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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development

Development Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Question 1.

Read the given data and find out which country has most equitable distribution of income.

Countries	Monthly Income of Citizens in four countries in 2018
	Citizen 1	Citizen 2	Citizen 3	Citizen 4	Citizen 5	Citizen 6
Country A	10500	11200	10800	11000	10700	10840
Country B	600	5000	600	600	600	1480
Country C	550	10500	400	7500	2000	4190
Country D	800	4800	700	5000	750	2410

(A) Country A
(B) Country B
(C) Country C
(D) Country D
Answer:
(A) Country A

Explanation:
In country A, the variation of income from Citizen to Citizen is very less as compared to other countries.

Question 2.

Which of the following statements defines Sustainable Development ?

(A) Sustainable use of natural resources without considering the need of the future generation.
(B) Present generation fulfils its needs while considering the needs of the future generation as well.
(C) It means utilization of natural resources by the past, present and forthcoming future generation.
(D) To meet the needs of the future generations even if the needs of present generation go unmet.
Answer:
(B) Present generation fulfils its needs while considering the needs of the future generation as well.

Question 3.

Column A	Column B
(A) Landless rural la-bourers	(i) More days of work and better wages
(B) Prosperous farmers from Punjab	(ii) Availability of other sources of irrigation
(C) Farmers who depend only or rain for growing crops	(iii) Assured a higher support prices for their crops.
(D) A rural woman	(iv) Regular job and from a land own-high wages toing family increase her income.

Answer:
Option (B) is correct

Explanation:
Enough groundwater reserves available in Punjab & Western U.P

Question 4.

Development of a country can generally be determined by

(A) its per capita income
(B) its average literacy level
(C) health status of its people
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Question 5.

By national income, we mean the money value of

(A) all goods produced during a year.
(B) all final goods produced during a year.
(C) all services produced during a year.
(D) all final goods and services produced during a year.
Answer:
(D) all final goods and services produced during a year.

Question 6.

According to per capita income prepared by the World Bank in 2017, in which category is India included

(A) rich countries
(B) middle income countries
(C) low middle income countries
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) low middle income countries

Question 7.

Which of the following is not a criterion for comparing development of different countries?

(A) Educational level of the people
(B) People’s material possessions
(C) Their health status
(D) Their per capita income
Answer:
(B) People’s material possessions

Explanation:
To compare the development of different countries, we need to take common features of all those countries. Material possessions like, furniture, vehicles, accessories and equipments etc. cannot be a part of common feature.

Question 8.

Kerala has a low Infant Mortality Rate because

(A) people of the state are very rich.
(B) the climate of Kerala is very congenial and cosy.
(C) state has adequate provisions of basic health and educational facilities.
(D) people take nutritious diet and are not addicted to drugs.
Answer:
(C) state has adequate provisions of basic health and educational facilities.

Question 9.

A person is considered undernourished if his BMI is

(A) less than 30.5
(B) less than 25.7
(C) less than 20.9
(D) less than 18.5
Answer:
(D) less than 18.5

Question 10.

Study the following table and answer the question that follows:

Region/Country	Reserves (2017) (Thousand Million Barrels)	Number of Years Reserves will last
Middle East	808	70
United States of America	50	10-5
World 1697	1697	50-2

For how many years will the reserves of crude oil last in middle east, if they continue extracting it at the present rate?
(A) 50 years
(B) 10 years
(C) 70 years
(D) 40 years
Answer:
(C) 70 years

Question 11.

Column A	Column B
(i) The total number of children enrolled in or attending primary school, as a percentage of total number of children of primary school age.	(A) Per Capita Income
(ii) This is the total percentage of the population of an area at a particu¬lar time aged 7 years or above, who can read and write with understanding at least one language.	(B) Life expectancy at birth
(iii) This is the total National Income (GDP) divided by the total population	(C) Net Attendance Ratio
(iv) This is the total National Income (GDP) divided by the total population	(D) Literacy Rate

(A) (i)-(B), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(C)
(B) (i)-(D), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)
(C) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)
(D) (i)-(D), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(C), (iv)-(D)
Answer:
(C) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)

Question 12.

Country	Gross National Income
(i) Sri Lanka	(A) 2,471
(ii) India	(B) 5,331
(iii) Myanmar	(C) 11,326
(iv) Pakistan	(D) 5,567
(v) Nepal	(E) 6,353

(A) (i)-(D), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(E), (v)-(C)
(B) (i)-(C), (ii)-(E), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(B), (v)-(A)
(C) (i)-(B), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(E), (iv)-(D), (v)-(A)
(D) (i)-(E), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(C), (v)-(B)
Answer:
(B) (i)-(C), (ii)-(E), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(B), (v)-(A)

Question 13.

Arrange the following in the correct sequence:

(i) Convert the height recorded in centimeters into meters,
(ii) Take the weight of each individual in kilograms (kg).
(iii) Take the height by drawing up a scale on the wall and measure accurately with the head straight.
(iv) Divide the weight in kg by the square of the height. Options are:

(A) (i) – (ii) – (iv) – (iii)
(B) (iv) – (ii) – (i) – (iii)
(C) (ii) – (iii) – (i) – (iv)
(D) (iii) – (iv) – (i) – (ii)
Answer:
(C) (ii) – (iii) – (i) – (iv)

Explanation:
BMI=Weight/ Height x Height Weight should be in kilograms & Height in metres.

Question 14.

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options:
‘However, for comparison between countries, total income is not such a useful measure. Since, countries have different populations, comparing total income will not tell us what an average person is likely to earn. Are people in one country better off than others in a different country? Hence, we compare the average income which is the total income of the country divided by its total population. The average income is also called per capita income.’

(A) Comparison between countries
(B) Comparison of total population
(C) Comparison of average income
(D) Per capita income
Answer:
(D) Per capita income

Question 15.

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options:

‘The idea of development or progress has always been with us. We have aspirations or desires about what we would like to do and how we would like to live. Similarly, we have ideas about what a country should be like. What are the essential things that we require ? Can life be better for all ? How should people live together ? Can there be more equality ? Development involves thinking about these questions and about the ways in which we can work towards achieving these goals.’

(A) Development
(B) Progress
(C) Aspirations
(D) Desires
Answer:
(A) Development

Question 16.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) For development, people look at a mix of goals.
(B) It is true that if women are engaged in paid work, their dignity in the household and society decreases.
(C) However, it is also the case that if there is respect for women there would be more sharing of housework and a greater acceptance of women working outside.
(D) A safe and secure environment may allow more women to take up a variety of jobs or run a business. ,
Answer:
(B) It is true that if women are engaged in paid work, their dignity in the household and society decreases.

Explanation:
In Indian society, dignity of a person is measured by their work or job. So if women are engaged in paid work, their dignity increases in the society.

Question 17.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) Countries with per capita income of US $ 12,056 per annum and above in 2017, are called rich countries.
(B) And those with per capita income of US $ 755 or less are called low-income countries.
(C) India comes in the category of low middle income countries.
(D) Its per capita income in 2017 was just US$ 1820 per annum.
Answer:
(B) And those with per capita income of US $ 755 or less are called low-income countries.

Explanation:
And those with per capita income of US$ 955 or less are called low-income countries.

Assertion and Raeson Based MCQs

Directions: In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is true

Question 1.

Assertion (A): Different people have different development goals.
Reason (R): People want freedom, equality, security and respect.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): Groundwater is an example of renewable resources.
Reason (R): If we use more than what is being replenished by rain then we would be overusing this resource.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): Normally, your money cannot buy you a pollution-free environment or ensure you that you get unadulterated medicines.
Reason (R): Money may also not be able to protect you from infectious diseases, unless the whole of your community takes preventive steps.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Sustainable development is essential for the economic growth of the countries.
Reason (R): Sustainable development ensures that environment hostile measures are adopted for carrying out mining processes.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Sustainable development is essential for the economic growth as it includes judicious use of resources by reducing wastages.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): Non Renewable resources can be replenished over a period of time. Non Renewable resources are abundant in nature.
Reason (R): Non Renewable resources are fixed in nature.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is true

Explanation:
Non- Renewable resources are fixed in amount and will get exhausted after several years of usage.

I. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
Different persons can have different developmental goals. What may be development for one may not be development for the other. It may even be destructive for the other. Each one of us seeks different things. We seek things that are most important for them, i.e., that which can fulfil their aspirations or desires. In fact, at times, two persons or groups of persons may seek things which are conflicting. A girl expects as much freedom and opportunity as her brother, and that he also shares in the household work.

Her brother may not like this. Similarly, to get more electricity, industrialists may want more dams. But this may submerge the land and disrupt the lives of people who are displaced such as tribal. They might resent this and may prefer small check dams or tanks to irrigate their land. Besides seeking more income, one way or the other, people also seek things like equal treatment, freedom, security, and respect of others. They resent discrimination. All these are important goals.

In fact, in some cases, these may be more important than more income or more consumption because material goods are not all that you need to live. Money, or material things that one can buy with it, is one factor on which our life depends. But the quality of our life also depends on non- material things mentioned above. For development, people look at a mix of goals. Hence, the developmental goals that people have are not only about better income but also about other important things in life.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option

Question 1.

What can be the development goals for landless rural laborers?

(A) More days of work and better wages
(B) Local school is able to provide quality education for their children
(C) No social discrimination
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Question 2.

Which of the following statement is true with respect to development?

(A) Different persons can have different developmental goals
(B) What may be development for one may not be development for The other.
(C) Development may even be destructive for the other.
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Question 3.

Apart from income, which of the following, people do not look for development?

(A) Equal treatment
(B) Discrimination
(C) Freedom
(D) Security
Answer:
(C) Freedom

Explanation:
Discrimination creates differences between two people where one treats others as an inferior. Hence, it could never be a part of anyone’s development.

Question 4.

Why do different persons have different notions of development?

(A) Because people are different.
(B) Because life situations of persons are different.
(C) Both (A) and (B).
(D) None of the above.
Answer:
(C) Both (A) and (B).

II. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
For comparing countries, their income is considered to be one of the most important attributes. Countries with higher income are more developed than others with less income. This is based on the understanding that more income means more of all things that human beings need. Whatever people like, and should have, they will be able to get with greater income. So, greater income itself is considered to be one important goal. The income of the country is the income of all the residents of the’country.

This give us the total income of the country. However, for comparison between countries, total income is not such a useful measure. Since, countries have different populations, comparing total income will not tell us what an average person is likely to earn. Are people in one country better off than others in a different country? Hence, we compare the average income which is the total income of the country divided by its total population. The average income is also called per capita income. In World Development Reports, brought out by the World Bank, this criterion is used in classifying countries.

Countries with per capita income of US$ 12,056 per annum and above in 2017, are called rich countries and those with per capita income of US$ 955 or less are called low-income countries. India comes in the category of low middle- income countries because its per capita income in 2017 was just US$ 1820 per annum. The rich countries, excluding countries of Middle East and certain other small countries, are generally called developed countries. Human Development Report published by UNDP compares countries based on the educational levels of the people, their health status and per capita income.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option

Question 1.

Per capita income is also called as:

(A) Average income
(B) Total income
(C) Marginal income
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Average income

Explanation:
Per capita income can be used to evaluate each person’s standard of living and their income on an average note.

Question 2.

What is the main criterion used by the World Bank in classifying different countries?

(A) Per capita income
(B) Educational levels
(C) Health status
(D) None of the above.
Answer:
(A) Per capita income

Question 3.

According to the World Development Report 2006, countries with per capital income of ? 4,53,000 per annum and above in 2004 are called:

(A) Rich countries
(B) Low income countries
(C) Middle income countries
(D) None of the above.
Answer:
(A) Rich countries

Question 4.

Who compares the development of the countries on the basis of literacy rate, gross enrolment ratio and health status of their people?

(A) UNDP
(B) World Bank
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) UNDP

Explanation:
The United Nations Development Programme promotes co-operation among the member of the UN.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy

MCQ Questions / Prasanna

Outcomes of Democracy Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Question 1.

Modern democracies maintain check and balance system. Identify the correct option based on the horizontal power sharing arrangement.

(A) Central government, State government, Local bodies.
(B) Legislature, executive, judiciary.
(C) Among different social groups.
(D) Among different pressure groups.
Answer:
(B) Legislature, executive, judiciary.

Explanation:
The constitution provides for a proper check and balance system. For that purpose, the legislature, executive and judiciary have horizontal powers that maintain a balance in the system. The legislature has powers over executive and judiciary. Executive has power over legislative and judiciary.

Question 2.

Study the picture and the answer the question that follows

Which of the following options best signifies this cartoon?

(A) Demand for separate state from democratic government.
(B) Democratic government is facing territorial issues with the bordering states.
(C) Democratic government is coping with multiple pressures through accommodation.
(D) Democratic government accepts demands based on separate state.
Answer:
(C) Democratic government is coping with multiple pressures through accommodation.

Explanation:
Democratic Government is coping with multiple pressures through accommodation. Society has different groups in terms of social and cultural aspects. Democracy develops a procedure to be best suited to evolve the mechanism to negotiate these differences.

Question 3.

Why is democratic government better than other alternatives?

(A) It promotes equality among political parties.
(B) It helps in economic growth.
(C) It helps in creating a pollution-free environment.
(D) It promotes equality among citizens.
Answer:
(D) It promotes equality among citizens.

Explanation:
Democratic government enhances dignity of the individual and no individual is discriminated against on the basis of caste, religion, colour or creed.

Question 4.

Which form of government is considered best?

(A) Monarchy
(B) Democracy
(C) Communist
(D) Anarchy
Answer:
(B) Democracy

Explanation:
Democracy improves the quality of decision-making. It provides a method to deal with differences and conflicts. It enhances the dignity of citizens. It allows correcting its own mistakes.

Question 5.

What is meant by an accountable government?

(A) In an accountable government, people have the right to elect the leaders to form government and if possible they participate in decision-making process.
(B) In an accountable government, people do not have the right to elect the leaders.
(C) In an accountable government, people are a part of decision-making process.
(D) In an accountable government, only privileged section of the society is allowed to vote.
Answer:
(A) In an accountable government, people have the right to elect the leaders to form government and if possible they participate in decision-making process.

Explanation:
A government is said to be accountable when it allows its citizen to participate in its decision making and also frames or develops various laws or policies by which citizens can hold the government responsible for any of their policies or programmes.

Question 6.

What is meant by economic inequality?

(A) It is a situation of equal distribution of wealth.
(B) It is the unequal distribution of income and opportunity between different groups in society.
(C) It is the distribution of wealth on the basis of gender.
(D) It is the distribution of wealth on the basis of education.
Answer:
(B) It is the unequal distribution of income and opportunity between different groups in society.

Explanation:
Economic inequality refers to the disparities in incomes and wealth in a society.

Question 7.

In which area does democracy fail to achieve the same results as in dictatorship?

(A) Social development
(B) Economic development
(C) Political development
(D) Development on the basis of religion
Answer:
(B) Economic development

Explanation:
People are discriminated according to their caste , creed , religion , sex , rich or poor which is not the case in dictatorship form of government.

Question 8.

Which system can reduce the possibility of tension and conflict among different groups of society?

(A) Monarchy
(B) Anarchy
(C) Communism
(D) Democracy
Answer:
(D) Democracy

Explanation:
Democracy has a possibility of reducing the social differences, diversion and conflicts because they have evolved a mechanism to negotiate the differences.

Question 9.

Column A	Column B
(i) Democracy	(A) Able to handle social divisions and conflicts
(ii) Non-democratic regimes	(B) Have higher rate of economic growth
(iii) Dictatorships	(C) Suppress internal social differences
(iv) Democratic regimes	(D) Promotes equali¬ty among citizens

(A) (i)-(A),(ii)-(B),(iii)-(C),(iv)-(D)
(B) (i)-(D),(ii)-(C), (iii)-(B),(iv)-(A)
(C) (i)-(C),(ii)-(A),(iii)-(D),(iv)-(B)
(D) (i)-(B),(ii)-(D),(iii)-(A),(iv)-(C)
Answer:
(B) (i)-(D),(ii)-(C), (iii)-(B),(iv)-(A)

Explanation:
There are different forms of government found around the world. Some of the different types of government include a Democracy, Socialism, Communism, Dictatorship. The common form of government is democracy.

Question 10.

Column A	Column B
(i) Transparency and decision-making	(A) Social outcome of democracy
(ii) Dignity and free-dom of women	(B) Political outcome of democ-racy
(iii) Economic growth and development	(C) Political outcome of democ-racy
(iv) Accountable and	(D) Economic out- responsive gov-come of democ-ernment racy

(A) (i)-(A), (ii)-(B), (iii)-(C), (iv)-(B)
(B) (i) -(B), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(A)
(C) (i)-(B), (ii)-(A),(iii)-(D),(iv)-(C)
(D) (i)-(C),(ii)-(A),(iii)-(D),(iv)-(B)
Answer:
(C) (i)-(B), (ii)-(A),(iii)-(D),(iv)-(C)

Explanation:
Each government has certain political outcomes which helps the people to understand what kind of political institute will produce the best results.

Question 11.

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options:
“It is expected from a government that it should bring economic growth and development. But many democracies of the world are unable to fulfill this expectation because of population size, global situation, cooperation from other, countries, economic priorities, etc.”

(A) Economic outcomes
(B) Economic growth and development
(C) Legitimate government
(D) Reduction of inequality and poverty
Answer:
(B) Economic growth and development

Question 12.

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options:
“Democracy stands much superior to any other form of government in promoting dignity and freedom of the individual. Every individual wants to receive respect from fellow beings. Often conflicts arise among individuals because some feel that they are not treated with due respect. The passion for respect and freedom are the basis of democracy.”

(A) Dignity and freedom of disadvantaged groups.
(B) Dignity and freedom of women.
(C) Dignity and freedom of the citizens
(D) Accommodation of social diversity
Answer:
(C) Dignity and freedom of the citizens

Question 13.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) Democracy enhances the dignity of the individual.
(B) It provides a method to resolve conflicts.
(C) Improves the quality of decision making.
(D) Allows room to make more mistakes.
Answer:
(D) Allows room to make more mistakes.

Explanation:
In democracy there is a space for public discussion on the mistakes committed. As in democracy, the main power is with the citizens so’ if they make a wrong choice in choosing the representative then it can be changed they can vote others and the mistake would be corrected.

Question 14.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) Most societies across the world were historically female dominated societies.
(B) Long struggles by women have created some sensitivity today.
(C) Respect and equal treatment of women are ingredients of a democratic society.
(D) That does not mean that women are actually always treated with respect.
Answer:
(A) Most societies across the world were historically female dominated societies.

Explanation:
The world order has since inception been a patriarchy defined. Almost all the societies are male dominated for one or other reason which led to the oppression and suppression of women or where it is not so, women were not given opportunities to prove themselves or to claim their independence alongside the men.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions: In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as. [U]
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is correct but R is wrong.
(D) A is wrong and R is correct.

Question 1.

Assertion (A): Transparency means openness, communication and accountability of the government.
Reason (R): Transparency is considered missing in a democratic government.

Answer:
(C) A is correct but R is wrong.

Explanation:
Transparency is when a citizen has the right and the tools to know how a decision has been taken by the government. A democracy ensures that decision making will be based on certain norms and procedures. A citizen who wants to know if a decision was taken through correct procedures can find this out.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): Bangladesh is a country where more than half of its population lives in luxury.
Reason (R): Sometimes the poor find it difficult to meet their basic needs of life, such as food, clothing, house, education and health.

Answer:
(D) A is wrong and R is correct.

Explanation:
Some of the main reasons for high poverty rate in Bangladesh are calamitous weather, weak infrastructure and gender inequality that prevents women from contributing to the economy. One of the factors that generate poverty is the prevalence of natural disasters.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): At least one fourth of the globe is still not under democratic government.
Reason (R): Because the challenge for democracy in these parts of the world is very stark.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
The reason is that these countries face foundational challenges of transitioning to a democracy. It also involves bringing down the existing government which proves to be economically, socially and politically difficult.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Power sharing is the spirit of democracy.
Reason (R): As the rights of the people are not limited to the right to vote, stand in elections and form political organizations.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Power sharing is the spirit of democracy because it is one of the foundational principles on which the concept of democratic rule is based. In a democracy, the people have a right to be consulted on how they should be governed and all the citizens tend to have the same political and legal rights.

Case-Based MCQs

I. Read the given extract and answer the questions that follows:
In a democracy, we are most concerned with ensuring that people will have the right to choose their rulers and people will have control over the rulers. Whenever possible and necessary, citizens should be able to participate in decision making, that affects them all. Therefore, the most basic outcome of democracy should be that it produces a government that is accountable to the citizens, and responsive to the needs and expectations of the citizens. Some people think that democracy produces less effective government.

It is, of course, true that non- democratic rulers are very quick and efficient in decision making and implementation, whereas, democracy is based on the idea of deliberation and negotiation. So, some delay is bound to take place. But, because it has followed procedures, its decisions may be both more acceptable to the people and more effective. Moreover, when citizens want to know if a decision was taken through the correct procedures, they can find this out. They have the right and the means to examine the process of decision making. This is known as transparency. This factor is often missing from a non- democratic government. There is another aspect in which democratic government is certainly better than its alternatives: democratic government is legitimate government.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate options:

Question 1.

People’s right to choose their own rulers is called as the:

(A) Right to Initiate
(B) Right to Plebiscite
(C) Right to Vote
(D) Right to Referendum
Answer:
(C) Right to Vote

Question 2.

Which of the following options helps in promoting transparency in the governance?

(A) Right to education
(B) Right to information
(C) Right against exploitation
(D) Right to speech and expression
Answer:
(B) Right to information

Explanation:
Right to Information” means the right to ask for and obtain information of public importance.

Question 3.

………….. make/s the government legitimate.

(A) Credibility of politicians
(B) People’s movements
(C) Free and fair elections
(D) Holding of powers
Answer:
(C) Free and fair elections

Explanation:
Free and fair elections helping to promote peaceful, democratic political transformation that lead to increased stability and prosperity in a democratic nation.

Question 4.

Decisions in a democracy are more acceptable to the people because they are:

(A) Taken swiftly and implemented quickly
(B) Taken by giving privileges to the people
(C) Taken through elites’ votes
(D) Taken after following due processes
Answer:
(D) Taken after following due processes

II. Read the given extract and answer the questions that follows:
If democracies are expected to produce good governments, then is it not fair to expect that they would also produce development? Evidence shows that in practice many democracies did not fulfil this expectation. If you consider all democracies and all dictatorships for the fifty years between 1950 and 2000, dictatorships have slightly higher rate of economic growth. The inability of democracy to achieve higher economic development worries us. But this alone cannot be the reason to reject democracy.

As you have already studied in economics, economic development depends on several factors: country’s population size, global situation, cooperation from other countries, economic priorities adopted by the country, etc. However, the difference in the rates of economic development between less developed countries with dictatorships and democracies is negligible. Overall, we cannot say that democracy is a guarantee of economic development. But we can expect democracy not to lag behind dictatorship in this respect. When we find such significant difference in the rates of economic growth between countries under dictatorship and democracy, it is better to prefer democracy as it has several other positive outcomes.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate options:

Question 1.

Between Democracies and Dictatorships, who had slightly higher rate of economic growth?

(A) Democracies
(B) Dictatorships
(C) Both
(D) None of them
Answer:
(B) Dictatorships

Explanation:
In dictatorial regimes, the rules and regulations are rigid and compulsory. The citizens who disobey are severely punished.
In democratic regimes, as the leaders and bureaucrats think about their profits only, the government is not much keen to remove poverty and develop the coun try economically.

Question 2.

The difference in the rates of economic development between less development countries with dictatorships and democracies is:

(A) Very vast
(B) Slightly noticeable
(C) Very low
(D) Negligible
Answer:
(C) Very low

Explanation:
The economic growth rate in all dictatorial regimes was 4.42 per cent as compared to all democratic regimes’ 3.95 per cent during the period 1995-2000.

Question 3.

What is meant by economic inequality?

Explanation:
Income inequality varies by social factors such as sexual identity, gender identity, age, and race or ethnicity, leading to a wider gap between the upper and working class.

Question 4.

Which development depends on country’s population, size, global situation and co-operation from other countries?

(A) Social Development
(B) Financial Development
(C) Economic Development
(D) Political Development
Answer:
(C) Economic Development

Explanation:
Economic development of a country can be measured by its per capita income, literacy rate, health status, infant mortality rate and life expectancy of persons living in that country.

III. Read the given extract and answer the questions that follows:
Democracies are based on political equality. All individuals have equal weight in electing representatives. Parallel to the process of bringing individuals into the political arena on an equal footing, we find growing economic inequalities. A small number of ultra-rich enjoy a highly disproportionate share of wealth and incomes. Not only that, their share in the total income of the country has been increasing.

Those at the bottom of the society have very little to depend upon. Their incomes have been declining. Sometimes they find it difficult to meet their basic needs of life, such as food, clothing, house, education and health. In actual life, democracies do not appear to be very successful in reducing economic inequalities. The poor constitute a large proportion of our voters and no party will like to lose their votes. The situation is much worse in some other countries. In Bangladesh, more than half of its population lives in poverty. People in several poor countries are now dependent on the rich countries even for food supplies.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate options:

Question 1.

Democracies are based on political .

(A) consequences
(B) equality
(C) diversity
(D) leaders
Answer:
(B) equality

Explanation:
Democracies are based on political equalities as all citizens have equal role in electing their representatives.

Question 2.

Which country’s more than 50% population lives in poverty?

(A) Myanmar
(B) Pakistan
(C) Bangladesh
(D) India
Answer:
(C) Bangladesh

Question 3.

How the share of poor people affects the total income of a democratic country?

(A) Decreasing
(B) Constant
(C) Increasing
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Decreasing

Question 4.

People in poor countries are dependent on the rich countries for.

(A) Food
(B) Clothing
(C) Education
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Explanation:
Rich countries have a inoral obligation to aid poor countries.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Political Parties

MCQ Questions / Prasanna

Political Parties Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Question 1.

What is meant by political Party’?

(A) A group of politically sound people.
(B) A group of people come together to contest elections to hold power in the government.
(C) A group of people who want to be in power.
(D) A group of people who want to amend the Constitution.
Answer:
(B) A group of people come together to contest elections to hold power in the government.

Explanation:
A political party is an organization that coordinates candidates to compete in a specific country’s elections.

Question 2.

Name the alliance formed by the Congress Party

(A) National Democratic Alliance (NDA)
(B) All India Congress (AIC)
(C) All India Congress Committee (AICC)
(D) United Progressive Alliance (UFA)
Answer:
(D) United Progressive Alliance (UFA)

Explanation:
United Progressive Alliance is a coalition of predominantly centre-left political parties in India formed after the 2004 general election. The largest member party of the UPA is the Indian National Congress, whose President Sonia Gandhi is chairperson of the UPA.

Question 3.

What is the guiding philosophy of Bharatiya Janata Party?

(A) Cultural nationalism.
(B) Religion above all.
(C) No discrimination on the basis of caste.
(D) Equal opportunity for all.
Answer:
(A) Cultural nationalism.

Explanation:
The essence of cultural nationalism is that it unites people of different races in a single and recognized culturally nationalistic society. It holds importance in a society filled with multiple racial sections.

Question 4.

The Bahnjan Samaj Party stands for what cause?

(A) Securing the interest of the oppressed people.
(B) Equal rights for women.
(G) No discrimination on the basis of religion.
(D) Economic emancipation of women.
Answer:
(A) Securing the interest of the oppressed people.

Explanation:

The Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) was formed to represent Bahujans, referring to Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes (OBC), along with religious minorities.

Question 5.

If the decisions of a political party made by a single family and all other members are neglected, then what challenge is being faced by that party

(A) Challenge of alliance formation.
(B) Challenge of dynastic succession.
(C) Challenge of partial elections.
(D) Challenge of power.
Answer:
(B) Challenge of dynastic succession.

Explanation:
Dynastic succession is one of the most serious challenges before political party because in this the leader of the party chooses his family member as the next political leader and by this only the leaders family can come into power and rest of the people who work in the party never come in front.

Question 6.

Study the following picture and Answer the question that follows :

Which of the following best signifies this cartoon ?

(A) People hate politics.
(B) People want to throw away the politicians in Niagara Falls.
(C) Political parties are one of the least trusted institutions all over the world.
(D) People of Canada think that the Liberals should be in power.
Answer:
(C) Political parties are one of the least trusted institutions all over the world.

Explanation:
It is often said that political parties are facing a crisis because they are very unpopular and the citizens are indifferent to political parties, most political leaders are corrupt. Most of the politicians are involved in scams which tend to make the people feel that politics does not have good leaders.

Question 7.

Study the following picture and Answer the question that follows :

Which of the following leaders is shown in this cartoon?

(A) Berlusconi
(B) Putin
(C) Kwame Nkrumah
(D) Mussolini
Answer:
(A) Berlusconi

Question 8.

Who among the following is the founder of the Bahujan Samaj Party?

(A) Kanshi Ram
(B) B. R. Ambedkar
(C) Shahu Maharaj
(D) Jyotiba Phule
Answer:
(A) Kanshi Ram

Question 9.

What is the guiding philosophy of the Bharatiya Janata Party?

(A) Bahujan Samaj
(B) Revolutionary democracy
(C) Integral humanism
(D) Modernity
Answer:
(C) Integral humanism

Explanation:
Integral humanism was a set of . concepts drafted by Deendayal Upadhyaya as a political program and adopted in 1965 as the official doctrine of the BJP ‘

Question 10.

Column A	Column B
(i) Congress Party	(A) National Demo-cratic Alliance
(ii) Bharatiya Janata Party	(B) State Party
(iii) Communist Party of India – Marxist	(C) United Progres-sive Alliance
(iv) Telugu Desam Party	(D) Left Front

(A) (i)-(D), (ii)- (C), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)
(B) (i)-(C), (ii)-(A), (iii) -(D), (iv)-(B)
(C) (i) -(A), (ii)-(B), (iii)-(C), (iv)-(D)
(D) (i)-(D), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(B), (iv) -(A)
Answer:
(B) (i)-(C), (ii)-(A), (iii) -(D), (iv)-(B)

Explanation:
(i) United Progressive Alliance (UPA) is a coalition of predominantly centre-left political parties . The largest member party of the UPA is the Indian National Congress.
(ii) National Democratic Alliance (NDA) is an alliance made up of predominantly right-wing political parties and led by the Bharatiya Janata Party.
(iii) Communist Party of India (Marxist) is the dominant party in the coalition of Left Front an alliance of political parties in West Bengal.
(iv) Telegu Desam Party is a regional Indian political party active in the southern states of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.

Question 11.

Column A	Column B
(i) All India Trin- amool Congress	(AITC) (A) 1925

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Question 1.

Assertion (A): Parties play a decisive role in making laws for a country.
Reason (R): Opposition parties also mobilize opposition to the government.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Parties play a decisive role in making laws for a country. Formally, laws are debated in the form of first, second and third readings and then by popular voting, the bill is passed.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): India has multi party system.
Reason (R): The multi party system often appears very messy and leads to political instability.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
The multi-partv system often appears very messy and leads to political instability. All the parties present different objectives and so create confusion among the people. The government formed is through . coalition, which in itself is unstable and may . be the cause of breaking up of the government formed.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): Political parties are easily one of the most visible institutions in a democracy.
Reason (R): For most ordinary citizens, democracy is equal to political parties.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Most people tend to be very critical of political parties.
Reason (R): They tend to blame parties for all that is wrong without democracy and our political life.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): Parties put forward different policies and programmes and the voters choose from them.
Reason (R): Each of us have similar opinions and views on what policies are suitable for society.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Each of us may have different opinions and views on what policies are suitable for the society. But no government can handle su.ch a large variety of views.

Question 6.

Assertion (A) : Council members form and run governments.
Reason (R): Parties recruit leaders, train them and then make them ministers to run the government in thg way they want.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is hue.

Explanation:
Political parties elect their leaders. The political parties win majority of the seats in the elections is invited to form the government.

Question 7.

Assertion (A): The rise of political parties is – directly linked to the emergence of representative democracies.
Reason (R): As societies became large and organised, they do not need any agency to gather different views on various issues and to present these to the government.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
he rise of parties is directly linked with representative form of democracy because based on large territory and large population it is not possible for people to assemble together and make policies for themselves, therefore representatives from parties are to be chosen. When these parties are putin piace, they therefore act as the voices of the masses.

Case-Based MCQs

I. Read the given extract and Answer:the questions that follows:
Democracies that follow a federal system all over the world tend to have two kinds of political parties: parties that are present in only one of the federal units and parties that are present in several or all units of the federation. This is the case in India as well. There are some countrywide parties, which are called National parties. These parties have their units in various states. But by and large, all these units follow the same policies,programmes and strategy that is decided at the National level. Every party in the country has to register with the Election Commission. While the Commission treats all parties equally, it offers some special facilities to large and established parties. These parties are given a unique symbol – only the official candidates of that party can use that election symbol. Parties that get this privilege and some other special facilities are ‘recognised’ by the Election Commission for this purpose. That is why these parties are called, ‘Recognised Political Parties’. The Election Commission has laid down detailed criteria of the proportion of votes and seats that a party must get in order to be a recognised party. A party that secures at least } six per cent of the total votes in an election to the Legislative Assembly of a State and wins at least , two seats is recognised as a State party. A party that secures at least six per cent of the total votes in Lok Sabha elections or Assembly elections in four States and wins at least four seats in the Lok Sabha is recognised as a National Party.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate options:

Question 1.

What does the Election Commission of India allot to all Parties so that they are called ‘Recognised Political Parties’?

(A) Emblem
(B) Motif
(C) Symbol
(D) Flag
Answer:
(C) Symbol

Explanation:
The Election Commission provides symbols to provide for specification, reservation, choice and allotment of symbols at elections for the recognition of political parties in relation thereto and for matters connected therewith.

Question 2.

A party is called ‘National Party’ only when it polls………. of total valid votes in at least states………….. and in addition it wins Lok Sabha Seats.

(A) 2%, Four, 4
(B) 6%, Four, 4
(C) 4%, Four, 4
(D) 2%, Four, 3

Answer:
(B) 6%, Four, 4

Question 3.

Every party in the country has to register with :

(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Election Commission
(D) All of these
Answer:
(C) Election Commission

Question 4.

Two regional parties of West Bengal are:

(A) Forward Bloc and Trinamool Congress
(B) All India Trinamool Congress and Forward Bloc
(C) National Congress Party and Forward Bloc
(D) Indian National Congress and Forward Bloc
Answer:
(A) Forward Bloc and Trinamool Congress

II. Read the given extract and Answer the questions

Let us look at some of the recent efforts and suggestions in our country to reform political parties and its leaders: The Constitution was amended to prevent elected ML As and MPs from changing parties. This was done because many elected representatives were indulging in DEFECTION in order to become ministers or for cash rewards. Now the law says that if any MLA or MP changes parties, he or she will lose the seat in the legislature. This new law has helped bring defection down. At the same time this has made any dissent even more difficult. MPs and MLAs have to accept whatever the party leaders decide. The Supreme Court passed an order to reduce the influence of money and criminals. Now, it is mandatory for every candidate who contests elections to file an AFFIDAVIT giving details of his property and criminal cases pending against him. The new system has made a lot of information available to the public. But there is no system of check if the information given by the candidates is true. As yet we do not know if it has led to decline in the influence of the rich and the criminals. The Election Commission passed an order making it necessary for political parties to hold their organisational elections and file their income tax returns. The parties have started doing so but sometimes it is mere formality. It is not clear if this step has led to greater internal democracy in political parties. Besides these, many suggestions are often made to reform political parties A law should be made to regulate the internal affairs of political parties. It should be made compulsory for political parties to maintain a register of its members, to follow its own constitution, to have an independent authority, to act as a judge in case of party disputes, to hold open elections to the highest posts. It should be made mandatory for political parties to give a minimum number of tickets, about one- third, to women candidates. Similarly, there should be a quota for women in the decision-making bodies qf the party. There should be state funding of elections. The government should give parties money to support their election expenses. This support could be given in kind: petrol, paper, telephone, etc. Or it could be given in cash on the basis of the votes secured by the party in the last election.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate options:

Question 1.

Changing Parly allegiance from the Party on which a person got elected (to a legislative body) to a different Party was done normally by:

(A) Only MPs
(B) By both MPs and MLAs
(C) Only MLAs
(D) By none of them
Answer:
(B) By both MPs and MLAs

Question 2.

The Supreme Court has passed an order to file ………. giving details of property and criminal cases pending against every candidate who contests elections.

(A) writ
(B) case
(C) an affidavit
(D) charge
Answer:
(C) an affidavit

Explanation:
An affidavit is a declaration of facts made in writing and sworn before a person having the authority to administer oath. All affidavits need to be drawn up in the first person and should contain facts and not inferences.

Question 3.

It should be made mandatory for Political Parties to give a minimum of about one-third tickets to:

(A) Women
(B) SCs
(C) STs
(D) All of them
Answer:
(A) Women

Question 4.

The government should give parties state funding of elections as:

(A) Diesel, Petrol, Kerosene oil, etc.
(B) Paper, Stationery, Printed forms, etc.
(C) Mobile Phones, Telephones, Computer, etc.
(D) Petrol, Paper, Telephone, etc.
Answer:
(D) Petrol, Paper, Telephone, etc.

Explanation:
This should be done to stop the misappropriate use of money given to the parties.

III. Read the given extract and Answer:the questions that the follows:
In some countries, power usually changes between two main parties. Several other parties may exist, contest elections and win a few seats in the National legislatures. But only the two main parties have a serious chance of winning majority of seats to form government. Such a party system is called two- party system. The United States of America and the United Kingdom are examples of two-party system. If several parties compete for power, and more than two parties have a reasonable chance of coming to power either on their own strength or in alliance with others, we call it a multi party system. Thus, in India, we have a multi party system. In this system, the government is formed by various parties coming together in a coalition. When several parties in a multi-party system join hands for the purpose of contesting elections and winning power, it is called an alliance or a front. For example, in India there were three such major alliances in 2004 parliamentary elections- the National Democratic Alliance, the United Progressive Alliance and the Left Front. The multi¬party system often appears very messy and leads to political instability. At the same time, this system allows a variety of interests and opinions to enjoy political representation.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate options:

Question 1.

Countries having Bi- party system:

(A) USA
(B) India
(C) China
(D) All of these
Answer:
(A) USA

Explanation:
The Bi-party system encourage the existence of two major parties, as smaller parties face great difficulty in winning elective office.

Question 2.

The multi-party system:

(A) appears very messy
(B) leads to political instability
(C) not free to form political party
(D) Only’A’and’B’
Answer:
(D) Only’A’and’B’

Question 3.

The government is formed by various parties coming together in a/an ………….

(A) alliance
(B) front
(C) coalition
(D) opposition
Answer:
(C) coalition

Explanation:
The usual reason for an arrangement of coalition is that no single party has achieved an absolute majority after an election.

Question 4.

Which party leads the ruling NDA government at the Centre?

(A) Indian National Congress
(B) Bharatiya Janata Party
(C) Bahujan Samaj Party
(D) Communist Party of India
Answer:
(B) Bharatiya Janata Party

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Political Parties Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing

MCQ Questions, Uncategorized / Prasanna

Power Sharing Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Question 1.

Which one of the following is a major caste group of Sri Lanka?

(A) Christian and Tamil
(B) Buddhist and Hindu
(C) Sinhali and Tamil
(D) Sinhali and Christian
Answer:
(C) Sinhali and Tamil

Explanation:
Sri Lanka is few kilometres off the southern coast of Tamil Nadu. The major social groups are the Sinhalese and the Tamils.

Question 2.

Modern democracies maintain check and balance system. Identify the correct option based on the horizontal power sharing arrangement.

(A) Central government, state government, local bodies
(B) Legislature, executive, judiciary
(C) Among different social groups
(D) Among different pressure groups
Answer:
(B) Legislature, executive, judiciary

Explanation:
Power is shared among the legislature, executive and judiciary, this is known as horizontal distribution of power because it allows these organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers.

Question 3.

Which language is spoken by majority of Sri Lankans?

(A) Tamil
(B) Sinhala
(C) Hindi
(D) Urdu
Answer:
(B) Sinhala

Question 4.

Study the following caricature and answer the question that follows :

Which of the following options best signifies this cartoon?

(A) Concentration of power in few hands.
(B) Democracy is like a horse-cart.
(C) Putin and Bush are good friends.
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Concentration of power in few hands.

Explanation:
In a democratic country, Elected representatives has a power in their hands and S they want to concentrate these powers.

Question 5.

When was Sinhala recognised as the official language of Sri Lanka?

(A) In 1954
(B) In 1955
(C) In 1956
(D) In 1958
Answer:
(C) In 1956

Question 6.

Study the following caricature and answer the question that follows :

Which of the following option best signifies this cartoon?

(A) Problems of two party system
(B) A car with two steering
(C) Problems of a coalition government
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Problems of a coalition government

Explanation:
When two or more political parties form a government & if they both form an opinion to run the government, conflicts arises.

Question 7.

A belief that the majority community should be able to rule a country in whichever way it wants, by disregarding the wishes and needs of the minority is:

(A) Power Sharing
(B) Central Government
(C) Majoritarianism
(D) Community Government
Answer:
(C) Majoritarianism

Explanation:
It means that the majority community rules a country by their own by disregarding the wishes and needs of the minority community.

Question 8.

A system of ‘checks and balances’ is another name for which one of the following power-sharing arrangements:

(A) Power sharing among different social groups.
(B) Vertical division of power or power shared among different levels of government.
(C) Horizontal division of power or power shared among different organs of the government.
(D) Power sharing in the form of political parties, pressure groups and governments.
Answer:
(C) Horizontal division of power or power shared among different organs of the government.

Question 9.

Which is a federal division of power?

(A) Governments at the provincial or regional level.
(B) Legislature, executive and judiciary
(C) Among different social groups
(D) Political parties, pressure groups and movements
Answer:
(A) Governments at the provincial or regional level.

Explanation:
General government at the provincial or regional level for the entire country is known as federal government.

Question 10.

Name one prudential reason for power sharing?

(A) Power sharing is the very spirit of democracy.
(B) People have a right to be consulted on how they are to be governed.
(C) Citizens, through participation, acquire a stake in the system
(D) Power sharing is good because it helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups
Answer:
(D) Power sharing is good because it helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups

Explanation:
Prudential reasons bring out better outcomes for power sharing.

Question 11.

Column A	Column B
(i) Power shared among different organs of govern-ment	(A) 18 per cent
(ii) Tamil speakers	(B) 80 per cent
(iii) Dutch speakers	(C) Coalition government, Federal govern-ment
(iv) Power shared by two or more political parties	(D) Separation of powers
(v) French speakers	(E) 20 per cent

(A) (i)-(D), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(E), (iv)-(C), (v)-(B)
(B) (i)-(A), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(C), (iv)-(E), (v)-(B)
(C) (i)-(B), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(E), (iv)-(A), (v)-(D)
(D) (i)-(E), (ii)-(B), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(D), (v)-(C)
Answer:
(A) (i)-(D), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(E), (iv)-(C), (v)-(B)

Explanation:
(i) Power is shared among the legislature, executive and judiciary and that separation ensures that none of the organs can exercise unlimited power.
(ii) Sri Lanka has 74% Sinhala- speakers and 18% Tamil-speakers.
(iii) In Brussels, 80% French speakers and 20% Dutch speakers.
(iv) When two or more parties form an alliance to contest elections. If their alliance is elected, they form a coalition government and thus share power.

Question 12.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) Belgium is a big country in North America.
(B) It has borders with France, the Netherlands, Germany and Luxembourg.
(C) It has a population of a little over one crore.
(D) The ethnic composition of this small country is very complex.
Answer:
(A) Belgium is a big country in North America.

Explanation:
Belgium is a smaller than Haryana. In Europe it shares borders with France, the Netherlands, Germany and Luxembourg.

Question 13.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) Power is shared among different organs of government.
(B) Such as the legislature, executive and judiciary.
(C) We call this as vertical distribution of powers.
(D) Because it allows different organs of government placed at same level to exercise different powers.
Answer:
(C) We call this as vertical distribution of powers.

Explanation:
When power is shared among different organs at the same level to exercise different powers, it is known as horizontal distribution of power.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Question 1.

Assertion (A): Pbwer sharing is good for democracy.
Reason (R): It helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): Power can be shared among governments at different levels.
Reason (R): Power may also share among different social groups.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Horizontal distribution of power allows different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): The Belgian leaders recognized the existence of regional differences and cultural diversities.
Reason (R): Between 1970 and 1993, they amended their constitution four times so as to work out an arrangement that would enable everyone to live together within the same country.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Sinhala was recognised as only official language of Sri Lanka.
Reason (R): The government of Sri Lanka wanted to establish dominance of Tamil community.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Sinhala was recognised as only official language of Sri Lanka so that the government of Sri Lanka establish the supremacy of Sinhala community.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): Power should not reside with one person and group located at one place in a democracy.
Reason (R): If the dispersed, it will not be possible to take decision quickly and enforce it.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is True.

Explanation:
In a democratic country, due respect is given to diverse groups that exist in the society. Thus, political power should be distributed among citizens.

Case-Based MCQs

I. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in 1948. The leaders of the Sinhala community sought to secure dominance over government by virtue of their majority. As a result, the democratically elected government adopted a series of MAJORITARIAN measures to establish Sinhala supremacy. In 1956, an Act was passed to recognise Sinhala as the only official language, thus disregarding Tamil.

The governments followed preferential policies that favoured Sinhala applicants for university positions and government jobs. A new constitution stipulated that the state shall protect and foster Buddhism. All these government measures coming one after the other, gradually increased the feeling of alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamils. They felt that none of the major political parties led by the Buddhist Sinhala leaders was sensitive to their language and culture. They felt that the constitution and government policies denied them equal political rights, discriminated against them in getting jobs and other opportunities and ignored their interests. As a result, the relations between the Sinhala and Tamil communities strained over time.

The Sri Lankan Tamils launched parties and struggles for the recognition of Tamil as an official language, for regional autonomy and equality of opportunity in securing education and jobs. But their demand for more autonomy to provinces populated by the Tamils was repeatedly denied. By 1980s several political organisations were formed demanding an independent Tamil Eelam (state) in northern and eastern parts of Sri Lanka. The distrust between the two communities turned into widespread conflict. It soon turned into a CIVIL WAR. As a result, thousands of people of both the communities were killed. Many families were forced to leave the country as refugees and many more lost their livelihoods.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:

Question 1.

The process of dominance over the government by virtue of majority is seen in which country?

(A) Bangladesh
(B) Belgium
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) The Netherlands
Answer:
(C) Sri Lanka

Question 2.

Which is the official language of Sri Lanka?

(A) Sinhala and Tamil
(B) Sinhala
(C) Tamil
(D)None of these
Ans.
(B) Sinhala

Explanation:
Tamil speakers were minor in Srilanka. So, in 1956 an act was passed that recognises Sinhala as the official language.

Question 3.

What is the prudential reason behind Power Sharing?

(A) It gives absolute power to the citizens.
(B) It gives absolute power to the government.
(C) It reduces the possibility of conflict between social groups.
(D) It ensures foreign investments.
Answer:
(C) It reduces the possibility of conflict between social groups.

Question 4.

The ratio of Sinhala speaking and Tamil speaking in Sri Lanka is :

(A) 20:80
(B) 50:50
(C) 70:30
(D) 80:20
Answer:
(D) 80:20

Explanation:
The prudential reasons for power sharing have the need to stabilise political order that reduces the possibility of conflict between social groups.

II. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
Belgium is a small country in Europe, smaller in area than the state of Haryana. It has borders with France, the Netherlands, Germany and Luxembourg. It has a population of a little over one crore, about half the population of Haryana. The ETHNIC composition of this small country is very complex. Of the country’s total population, 59 per cent lives in the Flemish region and speaks Dutch language. Another 40 per cent people live in the Wallonia region and speak French.

Remaining one per cent of the Belgians speak German. In the capital city Brussels, 80 per cent people speak French while 20 per cent are Dutch speaking. The minority French-speaking community was relatively rich and powerful. This was resented by the Dutch-speaking community who got the benefit of economic development and education much later. This led to tensions between the Dutch¬speaking and French-speaking communities during the 1950s and 1960s. The tension between the two communities was more acute in Brussels. Brussels presented a special problem: the Dutchspeaking people constituted a majority in the country, but a minority in the capital.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:

Question 1.

Belgium shares its border with:

(A) France
(B) Germany
(C) Luxembourg
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Question 2.

Capital of Belgium:

(A) Netherlands
(B) Brussels
(C) Wallonia
(D) Europe
Answer:
(B) Brussels

Question 3.

Which language speaks on majority level in the country? ‘

(A) Dutch
(B) German
(C) French
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Dutch

Question 4.

Area of Belgium is:

(A) equals to Haryana
(B) greater than Haryana
(C) smaller than Haryana
(D) equals to Europe
Answer:
(C) smaller than Haryana

Explanation:
Belgium is the small Europeon country whose area is smaller than Indian state, Haryana.

III. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
Power is shared among different organs of government, such as the legislature, executive and judiciary. Let us call this horizontal distribution of power because it allows different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers. Such a separation ensures that none of the organs can exercise unlimited power. Each organ checks the others.

This results in a balance of power among various institutions. Even though ministers and government officials exercise power, they are responsible to the Parliament or State Assemblies. Similarly, although judges are appointed by the executive, they can check the functioning of executive or laws made by the legislatures. This arrangement is called a system of checks and balances. Power can be shared among governments at different levels – a general government for the entire country and governments at the provincial or regional level. Such a general government for the entire country is usually called federal government. In India, we refer to it as the Central or Union Government. The governments at the provincial or regional level are called by different names in different countries. In India, we call them State Governments. This system is not followed in all countries. There are many countries where there are no provincial or state governments. But in those countries like ours, where there are different levels of government, the constitution clearly lays down the powers of different levels of government. This is what they did in Belgium, but was refused in Sri Lanka.

This is called federal division of power. The same principle can be extended to levels of government lower than the State government, such as the municipality and panchayat. Power may also be shared among different social groups such as the religious and linguistic groups. ‘Community government’ in Belgium is a good example of this arrangement. In some countries there are constitutional and legal arrangements whereby socially weaker sections and women are represented in the legislatures and administration. This type of arrangement is meant to give space in the government and administration to diverse social groups who otherwise would feel alienated from the government. This method is used to give minority communities a fair share in power.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:

Question 1.

In horizontal distribution, power is shared among:

(A) Legislature, Executive and Judiciary
(B) Union government, State government and Local government
(C) Majority and minority community
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Legislature, Executive and Judiciary

Question 2.

Community government solves issues related to:

(A) Culture
(B) Education
(C) Language
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Explanation:
A government that handle issues related to their particular community is called community government. Hence, the given options are the part communal issues.

Question 3.

Federal System was refused by:

(A) India
(B) Belgium
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) USA
Answer:
(C) Sri Lanka

Question 4.

Who can check the functioning of executives?

(A) Legislature
(B) Judiciary
(C) State Government
(D) Community Government
Answer:
(B) Judiciary

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Lifelines of National Economy

MCQ Questions / Prasanna

Lifelines of National Economy Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Question 1.

Column A	Column B
(i) Sher Shah Suri Marg	(A) Kandla
(ii) Tidal Port	(B) Super Highways
(iii) Chhatrapati Shi-vaji Airport	(C) Delhi to Amritsar
(iv) Golden Quadri-lateral	(D) Mumbai

(A) (i)-(C), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(B)
(B) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)
(C) (i)-(D), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(C)
(D) (i)-(B), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(A)
Answer:
(A) (i)-(C), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(B)

Explanation:

(i) The historical Sher-Shah Suri Marg is also known as National Highway No.l which connects Delhi to Amritsar.
(ii) Kandla in Kuchchh was the first port to trade on the Mumbai port, after the Partition.
(iii) Chhatrapati Shivaji Airport is an international airport at Mumbai.
(iv) Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways project launched by government which links Delhi-Kolkata-Chennai-Mumbai.

Question 2.

Column A	Column B
(i) New Mangalore Port	(A) Goa
(ii) Deendayal Port	(B) Tamil Nadu
(iii) Marmago Port	(C) Karnataka
(iv) Tuticorin Port	(D) Kuchchh

Explanation:
The above mentioned ports are situated at the states cities mentioned in Column B.

Question 3.

Which two of the following extreme locations are connected by the east-west corridor?

(A) Mumbai and Nagpur
(B) Silchar and Porbandar
(C) Mumbai and Kolkata
(D) Nagpur and Siliguri
Answer:
(B) Silchar and Porbandar

Explanation:
Silchar is in Assam that lies in east and Pbrbandar is in Gujarat that lies in west.

Question 4.

Which mode of transportation reduces transshipment losses and delays? [R]

(A) Railways
(B) Pipeline
(C) Roadways
(D) Waterways
Answer:
(B) Pipeline

Explanation:
As pipelines requires less cost and labour.

Question 5.

Which one of the following states is not connected with the HVJ pipeline?

(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Gujarat
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
(B) Maharashtra

Explanation:
Gas pipeline from Hazira in Gujarat connects Jagdishpur in Uttar Pradesh, through Vijaipur in Madhya Pradesh. So, here, H stands for Hazira, V stands for Vijaipur and J stands for Jagdishpur.

Question 6.

Which one of the following ports is the deepest land-locked and well-protected port along the east coast?

(A) Chennai
(B) Paradip
(C) Tuticorin
(D) Visakhapatnam
Answer:
(D) Visakhapatnam

Explanation:
Among all the options, only Vishakhapatnam is a port which is surrounded by land from all sides with a water passage towards the sea or ocean.

Question 7.

Which one of the following is the most important modes of transportation in India?

(A) Pipeline
(B) Railways
(C) Roadways
(D) Airways
Answer:
(B) Railways

Explanation:
Railways is considered as most important mode of transportation because it is a wide network which connects entire country,

Question 8.

Which one of the following terms is used to describe trade between two or more countries?

(A) International trade
(B) External trade
(C) Internal trade
(C) Local trade
Answer:
(A) International trade

Explanation:
(i) Internal trade takes place between two parties within the geographical boundaries of a nation.
(ii) Exchange of the items in local markets where items of local needs are catered are called local trade.
(iii) External trade is a synonym for International trade.

Question 9.

Which one of the following states has the highest road density?

(A) Goa
(B) Kerala
(C) Karnataka
(D) Gujarat
Answer:
(B) Kerala
Explanation:
The road density is highest in Kerala with 375 kms.

Question 10.

The first class mail includes which one of the following?

(A) Book packets
(B) Registered newspapers
(C) Envelopes and cards
(D) Periodicals and journals
Answer:
(C) Envelopes and cards

Explanation:
Cards and envelopes are considered first-class mail as it covers both land and air stations.

Question 11.

Study the picture given below and answer the question that follows :

This is a picture of :

(A) Super Highway
(B) State Highway
(C) Expressway
(D) National Highway
Answer:
(C) Expressway

Explanation:
As the picture shows access ramps, grade separation, lane dividers and elevated section, that considers the characteristics of an expressway.

Question 12.

Which one of the following means of transport is used for carrying solids in a slurry form?

(A) Trucks
(B) Railways
(C) Pipelines
(D) Ships
Answer:
(C) Pipelines

Question 13.

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options: Since the ancient period, India was one of the seafaring countries. Its seamen sailed far and near, thus, carrying and spreading Indian commerce and culture. Waterways are the cheapest means of transport. They are most suitable for carrying heavy and bulky goods.

(A) Roadways
(B) Waterways
(C) Highways
(D) Airways
Answer:
(B) Waterways

Question 14.

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options: From oil field in upper Assam to Kanpur (Uttar Pradesh), via Guwahati, Barauni and Allahabad. It has branches from Barauni to Haldia, via Rajbandh, Rajbandh to Mourigram and Guwahati to Siliguri.

(A) Waterways
(B) Railways
(C) Pipelines
(D) Sea ports
Answer:
(C) Pipelines

Question 15.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) Export and import are the components of trade.
(B) The balance of trade of a country is the addition of its export and import.
(C) When the value of exports exceeds the value of imports, it is called a favourable balance of trade.
(D) On the contrary, if the value of imports exceeds the value of exports, it is termed as unfavourable balance of trade.
Ans.
(B) The balance of trade of a country is the addition of its export and import.

Explanation:
The balance of trade of a country is the difference between its export and import.

Question 16.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) National Highways link extreme parts of the country.
(B) These are the primary road systems and are laid and maintained by Central Public Works Department (CPWD).
(C) A number of major National Highways run in North-South and East-West directions.
(D) The historical Sher Shah Suri Marg is called National Highway No. 4 between Delhi and Amritsar.
Answer:
(D) The historical Sher Shah Suri Marg is called National Highway No. 4 between Delhi and Amritsar.

Explanation:
The historical Sher Shah Suri I Marg is called National Highway No. 1 I between Delhi and Amritsar.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Question 1.

Assertion (A): Goods and services do not move from supply locales to demand locales on their own. Reason (R): For a long time, trade and transport were restricted to a limited space.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
The movement of goods and services from their supply locations to demand locations necessitates the need for transport.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): Railways have been a great integrating force for more than 150 years.
Reason (R): Railways in India bind to economic life of the country as well as accelerate the development of the industry and agriculture.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Since, the first train steamed off from Mumbai to Thane in 1853, Railways make it possible for people to conduct multifarious activities like business, sightseeing, pilgrimage along with transportation of goods over longer distances.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): Waterways are the cheapest means of transport.
Reason (R): It is fuel efficient and environment friendly.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Cost of laying pipelines is minimum but subsequent running costs are higher.
Reason (R): Pipelines facilitate easy transportation.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is True.

Explanation:
Cost of lying pipelines is highly but cost is minimum. It rules out transshipment delays.

Case-Based MCQs

I. Read the extract and answer the questions that follows :
Today, the world has been converted into a large village with the help of efficient and fast moving transport. Transport has been able to achieve this with the help of equally developed communication system. Therefore, transport, communication and trade are complementary to each other. Today, India is well-linked with the rest of the world despite its vast size, diversity and linguistic and socio-cultural plurality. Railways, airways, waterways, newspapers, radio, television, cinema and internet, etc. have been contributing to its socio-economic progress in many ways. The trades from local to international levels have added to the vitality of its economy. It has enriched our life and added substantially to growing amenities and facilities for the comforts of life. In this chapter you will see how modern means of transport and communication serve as lifelines of our nation and its modern For a long time, trade and transport were restricted to a limited space. With the development in science and technology, the area of influence of trade and transport economy. It is thus, evident that a dense and efficient network of transport and communication is a prerequisite for local, national and global trade of today.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 1.

Why is there a need to interlink with the world?

(A) For development
(B) For war and destruction
(C) For isolation
(D) To restrict spread of terrorism
Answer:
(A) For development

Question 2.

Infer the importance of means of transportation and communication for socio-economic progress?

(A) Help spread love
(B) Help to grow economy
(C) Help create empathy
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) Help to grow economy

Question 3.

How does trade strengthen the economy of a country?

(A) It helps in earning foreign exchange
(B) It helps in student exchange programme
(C) It helps in increasing cross border interaction
(D) Promotes respect
Answer:
(A) It helps in earning foreign exchange

Question 4.

The trades from local to international levels have added to the vitality of the.

(A) country
(B) Community
(C) economy
(D) trade
Answer:
(C) economy

II. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows :
The exchange of goods among people, states and countries is referred to as trade. The market is the place where such exchanges take place. Trade between two countries is called international trade. It may take place through sea, air or land routes. While local trade is carried in cities, towns and villages, state level trade is carried between two or more states. Advancement of international trade of a country is an index to its economic prosperity. It is, therefore, considered the economic barometer for a country. As the resources are space bound, no country can survive without international trade. Export and import are the components of trade. The balance of trade of a country is the difference between its export and import. When the value of exports exceeds the value of imports, it is called a favourable balance of trade. On the contrary, if the value of imports exceeds the value of exports, it is termed as unfavourable balance of trade. India has trade relations with all the major trading blocks and all geographical regions of the world. Among the world, the commodities exported from India to other countries include gems and jewellery, chemicals and related products, agriculture and allied products, etc. The commodities imported to India include petroleum crude and products, gems and jewellery, chemicals and related products, base metals, electronic items, machinery, agriculture and allied products. India has emerged as a software giant at the international level and it is earning large foreign exchange through the export of information technology.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 1.

…………… trade takes place between two countries.

(A) Local Trade
(B) National Trade
(C) International Trade
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(C) International Trade

Explanation:
As the question asked about the trade between countries so we can opt international trade for it.

Question 2.

Advancement of international trade of a country is an………….. to its economic prosperity.

(A) update
(B) index
(C) indicator
(D) content
Answer:
(B) index

Question 3.

The commodities………….. to India include petroleum crude and products, gems and jewelery, chemicals and related products, base metals, electronic items, machinery, agriculture and allied product.

(A) exported
(B) imported
(C) discarded
(D) sanctioned
Answer:
(B) imported

Question 4.

Export and import are the components of:

(A) Business
(B) prosperity
(C) trade
(D) dealing
Answer:
(C) trade

Explanation:
Export means send goods or services to another country for sale and Import means bring goods or services into a country from another country for sale.

II. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follows :
Ever since humans appeared on the earth, they have used different means of communication. But, the pace of change, has been rapid in modern times. Long distance communication is far easier without physical movement of the communicator or receiver. Personal communication and mass communication including television, radio, press, films, etc. are the major means of communication in the country. The Indian postal network is the largest in the world. It handles parcels as well as personal written communications. Cards and envelopes are considered first-class mail and are airlifted between stations covering both land and air. The second-class mail includes book packets, registered newspapers and periodicals. They are carried by surface mail, covering land and water transport. To facilitate quick delivery of mails in large towns and cities, six mail channels have been introduced recently. They are called Rajdhani Channel, Metro Channel, Green Channel, Business Channel, Bulk Mail Channel and Periodical Channel.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 1.

Which are the major means of communication in the country?

(A) Personal communication
(B) Mass communication
(C) Interpersonal Communication
(D) Personal and Mass communication
Answer:
(D) Personal and Mass communication

Explanation:
Personal communication and mass communication includes television, radio, press, films, etc.

Question 2.

Book packets, registered newspapers and periodicals are considered…………. mail.

(A) first class
(B) second class
(C) priority
(D) classified
Answer:
(B) second class

Question 3.

Which mail channel is introduced recently by Indian Postal Networks?

(A) Rajdhani Channel
(B) Duronto Channel
(C) Air India Channel
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(A) Rajdhani Channel

Explanation:
To facilitate quick delivery of mails in large towns and cities, Rajdhani Channel is introduced by Indian Postal Services.

Question 4.

Long distance………… is far easier without physical movement of the communicator or receiver.

(A) travelling
(B) communication
(C) networking
(D) Living
Answer:
(B) communication

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Lifelines of National Economy Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Manufacturing Industries

MCQ Questions / Prasanna

Manufacturing Industries Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Question 1.

Column A	Column B
(i) Agro Based Industry	(A) Amul
(ii) Private Sector Industry	(B) Oil India Ltd.
(iii) Joint Sector Industry	(C) Jute Industry
(iv) Cooperative Sector Industry	(D) TISCO

(A) (i)-(B), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(C)
(B) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)
(C) (i)-(D), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)
(D) (i)-(A), (ii)-(B), (iii)-(C), (iv)-(D)
Answer:
(B) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)

Explanation:
Agro based industries are based on source of raw materials. Private sector industries owned and operated by individuals or a group of individuals. Joint sector industries which are jointly run by the state and individuals or a group of individuals. Cooperative sector industries are owned and operated by the producers or suppliers of raw materials, workers or both.

Question 2.

Column A	Column B
(i) Information Technology and Elec-tronics Industry	(A) Gurugram
(ii) Cement Industry	(B) Rajasthan
(iii) Automobile Industry	(C) Gujarat
(iv) Fertilizer Industry	(D) Bengaluru

(A) (i)-(B), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(C)
(B) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)
(C) (i)-(D), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)
(D) (i)-(A), (ii)-(B), (iii)-(C), (iv)-(D)
Answer:
(C) (i)-(D), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)

Explanation:
(i) Major IT industries are at Bengaluru, Noida, Mumbai, Chennai, Hyderabad and Pune.
(ii) Major Cement plants are situated at Gujarat.
(iii) The industry is located around Delhi, Gurugram, Mumbai, Pune, Chennai, Kolkata, Lucknow, Indore, Hyderabad, Jamshedpur and Bengaluru.
(iv) Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, Punjab and Kerala are the major fertilizer production states.

Question 3.

How to make garment ? Arrange the following in the correct sequence:

(i) Weaving or knitting of fabric
(ii) Manufacturing of garment (stitching)
(iii) Spinning of yarn
(iv) Dyeing and finishing of garment

Options:
(A) (iii) – (iv) – (i) – (ii)
(B) (iv) – (iii) – (ii) – (i)
(C) (iii) – (i) – (iv) – (ii)
(D) (i) – (iv) – (ii) – (iii)
Answer:
(C) (iii) – (i) – (iv) – (ii)

Question 4.

How to manufacture Steel ? Arrange the following in the correct sequence:

(i) Pig iron
(ii) Blast furnace
(iii) Shaping metal
(iv) Steel making

Options :
(A) (ii) – (i) – (iv) – (iii)
(B) (iii) – (i) – (iv) – (ii)
(C) (i) – (iv) – (ii) – (iii)
(D) (ii) – (iii) – (iv) – (i)
Answer:
(A) (ii) – (i) – (iv) – (iii)

Question 5.

Identify the process in sequence for the shaping of Steel:

(i) Forging
(ii) Pressing
(iii) Casting
(iv) Rolling

Options:
(A) (i) – (iv) – (ii) – (iii)
(B) (iv) – (ii) – (iii) – (i)
(C) (iii) – (i) – (iv) – (ii)
(D) (ii) – (i) – (iii) – (iv)
Answer:
(B) (iv) – (ii) – (iii) – (i)

Question 6.

On what basis is the industrial sector classified into Public and Private Sectors ?

(A) Employment conditions
(B) The nature of economic activity
(C) Ownership of enterprises
(D) Number of workers employed in the enterprise
Answer:
(C) Ownership of enterprises

Explanation:
If the various industries classified into Public and Private sector then we would be able to understand their manufacturing better.

Question 7.

Which one of the following agencies markets steel for the public sector plants ?

(A) HAIL
(B) SAIL
(C) TATA Steel
(D) MNCC
Answer:
(B) SAIL

Question 8.

Which one of the following industries manufactures telephones, computer, etc ?

(A) Steel
(B) Electronic
(C) Aluminium Smelting
(D) Information Technology
Answer:
(B) Electronic

Question 9.

Which one of the following industries uses limestone as a raw material ?

(A) Aluminium
(B) Cement
(C) Plastic
(D) Automobile
Answer:
(B) Cement

Explanation:
Cement is essential for construction of building houses, factories, bridges, roads, airports, dams and for other commercial establishments.

Question 10.

Which of the two steel plants are in collaboration with Russia ?

(A) Bhadravati and Salem
(B) Bokaro and Jamshedpur
(C) Burnpur and Durgapur
(D) Bhilai and Bokaro
Answer:
(D) Bhilai and Bokaro

Question 11.

Which of the following industries use bauxite as a raw material ?

(A) Aluminium
(B) Cement
(C) Jute
(D) Steel
Answer:
(A) Aluminium

Explanation:
Cement and Steel are finished goods while Jute is used as raw material in agro based industries.

Question 12.

Study the table given below and answer the following question:

Year	Total Production of finished steel in India
	(in metric tonnes per annum)
2010-11	68-62
2011-12	75-70
2012-13	81-68
2013-14	87-67
2014-15	92-16
2015-16	91-00
2016-17	101-30

Source: Ministry of Steel, Government of India How much steel was produced in the year 2014-15 ?

(A) 101.30 metric tonnes
(B) 75.70 metric tonnes
(C) 92.16 metric tonnes
(D) 91.00 metric tonnes
Answer:
(C) 92.16 metric tonnes

Question 13.

Study the picture given below and answer the following question :

Where is this Sewage Treatment Plant under Yamuna Action Plan situated ?

(A) Faridabad
(B) Firozabad
(C) Ahmedabad
(D) Nasirabad
Answer:
(A) Faridabad

Explanation:
As the question suggests the name Yamuna, so out of all the options, Faridabad is correct as Yamuna flows through Faridabad.

Question 14.

It not only results in irritation and anger. It can also cause hearing impairment, increased heart rate and blood pressure among other physiological effect. Unwanted sound is an irritant and a source of stress. Industrial and construction activities, machinery, factory equipment, generators, saws and pneumatic and electric drills also make a lot of noise.

(A) Water Pollution
(B) Noise Pollution
(C) Air Pollution
(D) Soil Pollution
Answer:
(B) Noise Pollution

Question 15.

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options:
These plants are smaller, have electric furnaces, use steel scrap and sponge iron. They have re-rollers that use steel ingots as well. They produce mild and alloy steel of given specifications.

(A) Heavy Steel Plants
(B) Major Steel Plants
(C) Mini Steel Plants
(D) Light Steel Plants
Answer:
(C) Mini Steel Plants

Question 16.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) Agriculture and industry are not exclusive of each other.
(B) They move away from each other.
(C) The agro- industries in India have given a major boost to agriculture by raising its productivity.
(D) They depend on the latter for raw materials and to sell their products.
Answer:
(B) They move away from each other.

Explanation:
Agriculture and industry move hand in hand.

Question 17.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) We have a large share in the world trade of cotton yarn.
(B) Our spinning mills are competitive at the global level and capable of using all the fibres we produce.
(C) The weaving, knitting and processing units can use much of the high quality yarn that is produced in the coasonuntry.
(D) There are some large and modern factories in these segments.
Answer:
(C) The weaving, knitting and processing units can use much of the high quality yarn that is produced in the country.

Explanation:
The weaving, knitting and processing units cannot use much of the high quality yam that is produced in the country.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Question 1.

Assertion (A : The handspun Khadi provides large scale employment to weavers in their homes as a cottage industry
Reason (R : Mahatma Gandhi lay emphasis on spinning yarn and weaving khadi.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): India is the largest producer of raw jute and jute goods and stands at second place as an exporter after Bangladesh.
Reason (R) : Other problems are the law output of labour and stiff competition with the synthetic fibre industry.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Due to the proximity of the jute producing areas, inexpensive water transport, supported by a good network of railways, roadways and waterways to facilitate movement of raw material to the mills, abundant water for processing raw jute and cheap labour from West Bengal, Bihar, Odisha and Uttar Pradesh.

Question 3.

Assertion (A) : Rain water harvesting increases IndustriaTPollution.
Reason (R) : Rain water helps industry to meet water requirements.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is True.

Explanation:
Pollution occurs when waste water discharged by industry that pollutes fresh water. Rain water harvesting replenish the water which helps industries to meet water requirements.

Question 4.

Assertion (A) : The economic strength of the country is measured by the development of manufacturing industries.
Reason (R) : India’s prosperity lies in diversifying its manufacturing industries.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
India manufactures various kind of goods which reduces the dependency upon agriculture. Economy enhances when export of goods increases.

Case-Based MCQs

I. Read the text given below and answer the questions that follows:
Manufacturing industries not only help in modernising agriculture, which forms the backbone of our economy, they also reduce the heavy dependence of people on agriculturalincome by providing them jobs in secondary and tertiary sectors. Industrial development is a precondition for eradication of unemployment and poverty from our country. This was the main philosophy behind public sector industries and joint sector ventures in India. It was also aimed at bringing down regional disparities by establishing industries in tribal and backward areas. Export of manufactured goods expands trade and commerce, and brings in much needed foreign exchange. Countries that transform their raw materials into a wide variety of finished goods of higher value are prosperous. India’s prosperity lies in increasing and diversifying its manufacturing industries as quickly as possible. Agriculture and industry are not exclusive of each other. They move hand in hand. For instance, the agro- industries in India have given a major boost to agriculture by raising its productivity.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 1.

Manufacturing industries fall in………. and agriculture in………..

(A) Primary, Secondary Sector
(B) Secondary, Tertiary Sector
(C) Primary, Tertiary Sector
(D) Secondary, Primary Sector
Answer:
(D) Secondary, Primary Sector

Explanation:
Tertiary sector is a service sector that consists the production of services instead of end products.

Question 2.

Manufacturing provides job opportunities to reduce dependence on agriculture. Identify which sector the following jobs belong to:

Choose the correct option :

Jobs created or promoted by manufacturing industries	Sector
a. Garment production	1. Primary
b. Research and Development	2. Tertiary
c. Banking	3. Secondary
c. Banking	4. Quaternary

(A) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
(B) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
(C) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-2
(D) a-4, b-1, c-4, d-3
Answer:
(B) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1

Question 3.

Which of the following options does not help in modernising agriculture?

(A) Manufacturing farm equipment
(B) Providing unskilled labour force
(C) Supplying fertilizers and pesticides
(D) Producing tube well pumps and sprinklers
Answer:
(B) Providing unskilled labour force

Explanation:
Because Skilled labour in India focus on the faster growing areas of the economy such as manufacturing and service sector, as compared to agriculture.

Question 4.

In order to attract foreign manufacturing firms, a country needs to develop:

(A) Agrarian facilities
(B) Cultivable lands
(C) Media facilities
(D) Infrastructure facilities
Answer:
(D) Infrastructure facilities

II. Read the text given below and answer the questions that follows:
The iron and steel industry is the basic industry since all the other industries heavy, medium and light, depend on it for their machinery. Steel is needed to manufacture a variety of engineering goods, construction material, defence, medical, telephonic, scientific equipment and a variety of consumer goods. Production and consumption of steel is often regarded as the index of a country’s development. Iron and steel is a heavy industry because all the raw materials as well as finished goods are heavy and bulky, entailing heavy transportation costs. Iron ore, coking coal and limestone are required in the ratio of approximately 4:2:1. Some quantities of manganese are also required to harden the steel. Where should the steel plants be ideally located? Remember that the finished products also need an efficient transport network for their distribution to the markets and consumers. In 2016 with 95.6 million tonnes of crude steel production, India ranked 3rd among the world crude steel producers. It is the largest producer of sponge iron. In 2016 per capita consumption of steel in the country was only around 63 kg per annum against the world average of 208 kg.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 1.

Which industry is called the basic industry of India?

(A) Iron Industry
(B) Steel Industry
(C) Cement Industry
(D) Iron and Steel Industry
Answer:
(D) Iron and Steel Industry

Explanation:
As India has abundant resources of iron ore and it is the basic mineral which is the backbone of industrial development also.

Question 2.

Index of a country is regarded on what basis? Select the appropriate option :

(A) Extraction and processing of steel.
(B) Production and consumption of steel.
(C) Production and manufacturing of steel.
(D) Consumption and manufacturing of steel.
Answer:
(B) Production and consumption of steel.

Question 3.

Explain the process of manufacturing of steel. Choose the correct option:

(i) Pig iron
(ii) Blastfurnace
(iii) Shaping metal
(iv) Steel making

(A) (ii)-(i)-(iv)-(iii)
(B) (iii)-(i)-(iv)-(ii)
(C) (i)-(iv)-(ii)-(iii)
(D) (ii)-(iii)-(iv)-(i)
Answer:
(A) (ii)-(i)-(iv)-(iii)

Question 4.

Manufacturing steel is not every person’s business. Suppose you are working in a steel industry, what will be the proportion of Iron Ore, coking coal and limestone you would use to produce steel?

(A) 2 : 1 : 4
(B) 4 : 1 : 2
(C) 4 : 2 : 1
(D) 2 : 4 : 1
Answer:
(C) 4 : 2 : 1

Explanation:
For steel manufacturing, Iron ore, coking coal and lime stone are required in the ratio of approximately 4 : 2 : 1.

III. Read the text given below and answer the questions that follows:
Every litre of waste water discharged by our industry pollutes eight times the quantity of fresh water. How can the industrial pollution of fresh water be reduced ? Some suggestions are
(i) minimising the use of water for processing by reusing and recycling it in two or more successive stages.
(ii) harvesting of rainwater to meetwaterrequirements.
(iii) treating hot water and effluents before releasing them in rivers and ponds. Treatment of industrial effluents can be done in three phases.
(A) Primary treatment by mechanical means it involves screening, grinding, flocculation and sedimentation.
(B) Secondary treatment by biological process.
(C) Tertiary treatment by biological, chemical and physical processes.
This involves recycling of waste water. Overdrawing of ground water reserves by industry where there is a threat to ground water resources also needs to be regulated legally. Particulate matter in the air can be reduced by fitting smoke stacks to factories with electrostatic precipitators, fabric filters, scrubbers and inertial separators. Smoke can be reduced by using oil or gas instead of coal in factories. Machinery and equipment can be used and generators should be fitted with silencers. Almost all machinery can be redesigned to increase energy efficiency and reduce noise. Noise absorbing material may be used apart from personal use of earplugs and earphones. The challenge of sustainable development requires integration of economic development with environmental concerns.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 1.

How many treatments are there for industrial effluents?

(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) 5
(D) 4
Answer:
(A) 3

Explanation:
Treatment of industrial effluents can be done in three phases- Primary, Secondary and Tertiary.

Question 2.

What could be done to reduce pollution of machinery and equipment?

(A) Stop the use of machinery
(B) Use generators fitted with silencers
(C) use manual labour
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) Use generators fitted with silencers

Question 3.

The challenge of sustainable development requires integration of economic development with………… concerns.

(A) social
(B) cultural
(C) environmental
(D) political
Answer:
(C) environmental

Question 4.

…………. treatment involves biological, chemical and physical processes.

(A) Primary
(B) Secondary
(C) Tertiary
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Tertiary

Explanation:
Primary involves mechanical process and secondary involves biological.

IV. Read the text given below and answer the questions that follows:
In ancient India, cotton textiles were produced with hand spinning and handloom weaving techniques. After the 18th century, power-looms came into use. Our traditional industries suffered a setback during the colonial period because they could not compete with the mill-made cloth from England. In the early years, the cotton textile industry was concentrated in the cotton growing belt of Maharashtra and Gujarat. Availability of raw cotton, market, transport including accessible port facilities, labour, moist climate, etc. contributed towards its localisation. This industry has close links with agriculture and provides a living to farmers, cotton boll pluckers and workers engaged in ginning, spinning, weaving, dyeing, designing, packaging, tailoring and sewing. The industry by creating demands supports many other industries, such as, chemicals and dyes, packaging materials and engineering works. While spinning continues to be centralised in Maharashtra, Gujarat and Tamil Nadu, weaving is highly decentralised to provide scope for incorporating traditional skills and designs of weaving in cotton, silk, zari, embroidery, etc. India has world class production in spinning, but weaving supplies low quality of fabric as it cannot use much of the high-quality yarn produced in the country. Weaving is done by handloom, power loom and in mills. The handspun khadi provides large scale employment to weavers in their homes as a cottage Industry.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 1.

Why did our traditional industries suffer a setback during the colonial period ?

(A) No machines were available.
(B) They could not compete with the mill-made cloth from England.
(C) They lacked knowledge.
(D) They had no motivation to compete.
Answer:
(B) They could not compete with the mill-made cloth from England.

Explanation:
Because in India industries used hand spinning and handloom weaving techniques.

Question 2.

The handspun khadi provides large scale employment to weavers in their homes as a industry.

(A) cottage
(B) primary
(C) secondary
(D) basic
Answer:
(A) cottage

Explanation:
Because a cottage industry is often run out of a person’s home. Availability of raw cotton, market, transport including accessible port facilities, labour, moist climate, etc., contributed towards its localisation.

Question 3.

Availability of raw cotton, market, transport including accessible port facilities, labour, moist climate, etc., contributed towards its localisation.

(A) False
(B) True
(C) Some what true
(D) Not sure
Answer:
(C) Some what true

Question 4.

Weaving is done by:

(A) hand loom
(B) power loom
(C) mills
(D) All of these
Answer:.
(D) All of these

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Manufacturing Industries Read More »

MCQ Questions

Development Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Read the given data and find out which country has most equitable distribution of income.

Which of the following statements defines Sustainable Development ?

Development of a country can generally be determined by

By national income, we mean the money value of

Which of the following is not a criterion for comparing development of different countries?

Kerala has a low Infant Mortality Rate because

A person is considered undernourished if his BMI is

Arrange the following in the correct sequence:

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options:

Find the incorrect option from the following:

Find the incorrect option from the following:

Assertion (A): Different people have different development goals. Reason (R): People want freedom, equality, security and respect.

Assertion (A): Groundwater is an example of renewable resources. Reason (R): If we use more than what is being replenished by rain then we would be overusing this resource.

Assertion (A): Normally, your money cannot buy you a pollution-free environment or ensure you that you get unadulterated medicines. Reason (R): Money may also not be able to protect you from infectious diseases, unless the whole of your community takes preventive steps.

Assertion (A): Sustainable development is essential for the economic growth of the countries. Reason (R): Sustainable development ensures that environment hostile measures are adopted for carrying out mining processes.

Assertion (A): Non Renewable resources can be replenished over a period of time. Non Renewable resources are abundant in nature. Reason (R): Non Renewable resources are fixed in nature.

What can be the development goals for landless rural laborers?

Which of the following statement is true with respect to development?

Apart from income, which of the following, people do not look for development?

Why do different persons have different notions of development?

Per capita income is also called as:

What is the main criterion used by the World Bank in classifying different countries?

According to the World Development Report 2006, countries with per capital income of ? 4,53,000 per annum and above in 2004 are called:

Who compares the development of the countries on the basis of literacy rate, gross enrolment ratio and health status of their people?

Outcomes of Democracy Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Modern democracies maintain check and balance system. Identify the correct option based on the horizontal power sharing arrangement.

Study the picture and the answer the question that follows

Which of the following options best signifies this cartoon?

Why is democratic government better than other alternatives?

Which form of government is considered best?

What is meant by an accountable government?

What is meant by economic inequality?

In which area does democracy fail to achieve the same results as in dictatorship?

Which system can reduce the possibility of tension and conflict among different groups of society?

Find the incorrect option from the following:

Find the incorrect option from the following:

Assertion (A): Transparency means openness, communication and accountability of the government. Reason (R): Transparency is considered missing in a democratic government.

Assertion (A): Bangladesh is a country where more than half of its population lives in luxury. Reason (R): Sometimes the poor find it difficult to meet their basic needs of life, such as food, clothing, house, education and health.

Assertion (A): At least one fourth of the globe is still not under democratic government. Reason (R): Because the challenge for democracy in these parts of the world is very stark.

Assertion (A): Power sharing is the spirit of democracy. Reason (R): As the rights of the people are not limited to the right to vote, stand in elections and form political organizations.

People’s right to choose their own rulers is called as the:

Which of the following options helps in promoting transparency in the governance?

………….. make/s the government legitimate.

Decisions in a democracy are more acceptable to the people because they are:

Between Democracies and Dictatorships, who had slightly higher rate of economic growth?

The difference in the rates of economic development between less development countries with dictatorships and democracies is:

What is meant by economic inequality?

Which development depends on country’s population, size, global situation and co-operation from other countries?

Democracies are based on political .

Which country’s more than 50% population lives in poverty?

How the share of poor people affects the total income of a democratic country?

People in poor countries are dependent on the rich countries for.

Political Parties Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

What is meant by political Party’?

Name the alliance formed by the Congress Party

What is the guiding philosophy of Bharatiya Janata Party?

The Bahnjan Samaj Party stands for what cause?

If the decisions of a political party made by a single family and all other members are neglected, then what challenge is being faced by that party

Study the following picture and Answer the question that follows :

Which of the following best signifies this cartoon ?

Study the following picture and Answer the question that follows :

Which of the following leaders is shown in this cartoon?

Who among the following is the founder of the Bahujan Samaj Party?

What is the guiding philosophy of the Bharatiya Janata Party?

Assertion (A): Parties play a decisive role in making laws for a country. Reason (R): Opposition parties also mobilize opposition to the government.

Assertion (A): India has multi party system. Reason (R): The multi party system often appears very messy and leads to political instability.

Assertion (A): Political parties are easily one of the most visible institutions in a democracy. Reason (R): For most ordinary citizens, democracy is equal to political parties.

Assertion (A): Most people tend to be very critical of political parties. Reason (R): They tend to blame parties for all that is wrong without democracy and our political life.

Assertion (A): Parties put forward different policies and programmes and the voters choose from them. Reason (R): Each of us have similar opinions and views on what policies are suitable for society.

Assertion (A) : Council members form and run governments. Reason (R): Parties recruit leaders, train them and then make them ministers to run the government in thg way they want.

Assertion (A): The rise of political parties is – directly linked to the emergence of representative democracies. Reason (R): As societies became large and organised, they do not need any agency to gather different views on various issues and to present these to the government.

What does the Election Commission of India allot to all Parties so that they are called ‘Recognised Political Parties’?

A party is called ‘National Party’ only when it polls………. of total valid votes in at least states………….. and in addition it wins Lok Sabha Seats.

Every party in the country has to register with :

Two regional parties of West Bengal are:

Changing Parly allegiance from the Party on which a person got elected (to a legislative body) to a different Party was done normally by:

The Supreme Court has passed an order to file ………. giving details of property and criminal cases pending against every candidate who contests elections.

It should be made mandatory for Political Parties to give a minimum of about one-third tickets to:

Assertion (A): Different people have different development goals.
Reason (R): People want freedom, equality, security and respect.

Assertion (A): Groundwater is an example of renewable resources.
Reason (R): If we use more than what is being replenished by rain then we would be overusing this resource.

Assertion (A): Normally, your money cannot buy you a pollution-free environment or ensure you that you get unadulterated medicines.
Reason (R): Money may also not be able to protect you from infectious diseases, unless the whole of your community takes preventive steps.

Assertion (A): Sustainable development is essential for the economic growth of the countries.
Reason (R): Sustainable development ensures that environment hostile measures are adopted for carrying out mining processes.

Assertion (A): Non Renewable resources can be replenished over a period of time. Non Renewable resources are abundant in nature.
Reason (R): Non Renewable resources are fixed in nature.

Assertion (A): Transparency means openness, communication and accountability of the government.
Reason (R): Transparency is considered missing in a democratic government.

Assertion (A): Bangladesh is a country where more than half of its population lives in luxury.
Reason (R): Sometimes the poor find it difficult to meet their basic needs of life, such as food, clothing, house, education and health.

Assertion (A): At least one fourth of the globe is still not under democratic government.
Reason (R): Because the challenge for democracy in these parts of the world is very stark.

Assertion (A): Power sharing is the spirit of democracy.
Reason (R): As the rights of the people are not limited to the right to vote, stand in elections and form political organizations.

Assertion (A): Parties play a decisive role in making laws for a country.
Reason (R): Opposition parties also mobilize opposition to the government.

Assertion (A): India has multi party system.
Reason (R): The multi party system often appears very messy and leads to political instability.

Assertion (A): Political parties are easily one of the most visible institutions in a democracy.
Reason (R): For most ordinary citizens, democracy is equal to political parties.

Assertion (A): Most people tend to be very critical of political parties.
Reason (R): They tend to blame parties for all that is wrong without democracy and our political life.

Assertion (A): Parties put forward different policies and programmes and the voters choose from them.
Reason (R): Each of us have similar opinions and views on what policies are suitable for society.

Assertion (A) : Council members form and run governments.
Reason (R): Parties recruit leaders, train them and then make them ministers to run the government in thg way they want.

Assertion (A): The rise of political parties is – directly linked to the emergence of representative democracies.
Reason (R): As societies became large and organised, they do not need any agency to gather different views on various issues and to present these to the government.

Assertion (A): Pbwer sharing is good for democracy.
Reason (R): It helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups.

Assertion (A): Power can be shared among governments at different levels.
Reason (R): Power may also share among different social groups.

Assertion (A): The Belgian leaders recognized the existence of regional differences and cultural diversities.
Reason (R): Between 1970 and 1993, they amended their constitution four times so as to work out an arrangement that would enable everyone to live together within the same country.

Assertion (A): Sinhala was recognised as only official language of Sri Lanka.
Reason (R): The government of Sri Lanka wanted to establish dominance of Tamil community.

Assertion (A): Power should not reside with one person and group located at one place in a democracy.
Reason (R): If the dispersed, it will not be possible to take decision quickly and enforce it.

Assertion (A): Railways have been a great integrating force for more than 150 years.
Reason (R): Railways in India bind to economic life of the country as well as accelerate the development of the industry and agriculture.

Assertion (A): Waterways are the cheapest means of transport.
Reason (R): It is fuel efficient and environment friendly.

Assertion (A): Cost of laying pipelines is minimum but subsequent running costs are higher.
Reason (R): Pipelines facilitate easy transportation.