MCQ Questions

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture

Agriculture Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture

Question 1.

Column AColumn B
(i) Jute(A) Millet
(ii) Rubber(B) Golden fibre
(iii) Coffee(C) Industrial crop
(iv) Jowar(D) Plantation crop

(A) (i)-(B), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(A)
(B) (i)-(D), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)
(C) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)
(D) (i)-(A), (ii)-(B), (iii)-(C), (iv)-(D)
Answer:
(A) (i)-(B), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(A)

Explanation:
(i) Jute is known as Golden Fibre.
(ii) Rubber is used in many industries as a raw material.
(iii) Since the production of coffee is mainly for market, markets plays an important role in the development of plantations.
(iv) Jowar is a important millet produces in Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka and Madhya Pradesh.

Question 2.

Column AColumn B
(i) Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra(A) Apples,Pears, walnuts and Apricots
(ii) Tamil Nadu, Ker-ala, Karnataka(B) Oranges
(iii) Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir(C) Mangoes
(iv) Nagpur and Meghalaya(D) Bananas

(A) (i)-(B), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(A)
(B) (i)-(D), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)
(C) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)
(D) (i)-(A), (ii)-(B), (iii)-(C), (iv)-(D)
Answer:
(C) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)

Explanation:
(i) Mangoes of Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal.
(ii) Bananas of Kerala, Mizoram, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu.
(iii) Oranges of Nagpur and Cherrapunjee (Meghalaya).
(iv) Apples, pears, apricots and walnuts of Jammu and Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh.

Question 3.

Barley: Rabi crop,Cotton: Kharif crop,……….:Zaid crop.

(A) Wheat
(B) Mustard
(C) Soya bean
(D) Cucumber
Answer:
(D) Cucumber

Explanation:
Wheat and Mustard are Rabi crops and Soyabean is Kharif Crop.

Question 4.

A type of millet rich in iron, calcium, other micro nutrients and roughage is………….

(A) Wheat
(B) Rice
(C) Tea
(D) Ragi
Answer:
(D) Ragi

Explanation:
Among all the above options, only Ragi is a millet crop whereas Wheat is a Rabi crop, Rice and Groundnut is a Kharif Crop.

Question 5.

Which one of the following describes a system of agriculture where a single crop is grown on a large area ?

(A) Shifting Agriculture
(B) Plantation Agriculture
(C) Horticulture
(D) Intensive Agriculture
Answer:
(B) Plantation Agriculture

Question 6.

Which one of the following is announced by the government in support of a crop ?

(A) Maximum Support Price
(B) Minimum Support Price
(C) Moderate Support Price
(D) Influential Support Price
Answer:
(B) Minimum Support Price

Explanation:
A price set by government on which they purchase agricultural product directly from farmer, is known as MSP

Question 7.

ICAR refers to :

(A) International Council of Aeronautical Research
(B) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
(C) Indian Council of Animal Research
(D) International Commission for Agricultural Research
Answer:
(B) Indian Council of Agricultural Research

Question 8.

Grouping of small land holding into a bigger one is called:

(A) Ceiling of land holding
(B) Collectivization
(C) Cooperative Farming
(D) Consolidation of land holding
Answer:
(D) Consolidation of land holding

Question 9.

Which one of the following is a leguminous crop ?

(A) Jowar
(B) Pulses
(C) Millets
(D) Sesamum
Answer:
(B) Pulses

Explanation:
Leguminous crops are those plants that help to restore the fertility of the soil as their small nodes absorb nitrogen from the air and fix it into the soil. All pulses are leguminous except arhar.

Question 10.

Study the picture and answer the question that follows:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture 1

Which type of cultivation is that?

(A) Wheat cultivation
(B) Rice cultivation
(C) Sugarcane cultivation
(D) Tea cultivation
Answer:
(C) Sugarcane cultivation

Question 11.

Study the picture and answer the question that follows:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture 2
Which type of soil is required for this cultivation?

(A) Black Soil
(B) Red soil
(C) Laterite soil
(D) Desert soil
Answer:
(A) Black Soil

Explanation:
The above picture shows cotton cultivation and it grows well in drier parts of the black soil of the Deccan plateau.

Question 12

……………….. is a food crop as well as a fodder crop.

(A) Maize
(B) Wheat
(C) Coffee
(D) Tea
Answer:
(A) Maize

Explanation:
Wheat is a food crop while Tea-Coffee is a beverage crop.

Question 13.

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options:This type of farming is practiced in areas of high population pressure on land. It is labour intensive farming, where high doses of biochemical inputs and irrigation are used for obtaining higher production.

Options:
(A) Commercial Farming
(B) Primitive Subsistence Farming
(C) Jhumming
(D) Intensive Subsistence Farming
Answer:
(D) Intensive Subsistence Farming

Question 14.

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options: It is known as the golden fibre. Jute grows well on well-drained fertile soils in the flood plains where soils are renewed every year. High temperature is required during the time of growth. West Bengal, Bihar, Assam, Odisha and Meghalaya are the major jute producing states. It is used in making gunny bags, mats, ropes, yarn, carpets and other artefacts. Due to its high cost, it is losing market to synthetic fibres and packing materials, particularly the nylon.

(A) Jute
(B) Cotton
(C) Rubber
(D) Silk
Options :
Answer:
(A) Jute

Question 15.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) Groundnut is a Kharif crop and accounts for about half of the major oil seeds produced in the country.
(B) Gujarat was the largest producer of groundnut followed by Rajasthan and Tamil Nadu in 2015-16.
(C) Linseed and mustard are Kharif crops.
(D) Sesamum is a Kharif crop in north and Rabi crop in south India.
Answer:
(C) Linseed and mustard are Kharif crops.

Explanation:
Linseed and mustard are Rabi crops.

Question 16.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) Kisan Credit Card (KCC), Personal Accident Insurance Scheme (PAIS) are some other schemes introduced by the Government of India for benefit of the farmers.
(B) Moreover, special news bulletins and entertainment programmes for farmers were introduced on the radio and television.
(C) The government also announces minimum support price, remunerative and procurement prices for important crops to check the exploitation of farmers by speculators and middlemen.
Answer:
(B) Moreover, special news bulletins and entertainment programmes for farmers were introduced on the radio and television.

Explanation:
Moreover special weather bulletins and agricultural programmes for farmers were introduced on the radio and television.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions: In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is True.

Question 1.

Assertion (A): Tea is an important beverage crop introduced in India initially by the British.
Reason (R): In 2015, India was the second largest producer of tea after China.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): A few economists think that Indian farmers have a bleak future if they continue growing food grains on the holdings that grow smaller and smaller as the population rises.
Reason (R) : Indian farmers should diversify their cropping pattern from cereals to high-value crops.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): Agriculture is an old economic activity.
Reason (R): Farming varies from subsistence to commercial type.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Cultivation methods changed significantly depending upon the characte-ristics of physical, environmental and technological methods.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Organic farming is much in vogue.
Reason (R): In organic farming, crops are grown using high doses to increase production.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Organic farming is much in vogue because it is practiced without factory made chemicals such as fertilisers and pesticides. Hence, it does not affect environment in negative manner.

Case-Based MCQs

I. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:
SOURCE A : Primitive Subsistence Farming This type of farming is still practised in few pockets of India. Primitive Subsistence Agriculture is practised on small patches of land with the help of primitive tools like hoe, dao and digging sticks, and family/community labour. This type of farming
depends upon monsoon, natural fertility of the soil and suitability of other environmental conditions to the crops grown. It is a ‘slash and burn’ agriculture. Farmers clear a patch of land and produce cereals and other food crops to sustain their family. When the soil fertility decreases, the farmers shift and clear a fresh patch of land for cultivation. This type of shifting allows Nature to replenish the fertility of the soil through natural processes; land productivity in this type of agriculture is low as the farmer does not use fertilisers or other modern inputs. It is known by different names in different parts of the country.

SOURCE B : Commercial Farming Plantation is also a type of commercial farming. In this type of farming, a single crop is grown on a large area. The plantation has an interface of agriculture and industry. Plantations cover large tracts of land, using capital intensive inputs, with the help of migrant labourers. All the produce is used as raw material in respective industries. In India, tea, coffee, rubber, sugarcane, banana, etc., are important plantation crops. Tea in Assam and North Bengal coffee in Karnataka are some of the important plantation crops grown in these states. Since the production is mainly for market, a well-developed network of transport and communication connecting the plantation areas, processing industries and markets plays an important role in the development of plantations.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 1.

Primitive Subsistence farming depends on:

(A) Monsoon
(B) Fertility of Soil
(C) Environmental Conditions
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Question 2.

When the……… decreases, the farmers clear a fresh patch of land for cultivation.

(A) Production
(B) Soil fertility
(C) Natural Calamities
(D) Industries
Answer:
(B) Soil fertility

Question 3.

…………. crop is grown in Commercial farming.

(A) Zaid
(B) Rabi
(C) Single
(D) Kharif
Answer:
(C) Single

Question 4.

In commercial farming, we used:

(A) HYV seeds
(B) Old methods of inputs
(C) Small patches of land
(D) Skilled labour
Answer:
(A) HYV seeds

Explanation:
Commercial farming is the use of higher doses of modern inputs in order to obtain higher productivity.

II. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:
SOURCE A: Wheat This is the second most important cereal crop. It is the main food crop, in north and north-western part of the country. This rabi crop requires a cool growing season and a bright sunshine at the time of ripening. It requires 50 to 75 cm of annual rainfall evenly-distributed over the growing season. There are two important wheat-growing zones in the country – the Ganga-Satluj plains in the north¬west and black soil region of the Deccan. The major wheat-producing states are Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Rajasthan and parts of Madhya Pradesh.

SOURCE B : Rice It is the staple food crop of a majority of the people in India. Our country is the second largest producer of rice in the world after China. It is a kharif crop which requires high temperature, (above 25°C) and high humidity with annual rainfall above 100 cm. In the areas of less rainfall, it grows with the help of irrigation.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 1.

How much annual rainfall is required for Wheat?

(A) 50 to 75 cm
(B) below 50 cm
(C) Above 100 cm
(D) 75 to 150 cm
Answer:
(A) 50 to 75 cm

Explanation:

Wheat requires a cool growing season and a bright sunshine at the time of ripening.

Question 2.

What is climatic conditions required for Rice?

(A) High rainfall
(B) High temperature
(C) High humidity
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Question 3.

Wheat growing zones in India :

(A) The Ganga-Satluj plains in the north-west
(B) Black soil region of the Deccan plateau
(C) Both ‘a’ and b’
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Both ‘a’ and b’

Question 4.

…………….. is the largest producer of Rice.

(A) Brazil
(B) India
(C) China
(D) Australia
Answer:
(C) China

Explanation:
Rice grows in the areas of less rainfall and China’s climate is favourable for rice as it requires high temperature, (above 25°C) and high humidity with annual rainfall above 100 cm.

III. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follows:
Tea cultivation is an example of plantation agriculture. It is also an important beverage crop introduced in India initially by the British. Today, most of the tea plantations are owned by IndiAnswer:The tea plant grows well in tropical and sub tropical climates endowed with deep and fertile well-drained oil, rich in humus and organic matter. Tea bushes require warm and moist frost- free climate all through the year. Frequent showers evenly distributed ver the year ensure continuous growth of tender leaves. Tea is a labour-intensive industry. It requires abundant, cheap and skilled labour. Tea is processed within the tea garden to restore its freshness. Major tea producing states are Assam, hills of Darjeeling and Jalpaiguri districts, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Kerala. Apart from these, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Meghalaya, Andhra Pradesh and Tripura are also tea-producing states in the country. In 2015 India was the second largest producer of tea after China. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 1.

Who introduced tea cultivation in India?

(A) German
(B) British
(C) French
(D) Dutch
Answer:
(B) British

Question 2.

Which of the following states is the largest producer of tea?

(A) Assam
(B) West Bengal
(C) Uttarakhand
(D) Kerala
Answer:
(A) Assam

Explanation:
The tea plant grows well in tropical and sub-tropical climates endowed with deep and fertile well-drained soil, rich in humus and organic matter.

Question 3.

Tea bushes require and moist frost-free climate all through the year.

(A) cold
(B) warm
(C) moderate
(D) None of the these
Answer:
(B) warm

Question 4.

Which of the following countries was the largest production of tea in 2016?

(A) China
(B) India
(C) USA
(D) Sri Lanka
Answer:
(C) USA

Explanation:
In 2016, frequent showers evenly distributed over the year in China which ensures continuous growth of tea production.

IV. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follows:
Mahatma Gandhi declared Vinoba Bhave as his spiritual heir. He also participated in Satyagraha as one of the foremost satyagrahis. He was one of the votaries of Gandhi’s concept of gram swarajya. After Gandhiji’s martyrdom, Vinoba Bhave undertook padyatra to spread Gandhiji’s message covered almost the entire country. Once, when he was delivering a lecture at Pochampalli in Andhra Pradesh, some poor landless villagers demanded some land for their economic well-being. Vinoba Bhave could not promise it to them immediately but assured them to talk to the Government of India regarding provision of land for them if they undertook cooperative farming. Suddenly, Shri Ram Chandra Reddy stood up and offered 80 acres of land to be distributed among 80 land¬less villagers. This act was known as ‘Bhoodan’. Later he travelled and introduced his ideas widely all over India. Some zamindars, owners of many villages offered to distribute some villages among the landless. It was known as Gramdan. However, many land-owners chose to provide some part of their land to the poor farmers due to the fear of land ceiling act. This Bhoodan-Gramdan movement initiated by Vinoba Bhave is also known as the Blood-less Revolution.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 1.

Who declared Vinoba Bhave as his spiritual heir?

(A) Nehru
(B) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) All of the Above
Answer:
(C) Mahatma Gandhi

Question 2.

The act done by Shri Ram Chandra Reddy was called .

(A) Tyag
(B) Bhoodan
(C) Annaprasana
(D) Atmasamman
Answer:
(B) Bhoodan

Question 3.

Some zamindars, owners of many villages offered to distribute some villages among the landless. What was it known as?

(A) Atmadan
(B) Gramdan
(C) Bhoodan
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Gramdan

Question 4.

Where did Vinoba Bhave delivered his lecture for villagers well- being?

(A) Pochampalli in Andhra Pradesh
(B) Warangal in Andhra Pradesh
(C) Panchvati in Himachal Pradesh
(D) Sirmaur in Himachal Pradesh
Answer:
(A) Pochampalli in Andhra Pradesh

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Resources and Development

Resources and Development Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Question 1.

Column AColumn B
(i) Black Soil(A) Western Rajasthan
(ii) Alluvial Soil(B) Himalayan Region
(iii) Arid Soil(C) Northern Plains
(iv) Forest Soil(D) Maharashtra

(A) (i)-(D), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)
(B) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)
(C) (i)-(B), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(C)
(D) (i)-(A), (ii)-(B), (iii)-(C), (iv)-(D)
Answer:
(A) (i)-(D), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)

Explanation:
(i) Black soil is typical of the Basalt region spread over northwest Deccan plateau and is made up of lava flows.
(ii) Northern plains are made of alluvial soil deposited by Himalayan rivers.
(iii) In Western Rajasthan, due to dry climate and high temperature, only after proper irrigation Arid soil become cultivable.
(iv) In hilly and mountainous areas enough rain forests are available.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Resources and Development

Question 2.

Column AColumn B
(i) Red and Yellow Soil(A) Rajasthan, Gujarat
(ii) Laterite Soil(B) Odisha, Chhattisgarh
(iii) Alluvial Soil(C) Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh
(iv) Black Soil(D) Karnataka, Kerala

(A) (i)-(D), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)
(B) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)
(C) (i)-(B), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(C)
(D) (i)-(B), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(C)
Answer:
(C) (i)-(B), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(C)

Question 3.

Arrange the following in the correct sequence:

(i) The Summit was convened for addressing urgent problems of environmental protection and Socio-Economic development at the global level.
(ii) The Rio Convention endorsed the global Forest Principles and adopted Agenda 21 for achieving Sustainable Development in the 21st century.
(iii) The assembled leaders signed the Declaration on Global Climatic Change and Biological Diversity.
(iv) In June 1992, more than 100 heads of states met in Rio de Janeiro in Brazil, for the first International Earth Summit.

Options:
(A) (iv) – (i) – (iii) – (ii)
(B) (iii) – (ii) – (i) – (iv)
(C) (iv) – (iii) – (ii) – (i)
(D) (i) – (iii) – (iv) – (ii)
Answer:
(A) (iv) – (i) – (iii) – (ii)

Question 4.

Arrange the following in the correct sequence: Resource planning in India which involves :

(i) Evolving a planning structure endowed with appropriate technology, skill and institutional set up for implementing resource development plans.
(ii) Identification and inventory of resources across the regions of the country. This involves surveying, mapping and qualitative and quantitative estimation and measurement of the resources.
(iii) Matching the resource development plans with overall national development plans.

Options:
(A) (i) – (ii) – (iii)
(B) (iii) – (i) – (ii)
(C) (ii) – (i) – (iii)
(D) (i) – (iii) – (ii)

Answer:
(C) (ii) – (i) – (iii)

Question 5.

Which of the following is an example of Cultivable Wasteland?

(A) Gross cropped area
(B) Uncultivated land
(C) Barren wasteland
(D) Current fallow land
Answer:
(B) Uncultivated land

Explanation:
Wasteland is not available for cultivation.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Resources and Development

Question 6.

“There is enough for everybody’s need and not for anybody’s greed”. Who said this?

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(C) M.K. Gandhi
(D) Sunder Lai Bahuguna
Answer:
(C) M.K. Gandhi

Explanation:
According to Gandhiji, the greedy and selfish individuals, and exploitative nature of modern technology are the root cause for resource depletion at the global level.

Question 7.

Study the given graph and answer the following :

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Resources and Development 1

About how much percent land area is plains ?

(A) 27%
(B) 72%
(C) 30%
(D) 43%
Answer:
(D) 43%

Explanation:
India has variety of relief features. About 43 per cent of the land area is plain, which utilises for agriculture and industry.

Question 8.

Study the given figure and answer the following:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Resources and Development 2

How many layers of soil are seen in this soil profile?

(A) 2 layers
(B) 4 layers
(C) 1 layer
(D) 3 layers
Answer:
(B) 4 layers

Explanation:
It takes millions of years to form soil upto a few cm in depth. Relief, parent rock or bed rock, climate, vegetation and other forms of life and time are important factors in the formation of soil.

Question 9.

Resources which are surveyed and their quantity and quality have been determined for utilisation is known as

(A) Potential resources
(B) Stock
(C) Developed resources
(D) Reserves
Answer:
(C) Developed resources

Explanation:
The development of resources depends on technology and level of their feasibility.

Question 10

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options :

(i) It is formed by the deposition of alluvium brought down by the east flowing peninsular rivers.
(ii) It is highly fertile.
(iii) It consists of various proportions of sand, silt and clay.
(iv) It is rich in potash, phosphoric acid and lime but deficient in organic matter.

Options:
(A) Main features of alluvial soil
(B) Main features of black soil
(C) Main features of arid soil
(D) Main features of laterite soil.
Answer:
(A) Main features of alluvial soil

Question 11

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options :

(i) Contour ploughing
(ii) Terrace farming
(iii) Strip cropping
(iv) Afforestation

Options:
(A) Measures for ploughing
(B) Measures for soil conservation
(C) Measures for terrace farming
(D) Measures for afforestation
Answer:
(B) Measures for soil conservation

Explanation:
(i) Contour Ploughing can decelerate the flow of water down the slopes.
(ii) Terrace cultivation restricts erosion.
(iii) Strips cropping breaks up the force of the wind.
(iv) Afforestation manage wastelands.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Resources and Development

Question 12.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) The cold desert of Ladakh is relatively isolated from rest of the country.
(B) It has very rich cultural heritage.
(C) It has sufficiency in water, infrastructure and some vital minerals.
(D) This calls for balanced resource planning at the national, state, regional and local levels.
Answer:
(C) It has sufficiency in water, infrastructure and some vital minerals.

Explanation:
The Cold Desert of Ladakh has deficiency in water, infrastructure and vital minerals.

Question 13.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) It is formed by the deposition of alluvium brought down by the east flowing peninsular rivers.
(B) It is highly infertile.
(C) It consists of various proportions of sand, silt and clay.
(D) It is rich in potash, phosphoric acid and lime but deficient in organic matter.
Answer:
(B) It is highly infertile.

Explanation:
Alluvial Soil Is highly fertile as it contains enough proportion of potash, phosphoric add and lime.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions: In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false and R is True

Question 1.

Assertion (A) : Resources are vital for human survival as well as for maintaining the quality of life.
Reason (R): It was believed that resources are free gifts of nature.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
Resources are using to satisfy the needs, bases for economic strength and prosperity of the people. They provide material, energy and favourable conditions for development.

Question 2.

Assertion (A) : India has varied relief features, landforms, climatic realms and vegetation types.
Reason (R) : These have been deposited by three important Himalayan river systems-the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false

Explanation:
Assertions refers to various relief features that are helpful in the formation of soil. However, Reason refers to the formation of Alluvial Soil.

Question 3.

Assertion (A) : The availability of resources is a necessary condition for the development of any region.
Reason (R): Availability of resources in the absence of corresponding changes in technology may obstruct development.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 4.

Assertion (A) : Proper discharge and disposal of industrial wastes can reduce land degradation in suburban areas.
Reason (R) : In the states of Punjab, Haryana, western Uttar Pradesh, over irrigation is responsible for land degradation.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is True

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Resources and Development

Case-Based MCQs

I. Read the extract and answer the questions that follows:
Resources are vital for human survival as well as for maintaining the quality of life. It was believed that resources are free gifts of nature. As a result, human beings used them indiscriminately and this has led to the following major problems.

  • Depletion of resources for satisfying the greed of a few individuals.
  • Accumulation of resources in few hands, which, in turn, divided the society into two segments i.e. haves and have nots or rich and poor.
  • Indiscriminate exploitation of resources has led to global ecological crisis such as, global warming, ozone layer depletion, environmental pollution and land degradation.

An equitable distribution of resources has become essential for a sustained quality of life and global peace. If the present trend of resource depletion by a few individuals and countries continues, the future of our planet is in danger.
Therefore, resource planning is essential for sustainable existence of all forms of life. Sustainable existence is a component of sustainable development.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:

Question 1.

Resources are vital for human survival as well as for maintaining the quality of…………

(A) Work
(B) life
(C) peace
(D) all of the above
Answer:
(A) Work

Explanation:
Resources changed the way of life from traditional to modern that improves the quality of life.

Question 2.

……………. existence is a component of sustainable development.

(A) Sustainable
(B) Mutual
(C) Cooperative
(D) Happy
Answer:
Option (A) is correct

Explanation:
To sustain life, people have to conserve natural resources and distribute them equally.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Resources and Development

Question 3.

Resource …………. is essential for sustainable existence of all forms of life.

(A) planning
(B) maintenance
(C) development
(D) existence
Answer:
(A) planning

Explanation:
Through resource planning, we can reduce wastage of resources.

Question 4.

Which of the following crisis occurs due to exploitation of resources?

(A) global warming
(B) afforestation
(C) soil conservation
(D) All of these
Answer:
(A) global warming

Explanation:
Natural resources are unlimited so if we exploit them consequences occurs.

II. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follows:
We have shared our land with the past generations and will have to do so with the future generations too. Ninety-five per cent of our basic needs for food, shelter and clothing are obtained from land. Human activities have not only brought about . degradation of land but have also aggravated the pace of natural forces to cause damage to land. Some human activities such as deforestation, overgrazing, mining and quarrying too have contributed significantly in land degradation. Mining sites are abandoned after excavation work is complete leaving deep scars and traces of overburdening.

In states like Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha deforestation due to mining have caused severe land degradation. In states like Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra overgrazing is one of the main reasons for land degradation. In the states of Punjab, Haryana, western Uttar Pradesh, over irrigation is responsible for land degradation due to water logging leading to increase in salinity and alkalinity in the soil. The mineral processing like grinding of limestone for cement industry and calcite and soapstone for ceramic industry generate huge quantity of dust in the atmosphere. It retards the process of infiltration of water into the soil after it settles down on the land. In recent years, industrial effluents as waste have become a major source of land and water pollution in many parts of the country.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:

Question 1.

With whom do we share our land?

(A) enemies
(B) oceans and seas
(C) China
(D) Past and future generations
Answer:
(D) Past and future generations

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Resources and Development

Question 2.

Name some Indian states which are deforested due to mining and overgrazing activities.

(A) Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh
(B) Karnataka, Kerala
(C) Ladakh and Kashmir
(D) Lakshadweep
Answer:
(A) Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh

Question 3.

What harm does the mineral processing and cement industry do to the environment and land?

(A) helps in growing of trees
(B) generates huge quantity of dust in the atmosphere
(C) Kills animals
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) generates huge quantity of dust in the atmosphere

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Resources and Development

Question 4.

Which of the following activity leads land degradation?

(A) Quarrying
(B) Mining
(C) Afforestation
(D) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
Answer:
(D) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Resources and Development Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation

The Age of Industrialisation Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Question 1.

Column AColumn B
(i) Spinning Jenny(A) James Watt
(ii) Music Book(B) Richard Arkwright
(iii) Steam Engine(C) E. T. Pauli
(iv)Cotton Mill(D) James Hargreaves

(A) (i)-(D), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)
(B) (i)-(C),(ii)-P),(mHA),(iv)-(B)
(C) (i)-(B), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(C)
(D) (i)-(D), (iiHC), (ili)-(A), (iv)-(B)
Answer:
(D) (i)-(D), (iiHC), (ili)-(A), (iv)-(B)

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation

Question 2.

Column AColumn B
(i) Iron and Steel Plant(A) Seth Hukumchand
(ii) Bengali Industrialist(B) Dinshaw Petit
(iii) Marwari Busi-nessman(C) J.N. Tata
(iv) Parsi Industrialist(D) Dwarkanath Tagore

(A) (i)-(D), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)
(B) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)
(C) (i)-(B), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(C)
(D)(i)- (D), (iiHC), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)
Answer:
(B) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)

Question 3.

Arrange the following in the correct sequence:

(i) James Hargreaves invented the Spinning Jenny
(ii) James Watt patented the Steam Engine.
(iii) Richard Arkwright created the First Cotton Mill.
(iv) Mathew Boulton manufactured the new model of Steam Engine.

Options :

(A) (iv) – (i) – (iii) – (ii)
(B) (i) – (iii) – (ii) – (iv)
(C) (h) – (iv) – (i) – (iii)
(D) (iii) – (ii) – (iv) – (i)
Answer:
(B) (i) – (iii) – (ii) – (iv)

Explanation:

(i) James Hargreaves invented the Spinning Jenny in 1764.
(ii) Richard Arkwright created the First Cotton Mill in 1771.
(iii) James Watt patented the Steam Engine in 1781 produced by Newcomen.
(iv) Mathew Boulton manufactured the new model of Steam Engine in 1781.

Question 4.

Arrange the following in the correct sequence:

(i) J. N. Tata set up the first iron and steel plant in Jamshedpur.
(ii) Dwarkanath Tagore set up six j oint stock comp anies in Bengal.
(iii) Seth Hukumchand set up the first jute mill in Calcutta.
(iv) Music Publisher E. T. Pauli produced a music book.

Options:
(A) (iv) – (i) – (ii) – (iii)
(B) (i) – (iv) – (iii) – (ii)
(C) (ii) – (iv) – (i) – (iii)
(D) (iii) – (ii) – (iv) – (i)
Answer:
(C) (ii) – (iv) – (i) – (iii)

Explanation:
(i) Dwarkanath Tagore set up six joint stock companies in Bengal in 1830s and 1840s.
(ii) Music Publisher E. T. Pauli produced a music book in 1900.
(iii) J. N. Tata set up the first iron and steel plant in Jamshedpur in 1912.
(iv) Seth Hukumchand set up the first jute mill in Calcutta in 1917.

Question 5.

Which of the following was a European managing agency?

(A) Tata Iron and Steel Company
(B) Elgin Mill
(C) Andrew Yule
(D) Birla Industries
Answer:
(C) Andrew Yule

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation

Question 6.

From which of the following trade did the early entrepreneur make a fortune ?

(A) Textile trade
(B) China trade
(C) Trade in tea
(D) Share market
Answer:
(B) China trade

Explanation:
Britishers in India began exporting opium to China and took tea from China to England. Many Indians earned through this trade for developing industrial enterprises in India.

Question 7.

Whom did the British Government appoint to supervise weavers, collect supplies and to examine the quality of cloth?

(A) Jobber
(B) Sepoy
(C) Policeman
(D) Gomastha
Answer:
(D) Gomastha

Explanation:
The East India company tried to eliminate the existing cloth traders and brokers and establish a more control over the weaver.

Question 8.

The person who got people from village, ensured them jobs, helped them settle in cities and provided them money in times of need was known as:

(A) Stapler
(B) Fuller
(C) Gomastha
(D) Jobber
Answer:
(D) Jobber

Question 9.

Why were workers in England hostile to machines and new technology?

(A) They did not know how to use these machines.
(B) They feared that they would lose their jobs and livelihood.
(C) The workers were too poor to buy new machines.
(D) They were scared of machines.
Answer:
(B) They feared that they would lose their jobs and livelihood.

Question 10.

Study the picture and answer the question that follows: ‘Dawn of the Century’ produced by E. T. Pauli is what?

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation 1

(A) a music card
(B) a music album
(C) a music book
(D) a music record
Answer:
(C) a music book

Explanation:
Dawn of the Century, published by E.T. Pauli Music Co. of New York, England in 1900.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation

Question 11.

Study the picture of the famous Indian Entrepreneur and answer the question that follows :

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation 2
This is a picture of whom ?

(A) Dwarkanath Tagore
(B) Dinshaw Petit
(C) Jamsetjee Jejeebhoy
(D) Seth Hukumchand
Answer:
(A) Dwarkanath Tagore

Question 12.

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options:
The abundance of labour in the market affected the lives of workers. As news of possible jobs travelled to the countryside, hundreds tramped to the cities. The actual possibility of getting a job depended on existing networks of friendship and kin relations. If you had a relative or a friend in a factory, you were more likely to get a job quickly. But not everyone had social connections. Many job seekers had to wait weeks, spending nights under bridges or in night shelters. Some stayed in Night Refuges that were set up by private individuals; others went to the casual wards maintained by the Poor Law authorities.

(A) Abundance of labour
(B) Life of the workers
(C) Job seekers
(D) Employment of workers
Answer:
(B) Life of the workers

Question 13.

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options:
By the late nineteenth century, manufacturers were printing calendars to popularise their products. Unlike newspapers and magazines, calendars were used even by people who could not read. They were hung in tea shops and in poor people’s homes just as much as in offices and middle-class apartments. And those who hung the calendars had to see the advertisements, day after day, through the year. In these calendars, once again, we see the figures of Gods being used to sell new products. Like the images of gods, figures of important personages, of emperors and nawabs, adorned advertisement and calendars. The message very often seemed to say: if you respect the royal figure, then respect this product; when the product was being used by kings, or produced under Royal command, its quality could not be questioned.

(A) Use of calendars
(B) Use of advertisements
(C) Use of images
(D) Market for goods
Answer:
(D) Market for goods

Question 14.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) By the beginning of nineteenth century, manu facturers were printing calendars to popularise their products.
(B) Unlike newspapers and magazines, calendars were used even by people who could not read.
(C) They were hung in tea shops and in poor people’s homes just as much as in offices and middle-class apartments.
(D) And those hung the calendars had to see the Advertisements, day after day, through the year.
Answer:
(A) By the beginning of nineteenth century, manu facturers were printing calendars to popularise their products.

Explanation:
By the late nineteenth century, manufacturers were printing calendars to popularise their products.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation

Question 15.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) In most Industrial regions workers came from the districts around.
(B) Peasants and artisans who found no work in the village went to the industrial centres in search of work.
(C) Over 70 percent workers in the Bombay cotton industries in 1911 came from the neighbouring district of Ratnagiri.
(D) While the mills of Kanpur got most of their textile hands from the villages within the district of Kanpur.

Answer:
(C) Over 70 percent workers in the Bombay cotton industries in 1911 came from the neighbouring district of Ratnagiri.

Explanation:
Over 50 percent workers in the Bombay cotton industries in 1911 came from the neighbouring district of Ratnagiri.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions: In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is correct but R is wrong.
(D) A is wrong and R is correct.

Question 1.

Assertion (A) : European Managing Agencies, which dominated industrial production in India, were interested in certain kinds of products.
Reason (R) : They established tea and coffee plantations, acquiring land at cheap rates from the Colonial Government; and they invested in mining, indigo and jute.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): The most dynamic industries in Britain were clearly Cotton and Metals.
Reason (R) : By 1873, Britain was exporting iron and steel worth about £ 77 million, double the value of its cotton export.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Cotton was the leading sector in the first phase of industrialisation up to the 1840s. After that the iron and steel industry led the way in England from the 1840s and in the colonies from the 1860s as the demand for iron and steel increased rapidly.

Question 3.

Assertion (A) : The new emerging industries in England could not replace the traditional industries. ‘
Reason (R): Ordinary and small innovations were the basis of growth in many non -mechanised sectors.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Most of the output was not from the industrialised factories but from domestic units which employed more than 80 percent workforce.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation

Question 4.

Assertion (A) : There was a lot of opposition to the introduction of Spinning Jenny in the cotton industry.
Reason (R): Invention of machines threatened the employment of many women.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 5.

Assertion (A): The ports of Bombay and Calcutta declined.
Reason (R) : As European companies gradually gained power over Indian trade, local merchants start facing loss and exports from Surat and Hooghly ports fell.

Answer:
(D) A is wrong and R is correct.

Explanation:
The Old ports of Surat and Hoogly declined.

Question 6.

Assertion (A) : Certain group of weavers prospered even when being in competition with mill industries.
Reason (R) : Handicrafts people adopt new technology that decline production and pushing up costs excessively.

Answer:
(C) A is correct but R is wrong.

Explanation:
Special handicrafts materials like silk saris were bought by the well-to-do and their demand never decreased.

Case-Based MCQs

I. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
In the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, merchants from the towns in Europe began moving to the countryside, supplying money peasants and artisans, persuading them to produce for an international market. With the expansion of world trade and the acquisition of colonies in different parts of the world, the demand for goods began growing. But merchants could not expand production within towns. This was because here urban crafts and trade guilds were powerful. These were associations of producers that trained craftspeople, maintained control over production, regulated competition and prices, and restricted the entry of new people into the trade. Rulers granted different guilds the monopoly right to produce and trade in specific products. It was therefore difficult for new merchants to set up business in towns. So they turned to the countryside.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option

Question 1.

Merchants from the towns in Europe began moving to the:

(A) Countryside
(B) Cities
(C) Villages
(D) Foreign Countries
Answer:
(A) Countryside

Explanation:
Because the association of traders and manufactures confined the entry of new people. Hence, it was difficult to setup their business for new merchants in towns.

Question 2.

The Merchants persuaded peasants and artisans to produce for:

(A) Local market
(B) State market
(C) International market
(D) National market
Answer:
(C) International market

Explanation:
Merchants set monopoly to produce specific goods, so they persuaded artisans to produce for international market.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation

Question 3.

With the expansion of World trade, the demand for goods began…………

(A) slowing
(B) growing
(C) falling down
(D) increased
Answer:
(B) growing

Question 4.

Associations of…………….. trained Craftspeople, maintained control over production, regulated competition and prices, and restricted the entry of new people into the trade.

(A) Manufacturers
(B) Customers
(C) Producers
(D) Retailers
Answer:
(C) Producers

II. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
Consider the case of the steam engine. James Watt improved the steam engine produced by -Newcomen and patented the new engine in 1781. His industrialist friend Matthew Boulton manufactured the new model. But for years he could find no buyers. At the beginning of the nineteenth century, there were no more than 321 steam engines all over England. Of these, 80 were in cotton industries, nine in wool industries, and the rest in mining, canal works and iron works. Steam engines were not used in any of the other industries till much later in the century. So, even the most powerful new technology that enhanced the productivity of labour manifold was slow to be accepted by industrialists.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:

Question 1.

Who invented or produced the first Steam Engine?

(A) James Watt
(B) Isaac Newton
(C) Newcomen
(D) Albert Einstein
Answer:
(C) Newcomen

Question 2.

Who manufactured the new model of Steam Engine?

(A) Matthew Boulton
(B) Newcomen
(C) James Watt
(D) Isaac Newton
Answer:
(A) Matthew Boulton

Question 3.

How many Steam Engines were there at the beginning of the nineteenth century all over the England?

(A) 521
(B) 221
(C) 421
(D) 321
Answer:
(D) 321

Question 4.

Out of 321 Steam Engines, how many were used in Cotton Industries?

(A) 90
(B) 80
(C) 70
(D) 60
Answer:
(B) 80

III. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
A range of products could be produced only with hand labour. Machines were oriented to produce uniforms, standardised goods with intricate designs and specific shapes. In mid-nineteenth century Britain, for instance, 500 varieties of hammers were produced alongwith 45 kind of axes. These required human skill and not mechanical technology. In Victorian Britain, the upper classes – the aristocrats and the bourgeoisie – preferred things produced by hand. Handmade products came to symbolise refinement and class. They were better finished, individually produced, and carefully designed. Machine made goods were for export to the colonies. In countries with labour shortage, industrialists were keen on using mechanical power so that the needed for human labour can be minimised. This was the case in nineteenth-century America. Britain, however, had no problem hiring human hands.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:

Question 1

……………. were Standardised products, which were produced for a mass market

(A) Cotton
(B) Uniforms
(C) Wool
(D) Tools
Answer:
(B) Uniforms

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation

Question 2

……………varieties of hammers and………….. kinds of axes were produced in Britain in mid-nineteenth century.

(A) 500,45
(B) 500,55
(C) 300,145
(D) 400,45
Answer:
(A) 500,45

Question 3.

In Victorian Britain, the aristocrats and bourgeoisie belonged to the…………

(A) Priest classes
(B) Lower classes
(C) Upper classes
(D) Middle classes
Answer:
(C) Upper classes

Question 4.

……………. products symbolised refinement and

(A) Machine made
(B) Handmade
(C) Man made
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) Handmad

IV. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
The European companies gradually gained power – first securing a variety of concessions from local courts, then the monopoly rights to trade. This resulted in a decline of the old ports of Surat and Hooghly through which local merchants had operated. Exports from these ports fell dramatically, the credit that had financed the earlier trade began drying up, and the local bankers slowly went bankrupt. In the last years of the seventeenth century, the gross value of trade that passed through Surat had been ? 16 million. By the 1740s it had slumped to ? 3 million.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 1.

Who secured concessions from local Courts?

(A) The American companies
(B) The European companies
(C) The Asian companies
(D) The Africa companies
Answer:
(B) The European companies

Question 2.

Hooghly and………… were the old Ports.

(A) Surat
(B) Punjab
(C) Central Asia
(D) Persia
Answer:
(A) Surat

Question 3

………. slowly went bankrupt.

(A) Exporters
(B) Dealers
(C) Bankers
(D) Customers
Answer:
(C) Bankers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation

Question 4.

The gross value of trade that passed through Surat had been

(A)₹ 18 million
(B) ₹ 17 million
(C) ₹ 19 million
(D) ₹ 16 million
Answer:
(D) ₹ 16 million

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 4 The Making of Global World

The Making of Global World Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Question 1.

Column AColumn B
(i) Corn Laws(A) Detroit
(ii) Rinderpest(B) America
(iii) Small-pox(C) Britain
(iv) Car Plant(D) Africa

(A) (i)-(D), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)
(B) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(B),(iv)-(A)
(C) (i)-(D), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)
(D) (i)-(B), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(C)
Answer:
(C) (i)-(D), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)

Explanation:
(i) Cowries or seashells were used as a i currency in India.
(ii) Chinese pottery moved through the Silk 1 route to Europe and Asia.
(iii) Ready foodstuff came from China to West which was known as spaghetti.
(iv) In chain of ready foodstuff, pasta came from Italy through Arab Traders.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 4 The Making of Global World

Question 2.

Column AColumn B
(i) Indian(A) Pottery
(ii) Chinese(B) Pasta
(iii) Italian(C) Cowries
(iv) Arab Traders(D) Spaghetti

(A) (i)-(D), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)
(B) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)
(C) (i)-(C), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(B)
(D) (i)-(B), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(C)
Answer:
(C) (i)-(C), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(B)

Explanation:
(i) Cowries or seashells were used as a i currency in India.
(ii) Chinese pottery moved through the Silk 1 route to Europe and Asia.
(iii) Ready foodstuff came from China to West which was known as spaghetti.
(iv) In chain of ready foodstuff, pasta came from Italy through Arab Traders.

Question 3.

Arrange the following in the correct sequence:

(i) The Second World War.
(ii) The Great Depression.
(m) The Chinese Revolution.
(iv) The IMF and the World Bank commenced financial operations.

Options:
(A) (i) – (iii) – (iv) – (ii)
(B) (iii) – (iv) – (ii) – (i)
(C) (iv) – (ii) – (i) – (iii)
(D) (ii) – (i) – (iv) – (iii)
Answer:
(D) (ii) – (i) – (iv) – (iii)

Explanation:
(i) The Great Depression, 1936.
(ii) The Second World War in 1939.
(iii) The IMF and the World Bank commenced 1 financial operations in 1947.
(iv) The Chinese Revolution, 1949.

Question 4.

Arrange the following in the correct sequence:

(i) Indentured Labour was abolished.
(ii) Rinderpest (Cattle Plague) had a terrifying impact on livelihoods of the African people and the local economy.
(iii) The First World War was fought.
(iv) Potato Famine in Ireland.

Options:
(A) (iv) – (ii) – (iii) – (i)
(B) (iii) – (i) – (ii) – (iv)
(C) (i) – (iv) – (iii) – (ii)
(D) (ii) – (iii) – (iv) – (i)
Answer:
(A) (iv) – (ii) – (iii) – (i)

Explanation:
(i) Potato Famine in Ireland from 1845 to 1849.
(ii) Rinderpest (Cattle Plague) had a terrifying impact on livelihoods of the African people and the local economy in late 1880s.
(iii) The First World War was fought from 1914  to 1918.
(iv) Inden ured Labour was abolished in 1921.

Question 5.

In Trinidad what was referred as Hosay?

(A) Annual Muharram procession marking a Carnival.
(B) Christmas celebration
(C) Easter festival
(D) New Year celebration
Answer:
(A) Annual Muharram procession marking a Carnival.

Explanation:
In Trinidad the annual Muharram procession was transformed into a riotous carnival called ‘Hosay’ in which workers of all races and religions joined.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 4 The Making of Global World

Question 6.

Until 18th century, which two countries were considered the richest in the world?

(A) China and Japan
(B) England and France
(C) India and China
(D) England and Italy
Answer:
(C) India and China

Question 7.

Why were the Europeans attracted the most to Africa?

(A) By its natural beauty.
(B) By the opportunities for investment.
(C) For its vast land resources and mineral wealth.
(D) For recruitment of labour.
Answer:
(C) For its vast land resources and mineral wealth.

Question 8.

Most Indian Indentured workers came from :

(A) Eastern Uttar Pradesh
(B) North-Eastern States
(C) Jammu & Kashmir
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Eastern Uttar Pradesh

Explanation:
In the mid-nineteenth century Eastern UP faced cottage industries declined, land rents rose, lands were cleared for mines and plantations that affected the lives of the poor. Thus, they forced to migrate in search of work.

Question 9.

Study the picture and answer the question that follows:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 4 The Making of Global World 1

Which of the following aspects best signifies this image of ship “Alexandra” ?

(A) Irish emigrants waiting to board the ship.
(B) Meat being loaded on the ship.
(C) Emigrants leaving for the US.
(D) Transport to the gold mines.
Answer:
(B) Meat being loaded on the ship.

Explanation:
Till the 1870s, animals were shipped live from America to Europe but live animals took up a lot of ship space and also g became unfit to eat. Hence, Meat became an expensive luxury for European poor.

Question 10.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 4 The Making of Global World 2

Which of the following options best signifies the above picture ?

(A) A distant view of Surat and its river
(B) New Orleans
(C) Transvaal Gold Mines
(D) Stalingrad in Soviet Russia
Answer:
(A) A distant view of Surat and its river

Explanation:
In the seventeenth and early eighteenth centuries, Surat remained the main centre of overseas trade in the western Indian Ocean.

Question 11.

Analyze the information given below, considering one the following correct options :
Consider the jute producers of Bengal. They grew raw jute that was processed in factories for export in the form of gunny bags. But as gunny exports collapsed, the price of raw jute crashed more than 60 per cent. Peasants who borrowed in the hope of better times or to increase output in the hope of higher incomes faced ever lower prices, and fell deeper and deeper into debt. Thus the Bengal jute growers’ lament: Grow more jute, brothers, with the hope of greater cash. Costs and debts of jute will make your hopes get dashed. When you have spent all your money and got the crop off the ground, … traders, sitting at home, will pay only Rs 5 a maund.

(A) The Great Depression
(B) India and the Great Depression
(C) Post-War Recovery
(D) Rise of mass Production and Consumption
Answer:
(B) India and the Great Depression

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 4 The Making of Global World

Question 12.

Analyze the information given below, considering one the following correct options : The Silk Routes are a good example of vibrant pre¬modern trade and cultural links between distant parts of the world. The name ‘Silk Routes’ points to the importance of West-bound Chinese silk cargoes along this route. Historians have identified several silk routes, over land and by sea, knitting together vast regions of Asia, and linking Asia with Europe and northern Africa. They are known to have existed since before the Christian Era and thrived almost till the fifteenth century. But Chinese pottery also travelled the Same route, as did textiles and spices from India and Southeast Asia. In return, precious metals gold and silver flowed from Europe to Asia. Trade and cultural exchange always went hand in hand. Early Christian missionaries almost certainly travelled this route to Asia, as did early Muslim preachers a few centuries later. Much before all this, Buddhism emerged from eastern India and spread in several directions through intersecting points on the silk routes.

(A) Pre-modern Trade and cultural links
(B) Trade and cultural exchange
(C) Silk Routes link the world
(D) Chinese Silk cargoes
Answer:
(C) Silk Routes link the world

Question 13.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) Rinderpest arrived in Africa in the late 1980s.
(B) Rinderpest moved like forest fire in Africa.
(C) The loss of cattle due to this destroyed African livelihoods.
(D) Colonial government forced the Africans into the labour market.
Answer:
(A) Rinderpest arrived in Africa in the late 1980s.

Explanation:
Rinderpest or cattle plague I arrived in Africa in the late 1880s.

Question 14.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) The Great Depression began around 1929 and lasted till the mid-1930s.
(B) During this period most parts of the world experienced catastrophic declines in production, employment, incomes and trade.
(C) The exact timing and impact of the depression varied across countries.
(D) But in general, agricultural regions and communities were the best affected.
Answer:
(D) But in general, agricultural regions and communities were the best affected.

Explanation:
But in general, agricultural regions and communities were the worst affected.

Assertion and reason Based MCQs

Directions: In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false and R is True

Question 1.

Assertion (A): The Silk Routes are a good example of pre-modern trade and cultural links between distant parts of the world.
Reason (R) : The name ’Silk Routes’ points to the importance of West-bound Chinese silk cargoes along this route.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 4 The Making of Global World

Question 2.

Assertion (A): The First World War was a war like no other before.
Reason (R) : The First World War was mainly fought in Europe.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is True

Explanation:
The First World War was a war like no other before because this involved the world’s leading industrial nations.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): Most indentured labour in India came from present day Eastern UE Bihar, Central India and drydistricts of Tamil Nadu.
Reason (R): In mid 19th century, the regions of Eastern UR Bihar, Central India and Tamil Nadu due to inflation in prices after First World War.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false

Explanation:
In the mid-nineteenth century Eastern UP faced cottage industries declined, land rents rose, lands were cleared for mines and plantations that affected the lives of the poor. Thus, they forced to migrate in search of work.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Europe emerged as the centre of world trade in the 19th century.
Reason (R): Till the eighteenth century, China and India were among the world’s richest countries.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Reduced importance of China and India in World trade and the emergence of Americas pushed the centre of world trade westwards.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): US quickly recovered after First world war.
Reason (R): US exports boosted European recovery and world trade over the next six years.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false

Explanation:
The First World War was a war like no other before because this involved the world’s leading industrial nations.

Question 6.

Assertion (A): World Bank and IMF were established after the second world war.
Reason (R): Second world war caused an immense amount of economic destruction and many parts of Europe and Asia were destroyed.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Case-Based MCQs

I. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:
All through history, human societies have become steadily more interlinked. From ancient times, travellers, traders, priests and pilgrims travelled vast distances for knowledge, opportunity and spiritual fulfilment, or to escape persecution. They carried goods, money, values, skills, ideas, inventions, and even germs and diseases. As early as 3000 BCE an active coastal trade linked the Indus valley civilisations with present-day West Asia. For more than a millennia, cowries (the Hindi cowrie or seashells, used as a form of currency) from the Maldives found their way to China and East Africa. The long-distance spread of disease¬carrying germs may be traced as far back as the seventh century. By the thirteenth century it had become an unmistakable link.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:

Question 1.

In ancient times who travelled vast distances for knowledge, opportunity and spiritual fulfilment?

(A) Travellers
(B) Traders
(C) Priests
(D) All of them
Answer:
(D) All of them

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 4 The Making of Global World

Question 2.

Besides goods, money, values, skills, ideas, inventions they also carried:

(A) Gold
(B) Germs and diseases
(C) Silver
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) Germs and diseases

Question 3.

In Hindi, meaning of Cowrie is.

(A) Seashells
(B) Nutshells
(C) Walnut shells
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Seashells

Question 4.

The long distance spread of disease-carrying germs may be traced between:

(A) Sixth-twelfth Century
(B) Eight-fourteenth Century
(C) Seventh-thirteenth Century
(D) Ninth-sixteenth Century
Answer:
(C) Seventh-thirteenth Century

II. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:
The silk routes are a good example of vibrant pre-modern trade and cultural links between distant parts of the world. The name ’silk routes’ points to the importance of West-bound Chinese silk cargoes along this route. Historians have identified several silk routes, over land and by sea, knitting together vast regions of Asia, and linking Asiawith Europe and northern Africa. They are known to have existed since before the Christian Era and thrived almost till the fifteenth century. But Chinese pottery also travelled the same route, as did textiles and spices from India and Southeast Asia. In return, precious metals – gold and silver – flowed from Europe to Asia.Trade and cultural exchange always went hand in hand. Early Christian missionaries almost certainly travelled this route to Asia, as did early Muslim preachers a few centuries later. Much before all this, Buddhism emerged from eastern India and spread in several directions through intersecting points on the silk routes.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:

Question 1.

The silk routes are a good example of:

(A) Modern trade
(B) Pre-modern trade
(C) Ancient trade
(D) Global trade
Answer:
(B) Premodern trade

Question 2.

Silk is a product.

(A) Japanese
(B) Korean
(C) American
(D) Chinese
Answer:
(D) Chinese

Explanation:
The origin of silk in China since ancient time that symbolise the royalty of Chinese people.

Question 3.

What was exported from India through Silk route?

(A) Oil
(B) Petroleum
(C) Textile and Spices
(D) Herbs
Answer:
(C) Textile and Spices

Explanation:
As Oil and Petroleum exported from Arab countries, while China exported herbs.

Question 4.

Early Christian Missionaries and preachers travelled through this route to Asia.

(A) Christian
(B) Sikh
(C) Muslim
(D) Buddhist
Answer:
(C) Muslim

III. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:
Population growth from the late eighteenth century had increased the demand for food grains in Britain. As urban centres expanded and industry grew, the demand for agricultural products went up, pushing up food grain prices. Under pressure from landed groups, the government also restricted the import of corn. The laws allowing the government to do this were commonly known as the ‘Corn Laws’. Unhappy with high food prices, industrialists and urban dwellers forced the abolition of the Corn Laws. After the Corn Laws were scrapped, food could be imported into Britain more cheaply than it could be produced within the country. British agriculture was unable to compete with imports. Vast areas of land were now left uncultivated, and thousands of men and women were thrown out of work. They flocked to the cities or migrated overseas.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:

Question 1.

In eighteenth Century the demand for food grains increased in Britain due to:

(A) Less production
(B) Population growth
(C) Crop failure
(D) Ancient techniques
Answer:
(B) Population growth

Explanation:
As the population increases the demand for resources increases naturally.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 4 The Making of Global World

Question 2.

Expansion of urban centres and growth of industries pushed up the prices of:

(A) Agricultural products
(B) Defence products
(C) Economy
(D) Living
Answer:
(A) Agricultural products

Question 3.

The government restricted the import of:

(A) Medicines
(B) Textiles
(C) Corn
(D) Cooking oil
Answer:
(C) Corn

Explanation:
When the demand of food grains increases, government restricted the import of com, known as corn laws.

Question 4

were unhappy with high food prices.

(A) Urban dwellers
(B) Industrialists
(C) Poor people ‘
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer:
(D) Both (A) and (B)

IV .Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:
The trade in meat offers a good example of this connected process. Till the 1870s, animals were shipped live from America to Europe and then slaughtered when they arrived there. But live animals took up a lot of ship space. Many also died in voyage, fell ill, lost weight, or became unfit to eat. Meat was hence an expensive luxury beyond the reach of the European poor. High prices in turn kept demand and production down until the development of a new technology, namely, refrigerated ships, which enabled the transport of perishable foods over long distances. Now animals were slaughtered for food at the starting point – in America, Australia or New Zealand – and then transported to Europe as frozen meat. This reduced shipping costs and lowered meat prices in Europe. The poor in Europe could now consume a more varied diet. To the earlier monotony of bread and potatoes many, though not all, could now add meat (and butter and eggs) to their diet. Better living condition promoted social peace within the country and support for imperialism abroad.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:

Question 1.

Example of Connected process is trade in meat, Connection here refers to:

(A) Simple policies of the government
(B) Cheap Prices
(C) Role of Technology
(D) All the above
Answer:
(C) Role of Technology

Question 2.

Animals were shipped live from:

(A) Germany to America
(B) America to England
(C) America to Europe
(D) Europe to Asia
Answer:
(C) America to Europe

Question 3

………….enable the transport of perishable foods over long distances.

(A) Ships
(B) Big voyages
(C) Refrigerated Ships
(D) Steamers
Answer:
(C) Refrigerated Ships

Question 4.

America, Australia and New Zealand were the point for the export of meat to Europe.

(A) Starting
(B) Mid
(C) Ending
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Starting

V. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:
The Second World War broke out a mere two decades after the end of the First World War. It was fought between the Axis powers (mainly Nazi Germany, Japan and Italy) and the Allies (Britain, France, the Soviet Union and the US). It was a war waged for six years on many fronts, in many places, over land, on sea, in the air. Once again death and destruction was enormous. At least 60 million people, or about 3% of the world’s 1939 population, are believed to have been killed, directly or indirectly, as a result of the war. Millions more were injured. Unlike in earlier wards, most of these deaths took place outside the battlefields. Many more civilians than soldiers died from war-related causes. Vast parts of Europe and Asia were devastated, and several cities were destroyed by aerial bombardment or relentless artillery attacks. The war caused an immense amount of economic devastation and social disruption. Reconstruction promised to be long and difficult.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:

Question 1.

The difference between First World War and Second World War was:

(A) Two decades
(B) One decade
(C) Three decades
(D) Four decades
Answer:
(A) Two decades

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 4 The Making of Global World

Question 2.

The Second world war was fought for years on many fronts, in many places, over land, sea and air.

(A) Five years
(B) Two years
(C) Six years
(D) Ten years
Answer:
(C) Six years

Question 3.

In 1939 about………….. of world was at least million people, who were killed in ………….. Second World War.

(A) 5%, 50
(B) 6%, 60
(C) 3%, 30
(D) 3%, 60
Answer:
(D) 3%, 60

Question 4.

Vast parts of were devastated.

(A) Europe and Asia
(B) Africa and Asia
(C) Europe and Africa
(D) Africa and America
Answer:
(A) Europe and Asia

VI. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:
Rinderpest arrived in Africa in the late 1880s. It was carried by infected cattle imported from British Asia to feed the Italian soldiers invading Eritrea in East Africa. Entering Africa’s in the east, rinderpest moved west ‘like forest fire’, reaching Africa’s Atlantic coast in 1892. It reached to Cape (Africa’s southernmost tip) five years later. Along the way rinderpest killed 90% of the cattle. The loss of cattle destroyed Africa livelihoods, Planters, mine owners and colonial governments now successfully monopolised what scarce cattle resources remained, to strengthen their power and to force Africans into the labour market. Control over the scarce resource of cattle enabled European colonisers to conquer and subdue Africa. Similar stories can be told about the impact of Western conquest on other parts of the nineteenth century world.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:

Question 1.

Rinderpest arrived in Africa in the late

(A) 1980
(B) 1780
(C) 1880
(D) 1870
Answer:
(C) 1880

Question 2.

It was carried by infected

(A) Cows
(B) Hens
(C) Goats
(D) Cattle
Answer:
(D) Cattle

Question 3.

Rinderpest reached in the Cape after……. years.

(A) One year
(B) Five years
(C) Three years
(D) Four years
Answer:
(B) Five years

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 4 The Making of Global World

Question 4.

The loss of cattle destroyed livelihoods of

(A) Indians
(B) Americans
(C) Asians
(D) Africans
Answer:
(D) Africans

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 4 The Making of Global World Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India

Nationalism in India Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Question 1.

Which of the following was the reason for calling off ‘the Non-cooperation Movement1 by Gandhiji?

(A) Pressure from the British Government
(B) Second Round Table Conference
(C) Gandhiji’s arrest
(D) Chauri-Chaura incident
Answer:
(D) Chauri-Chaura incident

Explanation:
At Chauri Chaura in Gorakhpur, a peaceful demonstration turned into a violent clash with the police, thats why Mahatma Gandhi called off the Non-Cooperation Movement.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India

Question 2.

Who among the following wrote the Vande Mataram?

(A) Rabindranath Tagore
(B) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
(C) Abindranath Tagore
(D) Dwarkanath Tagore
Answer:
(B) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay

Question 3.

In which of the following Indian National Congress Session, the idea of Non-Cooperation Movement was accepted?

(A) Lahore Session
(B) Nagpur Session
(C) Calcutta Session
(D) Madras Session
Answer:
(C) Calcutta Session

Explanation:
At the Calcutta session of the’ Congress in September 1920, Gandhiji convinced other leaders of the need to start a non-cooperation movement in support of Khilafat as well as for Swaraj.

Question 4.

Study the picture and answer the question that follows:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 SST History Chapter 2 Nationalism in India 1

Which of the following events was related to this image of Gandhi?

(A) Non-Cooperation Movement
(B) Kheda Salyagraha
(C) Dandi March
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Dandi March

Question 5.

Identify the appropriate reason for the formation of the Swaraj party from the options given below:

(A) Wanted members of Congress to return to council politics.
(B) Wanted members of Congress to ask for Purna Swaraj for IndiAnswer:
(C) Wanted members of Congress to ask dominion Status for India.
(D) Wanted members of Congress to oppose Simon Commission.
Answer:
(A) Wanted members of Congress to return to council politics.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India

Question 6.

With the growth of Nationalism, who created the image of Bharat Mata ?

(A) Abanindranath Tagore
(B) Rabindranath Tagore
(C) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
(D) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer:
(A) Abanindranath Tagore

Question 7.

In the 19th Century India, which ideas were revived through a movement to develop nationalism ?

(A) History and fictions
(B) Figure or images
(C) Folklore or songs
(D) Popular prints
Answer:
(C) Folklore or songs

Question 8.

Study the picture and answer the question that follows :

MCQ Questions for Class 10 SST History Chapter 2 Nationalism in India 2

Which of the following personalities is shown in the given image ?

(A) Vallabhbhai Pate!
(B) C. R. Das
(C) Motilal Nehru
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Answer:
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Question 9.

Study the picture and answer the question that follows:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 SST History Chapter 2 Nationalism in India 3

Which of the following things is being held by Jawaharlal Nehru in this image ?

(A) Bhagwad Gita
(B) Image of Bharat Mata
(C) Discovery of India
(D) Hind Swaraj
Answer:
(B) Image of Bharat Mata

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India

Question 10.

Which of the following agreement gave seats to the depressed classes in Provincial and Central Legislative Council?

(A) Poona Pact
(B) Lucknow Pact
(C) Gandhi – Irvin Pact
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Poona Pact

Explanation:
Dr. B.R, Ambedkar demanded a separate electorate, this clashed with Mahatma Gandhi where the result was Poona Pact.

Question 11.

Column AColumn B
(i) Kheda Satyagraha(A) Motilal Nehru
(ii) Natesa Sastri(B) Mahatma Gandh
(ill) Swaraj Party(C) 1930
(iv) Depressed Classes Association(D) “The Folklore of Southern India”

(A) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)
(B) (i)-(B), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(A)
(C) (i)-(D), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(C)
(D) (i)-(C), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(D)
Answer:
(D) (i)-(C), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(D)

Explanation:
Column A shows the name of person that matches with Column B having s the creations by them.

Question 12.

Column AColumn B
(i) Second Round Table Conference(A) A tricolour flag designed in Bengal
(ii) Flindustan Socialist Republican Association(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(iii) All India Trade Union Congress(C) Chandrashek- har Azad
(iv) Swadeshi Mov- ment(D) N. M. Joshi

(A) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)
(B) (i)-(B), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(A)
(C) (i)-(D), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(C)
(D) (i)'(C), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(D)
Answer:
(B) (i)-(B), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(A)

Question 13.

Column AColumn B
(i) Abanindranath Tagore(A) Jana Gana Mana
(ii) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay(B) The Folklore of Southern India
(iii) Rabindranath Tagore(C) Bharat Mata im-age
(iv) Natesa Sastri(D) Vande Mataram

(A) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)
(B) (i)-(B), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(A)
(C) (i)-(D), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(C)
(D) (i)-(C), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(D)
Answer:
(D) (i)-(C), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(D)

Explanation:
Column A shows the name of person that matches with Column B having s the creations by them.

Question 14.

Certain events are given below. Choose the appropriate chronological order:

(i) Coming of Simon Commission to India
(ii) Demand of Puma Swaraj in Lahore Session of INC
(iii) Government of India Act, 1919
(iv) Champaran Satyagraha

Options:
(A) (iii) – (ii) – (iv) – (i)
(B) (i) – (ii) – (iv) – (iii)
(C) (ii) – (iii) – (i) – (iv)
(D) (iv) – (iii) – (i) – (ii)
Answer:
(D) (iv) – (iii) – (i) – (ii)

Explanation:

(i) Champaran Satyagraha in 1918.
(ii) Government of India Act, 1919.
(iii) Coming of Simon Commission of India in 1928.
(iv) Demand of Purna Swaraj in Lahore Session of INC in 1929.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India

Question 15.

Arrange the following in the correct sequence:

(i) Formation of the Muslim League.
(ii) The First Word War.
(iii) The first rrieeting of the Indian National Congress in Bombay.
(iv) Through the war prices increased in double.

Options:
(A) (ii) – (iv) – (iii) – (i)
(B) (i) – (iii) – (iv) – (ii)
(C) (iv) – (ii) – (i) – (iii)
(D) (iii) – (i) – (ii) – (iv)
Answer:
(D) (iii) – (i) – (ii) – (iv)

Explanation:

(i) The first meeting of the Indian National Congress in Bombay in 1885.
(ii) Formation of the Muslim League in 1906.
(iii) The First Word War in 1914.
(iv) Through the war prices increased in double in 1918.

Question 16.

Arrange the following in the correct sequence:

(i) Arrange the following in the correct sequence:
(ii) Rowlatt Act passed. The Partition of Bengal officially came into existence.
(iii) Satyagraha Movement in Ahmedabad.
(iv) Satyagraha Movement in Kheda District (Gujarat)

Options:
(A) (iv) – (ii) – (i) – (iii)
(B) (ii) – (iii) – (iv) – (i)
(C) (ii) – (iv) – (iii) – (i)
(D) (i) – (iii) – (ii) – (iv)
Answer:
(C) (ii) – (iv) – (iii) – (i)

Explanation:
(i) The Partition of Bengal officially came into existence in 1905.
(ii) Satyagraha Movement in Kheda District (Gujarat) in 1917.
(iii) Satyagraha Movement in Ahmedabad g 1918.
(iv) Rowlatt Act passed in 1919.

Question 17.

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options: Mahatma Gandhi’s letter was, in a way, an ultimatum. If the demands were not fulfilled by 11 March, the letter stated, the Congress would launch a civil disobedience campaign. Irwin was unwilling to negotiate. So Mahatma Gandhi started his famous salt march accompanied by 78 of his trusted volunteers.The march was over 240 miles, from Gandhiji’s ashram in Sabarmati to the Gujarati coastal town of Dandi. The volunteers walked for 24 days, about 10 miles a day. Thousands came to hear Mahatma Gandhi wherever he stopped, and – he told them what he meant by Swaraj and urged them to peacefully defy the British. On 6 April he reached Dandi, and ceremonially violated the law, manufacturing salt by boiling sea water.

(A) Non-Cooperation Movement
(B) Salt March
(C) Khilafat Movement
(D) Rowlatt Act
Answer:
(B) Salt March

Question 18.

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options: As the national movement developed, nationalist leaders became more and more aware of such icons and symbols in unifying people and inspiring in them a feeling of nationalism. During the Swadeshi Movement in Bengal, a tricolour flag (red, green and yellow) was designed. It had eight lotuses representing eight provinces of British India, and a crescent moon, representing Hindus and Muslims. By 1921, Gandhiji had designed the Swaraj flag. It was again a tricolour (red, green and white) and had a spinning wheel in the centre, representing the Gandhian ideal of self-help. Carrying the flag, holding it aloft, during marches became a symbol of defiance.

(A) Designing of icons
(B) Designing of tricolour flag
(C) Designing of national symbols
(D) Designing of images
Answer:
(B) Designing of tricolour flag

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India

Question 19.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) Mahatma Gandhi found sugar a powerful symbol that could unite a nation.
(B) On 31th January, 1930 he sent a letter to Viceroy Irwin stating eleven demands.
(C) Some of these were of general interest; others were specific demands of different classes, from industrialists to peasants.
(D) The idea was to make the demands wide-ranging, so that all classes within Indian society could identify with them and everyone could be brought together in a united campaign.
Answer:
(A) Mahatma Gandhi found sugar a powerful symbol that could unite a nation.

Explanation:
Mahatma Gandhi found salt a powerful symbol that could unite a nation as salt is used in our day to day life.

Question 20.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) Against this background the new Tory government in Britain constituted a Statutory Commission under Sir John Simon.
(B) Set up in response to nationalist movement, the Commission was to look into the functioning of the constitutional system in India and suggest changes.
(C) The problem was that the Commission did not have a single Indian member.
(D) They were all AmericAnswer:
Answer:
(D) They were all AmericAnswer:

Question 21.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) In 1928, Vallabhbhai Patel led the Peasant Movement in Bardoli, a taluka in Gujarat.
(B) It was against enhancement of land revenue, known as the Civil Disobedient Movement.
(C) This Movement was a success under the able leadership of Vallabhbhai Patel.
(D) The struggle was widely publicized and generated immense sympathy in many parts of India.
Answer:
(B) It was against enhancement of land revenue, known as the Civil Disobedient Movement.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions: In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false and R is True

Question 1.

Assertion (A) : It was declared that 26lh January, 1930 would be celebrated as the Independence Day when people were to take a pledge to struggle for Complete Independence.
Reason (R) : Mahatma Gandhi had to find a way to relate this abstract idea of freedom to more concrete issues of everyday life.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.

Assertion (A) : Dyer entered the area, blocked the exit points, and opened fire on the crowd, killing hundreds.
Reason (R): His object, as he declared later, was to ‘produce a moral effect’, to create in the minds of satyagrahis a feeling of terror and awe.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 3.

Assertion (A) : Foreign goods were boycotted, liquor shops picketed, and foreign cloth burnt in huge bonfires.
Reason (R): Students and teachers began trickling back to government schools and lawyers joined back work in government courts.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false

Explanation:
Boycott movement was also launched to collapse the British rule in India and promoting a culture to make in house products.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Mahatma Gandhi decided to take up the Khilafat issue. ‘
Reason (R): After many leaders were arrested, violent clashes broke out at many places in India and women and children were beaten up.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
Mahatma Gandhi alway.wanted to bring the Hindu-Muslims together ; and launch a broad nation wide resistance movement against the Britishers.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India

Question 5.

Assertion (A): Between 1921-1922, production of tea and coffee grew up.
Reason (R) : As the non-cooperation moved into economic sphere, foreign goods and clothes were boycotted and burnt.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is True

Explanation:
As the boycott movement spread, and people began discarding imported clothe , and wearing only Indian ones, production c:d Indian textile mills and handlooms grew up.

Question 6.

Assertion (A): Folklores gave a picture of traditional culture, it helps in discovering a national identify and restoring a sense of pride in one’s past.
Reason (R): Nationalism spreads when peep’e discover some unity that binds them together

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
Folklores played an important j role in developing a feeling of nationalism.

I. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
The movement started with middle-class participation in the cities. Thousands of students left government- controlled schools and colleges, headmasters and teachers resigned, and lawyers gave up their legal practices. The council elections were boycotted in most provinces except Madras, where the Justice Party, the party of the non-Brahmans, felt that entering the council was one way of gaining some power-something that usually only Brahmans had access to. The effects of non- cooperation on the economic front were more dramatic. Foreign goods were boycotted, liquor shops picketed, and foreign cloth burnt in huge bonfires. The import of foreign cloth halved between 1921 and 1922, its value dropping from ? 102 crore to ? 57 crore. In many places merchants and traders refused to trade in foreign goods or finance foreign trade. As the boycott movement spread, and people began discarding imported clothes and wearing only Indian ones, production of Indian textile mills and handlooms went up. But this movement in the cities gradually slowed down for a variety of reasons.

Khadi cloth was often more expensive than mass produced mill cloth and poor people could not afford to buy it. How then could they boycott mill cloth for too long? Similarly the boycott of British institutions posed a problem. For the movement to be successful, alternative Indian institutions had to be set up so that they could be used in place of the British Ones. These were slow to come up. So students and teachers began trickling back to government, schools and lawyers joined back work in government courts. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option

Question 1.

What was the purpose of Justice Party to contest Elections to the Council in Madras? Select the appropriate option:

(A) It wanted to contest elections to the council as it was one of the ways to gain some Income that usually only Brahmans had access to.
(B) It wanted to contest elections to the council as it was one of the ways to gain some power that usually only Brahmans had access to.
(C) It wanted to contest elections to the council as it was one of the way to gain more popularity that usually only Brahmans had access to.
(D) It wanted to contest elections to the council as it was one of the ways to take revenge from BrahmAnswer:
Answer:
(B) It wanted to contest elections to the council as it was one of the ways to gain some power that usually only Brahmans had access to.

Question 2.

How was the effects of ‘Non- Cooperation on the economic front’ dramatic?

(A) Merchants refused to trade in foreign goods or finance foreign trade.
(B) The merchants imported goods from other countries.
(C) The neighbouring countries were offering same goods at cheaper prices.
(D) Public was not interested in buying foreign goods.
Answer:
(A) Merchants refused to trade in foreign goods or finance foreign trade.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India

Question 3.

Theimport of foreigri cloth between 1921 and 1922 saw changes because :

(A) Its value dropped from? 100 crore to T 97 crove
(B) Its value dropped from? 201 crore to f IN) crore
(C) Its value dropped from? 102 crore to? 57 crore
(D) Its value dropped from? 102 crore to? 75 crore
Answer:
(C) Its value dropped from ? 102 crore to ? 57 crore

Question 4.

Thousands of………. left government controlled schools and colleges and …………gave up their legal practices.

(A) Teachers, Judges
(B) Headmasters, Clerks
(C) Students, Advocates
(D) Students, Lawyers
Answer:
(D) Students, Lawyers

II. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
The identity of the nation, as you know is most often symbolised in a figure or image. This helps create an image with which people can identify the nation. It was in the twentieth century, with the growth of nationalism, that the identity of India came to be visually associated with the image of Bharat Mata. The image was first created by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay. In the 1870s he wrote ‘Vande Mataram’ as a hymn to the motherland. Later it was included in his novel Anandamath and widely sung during the Swadeshi Movement in Bengal. Moved by the Swadeshi movement, Abanindranath Tagore painted his famous image of Bharat Mata. In this painting Bharat Mata is portrayed as an ascetic figure; she is calm, composed, divine and spiritual. In subsequent years, the image of Bharat Mata acquired many different forms, as it circulated in popular prints and was painted by different artists. Devotion to this mother figure came to be seen as evidence of one’s nationalism.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option

Question 1.

Means of creating a feeling of nationalism was through:

(A) Reinterpretation of Astronomy
(B) Reinterpretation of Philosophy
(C) Reinterpretation of Mythology
(D) Reinterpretation of History
Answer:
(D) Reinterpretation of History

Explanation:
Historical events led the feeling of nationalism.

Question 2.

Bharat Mata was first created by:

(A) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
(B) Natesa Sastri
(C) Rabindranath Tagore
(D) Abanindranath Tagore
Answer:
(A) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay

Question 3.

As Bharat Mata is to India,………..is to Italy and is………. to Germany.

(A) Statue of Liberty, Mother Mary
(B) Marianne, Germania
(C) Germania, Marianne
(D) Statue of Liberty, Germania
Answer:
(B) Marianne, Germania

Explanation:
These statues represents liberty, fraternity and equality of their respective countries.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India

Question 4.

What quality is emphasized by Bharat mata ?

(A) Anxious
(B) Sacred
(C) Mortal
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(B) Sacred

III. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
In the countryside, rich peasant communities – like the Patidars of Gujarat and the Jats of Uttar Pradesh – were active in the movement. Being producers of commercial crops, they were very hard hit by the trade depression and falling prices. As their cash income disappeared, they found it impossible to pay the government’s revenue demand. And the refusal of the government to reduce the revenue demand led to widespread resentment. These rich peasants became enthusiastic supporters of the Civil Disobedience Movement, organising their communities, and at times forcing reluctant members, to participate in the boycott programmes. For them the fight for Swaraj was a struggle against high revenues. But they were deeply disappointed when the movement was called off in 1931 without the revenue rates being revised. So, when the movement was restarted in 1932, many of them refused to participate.

The poorer peasantry were not just interested in the lowering of the revenue demand. Many of them were small tenants cultivating land they had rented from landlords. As the Depression continued and cash incomes dwindled, the small tenants found it difficult to pay their rent. They wanted the unpaid rent to the landlord to be remitted. They joined a variety of radical movements, often led by Socialists and Communists. Apprehensive of raising issues that might upset the rich peasants and landlords, the Congress was unwilling to support ‘no rent’ campaigns in most places. So, the relationship between the poor peasants and the Congress remained uncertain.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option

Question 1.

Patidars and Jats are rich Peasants of which State?

(A) Gujarat and Uttar Pradesh
(B) Gujarat and Himachal Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan
(D) Punjab and Haryana
Answer:
(A) Gujarat and Uttar Pradesh

Question 2.

Who led the Peasant’s Movement in Awadh?

(A) Baba Ramnath
(B) Baba Ramchandra
(C) Baba Ramdev
(D) Baba Ram Mohan
Answer:
(B) Baba Ramchandra

Question 3.

For plantation workers in Assam, which Act did not permit them to leave the tea gardens without permission?

(A) Inland Emigration Act of 1947
(B) Inland Emigration Act of 1839
(C) Inland Emigration Act of 1859
(D) Inland Emigration Act of 1887
Answer:
(C) Inland Emigration Act of 1859

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India

Question 4.

Congress was unwilling to support campaigns in most places.

(A) High Rent
(B) No Rent
(C) Low Rent
(D) Equal Rent
Answer:
(B) No Rent

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

The Rise of Nationalism in Europe Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Question 1.

Identify the correct statement with regard to ‘The Act of Union 1707’ from the following options.

(A) The British monarchy surrendered the power to English Parliament.
(B) The British Parliament seized power from Ireland.
(C) The formation of the ‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’.
(D) The British nation was formed as a result of a war with Scotland and Wales.
Answer:
(C) The formation of the ‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’.

Explanation:
The Act of Union (1707) between England and Scotland resulted in the formation of the ‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’ after which England was able to impose its influence on Scotland.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

Question 2.

Which of the following treaty recognized Greece as an independent nation?

(A) Treaty of Sevres
(B) Treaty of Versailles
(C) Treaty of Lausanne
(D) Treaty of Constantinople
Answer:
(D) Treaty of Constantinople

Explanation:
The borders of the Ottoman Empire were restated which confirmed the terms of the Constantinople Arrangement and marked the end of the Greek War of Independence creating modern Greece as an independent state.

Question 3.

Study the picture and answer the question that follows Which of the following aspect best signifies this image of Germania”?

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe 1

(A) Heroism and Justice
(B) Folk and Cultural Tradition
(C) Austerity and Asceticism
(D) Revenge and Vengeance
Answer:
(A) Heroism and Justice

Explanation:
In the given image, Germania wears a crown of Oak leaves and in German oak stands for heroism.

Question 4.

Which of the following revolutions is called as the first expression of ‘Nationalism’?

(A) Emphasis on social justice
(B) State planned socio economic system
(C) Freedom for individual and equality before law
(D) Supremacy of State oriented nationalism.
Answer:
(C) Freedom for individual and equality before law

Explanation:
Liberalism stands for equality and freedom that protects individual’s democratic right.

Question 6.

Who said “When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold”?

(A) Garibaldi
(B) Mazzini
(C) Bismarck
(D) Metternich
Answer:
(D) Metternich

Explanation:
Metternich said so when French Revolution overthrew the monarch that impacts other European countries as well.

Question 7.

Who among the following formed the secret society called ‘Young Italy’?

(A) Otto Von Bismarck
(B) Giuseppe Mazzini
(C) Johann Gottfried Herder
(D) Duke Metternich
Answer:
(B) Giuseppe Mazzini

Explanation:
Giuseppe formed this society to transform Italy into a united republican state.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

Question 8.

Which one of the following states was ruled by an Italian princely house before unification of Italy?

(A) Eombardy
(B) Kingdom of Two Sicilies
(C) Venetia
(D) Sardinia – Piedmont
Answer:
(D) Sardinia – Piedmont

Explanation:
Italian language was not commonly used and had territorial differences but only in Sardinia, people not considered themselves Italian.

Question 9.

Study the following picture and answer :
MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe 2
Who is represented as a postman in the given image?

(A) Giuseppe Mazzini
(B) Otto von Bismarck
(C) Napoleon Bonaparte
(D) Giuseppe Garibaldi
Answer:
(C) Napoleon Bonaparte

Explanation:
When Napoleon lost the battle of Leipzig in 1813, he dropped out the letters from his bag that has written the names of the territories he lost.

Question 10.

Which of the following countries is considered as the ‘Cradle of civilisation’?

(A) England
(B) Greece
(C) France
(D) Russia
Answer:
(B) Greece

Explanation:
As Greece was the land of educated elites who spread their culture from all over the Europe.

Question 11.

Which of the following option best signifies this caricature?

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe 3

(A) Otto von Bismarck in the German Reichstag (Parliament)
(B) Victor Emmanuel II in the Italian Parliament
(C) Kaiser William II in the Prussian Parliament
(D) Napolean Bonaparte in the French Parliament
Answer:
(A) Otto von Bismarck in the German Reichstag (Parliament)

Explanation:
In the given image, Bismarck is having hunter in his hand which shows how his subordinates were afraid of Bismarck when he become autocratic during assemblies.

Question 12.

Column AColumn B
(i) Napoleon Bonaparte(a) Frankfurt Parliament
(ii) Duke Metternich(b) Civil Code
(iii) Louis XVI(c) Congress of Vienna
(iv) Carl Welcker(d) French Revolution

(A) (i)-(B), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(A)
(B) (i)-(D), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(C)
(C) (i)-(B), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(C), (iv)-(D)
(D) (i)-(A), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(C)
Answer:
(A) (i)-(B), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(A)

Explanation:
(i) Napoleon Bonaparte introduced Civil Code of 1804, also known as Napoleonic Code.
(ii) The Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor Duke Mettemich.
(iii) The ast monarch of France was Louis XVI.
(iv) The liberal politician Carl Welcker was an elected member of the Frankfurt Parliament.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

Question 13.

Column AColumn B
(i) Giuseppe Mazzini(A) Unification of Germany
(ii) Otto von Bismarck(B) Unification of Italy
(iii) Napoleon Bonaparte(C) Battle of Waterloo
(iv) Cavour(D) Young Italy

(A) (i)-(B),(ii)-(C),(iii)-(D), (iv)-(A)
(B) (i)-(D),(ii)-(C),(iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)
(C) (i)-(D),(ii)-(A), (iii)-(C),(iv)-(B)
(D) (i)-(A),(ii)-(D),(iii)-(B), (iv)-(C)
Answer:
(C) (i)-(D),(ii)-(A), (iii)-(C),(iv)-(B)

Explanation:
(i) Giuseppe Mazzini formed a secret society called Young Italy.
(ii) Otto von Bismarck was the architect of the process of Germany’s Unification.
(iii) The defeat at Waterloo ended Napoleon Bonaparte’s rule as the Emperor of France.
(iv) Chief Minister Cavour led the movement to unify the Italy.

Question 14.

Column AColumn B
(i) Meaning of ‘liber’(A) The fatherland
(ii) Meaning of ‘elle’(B) The citizen
(iii) Meaning of ‘le citoyen’(C) Free
(iv) Meaning of ‘la patrie’(D) The measure of cloth

(A) (i)-(B), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(A)
(B) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)
(C) (i)-(D), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(C), (iv)-(B)
(D) (i)-(A), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(C)
Answer:
(B) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)

Explanation:
(i) In Roman, Liber means free.
(ii) Elle was used to measure cloth.
(iii) In French, citizens who lived inside city walls known as ‘le citoyen’.
(iv) In French, la patrie’ means ‘the fatherland’.

Question 15.

Column AColumn B
(i) Broken chains/ Red cap(A) Heroism
(ii) Sword(B) Symbol of the German Empire- strength
(iii) Breastplate with eagle(C) Being freed
(iv) Crown of oak leaves(D) Readiness to fight

(A) (i)-(B), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(A)
(B) (i)-(D), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(C), (iv)-(B)
(C) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)
(D) (i)-(A), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(C)
Answer:
(C) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A)

Question 16.

Arrange the following in the correct sequence:

(i) Slav nationalism was the go to force in the Habsburg and Ottoman Empires.
(ii) Unification of Germany.
(iii) Victor Emmanuel was declared as the king of united Italy and Rome was declared the capital of Italy.
(iv) The Prussian King, William was proclaimed the German Emperor.
Option:

(A) (iv) – (ii) – (iii) – (i)
(B) (iii) – (iv) – (ii) – (i)
(C) (iii) – (ii) – (iv) – (i)
(D) (i) – (ii) – (iii) – (iv)
Answer:
(C) (iii) – (ii) – (iv) – (i)

Explanation:
(i) Victor Emmanuel was declared as the king of united Italy and Rome was declared the capital of Italy in 1861.
(ii) Unification of Germany from 1866 to 1871.
(iii) The Prussian King, William I was proclaimed the German Emperor in January, 1871.
(iv) Slav nationalism was the go to force in the Habsburg and Ottoman Empires in 1905.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

Question 17.

Arrange the following in the correct sequence:

(i) Treaty of Constantinople
(ii) First upheaval took place in France
(iii) Lord Byron died
(iv) Greek Struggle for independence begins

Option:
(A) (i) – (ii) – (iii) – (iv)
(B) (ii) – (iv) – (i) – (iii)
(C) (iv) – (iii) – (ii) – (i)
(D) (iii) – (iv) – (ii) – (i)
Answer:
(C) (iv) – (iii) – (ii) – (i)

Explanation:
(i) Greek Struggle for independence begins in 1821.
(ii) Lord Byron died in 1824.
(iii) First upheaval took place in France in July 1830.
(iv) Treaty of Constantinople in 1832.

Question 18.

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options: While it is easy enough to represent a ruler through a portrait or a statue, how does one go about giving a face to a nation? Artists in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries found a way out by personifying a nation. In other words, they represented a country as if it were a person.

(A) Portrait of a nation
(B) Idol of a nation
(C) Personification of a nation
(D) Visualising a nation
Answer:
(D) Visualising a nation

Question 19.

Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options: He was perhaps the most celebrated of Italian freedom fighters. He came from a family engaged in coastal trade and was a sailor in the merchant navy. In 1833, he met Mazzini, joined the Young Italy Movement and participated in a Republican uprising in Piedmont in 1834.

(A) Otto von Bismarck
(B) Giuseppe Mazzini
(C) Count Camillio de Cavour
(D) Giuseppe Garibaldi
Answer:
(D) Giuseppe Garibaldi

Question 20.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) During the years following 1815, the fear of repression drove many liberal-nationalists underground.
(B) Secret Societies sprang up in many Indian states to train revolutionaries and spread their ideas.
(C) To be a revolutionary at this time meant a commitment to oppose monarchical forms that had bean established after the Vienna Congress, and to fight for liberty and freedom.
(D) Most of these revolutionaries also saw the creation of nation states as a necessary part of this struggle for freedom.
Answer:
(B) Secret Societies sprang up in many Indian states to train revolutionaries and spread their ideas.

Explanation:
Secret Societies sprang up in many European states to train revolutionaries and spread their ideas.

Question 21.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) The first upheaval took place in France in July 1930.
(B) The Bourbon Kings who had been restored to power during the conservative reaction after 1815, were now overthrown by liberal revolutionaries who installed a constitutional monarchy with Louis Philippe at its head.
(C) When America sneezes’ Metternich once remarked,’ the rest of Europe catches cold.’
(D) The July Revolution sparked an uprising in Brussels which led to Belgium breaking away from the United Kingdom of the Netherlands.
Answer:
(C) When America sneezes’ Metternich once remarked,’ the rest of Europe catches cold.’

Explanation:
When France sneezes, Metternich once remarked, the rest of Europe catches cold.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions: In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is true.

Question 1.

Assertion (A) : Giuseppe Garibaldi was an Italian General, politician and nationalist who played a large role in the history of Italy.
Reason (R): He was the architect in the process of nation – building.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Bismarck was the architect in the process of nation – building.

Question 2.

Assertion (A) : A large part of the Balkans was under the control of the Ottoman Empire.
Reason (R) : The spread of the ideas of Romantic Nationalism in the Balkans together with the disintegration of the Ottoman Empire made this region very explosive.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 3.

Assertion (A) : The French Revolution was an influential event that marked the age of revolutions in Europe.
Reason (R) : The French Revolution transferred the sovereignty from the people to the monarch.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
The French Revolution led to the transfer of sovereignty from the monarchy to a body of French citizens.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Serfdom and bonded labour were abolished both in the Habsburg dominions and in Russia.
Reason (R) : Monarchs were beginning to realise that the cycles of revolution and repression could only be ended by granting concessions to the liberal-nationalist revolutionaries.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 5.

Assertion (A) : The Scottish Highlands suffered terrible repression whenever they attempted to assert their independence.
Reason (R) : Catholic revolts against British dominance were suppressed.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
Scotland suffered because of the long-drawn-out process and Ireland got support from the English to suppress the Catholic revolts.

Question 6.

Assertion (A): Italy and Switzerland were divided into kingdoms, duchies and cantons whose rulers had their autonomous territories.
Reason (R) : They were closely bound to each other inspite of their autonomous rule.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Italy and Switzerland were under autocratic monarchies within the territories of which lived diverse peoples, sharing a collective identity or a common culture, spoke different languages and belonged to different ethnic groups.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

Question 7.

Assertion (A) : On 18 May 1848, 831 elected representatives revolted in the Frankfurt parliament.
Reason (R) : The parliament was dominated by the middle classes who resisted the demands of workers and lost their support.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is true.

Explanation:
On 18 May 1848, 831 elected representatives marched in a festive procession to take their places in the Frankfurt parliament. While the opposition of the aristocracy and military became stronger, the social basis of parliament eroded.

Question 8.

Assertion (A) : Mazzini’s relentless opposition to monarchy and his vision of democratic republics frightened the conservatives.
Reason (R): Metternich described Mazzini as ‘the most dangerous enemy of social order’.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Case-Based MCQs

I. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
Following the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, European governments were driven by a spirit of conservatism. Conservatives believed that established traditional institutions of state and society – like the monarchy, the Church, social hierarchies, property and the family – should be preserved. Most conservatives, however, did not propose a return to the society of pre- revolutionary days. Rather, they realised, from the changes initiated by Napoleon, that modernisation could in fact strengthen traditional institutions like the monarchy. It could make state’s power more effective and stronger. A modern army, an efficient bureaucracy, a dynamic economy, the abolition of feudalism and serfdom could strengthen the autocratic monarchies of Europe.

In 1815, representatives of the European powers who had collectively defeated Napoleon, met at Vienna to draw up a settlement for Europe. The Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor Duke Metternich. The delegates drew up the Treaty of Vienna of 1815 with the object of undoing most of the changes that had come about in Europe during the Napoleonic wars. The Bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed during the French Revolution, was restored to power, and France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon. A series of states
were set up on the boundaries of France to prevent French expansion in future.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 1.

Which of the following statement correctly describes about European conservative ideology?

(A) Preservation of beliefs introduced by Napoleon.
(B) Preservation of two sects of Christianity.
(C) Preservation of socialist ideology in economic sphere.
(D) Preservation of traditionalist beliefs in state and society
Answer:
(D) Preservation of traditionalist beliefs in state and society

Explanation:
Conservatism stands for the people who don’t like changes.

Question 2.

Identify the purpose to convene the Congress of Vienna in 1815 from the following options.

(A) To declare competition of German unification.
(B) To restore conservative regime in Europe.
(C) To declare war against France.
(D) To start the process of Italian Unification.
Answer:
(B) To restore conservative regime in Europe.

Explanation:
In 1815, the European powers collectively defeated Napoleon to draw up a settlement for Europe.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

Question 3.

What did conservatives focus on at the Congress of Vienna? Select the appropriate option.

(A) To reestablish peace and stability in Europe.
(B) To establish socialism in Europe.
(C) To introduce democracy in France.
(D) To set up a new Parliament in Austria.
Answer:
(A) To reestablish peace and stability in Europe.

Explanation:
The mam intention was to restore the monarchies that had been overthrown by Napoleon.

Question 4.

How did the Congress of Vienna ensure peace in Europe? Select the appropriate option.

(A) With the restoration of Bourbon Dynasty
(B) Austria was not given the control of Northern Italy
(C) Laying out a balance of power between all the great powers in Europe
(D) By giving power to the German confederation
Answer:
(C) Laying out a balance of power between all the great powers in Europe

Explanation:
A modern army, an efficient bureaucracy, a dynamic economy, the abolition of feudalism and serfdom could strengthen the autocratic monarchies of Europe.

II. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
One such individual was the Italian revolutionary, Giuseppe Mazzini. Born in Genoa in 1807, he became a member of the secret society of the Carbonari. As a young man of 24, he was sent into exile in 1831 for attempting a revolution in Liguria. He subsequently founded two more underground societies, first, Young Italy in Marseilles, and then, Young Europe in Berne, whose members were like-minded young men from Poland, France, Italy and the German states. Mazzini believed that God had intended nations to be the natural units of mankind.

So Italy could not continue to be a patchwork of small states and kingdoms. It had to be forged into a single unified republic within a wider alliance of nations. This unification alone could be the basis of Italian liberty. Following his model, secret societies were set up in Germany, France, Switzerland and Poland. Mazzini’s relentless opposition to monarchy and his vision of democratic republics frightened the conservatives. Metternich described him as ‘the most dangerous enemy of our social order’.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 1.

Where was Giuseppe Mazzini born?

(A) Berne
(B) Paris
(C) Genoa
(D) Liguria
Answer:
(C) Genoa

Question 2.

Giuseppe Mazzini was sent into exile in 1831 for attempting a revolution in.

(A) Genoa
(B) Liguria
(C) Poland
(D) Marseilles
Answer:
(B) Liguria

Question 3.

Who described Mazzini as ‘the most dangerous enemy of our social order’?

(A) Bismarck
(B) Cavour
(C) Metternich
(D) Garibaldi
Answer:
(C) Metternich

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

Question 4.

Which of the following societies was founded in Berne?

(A) Young Europe
(B) Young Germany
(C) Young Italy
(D) Young Britain
Answer:
(A) Young Europe

III. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
Like Germany, Italy too had a long history of political fragmentation. Italians were scattered over several dynastic states as well as the multi¬national Habsburg Empire. During the middle of the nineteenth century, Italy was divided into seven states, of which only one, Sardinia-Piedmont, was ruled by an Italian princely house. The north was under Austrian Habsburgs, the centre was ruled by the Pope and the southern regions were under the domination of the Bourbon kings of Spain. Even the Italian language had not acquired one common form and still had many regional and local variations.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 1.

During mid-19th century, Italy was divided into……………..states.

(A) six’
(B) seven
(C) eight
(D) nine
Answer:
(B) seven

Question 2.

Which of the following part of Italy was ruled by an Italian princely house?

(A) Rome
(B) Venetia
(C) Lombardy
(D) Sardinia-Piedmont
Answer:
(D) Sardinia-Piedmont

Question 3.

Who dominated the south regions of Italy?

(A) Pope
(B) Bourbon Kings of Spain
(C) Austrian Habsburgs
(D) Bourbon Kings of France
Answer:
(B) Bourbon Kings of Spain

Question 4.

Besides Italy, which of the following nation had a long history of political fragmentation?

(A) Germany
(B) Britain
(C) USA
(D) Japan
Answer:
(A) Germany

IV. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
Similar female allegories were invented by artists in the nineteenth century to represent the nation. In France she was christened Marianne, a popular Christian name, which underlined the idea of a people’s nation. Her characteristics were drawn from those of Liberty and the Republic – the red cap, the tricolour and the cockade. Statues of Marianne were erected in public squares to remind the public of the national symbol of unity and to persuade them to identify with it. Marianne images were marked on coins and stamps. Similarly, Germania became the allegory of the German nation. In visual representations, Germania wears a crown of oak leaves, as the German oak stands for heroism.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option

Question 1.

What was the name given to the female allegory in France?

(A) Germania
(B) Mary
(C) Flora
(D) Marianne
Answer:
(D) Marianne

Question 2.

Germania became the allegory of………….. .

(A) France
(B) Italy
(C) Germany
(D) Britain
Answer:
(C) Germany

Question 3.

What does the German oak stand for?

(A) Liberty
(B) Heroism
(C) Justice
(D) Strength
Answer:
(B) Heroism

Question 4.

…………… images marked on coins and stamps.

(A) Germania
(B) Marianne
(C) Mary
(D) Jesus
Answer:
(B) Marianne

V. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
In the German regions, a large number of political associations whose members were middle-class professionals, businessmen and prosperous artisans, came together in the city of Frankfurt and decided to vote for an all-German National Assembly. On 18 May, 1848, 831 elected representatives marched in a festive Procession to take their places in the Frankfurt Parliament convened in the Church of St Paul. They drafted a constitution for a German nation to be headed by a monarchy subject to a parliament. When the deputies offered the crown on these terms to Friedrich Wilhelm IV, King of Prussia, he rejected it and joined other monarchs to oppose the elected assembly.

While the opposition of the aristocracy and military became stronger, the social basis of parliament eroded. The Parliament was dominated by the middle classes who resisted the demands of workers and artisans and consequently lost their support. In the end, troops were called in and the assembly was forced to disband. The issue of extending political rights to women was a controversial one within the liberal movement, in which large numbers of women had participated actively over the years. Women had formed their own political associations, founded newspapers and taken part in political meetings and demonstrations. Despite this, they were denied suffrage rights during the election of the Assembly. When the Frankfurt Parliament convened in the Church of St Paul, women were admitted only as observers to stand in the visitors’ gallery.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option

Question 1.

People from which classes mainly constituted the members of many political associations in the German region?

(A) Middle-class professionals
(B) Businessmen
(C) Prosperous Artisans
(D) All above classes
Answer:
(D) All above classes

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

Question 2.

On 18th May, 1848 where was Frankfurt Parliament convened? Choose the correct option.

(A) St. Peters’ church
(B) St. Pauls’ church
(C) St. Johns’ church
(D) St. Mary church
Answer:
(B) St. Pauls’ church

Question 3.

Otto Von Bismarcks’ contribution in building nation of Germany is remarkable. Who was he?

(A) The King of Prussia
(B) The Prime Minister of Prussia
(C) The President of Prussia
(D) The Chief Minister of Prussia
Answer:
(D) The Chief Minister of Prussia

Question 4.

What was the role of women in the Church of St. Paul?

(A) They were allowed to take active part.
(B) They suggested their option.
(C) They dominated and fought for their right.
(D) They were admitted only as observers to stand in the visitors’ gallery.
Answer:
(D) They were admitted only as observers to stand in the visitors’ gallery.

VI. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
During the 1830s, Giuseppe Mazzini had sought to put together a coherent programme for a unitary Italian Republic. He had also formed a secret society called Young Italy for the dissemination of his goals. The failure of revolutionary uprisings both in 1831 and 1848 meant that the mantle now fell on Sardinia-Piedmont under its ruler, King Victor Emmanuel II, to unify the Italian states through war. In the eyes of the ruling elites of this region, a unified Italy, offered them the possibility of economic development and political dominance. Chief Minister Cavour who led the movement to unify the regions of Italy, was neither a revolutionary nor a democrat.

Like many other wealthy and educated members of the Italian elite, he spoke French much better than he did Italian. Through a tactful diplomatic alliance with France engineered by Cavour, Sardinia-Piedmont succeeded in defeating the Austrian forces in 1859. Apart from the regular troops, a large number of armed volunteers under the leadership of Giuseppe Garibaldi joined the fray. In 1860, they marched into South Italy and the Kingdom of the Two Sicilies and succeeded in winning the support of the local peasants in order to drive out the Spanish rulers. In 1861, Victor Emmanuel II was proclaimed King of united Italy. However, much of the Italian population, among whom rates of illiteracy were very high, remained blissfully unaware of liberal-nationalist ideology. The peasant masses who had supported Garibaldi in southern Italy had never heard of Italia, and believed that ‘La Talia’ was Victor Emmanuel’s wife

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option

Question 1.

Who formed a secret society called ‘Young Italy’?

(A) Giuseppe Mazzini
(B) Giuseppe Garibaldi
(C) Otto Von Bismarck
(D) Victor Emmanuel
Answer:
(A) Giuseppe Mazzini

Question 2.

Who led the movement to unify the regions of Italy?

(A) Napoleon Bonaparte
(B) Kaiser William II
(C) Chief Minister Cavour
(D) Chief Minister Otto Von Bismarck
Answer:
(C) Chief Minister Cavour

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

Question 3.

According to the extract, what was the reason for a large part of Italian population remaining unaware of the liberal ideology?

(A) They were unaware of the circumstances.
(B) They didn’t want to get involved in mess.
(C) They were busy in their lives and had no time.
(D)They were illiterate, so they remained unaware of the liberal ideology.
Answer:
(D)They were illiterate, so they remained unaware of the liberal ideology.

Question 4.

Who proclaimed himself as the king of united Italy?

(A) La Taila
(B) Giuseppe Garibaldi
(C) Sardinia
(D) Victor Emmanuel
Answer:
(D) Victor Emmanuel

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe Read More »

error: Content is protected !!