c) Adduction

Question 36.

Match the following:

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 8 Biomechanics and Sports Part 1 6

(a) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C
(b) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A
(c) 1-C,2-A, 3-B
(d) 1-A ,2-C, 3-B

Answer:
(b) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A

Question 37.

The characteristics of any starting position is……….

(a) stable
(b) comfortable
(c) provide room for full range of motion
(d) AIL of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 38.

In normal standing, line of gravity passes……… the knee joint.

(a) in front of
(b) behind
(c) through
(d) lateral to
Answer:
(a) in front of

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 8 Biomechanics and Sports Part 1

Question 39.

Relaxed passive movement is useful for………….

(a) muscle strengthening
(b) improving joint range of motion
(c) remembrance of pattern of movement
(d) improving co-ordination
Answer:
(c) Remembrance of pattern of movement

Question 40.

Stretching is the………

(a) slow and sustained forced passive movement
(b) telaxed passive movement
(c) tilt your head slightly forward and pinch
(d) manipulation
Answer:
(a) slow and sustained forced passive movement

Question 41.

Opening of hand sidewise when our hand is moving away from body is example of an:

(a) flexion
(b) extension
(c) abduction
(d) adduction
Answer:
(c) abduction.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 8 Biomechanics and Sports Part 1

Question 42.

During abduction, the arm moves:

(a) towards the body
(b) away from the body
(c) in front of the chest
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) away from the body

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physical Education Unit 8 Biomechanics and Sports Part 1 Read More »

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